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Colorado HVAC & Mechanical Licensing Law

Colorado Code · 185 sections

The following is the full text of Colorado’s hvac & mechanical licensing law statutes as published in the Colorado Code. For the official version, see the Colorado Legislature.


C.R.S. § 10-2-801

10-2-801. Licenses - denial, suspension, revocation, termination - reporting of actions - definitions. (1) The commissioner may place an insurance producer on probation; suspend, revoke, or refuse to issue, continue, or renew an insurance producer license; order restitution to be paid from an insurance producer; or assess a civil penalty pursuant to section 10-2-804 or 10-3-1108, if, after notice to the insurance producer licensee and after a hearing held in accordance with sections 24-4-104 and 24-4-105, C.R.S., the commissioner finds that as to the licensee or applicant any one or more of the following conditions exist:

(a)  Any incorrect, misleading, incomplete, or materially untrue information in

the license application;

(b)  Any cause for which issuance of the license could have been refused had

it then existed and been known to the commissioner at the time of issuance;

(c)  Violation of, or noncompliance with, section 18-13-130, C.R.S., or any

insurance law, or violation of any lawful rule, order, or subpoena of the commissioner or of the insurance department of another state;

(d)  Obtaining or attempting to obtain any such license through

misrepresentation or fraud;

(e)  Improperly withholding, misappropriating, or converting to the licensee's

or applicant's own use any moneys or property belonging to policyholders, insurers, beneficiaries, or others received in the course of the business of insurance;

(f)  Misrepresentation of the terms of any actual or proposed insurance

contract or application for insurance;

(g) (I)  Conviction of a felony or misdemeanor involving moral turpitude.


(II)  For the purposes of this paragraph (g), moral turpitude shall include any

sexual offense against a child as defined in section 18-3-411, C.R.S.

(h)  Commission of any unfair trade practice or fraud;


(i)  The use of fraudulent, coercive, or dishonest practices or demonstrating

incompetence, untrustworthiness, or financial irresponsibility in this state or elsewhere;

(j)  Suspension, revocation, or denial of an insurance license in any other

state, province, district, or territory;

(k)  Forgery of another's name to an application for insurance or to any

document related to an insurance transaction;

(l)  Cheating on an examination, including, but not limited to, improperly using

notes or any other reference material to complete an examination for an insurance license;

(m)  Failure to fully meet the licensing requirements;


(n)  Knowingly accepting insurance business from a person who is not

licensed;

(o)  Failing to comply with an administrative or court order imposing a child

support obligation;

(p)  Failing to pay state income tax or comply with any administrative or court

order directing payment of state income tax; or

(q)  Profiting either directly or indirectly from the business of a cash-bonding

agent or professional cash-bail agent unless the person profiting is registered as a cash-bonding agent or professional cash-bail agent and the profit is derived from their own business.

(1.5)  The commissioner shall revoke the license of an insurance producer

licensee if, after notice to the insurance producer licensee and after a hearing held in accordance with sections 24-4-104 and 24-4-105, C.R.S., the commissioner finds that the licensee was convicted under section 18-5-211, C.R.S.

(2)  In the event that the action by the commissioner is to not renew or

continue or to deny an application for a license, the commissioner shall notify the applicant or licensee of the reasons for such action and advise, in writing, the applicant or licensee of the reason for the denial or nonrenewal of the applicant's or licensee's license.

(3) (a)  A producer or business entity shall report to the commissioner any

administrative action taken against the producer in another jurisdiction or by another governmental agency in this state within thirty days after the final disposition of the matter. This report shall include a copy of the order, consent to order, or other relevant legal document.

(b)  A producer shall report within thirty days after the conviction to the

commissioner if he or she is convicted under section 18-5-211, C.R.S.

(4)  Within thirty days after the initial pretrial hearing date, a producer or

business entity shall report to the commissioner any criminal prosecution of the producer in any jurisdiction. The report shall include a copy of the initial complaint, the order resulting from the hearing, and any other relevant legal documents.

(5)  If the commissioner revokes the license of an insurance producer

pursuant to this section, or if an insurance producer surrenders its license to avoid discipline by the commissioner, the insurance producer shall not be eligible to apply for a new insurance producer license for two years after the date the license is revoked or surrendered and returned to the commissioner pursuant to section 10-2-802 (1).

(6)  For the purposes of this section, restitution means benefits or moneys

owed due to the regulated entity's violation of this title.

Source: L. 93: Entire article R&RE, p. 1371, � 1, effective January 1, 1995. L.

2001: Entire section amended, p. 1210, � 33, effective January 1, 2002. L. 2008: (5) added, p. 210, � 5, effective March 26; IP(1) amended and (6) added, p. 585, � 1, effective August 5. L. 2012: (1)(c) amended and (1)(q) added, (HB 12-1266), ch. 280, p. 1501, � 17, effective July 1. L. 2014: (1.5) added and (3) amended, (SB 14-092), ch. 190, p. 710, � 2, effective July 1.

Editor's note: This section is similar to former �� 10-2-115, 10-2-116, 10-2-117,

and 10-2-212 as they existed prior to 1993.


C.R.S. § 10-4-110.8

10-4-110.8. Homeowner's insurance - prohibited and required practices - estimates of replacement value - additional living expense coverage - copies of policies - personal property contents coverage - inventory of personal property - requirements concerning total loss scenarios resulting from wildfire disasters - definitions - rules. (1) An insurer may not cancel or fail to renew coverage of an insured solely because the insured inquires about coverage for homeowner's insurance and the inquiry is not related to an actual claim to the property insured.

(2)  An insurer may only provide information regarding claims to an entity

that compiles or monitors personal claim or loss experience shared by insurers for underwriting or rating purposes.

(3)  As used in this section, unless the context otherwise requires:


(a)  Additional living expense coverage or ALE covers increased living

expenses during the time required to repair or replace damage to the policyholder's dwelling unit following an insured loss or, if the policyholder permanently relocates, the time required to move the policyholder's household to a new location.

(b)  Claim includes a demand for payment of a benefit by the insured, the

payment of a covered benefit by an insurer, a loss reserve established by the insurer, a loss adjustment expense incurred by the insurer, or a payment made to the insured.

(c)  Dwelling means a single-family home, other than a mobile home,

condominium, or manufactured home, that is used as a primary residence by the owner of the dwelling.

(d)  Extended replacement cost coverage pays a designated amount above

the policy limit to replace a damaged structure if necessary under current building conditions.

(d.7)  Inflation protection coverage means coverage that provides

automatic adjustments of the coverage amount on the dwelling or structure being insured to protect against the impact of inflation.

(e)  Inquiry means a request for information regarding the terms, conditions,

or coverages afforded under an insurance contract.

(f)  Law and ordinance coverage means coverage for increased costs of

demolition, construction, renovation, or repair associated with the enforcement of building ordinances and laws.

(g) (I)  Owner-occupied residence means a residence that is occupied

primarily for the use of the owner and the owner's designees.

(II)  Owner-occupied residence includes, but is not limited to, an owner-occupied primary residence.


(III)  Owner-occupied residence does not include any property that is

insured under a commercial insurance or agribusiness policy.

(h)  Recoverable depreciation means the difference between the cost to

replace insured property and the actual cash value of the property.

(i)  Wildfire means a rapidly spreading fire that is difficult to bring under

control in an area that includes combustible vegetation, such as trees, grass, brush, or bushes, which fire causes widespread or severe damage to property, regardless of the original source of ignition of the fire.

(4)  Every insurer issuing a policy of homeowner's insurance shall comply

with section 10-3-1104 (1)(h) and all other provisions of part 11 of article 3 of this title.

(5) (a)  In a common interest community, as defined in section 38-33.3-103

(8), C.R.S., a unit owner may file a claim against the policy of the unit owners' association to the same extent, and with the same effect, as if the unit owner were a named insured if the following conditions are met:

(I)  The unit owner has contacted the executive board or the association's

managing agent in writing, and in accordance with any applicable association policies or procedures for owner-initiated insurance claims, regarding the subject matter of the claim;

(II)  The unit owner has given the association at least fifteen days to respond

in writing, and, if so requested, has given the association's agent a reasonable opportunity to inspect the damage; and

(III)  The subject matter of the claim falls within the association's insurance

responsibilities.

(b)  The association's insurer, when determining premiums to be charged to

the association, shall not take into account any request by a unit owner for a clarification of coverage.

(6) (a) (I)  Before issuance or renewal of a replacement-cost homeowner's

insurance policy whose dwelling limit is equal to or greater than the estimated replacement cost of the residence, the insurer shall make available to an applicant the opportunity to obtain extended replacement-cost coverage and law and ordinance coverage. At a minimum, the insurer shall offer law and ordinance coverage in an amount of insurance equal to twenty percent of the limit of the insurance for the dwelling and extended replacement-cost coverage in an amount of insurance that is at least fifty percent of the limit of the insurance for the dwelling. Information provided must be accompanied by an explanation of the purpose, terms, and cost of these coverages. This subsection (6)(a) does not apply to any homeowner's insurance policy that already includes guaranteed replacement cost coverage, inflation protection coverage, extended replacement-cost coverage, or law and ordinance coverage in amounts greater than or equal to the amounts specified in this subsection (6)(a).

(II)  No later than January 1, 2025, and as prescribed by the commissioner by

rule, the insurer shall:

(A)  List on the declaration page of the policy, in bold and in twelve-point

type, whether a consumer purchased or rejected the additional coverages listed in this subsection (6)(a); and

(B)  Provide the premium cost associated with the rejected additional

coverages listed in this subsection (6)(a) in a separate notice with the application or renewal of the policy.

(b)  All homeowner's insurance replacement-cost policies for a dwelling must

include additional living expense coverage. This coverage must be available for a period of at least twelve months and is subject to other policy provisions. Insurers shall offer policyholders the opportunity to purchase a total of twenty-four months of ALE coverage and give an applicant an explanation of the purpose, terms, and cost of this coverage. This paragraph (b) does not apply to any homeowner's insurance policy that already includes at least twenty-four months of ALE coverage as a standard provision.

(7) (a)  The text of all endorsements, summary disclosure forms, and

homeowner's insurance policies must not exceed the tenth-grade reading level, as measured by the Flesch-Kincaid grade level formula, or must not score less than fifty as measured by the Flesch reading ease formula. Insurers shall revise all homeowner's insurance policies issued or renewed in Colorado on or after January 1, 2015, to comply with this subsection (7). Thereafter, all homeowner's insurance policies must comply with this subsection (7).

(b)  For the purposes of this subsection (7):


(I)  A contraction, hyphenated word, or numbers and letters, when separated

by spaces, count as one word;

(II)  A unit of words ending with a period, semicolon, or colon, but excluding

headings and captions, count as a sentence; and

(III)  A syllable means a unit of spoken language consisting of one or more

letters of a word as divided by an accepted dictionary. If the dictionary shows two or more equally acceptable pronunciations of a word, a pronunciation containing fewer syllables may be used.

(IV)  Text includes all printed matter except the following:


(A)  The name and address of the insurer; the name, number, or title of the

policy; the table of contents or index; captions and subcaptions; and specification pages, schedules, or tables; and

(B)  Any policy language that is drafted to conform to the requirements of a

federal law or regulation; any policy language required by a collectively bargained agreement; any medical terminology; any words that are defined in the policy; and any policy language required by law or regulation if the insurer identifies the language or terminology excepted and certifies in writing that the language or terminology is entitled to be excepted.

(8)  The insurer must consider the following factors as a basis for

establishing the reconstruction cost of a dwelling:

(a)  The reconstruction cost estimated from the annual report prepared

pursuant to section 10-1-144;

(b)  The reconstruction cost estimating software used and the software

estimate;

(c)  Specific reconstruction expenses, including:


(I)  Labor, building materials, and supplies;


(II)  A contractor's overhead and profit;


(III)  Demolition and debris removal;


(IV)  Cost of permits and architect's plans and fees; and


(V)  Features of the structure, including:


(A)  The foundation type;


(B)  The type of frame;


(C)  Roofing materials and type of roof;


(D)  Siding materials and type of siding;


(E)  Square footage;


(F)  Number of stories;


(G)  Any wall heights that are not standard;


(H)  Interior features and finishes, such as the heating and air conditioning

system, walls, flooring, ceiling, fireplaces, kitchen, and bathrooms;

(I)  The age of the original structure or the year of the original structure's

construction; and

(J)  The size and type of any attached garage; and


(d)  An estimate from a contractor or an architect licensed pursuant to article

120 of title 12, if submitted by the policyholder.

(9)  At renewal of a homeowner's insurance policy, the insurer shall provide

written notification to the policyholder describing changes in insurance policy language that are applicable to that renewal period.

(9.5) (a)  At application and renewal of a replacement-cost homeowner's

insurance policy for a dwelling that is issued or renewed on and after January 1, 2025, the insurer shall:

(I)  Provide the applicant or policyholder with an estimate of the cost

necessary to reconstruct the covered structure;

(II)  Disclose to the applicant or policyholder, in a form and manner prescribed

by the commissioner by rule:

(A)  How the estimate was calculated, taking into account the factors listed

in subsection (8) of this section; and

(B)  The reconstruction costs for homes as detailed in the annual report

required in section 10-1-144 for the same geographic area of the insured's home;

(III)  Provide copies of any generated estimates from any software or tools or

services used by the insurer to establish the reconstruction costs; and

(IV)  Provide the applicant or policyholder with the web address of, or a link

to, the report prepared pursuant to section 10-1-144.

(b)  An insurer otherwise subject to this subsection (9.5) does not have to

comply with the requirements of this subsection (9.5) if:

(I)  Within the two years prior to the offer of renewal of the homeowner's

insurance policy, the policyholder has requested and the insurer has provided coverage limits greater than the limits previously selected by the policyholder; or

(II)  In connection with its annual offer to renew the policy, the insurer has

offered the policyholder, on an every-other-year basis, the right to recalculate the reconstruction cost estimate, and the policy includes inflation protection coverage.

(10) (a)  A homeowner's insurance carrier shall make available to a

policyholder an electronic or paper copy of the policyholder's insurance policy, including the declaration page and any endorsements, within three business days after a request from the policyholder. The policyholder shall determine the method of delivery.

(b)  A homeowner's insurance carrier shall make available to a policyholder a

certified copy of the policyholder's insurance policy within thirty calendar days after a written request from the policyholder is received by the insurance carrier's registered agent.

(c) (I)  A homeowner's insurance carrier that fails to make available a certified

copy of an insurance policy to a requesting policyholder within thirty calendar days pursuant to subsection (10)(b) of this section is liable to the requesting policyholder for a penalty in the amount of fifty dollars per day, beginning on the thirty-first calendar day after the insurance carrier's registered agent receives the policyholder's request. The penalty accrues daily until the insurance carrier makes the certified copy of the homeowner's insurance policy available to the requesting policyholder.

(II)  A homeowner's insurance carrier that violates subsection (10)(b) of this

section is responsible for reasonable attorney fees and costs that a requesting policyholder incurs enforcing this subsection (10)(c).

(11) (a)  In the event of a total loss of the contents of an owner-occupied

primary residence that was furnished at the time of loss, the insurer shall offer the policyholder a minimum of thirty percent, or a larger percent by mutual agreement of the policyholder and insurer, of the value of the contents coverage reflected in the declaration page of the homeowner's policy without requiring submittal of a written inventory of the contents. In order to receive up to the full value of the contents coverage, the policyholder may accept the offer under this paragraph (a) and submit a written inventory as required by the insurer.

(b)  If the policyholder receives the depreciated value of contents insured

under a policy, the insurer must make available to the insured the methodology used for determining the depreciated value of the insured contents.

(c) (I)  An insurer shall allow the policyholder at least three hundred sixty-five

days after a total loss claim to submit an inventory of lost or damaged property.

(II)  An insurer shall allow the policyholder at least three hundred sixty-five

days after expiration of ALE to replace property and receive recoverable depreciation on that property.

(12) (a)  Notwithstanding any provision of a homeowner's insurance policy

that requires the policyholder to file suit against the insurer, in the case of any dispute, within a period of time that is shorter than required by the applicable statute of limitations provided by law, a homeowner may file such a suit within the period of time allowed by the applicable statute of limitations; except that this paragraph (a):

(I)  Does not revive a cause of action that, as of May 10, 2013, has already

been barred by contract; and

(II)  Applies only to a cause of action that, as of May 10, 2013, has not been

barred by contract.

(b)  On and after January 1, 2014, an insurer shall not issue or renew a

homeowner's insurance policy that requires the policyholder to file suit against the insurer, in the case of any dispute, within a period of time that is shorter than required by the applicable statute of limitations provided by law.

(13)  In offering, issuing, or renewing a homeowner's insurance policy in this

state, an insurer shall comply with the following minimum requirements concerning coverage provided under the policy to policyholders to protect them from damages that occur in the event of a total loss of an owner-occupied residence, including the contents of the owner-occupied residence, which loss occurs as a result of a wildfire disaster that the governor declares pursuant to section 24-33.5-704:

(a)  A policy of homeowner's insurance may not limit or deny a payment of the

building code upgrade cost or a payment of any extended replacement cost available under the policy coverage for a policyholder's structure that was a total loss on the basis that the policyholder decided to rebuild in a new location or to purchase an existing structure in a new location if the policy otherwise covers the replacement cost or building code upgrade cost; except that the measure of indemnity may not exceed the replacement cost, including the upgrade costs and extended replacement cost for repairing, rebuilding, or replacing the structure at the original location of the loss.

(b)  If a policy of homeowner's insurance requires a policyholder to repair,

rebuild, or replace damaged or lost property in order to collect the full replacement cost for the property, the insurer, subject to the policy limits, shall:

(I)  Allow the policyholder at least thirty-six months to submit receipts and

invoices for the replacement costs of the insured owner-occupied residence, which period begins on the date upon which the insurer provides the initial payment toward the actual cash value of the damage or loss; and

(II)  Provide that, in addition to the period described in subsection (13)(b)(I) of

this section, the policyholder has the option to twice extend such period by six months if the policyholder, acting in good faith and with reasonable diligence, encounters unavoidable delays in obtaining a construction permit, lacks necessary construction materials, lacks available contractors to perform necessary work, or encounters other circumstances beyond the policyholder's control. This subsection (13)(b)(II) does not prohibit an insurer from allowing a policyholder additional time to collect the full replacement cost for lost or damaged property or for additional living expenses.

(c)  The policy must include additional living expense coverage to apply in the

event of such a loss. Notwithstanding subsection (6)(b) of this section, additional living expense coverage must be available for a period of at least twenty-four months, and the insurer shall offer the policyholder the opportunity to twice extend such period by six months if the policyholder, acting in good faith and with reasonable diligence, encounters a delay or delays in receiving necessary permit approvals for, or reconstruction of, the insured owner-occupied residence, which delays are beyond the control of the policyholder.

(d)  The policy must provide that, notwithstanding subsection (11)(c) of this

section, to replace personal property and receive recoverable depreciation on that property, an insurer shall allow the policyholder the greater of:

(I)  At least three hundred sixty-five days after the expiration of ALE; or


(II)  Thirty-six months after the insurer provides the policyholder the first

payment toward the actual cash value of such loss.

(e)  The policy must provide that the insurer will pay the policyholder for the

loss of use of the insured property within twenty days after the insurer receives documentation of such loss, which documentation may include a signed lease that obligates the policyholder to pay for temporary replacement housing; except that:

(I)  If a policyholder provides a signed lease as documentation, the insurer

may pay the policyholder in monthly or other increments, in accordance with the terms of the lease; and

(II)  Alternatively, an insurer may provide advance rent payments for housing

for the policyholder, family members, livestock, and pets, as necessary.

(f)  The policy must provide that the policyholder may either:


(I)  Replace the insured owner-occupied residence at the current location or

another location, in either of which case the calculation of the replacement cost of the insured owner-occupied residence shall not include consideration of the value of the land upon which the replacement residence is located; or

(II)  Use the proceeds from the policy to purchase an existing residence at a

new location, in which case the calculation of the replacement cost of the insured owner-occupied residence shall not include consideration of the value of the land upon which the existing residence is located.

(g)  The policy must allow a policyholder to use claims payments resulting

from coverage against the loss of outbuildings, dwelling extensions, and other structures to pay the costs of a replacement residence if the coverage limit that applies to the policyholder's owner-occupied residence is insufficient to pay for rebuilding or replacing the owner-occupied residence. Any claims payments for losses pursuant to this subsection (13)(g) for which replacement cost coverage is applicable shall be for the full replacement value of the loss without requiring actual replacement of the other structures. Claims payments for other structures in excess of the amount applied toward the necessary cost to rebuild or replace the damaged or destroyed dwelling shall be paid according to the terms of the policy.

(h)  Within a reasonable amount of time after receiving a claim under an

issued policy, an insurer shall provide to the policyholder:

(I)  Appropriate contact information that allows for direct contact with either

an employee of the insurer or a representative who is capable of elevating complaints or inquiries to an employee of the insurer;

(II)  At least one means of communication during regular business hours; and


(III)  A written status report if, within a six-month period, the policyholder is

assigned a third or subsequent adjuster to be primarily responsible for a claim. The written status report must include a summary of any decisions or actions that are substantially related to the disposition of a claim, including the amount of losses to structures or contents, the retention or consultation of design or construction professionals, the amount of coverage for losses to structures or contents, and all items of dispute.

(14)  If a homeowner's insurance policyholder experiences a total loss of the

contents of an owner-occupied residence that was documented as being furnished at the time of loss as a result of a wildfire disaster that is declared by the governor pursuant to section 24-33.5-704, the insurer shall:

(a)  Notwithstanding subsection (11)(a) of this section, offer the policyholder a

minimum of sixty-five percent, or a larger percent by mutual agreement of the policyholder and insurer, of the limit of the contents coverage indicated in the declaration page of the policy without requiring the policyholder to submit a written inventory of the contents;

(b)  Notify the policyholder that:


(I)  Acceptance of the money described in subsection (14)(a) of this section

does not change the benefits available under the policy;

(II)  Additional money may be available if the policyholder submits an

inventory; and

(III)  The insurer is required, pursuant to subsection (11)(b) of this section, to

disclose its methodology for determining the depreciated value of the contents of insured property;

(c) (I)  If the policyholder submits an inventory of personal property losses in

an amount that exceeds the amount paid to the policyholder pursuant to subsection (14)(a) of this section:

(A)  Request any additional information concerning the inventory no later

than thirty days after receiving the inventory; and

(B)  Provide payment for any covered and undisputed items within thirty days

after receiving the inventory.

(II)  The commissioner shall adopt rules to simplify the process for

policyholders to submit an inventory for personal property losses and expedite reimbursement for such losses.

(d)  Provide payment for covered costs associated with the removal of debris

within sixty days after receiving an invoice, receipt, or other documentation indicating the date and cost of the removal of the debris; except that, in cases where debris removal is conducted by, or in coordination with, governmental entities, payment for covered costs for removal of debris will be provided within a reasonable amount of time; and

(e)  Provide payment for any covered loss of trees, shrubs, and landscaping

within thirty days after the insurer receives documentation of such loss, such as documentation from a reputable landscaping company, showing the number and nature of trees, shrubs, and landscaping features damaged or destroyed.

(15)  The commissioner may adopt rules as necessary to implement this

section, including rules regarding:

(a)  The information that insurers must consider in estimating reconstruction

costs;

(b)  The use of reconstructing cost estimator tools and services; and


(c)  The requirements to provide information in the summary disclosure form

to consumers that explains replacement cost coverage, actual cash value coverage, and the ability of consumers to purchase affordable coverage.

(16) (a)  An insurer shall not refuse to issue, cancel, refuse to renew, or

increase a premium or rate for a homeowner's insurance policy, a dwelling fire insurance policy, a commercial policy for multifamily units, or a policy to cover the contents of a structure used for a residence and occupied by an owner or renter based on the breed or mixture of breeds of a dog that is kept at the dwelling, multifamily unit, or structure used as a residence.

(b)  This subsection (16) does not prohibit an insurer from refusing to issue,

canceling, refusing to renew, or imposing a reasonable increase to a premium or rate for a homeowner's insurance policy, a dwelling fire insurance policy, a commercial policy for multifamily units, or a policy to cover the contents of a structure used for a residence and occupied by an owner or renter based on sound underwriting and actuarial principles on the basis that a particular dog kept at the dwelling, multifamily unit, or structure used as a residence is known to be dangerous or has been declared to be dangerous in accordance with section 18-9-204.5.

(c)  An insurer may not ask or otherwise inquire about the specific breed or

mixture of breeds of a dog that is kept at the dwelling except to ask if the dog is known to be dangerous or has been declared to be dangerous in accordance with section 18-9-204.5.

(d)  As used in this subsection (16), dwelling includes a dwelling unit as

defined in section 38-12-502 (3).

Source: L. 2004: Entire section added, p. 1972, � 3, effective August 4; entire

section added, p. 1981, � 2, effective January 1, 2005. L. 2005: (3) and (4) amended and (5) added, p. 1390, � 20, effective January 1, 2006. L. 2006: (5) amended, p. 1226, � 16, effective May 26. L. 2013: (12) added, (HB 13-1225), ch. 183, p. 672, � 2, effective May 10; (3) amended and (6) to (11) added, (HB 13-1225), ch. 183, p. 672, � 2, effective January 1, 2014. L. 2022: IP(3) and (3)(g) amended and (3)(h), (3)(i), (13), (14), and (15) added, (HB 22-1111), ch. 305, p. 2204, � 1, effective August 10. L. 2023: (3)(d.7) and (9.5) added and (6)(a) and (15) amended, (HB 23-1174), ch. 168, p. 820, � 3, effective August 7; (16) added, (HB 23-1068), ch. 416, p. 2463, � 2, effective January 1, 2024; (8) amended, (HB 23-1174), ch. 168, p. 820, � 3, effective January 1, 2025. L. 2025: (10) amended, (HB 25-1322), ch. 406, p. 2315, � 1, effective August 6; (16)(a) and (16)(b) amended, (HB 25-1207), ch. 224, p. 1025, � 1, effective August 6.

Editor's note: (1)  Section 2(2) of chapter 406 (HB 25-1322), Session Laws of

Colorado 2025, provides that the act changing this section applies to requests made on or after August 6, 2025.

(2)  Section 3(2) of chapter 224 (HB 25-1207), Session Laws of Colorado

2025, provides that section 1 of the act changing this section applies to insurance policies issued or renewed on or after August 6, 2025.

Cross references: (1)  In 2013, subsection (3) was amended and subsections

(6) to (12) were added by the Homeowner's Insurance Reform Act of 2013. For the short title, see section 1 of chapter 183, Session Laws of Colorado 2013.

(2)  For the legislative declaration in HB 23-1068, see section 1 of chapter

416, Session Laws of Colorado 2023.


C.R.S. § 12-10-901

12-10-901. Definitions. As used in this part 9, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1)  Gas-fueled appliance means a furnace, HVAC system, boiler, water

heater, oven, stove, or dryer that directly combusts a gaseous or liquid fuel to provide services within a home.

(2)  Heat pump means an electrical device that uses a refrigeration cycle to:


(a)  Heat the internal space of a structure by transferring thermal energy

from outside of the structure to inside the structure; or

(b)  Cool the internal space of a structure by transferring thermal energy

from the inside of the structure to the outside of the structure.

(3)  Home warranty service company or company means any person that

undertakes a contractual obligation on a new or preowned home through a home warranty service contract.

(4) (a)  Home warranty service contract means any contract or agreement

whereby a person undertakes for a predetermined fee, with respect to a specified period of time, to maintain, repair, or replace any or all of the following elements of a specified new or preowned home:

(I)  Structural components, such as the roof, foundation, basement, walls,

ceilings, or floors;

(II)  Utility systems, such as electrical, air conditioning, plumbing, HVAC, and

heating systems, including furnaces; and

(III)  Appliances, such as stoves, washers, dryers, and dishwashers.


(b)  Home warranty service contract does not include:


(I)  Any contract or agreement whereby a public utility undertakes for a

predetermined fee, with respect to a specified period of time, to repair or replace any or all of the elements of a specified new or preowned home as specified in subsection (4)(a)(II) or (4)(a)(III) of this section; or

(II)  A builder's warranty provided in connection with the sale of a new home.


(5)  HVAC system means a heating, ventilation, and air conditioning system.


(6)  Person includes an individual, company, corporation, association, agent,

and every other legal entity.

(7)  Preowned means any of the following that is occupied as a residence

and not owned by the builder-developer or first occupant:

(a)  A single-family residence;


(b)  A residential unit in a multiple-dwelling structure; or


(c)  A mobile home on a foundation.


Source: L. 2019: Entire title R&RE with relocations, (HB 19-1172), ch. 136, p.

715, � 1, effective October 1. L. 2023: Entire section amended, (HB 23-1134), ch. 43, p. 165, � 2, effective August 7.

Editor's note: This section is similar to former � 12-61-602 as it existed prior

to 2019.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in HB 23-1134, see section 1

of chapter 43, Session Laws of Colorado 2023.


C.R.S. § 12-10-903

12-10-903. Contract requirements. (1) Every home warranty service contract shall contain the following information:

(a)  A specific listing of all items or elements excluded from coverage;


(b)  A specific listing of all other limitations in coverage, including the

exclusion of preexisting conditions if applicable;

(c)  The procedure that is required to be followed in order to obtain repairs or

replacements;

(d)  A statement as to the time period, following notification to the company,

within which the requested repairs will be made or replacements will be provided;

(e)  The specific duration of the home warranty service contract, including an

exact termination date that is not contingent upon an unspecified future closing date or other indefinite event;

(f)  A statement as to whether the home warranty service contract is

transferable;

(g)  A statement that actions under a home warranty service contract may be

covered by the provisions of the Colorado Consumer Protection Act or the Unfair Practices Act, articles 1 and 2 of title 6, and that a party to such a contract may have a right of civil action under those laws, including obtaining the recourse or penalties specified in those laws.

(2) (a)  A home warranty service contract issued or renewed in this state on or

after July 1, 2024, that provides coverage for the replacement of a gas-fueled appliance must include terms:

(I)  Allowing the homeowner the option to replace the gas-fueled appliance

with a similar device of the homeowner's choosing that operates on electricity rather than gas. A home warranty service contract may require a homeowner to pay any additional cost to replace a gas-fueled appliance with an appliance that has a cost that exceeds the cost of replacing the gas-fueled appliance with another gas-fueled appliance under the terms of the home warranty service contract; except that any additional cost to the homeowner for the replacement electric appliance, excluding any installation or other associated costs, must not exceed the retail cost of the replacement electric appliance minus the retail cost of a replacement gas-fueled appliance.

(II)  Providing that the home warranty service company is required to provide

a replacement appliance that satisfies the efficiency requirements set forth in article 7.5 of title 6 and any other state law.

(b) (I)  In the case of replacement of a gas-fueled furnace, HVAC system,

boiler, or water heater, a home warranty service contract must include terms that allow the homeowner to replace the furnace, HVAC system, boiler, or water heater with a heat pump-based system.

(II)  In the case of replacement of a gas-fueled stove, a home warranty

service contract must include terms that allow the homeowner to replace the gas-fueled stove with either an electric stove or an induction stove, at the homeowner's discretion.

Source: L. 2019: Entire title R&RE with relocations, (HB 19-1172), ch. 136, p.

716, � 1, effective October 1. L. 2023: (2) added, (HB 23-1134), ch. 43, p. 166, � 3, effective August 7.

Editor's note: This section is similar to former � 12-61-611.5 as it existed prior

to 2019.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in HB 23-1134, see section 1

of chapter 43, Session Laws of Colorado 2023.


C.R.S. § 12-115-103

12-115-103. Definitions. As used in this article 115, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1)  Apprentice means a person who is required to be registered as such

under section 12-115-115 (3)(a), who is in compliance with the provisions of this article 115, and who is working at the trade in the employment of a registered electrical contractor and is under the direct supervision of a licensed master electrician, journeyman electrician, or residential wireman.

(2)  Board means the state electrical board created in section 12-115-104.


(2.5)  Direct supervision means that the supervising licensed master

electrician, journeyman electrician, residential wireman, or photovoltaic installer is physically present at the same physical address where the apprentice is working.

(3)  Electric light, heat, and power means the standard types of electricity

that are regulated in accordance with the national electrical code, excluding chapter 8, communications systems.

(4)  Electrical contractor means any person, firm, copartnership,

corporation, association, or combination thereof that undertakes or offers to undertake for another the planning, laying out, supervising, and installing or the making of additions, alterations, and repairs in the installation of wiring apparatus and equipment for electric light, heat, and power. A licensed professional engineer who plans or designs electrical installation shall not be classed as an electrical contractor.

(5)  Electrical work means wiring for, installing, and repairing electrical

apparatus and equipment for electric light, heat, and power.

(6)  Journeyman electrician means a person having the necessary

qualifications, training, experience, and technical knowledge to wire for, install, and repair electrical apparatus and equipment for electric light, heat, and power, and for other purposes, in accordance with standard rules governing the work.

(7)  Master electrician means a person having the necessary qualifications,

training, experience, and technical knowledge to properly plan, lay out, and supervise the installation and repair of wiring apparatus and equipment for electric light, heat, and power, and for other purposes, in accordance with standard rules governing the work, such as the national electrical code.

(7.5)  NABCEP means the North American Board of Certified Energy

Practitioners.

(7.7)  NABCEP PV installation professional means an individual who is

certified by the NABCEP to install photovoltaic systems.

(8)  National electrical code means the code for the safe installation of

electrical wiring and equipment, as amended, published by the National Fire Protection Association and approved by the American National Standards Institute, or successor organizations.

(9)  Permanent state highway tunnel facilities means all permanent state

highway tunnels, shafts, ventilation systems, and structures and includes all structures, materials, and equipment appurtenant to the facilities. The term includes all electrical equipment, materials, and systems to be constructed, furnished, and installed as part of the final construction features specified by the applicable contract plans and specifications or by the national electrical code. For the purposes of this article 115 and article 20 of title 34, permanent state highway tunnel facilities shall be deemed to be mines during the construction of the facilities.

(9.3)  Photovoltaic installer has the meaning set forth in section 40-2-128

(2)(a.5).

(9.5)  PV installation training means training concerning photovoltaic

systems installation practices described in the PV Installation Professional Job Task Analysis document published by the NABCEP.

(10)  Qualified state institution of higher education means:


(a)  One of the state institutions of higher education established under,

specified in, and located upon the campuses described in sections 23-20-101 (1)(a) and 23-31-101, limited to the buildings owned or leased by those institutions on the campuses;

(b)  The institution whose campus is established under and specified in

section 23-20-101 (1)(b), but limited to the buildings located in Denver at 1380 Lawrence street, 1250 Fourteenth street, and 1475 Lawrence street; and

(c)  The institution whose campus is established under and specified in

section 23-20-101 (1)(d), but limited to current and future buildings owned, leased, or built on land owned on or before January 1, 2015, by the university of Colorado on the campus described in section 23-20-101 (1)(d).

(11)  Residential wireman means a person having the necessary

qualifications, training, experience, and technical knowledge to wire for, and install, electrical apparatus and equipment for wiring one-, two-, three-, and four-family dwellings.

(12)  Supervision means the management of a project to ensure that work

on the project is done correctly and according to the law.

(13)  Tiny home has the meaning set forth in section 24-32-3302 (35).


Source: L. 2019: Entire title R&RE with relocations, (HB 19-1172), ch. 136, p.

843, � 1, effective October 1; (2.5) and (12) added and (3) amended, (SB 19-156), ch. 346, p. 3203, � 10, effective October 1. L. 2022: (13) added, (HB 22-1242), ch. 172, p. 1136, � 27, effective August 10. L. 2025: (2.5) and (3) amended and (7.5), (7.7), (9.3), and (9.5) added, (SB 25-165), ch. 370, p. 1996, � 1, effective August 6.

Editor's note: (1)  This section is similar to former � 12-23-101 as it existed

prior to 2019.

(2)  Before its relocation in 2019, this section was amended in SB 19-156.

Those amendments were superseded by the repeal and reenactment of this title 12, effective October 1, 2019. For those amendments to the former section in effect from July 1, 2019, to October 1, 2019, see SB 19-156, chapter 346, Session Laws of Colorado 2019.


C.R.S. § 12-120-403

12-120-403. Exemptions - definitions. (1) Nothing in this part 4 shall prevent any person, firm, corporation, or association from preparing plans and specifications for, designing, planning, or administering the construction contracts for construction, alterations, remodeling, additions to, or repair of, any of the following:

(a)  One-, two-, three-, and four-family dwellings, including accessory

buildings commonly associated with those dwellings;

(b)  Garages, industrial buildings, offices, farm buildings, and buildings for

the marketing, storage, or processing of farm products, and warehouses, that do not exceed one story in height, exclusive of a one-story basement, and, under applicable building codes, are not designed for occupancy by more than ten persons;

(c)  Additions, alterations, or repairs to the buildings referred to in

subsections (1)(a) and (1)(b) of this section that do not cause the completed buildings to exceed the applicable limitations set forth in this subsection (1);

(d)  Nonstructural alterations of any nature to any building if the alterations

do not affect the life safety of the occupants of the building.

(2)  Nothing in this part 4 shall prevent, prohibit, or limit any municipality or

county of this state, home rule or otherwise, from adopting such building codes as may, in the reasonable exercise of the police power of said governmental unit, be necessary for the protection of the inhabitants of the municipality or county.

(3)  Nothing in this part 4 shall be construed as curtailing or extending the

rights of any other profession or craft, including the practice of landscape architecture by landscape architects pursuant to article 130 of this title 12.

(4)  Nothing in this part 4 shall be construed as prohibiting the practice of

architecture by any employee of the United States government or any bureau, division, or agency of the United States government while in the discharge of the employee's official duties.

(5)  Nothing in this part 4 shall be construed to prevent the independent

employment of a licensed professional engineer practicing pursuant to part 2 of this article 120.

(6) (a)  Except as provided in subsection (6)(b) of this section, nothing in this

part 4 prevents an interior designer from preparing interior design documents and specifications for interior finishes and nonstructural elements within and surrounding interior spaces of a building or structure of any size, height, and occupancy and filing the documents and specifications for the purpose of obtaining approval for a building permit as provided by law from the appropriate city, city and county, or regional building authority, which city, city and county, or regional building authority may approve the filing in the same manner as for other professions and may only reject the filing for a reason provided in law, which reason may be based on a local government's ordinance, resolution, or building code adoption policy.

(b) (I)  Interior designers shall not be engaged in the construction of:


(A)  The structural frame system supporting a building;


(B)  Mechanical, plumbing, heating, air conditioning, ventilation, or electrical

vertical transportation systems;

(C)  Fire-rated vertical shafts in any multistory structure;


(D)  Fire-related protection of structural elements;


(E)  Smoke evacuation and compartmentalization;


(F)  Emergency sprinkler systems;


(G)  Emergency alarm systems; or


(H)  Any other alteration affecting the life safety of the occupants of a

building outside the content of the interior design documents and specifications listed in subsection (6)(a) of this section.

(II)  An interior designer shall, as a condition of filing interior design

documents and specifications for the purpose of obtaining approval for a building permit, provide to the responsible building official of the jurisdiction proof of the interior designer's professional liability insurance coverage that is in force. An interior designer is not subject to any of the restrictions set forth in subsections (1)(b) and (1)(d) of this section.

(c)  As used in this subsection (6), interior designer means a person who:


(I)  Engages in:


(A)  Consultation, study, design analysis, drawing, space planning, and

specification for nonstructural or nonseismic interior construction with due concern for the life safety of the occupants of the building;

(B)  Preparing and submitting interior design documents for the purpose of

obtaining approval for a building permit as provided by law for nonstructural or nonseismic interior construction, materials, finishes, space planning, furnishings, fixtures, equipment, lighting, and reflected ceiling plans;

(C)  Designing for fabrication nonstructural elements within and surrounding

interior spaces of buildings; or

(D)  The administration of design construction and contract documents, as

the clients' agent, relating to the functions described in subsections (6)(c)(I)(A) to (6)(c)(I)(C) of this section, and collaboration with specialty consultants and licensed practitioners in other areas of technical expertise; and

(II)  Possesses written documentation that the interior designer:


(A) and (B)  (Deleted by amendment, L. 2020.)


(C)  Has met the education and experience requirements of, and has

subsequently passed, the qualification examination promulgated by the Council for Interior Design Qualification or its successor organization; and

(D)  Maintains active certification with the Council for Interior Design

Qualification or its successor organization.

(d)  As used in this subsection (6), nonstructural or nonseismic includes

interior elements or components that are not load bearing, do not assist in the seismic design, and do not require structural computations for a building. Common nonstructural or nonseismic elements or components include ceiling and partition systems that employ normal and typical bracing conventions and are not part of the structural integrity of the building.

(7)  Nothing in this article 120 shall prohibit a person who is licensed to

practice architecture in another jurisdiction of the United States from soliciting work in Colorado. The person shall not perform the practice of architecture in this state without first having obtained a license from the board or having associated with an architect licensed in this state who is associated with the project at all stages of the project.

(8)  Nothing in this section authorizes an individual, including an individual

authorized to engage in conduct under subsection (6) of this section, to engage in the practice of architecture, engineering, or any other occupation regulated under the laws of this state or to prepare, sign, or seal plans with respect to such practice or in connection with any governmental permit unless the individual is licensed or otherwise permitted by law to so act.

Source: L. 2019: Entire title R&RE with relocations, (HB 19-1172), ch. 136, p.

907, � 1, effective October 1. L. 2020: (6)(a), (6)(b), (6)(c)(II), and (6)(d) amended and (8) added, (HB 20-1165), ch. 102, p. 391, � 1, effective September 14. L. 2024: (4) amended, (HB 24-1329), ch. 342, p. 2317, � 21, effective August 7.

Editor's note: This section is similar to former � 12-25-303 as it existed prior

to 2019.


C.R.S. § 12-135-106

12-135-106. Care of bodies required - public health. A funeral establishment shall embalm, refrigerate, cremate, bury, or entomb human remains within twenty-four hours after taking custody of the remains.

Source: L. 2019: Entire title R&RE with relocations, (HB 19-1172), ch. 136, p.

944, � 1, effective October 1.

Editor's note: This section is similar to former � 12-54-105 as it existed prior

to 2019.


C.R.S. § 12-135-109

12-135-109. Exceptions - safe harbor. (1) This part 1 shall not apply to, or in any way interfere with, the duties of the following persons:

(a)  An officer of a public institution;


(b)  An officer of a medical college, county medical society, anatomical

association, or college of embalming; or

(c)  A person acting under the authority of part 3 of article 19 of title 15.


(2) (a)  This part 1 does not apply to, nor in any way interfere with, any custom

or rite of any religious sect in the final disposition of its dead, and the members and followers of the religious sect may continue to provide memorial services for, care for, prepare, and provide for the final disposition of the bodies of deceased members of the religious sect, free from any term, condition, or provision of this part 1, and are not subject to this part 1, so long as the human remains are refrigerated, frozen, embalmed, interred, or cremated within seven days after death or the process of natural reduction is begun within seven days after death.

(b)  If human remains are refrigerated or embalmed under subsection (2)(a) of

this section, the body must be interred within, frozen within, or cremated within thirty days after death or the process of natural reduction must begin within thirty days after death; except that the coroner may authorize otherwise in writing. The coroner shall not permit an exception to this subsection (2)(b) unless the applicant can demonstrate a legitimate delay caused by unforeseen uncontrollable circumstances or by a criminal investigation.

(c)  Notwithstanding this subsection (2), upon the receipt of evidence that the

human remains likely contained a serious contagious disease, the state department of public health and environment, the state board of health, or a local department of health may issue an order overruling this subsection (2).

(3)  A person who sells or offers to sell caskets, urns, or other funeral goods,

but does not provide funeral services, shall not be subject to this article 135.

(4)  If a funeral director, mortuary science practitioner, or embalmer has

acted in good faith, the funeral director, mortuary science practitioner, or embalmer may rely on a signed statement from a person with the right of final disposition under section 15-19-106 that:

(a)  The person knows of no document expressing the deceased's wishes for

final disposition that qualifies to direct the final disposition under section 15-19-104;

(b)  The person has made a reasonable effort under section 15-19-106 to

contact each person with the right of final disposition and to learn each person's wishes; and

(c)  The person knows of no objections to the final disposition.


(5) (a) (I)  A funeral establishment, funeral director, or mortuary science

practitioner may dispose of cremated or naturally reduced remains at the expense of the person with the right of final disposition one hundred eighty days after cremation or natural reduction if the person was given clear prior notice of this subsection (5)(a) and a reasonable opportunity to collect the remains, the exact location of the final disposition and the costs associated with the final disposition are recorded, and the recovery of the remains is possible. Recovery of costs is limited to a reasonable amount of the costs actually expended by the funeral establishment, funeral director, or mortuary science practitioner.

(II)  A funeral establishment, funeral director, or mortuary science

practitioner may comply with this subsection (5)(a) by transferring the cremated or naturally reduced remains and the records showing the funeral establishment and the deceased's name, date of birth, and next of kin for final disposition to a facility or place normally used for final disposition if the new custodian can comply with this subsection (5)(a).

(III)  If cremated remains are not claimed by the person with the right of final

disposition within three years after cremation, a funeral establishment, funeral director, or mortuary science practitioner may dispose of the remains in an unrecoverable manner by placing the remains in an ossuary or by scattering the remains in a dedicated cemetery, scattering garden, or consecrated ground used exclusively for these purposes.

(IV)  The custodian is not liable for the loss or destruction of records required

to be kept by this subsection (5)(a) if the loss or destruction was not caused by the custodian's negligence.

(V)  If naturally reduced remains are not claimed by the person with the right

of final disposition within one hundred eighty days after natural reduction, a funeral establishment, funeral director, or mortuary science practitioner may dispose of the remains in an unrecoverable manner by returning the remains to the earth in a respectful manner.

(b)  If the person was cremated prior to July 1, 2003, and the funeral director

or mortuary science practitioner reasonably attempts to notify the person with the right of final disposition of the provisions of this subsection (5), the cremated remains may be disposed of in accordance with this subsection (5) notwithstanding a failure to provide the notice of the provisions of this subsection (5) to the person with the right of final disposition prior to disposing of the remains.

(6)  This part 1 does not apply to or interfere with cryonic preservation of

human remains if done pursuant to rule.

Source: L. 2019: Entire title R&RE with relocations, (HB 19-1172), ch. 136, p.

945, � 1, effective October 1. L. 2021: (2)(a), (2)(b), (5)(a)(I), and (5)(a)(II) amended and (5)(a)(V) added, (SB 21-006), ch. 123, p. 491, � 9, effective September 7. L. 2024: (4)(b) amended and (6) added, (HB 24-1335), ch. 242, p. 1601, � 11, effective May 24.

Editor's note: This section is similar to former � 12-54-108 as it existed prior

to 2019.


C.R.S. § 12-135-110

12-135-110. Registration required. (1) Unless practicing at a registered funeral establishment pursuant to this section, a person shall not practice as, or offer the services of, a mortuary science practitioner, funeral director, or embalmer, nor shall the funeral establishment sell or offer to sell funeral goods and services to the public.

(2) (a)  Each funeral establishment shall register with the director using

forms as determined by the director. The registration shall include the following:

(I)  The specific location of the funeral establishment;


(II)  The full name and address of the designee appointed pursuant to

subsection (3) of this section;

(III)  The date the funeral establishment began doing business; and


(IV)  A list of each of the following services provided at each funeral

establishment location:

(A)  Refrigerating or holding human remains;


(B)  Embalming human remains;


(C)  Transporting human remains to or from the funeral establishment or the

place of final disposition;

(D)  Providing funeral goods or services to the public; and


(E)  Selling preneed contracts.


(b)  Each funeral establishment registration shall be renewed, according to a

schedule established by the director in accordance with section 12-20-202 (1), in a form as determined by the director. At the time of renewal, each funeral establishment shall attest to whether the funeral establishment sells preneed contracts. The director shall enter into a memorandum of understanding with the commissioner of insurance to share information regarding funeral establishments that sell preneed contracts.

(c)  If, after initial registration, the funeral establishment provides a service

listed in subsection (2)(a)(IV) of this section that was not included in the initial registration, the funeral establishment shall submit an amended registration within thirty days after beginning to provide the new service.

(d)  If, after initial registration, the funeral establishment appoints a new

designee, the funeral establishment shall submit an amended registration within thirty days after appointing the designee.

(e)  Registrations issued pursuant to this part 1 are subject to the expiration,

reinstatement, and delinquency fee provisions specified in section 12-20-202 (1) and (2).

(3)  Each funeral establishment shall appoint an individual as the designee of

the funeral establishment. A designee must:

(a)  Be at least eighteen years of age;


(b)  Have at least two years' experience working for a funeral establishment;


(c)  Be employed by the registered funeral establishment that the designee

represents;

(d)  Have the authority within the funeral establishment's organization to

require that personnel comply with this article 135;

(e)  Not be designated for more than one funeral establishment; and


(f) (I)  On or after January 1, 2027, be licensed as a funeral director pursuant

to section 12-135-501 and part 6 of this article 135; or

(II)  On or after January 1, 2027, be licensed as a mortuary science practitioner

pursuant to section 12-135-501 and part 7 of this article 135.

(4)  The designee shall require each person employed at the funeral

establishment to demonstrate evidence of compliance with parts 5 to 9 of this article 135, as applicable. The designee shall retain the records of the evidence of compliance so long as the person is employed at the funeral establishment.

(5)  This section shall not require the registration of a nonprofit organization

that only provides education or support to an individual who intends to provide for final disposition of human remains.

Source: L. 2019: Entire title R&RE with relocations, (HB 19-1172), ch. 136, p.

946, � 1, effective October 1. L. 2022: (2)(b) amended, (HB 22-1228), ch. 309, p. 2224, � 5, effective August 10. L. 2024: IP(3), (3)(d), (3)(e), and (4) amended and (3)(f) added, (SB 24-173), ch. 240, p. 1588, � 6, effective May 24.

Editor's note: (1)  This section is similar to former � 12-54-110 as it existed

prior to 2019.

(2)  This section is repealed, effective September 1, 2029, pursuant to � 12-135-406.

C.R.S. § 12-135-112

12-135-112. Standards of practice - embalming - transporting. (1) A funeral establishment that performs embalming shall:

(a)  Repealed.


(b)  Employ universal biological hazard precautions;


(c)  Employ reasonable care to minimize the risk of transmitting

communicable diseases from human remains;

(d)  Be equipped with instruments and supplies necessary to protect the

health and safety of the public and employees of the funeral establishment; and

(e)  Transport human remains in a safe and sanitary manner.


(2)  A funeral establishment that transports human remains shall:


(a)  Use a motor vehicle that is appropriate for the transportation of human

remains; and

(b)  Transport human remains in a safe and sanitary manner.


(3)  A funeral establishment shall remove any implanted device in human

remains before transporting the body to a crematory.

(4)  A funeral establishment shall maintain a sanitary preparation room with

sanitary flooring, drainage, ventilation, and refrigeration and other equipment necessary to maintain sanitary conditions.

Source: L. 2019: Entire title R&RE with relocations, (HB 19-1172), ch. 136, p.

949, � 1, effective October 1. L. 2024: (1)(a) repealed and (4) added, (HB 24-1335), ch. 242, p. 1601, � 12, effective May 24.

Editor's note: This section is similar to former � 12-54-112 as it existed prior

to 2019.


C.R.S. § 12-135-113

12-135-113. Custody and responsibility - rules. (1) A funeral establishment shall not, through its managers, employees, contractors, or agents, take custody of human remains without an attestation of positive identification on a form promulgated by the director by rule by:

(a)  The next of kin;


(b)  The county coroner or the county coroner's designee; or


(c)  An authorized person at the care facility where the deceased died.


(2)  A funeral establishment is responsible for identifying and tracking human

remains from the time it takes custody of human remains until the:

(a)  Final disposition has occurred or the remains are returned to the person

who has the right of final disposition;

(b)  Human remains are released in accordance with the instructions given by

the person who has the right of final disposition; or

(c)  Remains are released to another funeral establishment, crematory,

repository, or entity as authorized by the person who has the right of final disposition.

(3)  The director shall adopt rules implementing this section that:


(a)  Establish what constitutes custody;


(b)  Define care facility, repository, and entity;


(c)  Establish who is authorized to identify human remains at a care facility

for a funeral establishment; and

(d)  Prescribe the minimum standards for the positive identification and chain

of custody of human remains. A funeral establishment may use the establishment's own procedures if the procedures meet or exceed the minimum standards of the rule promulgated by the director.

(4)  A funeral establishment shall not take custody of more human remains

than the funeral establishment has capacity to refrigerate unless the funeral establishment maintains custody of the human remains for less than twenty-four hours.

Source: L. 2019: Entire title R&RE with relocations, (HB 19-1172), ch. 136, p.

949, � 1, effective October 1. L. 2024: (4) added, (HB 24-1335), ch. 242, p. 1601, � 13, effective May 24.

Editor's note: This section is similar to former � 12-54-113 as it existed prior

to 2019.


C.R.S. § 12-135-302

12-135-302. Exceptions - safe harbor. (1) If a crematory has acted in good faith, the crematory may rely on a signed statement from a person with the right of final disposition under section 15-19-106 that:

(a)  The person knows of no document expressing the deceased person's

wishes for final disposition that qualifies to direct the final disposition under section 15-19-104;

(b)  The person has made a reasonable effort under section 15-19-106 to

contact each person with the right of final disposition and to learn each person's wishes; and

(c)  The person knows of no objections to the final disposition.


(2) (a) (I)  A crematory may dispose of cremains at the expense of the person

with the right of final disposition one hundred eighty days after cremation if the person was given clear prior notice of this subsection (2)(a) and a reasonable opportunity to collect the cremains, the exact location of the final disposition and the costs associated with the final disposition are recorded, and the recovery of the cremains is possible. Recovery of costs is limited to a reasonable amount of the costs actually expended by the crematory.

(II)  A crematory may comply with this subsection (2)(a) by transferring the

cremated remains and the records showing the funeral establishment and the deceased's name, date of birth, and next of kin for final disposition to a facility or place normally used for final disposition if the new custodian can comply with this subsection (2)(a).

(III)  If cremated remains are not claimed by the person with the right of final

disposition within three years after cremation, a crematory may dispose of the remains in an unrecoverable manner by placing the remains in an ossuary or by scattering the remains in a dedicated cemetery, scattering garden, or consecrated ground used exclusively for these purposes.

(IV)  The custodian is not liable for the loss or destruction of records required

to be kept by this subsection (2)(a) if the loss or destruction was not caused by the custodian's negligence.

(b)  If the deceased was cremated prior to July 1, 2003, and the crematory

reasonably attempts to notify the person with the right of final disposition of the provisions of this subsection (2), the remains may be disposed of in accordance with this subsection (2), notwithstanding a failure to provide the notice of the provisions of this subsection (2) to the person with the right of final disposition prior to disposing of the remains.

(3) (a)  This part 3 shall not apply to, nor interfere with, any custom or rite of a

religious sect in the final disposition of its dead, and the members and followers of the religious sect may continue to provide memorial services for, care for, prepare, and cremate the bodies of deceased members of the religious sect if the human remains are refrigerated, frozen, or cremated within seven days after death.

(b)  If human remains are refrigerated pursuant to subsection (3)(a) of this

section, the body must be cremated within thirty days after death unless the coroner authorizes otherwise in writing. The coroner shall not permit an exception to this subsection (3)(b) unless the applicant can demonstrate a legitimate delay caused by unforeseen, uncontrollable circumstances or by a criminal investigation.

Source: L. 2019: Entire title R&RE with relocations, (HB 19-1172), ch. 136, p.

952, � 1, effective October 1. L. 2024: (1)(b) amended, (HB 24-1335), ch. 242, p. 1602, � 15, effective May 24.

Editor's note: This section is similar to former � 12-54-302 as it existed prior

to 2019.


C.R.S. § 12-135-303

12-135-303. Registration required. (1) Unless practicing at a registered crematory under this section and except as provided in section 12-140-105 (3), a person shall not practice as, or offer the services of, a cremationist, nor shall the crematory sell or offer to sell funeral goods and services to the public.

(2) (a)  Each crematory shall register with the director using forms as

determined by the director. The registration shall include the following:

(I)  The specific location of the crematory;


(II)  The full name and address of the designee appointed pursuant to

subsection (3) of this section;

(III)  The date the crematory began doing business; and


(IV)  A list of each of the following services provided at each crematory

location:

(A)  Refrigerating or holding human remains;


(B)  Transporting human remains to or from the crematory or the place of

final disposition;

(C)  Providing funeral goods or services to the public;


(D)  Cremating human remains; and


(E)  Selling preneed contracts.


(b)  Each crematory registration shall be renewed, according to a schedule

established by the director, in a form as determined by the director.

(c)  If, after initial registration, the crematory provides a service listed in

subsection (2)(a)(IV) of this section that was not included in the initial registration, the crematory shall submit an amended registration within thirty days after beginning to provide the new service.

(d)  If, after initial registration, the crematory appoints a new designee, the

crematory shall submit an amended registration within thirty days after appointing the designee.

(e)  Registrations issued pursuant to this part 3 are subject to the expiration,

reinstatement, and delinquency fee provisions specified in section 12-20-202 (1) and (2).

(3)  Each crematory shall appoint an individual as the designee of the

crematory. A designee shall:

(a)  Be at least eighteen years of age;


(b)  Have at least two years' experience working for a crematory;


(c)  Be employed by the registered crematory that the designee represents;


(d)  Have the authority within the crematory's organization to require that

personnel comply with this article 135; and

(e)  Not be designated for more than one crematory unless the additional

establishment is operated under common ownership and management and no crematory is more than sixty miles from another establishment held under the same ownership conditions.

(4)  The designee shall require each person employed at the crematory to

demonstrate evidence of compliance with parts 5 to 9 of this article 135, as applicable. The designee shall retain the records of the evidence of compliance so long as the person is employed at the crematory.

(5)  This section shall not require the registration of a nonprofit organization

that only provides education or support to an individual who intends to provide for final disposition of human remains.

Source: L. 2019: Entire title R&RE with relocations, (HB 19-1172), ch. 136, p.

953, � 1, effective October 1. L. 2024: (4) amended, (SB 24-173), ch. 240, p. 1589, � 7, effective May 24.

Editor's note: (1)  This section is similar to former � 12-54-303 as it existed

prior to 2019.

(2)  This section is repealed, effective September 1, 2029, pursuant to � 12-135-406.

C.R.S. § 12-135-508

12-135-508. Grounds for discipline. (1) The director may take disciplinary action in accordance with sections 12-20-404, 12-135-401, and 12-135-507 against an applicant or licensee who has:

(a)  Advertised, represented, or held themself out as a licensed mortuary

science professional after the expiration, suspension, or revocation of their license;

(b)  Falsified information in an application for a license or to renew a license

under this part 5;

(c)  Attempted to obtain or obtained a license by fraud, deception, or

misrepresentation;

(d)  Engaged in fraud, misrepresentation, deception, or cheating in taking or

furnishing the results of an examination required by section 12-135-603 (1)(b), 12-135-703 (1)(b), 12-135-803 (1)(b), or 12-135-903;

(e)  Fraudulently obtained or furnished or aided and abetted another person

in fraudulently obtaining or furnishing:

(I)  A license issued under this part 5;


(II)  A renewal or reinstatement of a license issued under this part 5; or


(III)  A diploma, a certificate, or a record related to a license issued under this

part 5;

(f) (I)  Failed to notify the director, in writing, of:


(A)  The entry of a final judgment by a court in favor of another party and

against the licensee for malpractice of mortuary science; or

(B)  A settlement by the licensee in response to charges or allegations of

malpractice of mortuary science.

(II)  To comply with subsection (1)(f)(I) of this section, the licensee must:


(A)  Give the notice within ninety days after the entry of the judgment or

settlement; and

(B)  For notice of a judgment, include the name of the court, the case number,

and the names of all parties to the action.

(g) (I)  A disqualifying criminal history as described in section 12-135-503.


(II)  For the purposes of subsection (1)(g)(I) of this section, a certified copy of

a document from a court of competent jurisdiction documenting a conviction or entry of a plea is conclusive evidence of the conviction or the plea. In considering a disciplinary action, the director shall be governed by sections 12-20-202 (5) and 24-5-101.

(h)  Advertised, represented, held themself out in any manner, or used any

designation in connection with an individual's name as a mortuary science professional without being licensed under this article 135;

(i)  Violated or aided or abetted a violation of this article 135, article 20 or 30

of this title 12, a rule adopted under this article 135, or an order of the director;

(j)  Failed to report to the director the surrender of a license, certification, or

registration to, or an adverse action taken against a license, certification, or registration by, a governmental agency in another state, territory, or country, a law enforcement agency, or a court for acts that constitute grounds for discipline under this article 135 or a rule promulgated under this article 135;

(k)  Committed an act that does not meet, or failed to perform an act

necessary to meet, generally accepted standards of mortuary science;

(l)  Used fraudulent, coercive, or dishonest practices, or demonstrated

incompetence or untrustworthiness, in this state or elsewhere;

(m)  Disinfected, preserved, or made final disposition of human remains with

knowledge sufficient to arouse a reasonable suspicion of a crime in connection with the cause of death of the decedent unless the licensee has obtained the permission of the coroner, the deputy coroner, or, if there is no coroner, the district attorney;

(n)  Discriminated because of race, creed, color, religion, disability, sex,

sexual orientation, gender identity, gender expression, marital status, national origin, age, or ancestry in the provision of funeral services or the services of a mortuary science professional;

(o)  Authorized an officer of or employee of a licensee, of a registrant under

section 12-135-110 or 12-135-303, or of another person having a professional relationship with the decedent to approve or cause the final disposition of human remains in violation of this article 135;

(p)  Paid or provided benefits in a manner that deprives the next of kin or

legal representative of the right to use those payments or benefits at a funeral establishment of the customer's choice;

(q)  Engaged in a business practice that interferes with the freedom of choice

of the general public to choose a mortuary science professional or funeral establishment;

(r)  Refused to properly and promptly release human remains, naturally

reduced remains, or cremated remains to the custody of the person who has the legal right to effect the release, regardless of whether any costs have been paid;

(s)  Told a person that a casket was required when the expressed wish of the

decedent, next of kin, or legal representative was for immediate cremation;

(t)  Embalmed, naturally reduced, or cremated human remains without

obtaining permission from the person with the right of final disposition, unless otherwise required by section 12-135-106;

(u)  Prohibited, hindered, or restricted or attempted to prohibit, hinder, or

restrict:

(I)  A person from offering or advertising immediate cremation, immediate

natural reduction, advance funeral arrangements, or low-cost funerals;

(II)  A person from forming or facilitating arrangements between memorial

societies and funeral industry members; or

(III)  A funeral service industry member from disclosing accurate information

concerning funeral merchandise and services;

(v)  Engaged in willfully dishonest conduct;


(w)  Committed negligence that defrauded or caused injury or was likely to

defraud or cause injury in the practice of cremation, natural reduction, embalming, funeral directing, or providing for final disposition;

(x)  Sold or offered to sell the soil produced by the natural reduction of

human remains to any person;

(y)  Commingled the following without the consent of the person or persons

with the right of final disposition, as determined by section 15-19-106, in the course of a person's business, vocation, or occupation:

(I)  The cremated remains of more than one person, except as authorized in

section 12-135-109;

(II)  The soil produced by the natural reduction of the human remains of more

than one person, except as authorized in section 12-135-109;

(III)  The cremated remains of more than one person within a cremation

chamber; or

(IV)  The human remains of more than one person within a container used to

naturally reduce human remains to produce soil; or

(z)  Used, in the course of a person's business, vocation, or occupation, the

soil produced by the natural reduction of human remains to grow food for human consumption.

(2) (a)  For purposes of this section only and except as provided in subsection

(2)(b) of this section, next of kin does not include a person who is arrested on suspicion of having committed, is charged with, or has been convicted of a felony offense specified in part 1 of article 3 of title 18 involving the death of the decedent.

(b)  Subsection (2)(a) of this section does not apply if, before final disposition

of the deceased person's human remains, charges are not brought, charges are brought but dismissed, or the person charged is acquitted of the alleged crime.

Source: L. 2024: Entire part added with relocations, (SB 24-173), ch. 240, p.

1578, � 2, effective May 24.


C.R.S. § 12-135-601

12-135-601. Practice of a funeral director described - definition. (1) As used in this part 6, services concerning the final disposition of human remains includes funeral services, embalming, cremation, natural reduction, and removal of human remains from the state.

(2) (a)  The practice of a funeral director consists of performing the following

acts for compensation:

(I)  Selling or offering to sell services concerning the final disposition of

human remains on an at-need basis;

(II)  Planning, arranging, or offering to plan or arrange, on an at-need basis,

the details of services concerning the final disposition of human remains and establishing the type of services to be rendered;

(III)  Making, negotiating, completing, or offering to make, negotiate, or

complete the financial arrangements for services concerning the final disposition of human remains on an at-need basis; except that nonlicensed personnel may assist the funeral director in performing such tasks;

(IV)  Directly or indirectly directing, being in charge or apparent charge of,

supervising, or offering to direct, be in charge of, or supervise:

(A)  A visitation or viewing of human remains;


(B)  A funeral service; or


(C)  A memorial service, if the memorial service is sold or arranged by a

licensee;

(V)  Managing or supervising the operation of a funeral establishment, except

for administrative matters, such as budgeting, accounting and personnel, maintenance of buildings, equipment, and grounds, and routine clerical and record-keeping functions; or

(VI)  Using, in connection with one's name or employment:


(A)  The word funeral director, undertaker, or mortician; or


(B)  A word, title, or combination of words, titles, or pictures that when

considered in the context in which they are used would imply that the person is engaged in the practice of a funeral director or that the person is holding themself out to the public as being engaged in the practice of a funeral director.

(b) (I)  Subsection (2)(a)(IV)(A) of this section does not require an individual to

be licensed to conduct a visitation or viewing if a licensed funeral director or licensed mortuary science practitioner is readily available for consultation.

(II)  Subsection (2)(a)(VI) of this section does not prevent a person from using

the name of an owner, officer, or corporate director of a funeral establishment, notwithstanding that the person does not hold a license, in connection with the name of the funeral establishment with which the person is affiliated, so long as the person's affiliation is properly specified.

(3)  The practice of a funeral director does not include:


(a) (I)  Transmitting, by telephone, by fax, or electronically, obituary notices;


(II)  Ordering flowers or merchandise;


(III)  Delivering death certificates to attending physicians;


(IV)  Clerical preparation and processing of death certificates, insurance

forms, and any clerical tasks that record the information compiled by the funeral director; or

(V)  An act that is incidental to any of the functions specified in this

subsection (3)(a);

(b)  Furnishing standard, printed price lists and disclosure information to the

public by providing the information to persons making an inquiry;

(c)  Arranging, coordinating, or employing, in connection with the final

disposition of human remains, removal services, registered refrigeration facilities, or registered centralized embalming facilities;

(d)  Any aspect of making preneed funeral arrangements or entering into

preneed contracts; or

(e)  Functions normally performed by cemetery or crematory personnel.


(4) (a)  An individual licensed under this part 6 may delegate tasks, as

determined by the director in rule, within the scope of the individual's license to unlicensed persons practicing within the unlicensed person's experience, education, or training.

(b)  A licensee is responsible for ensuring that a delegatee has the

experience, education, and training necessary to perform delegated tasks.

(c)  A licensee retains responsibility for any tasks delegated under this

subsection (4).

(d)  A licensee shall not delegate the following tasks:


(I)  Any task involving handling human remains; except that this subsection

(4)(d)(I) does not apply to transporting human remains;

(II)  Signing contracts or other legal documents that involve compensation for

funeral goods or services; or

(III)  Oversight of a funeral home or crematory operations related to the final

disposition of human remains.

Source: L. 2024: Entire part added with relocations, (SB 24-173), ch. 240, p.

1582, � 2, effective May 24.


C.R.S. § 12-155-118

12-155-118. Exemptions. (1) Any person selling or dealing in plumbing materials or supplies, but not engaged in the installation, alteration, repairing, or removal of plumbing, shall not be required to employ or have a licensed plumber in charge.

(2)  Nothing in this article 155 requires an individual to hold a license to

perform plumbing work on the individual's own property or residence or prevents a person from employing an individual on either a full- or a part-time basis to do routine repair, maintenance, and replacement of sinks, faucets, drains, showers, tubs, toilets, and domestic appliances and equipment equipped with backflow preventers; except that, if such property or residence is intended for sale or resale by a person engaged in the business of constructing or remodeling the facilities or structures or is rental property that is occupied or is to be occupied by tenants for lodging, either transient or permanent, or is a commercial or industrial building, the owner is responsible for and the property is subject to the provisions of this article 155 pertaining to licensing, unless specifically exempted therein.

(3)  Nothing in this article 155 shall be construed to apply to the manufacture

of housing that is subject to the provisions of article 32 of title 24 or the installation of individual residential or temporary construction units of manufactured housing water and sewer hookups inspected pursuant to section 12-155-105 (2).

(4)  Individuals who are engaged in inspecting, testing, or repairing backflow

prevention devices are exempt from licensure under this article 155. Individuals who engage in the installation or removal of backflow prevention devices are not exempt from licensure under this article 155, except when the individuals are installing or replacing a backflow prevention device on a stand-alone fire suppression system, as defined in section 24-33.5-1202 (6).

(5)  Nothing in this article 155 shall be construed to require either that

employees of the federal government who perform plumbing work on federal property shall be required to be licensed before doing plumbing work on the property or that the plumbing work performed on the property shall be regulated pursuant to this article 155.

(6) (a)  Nothing in this article 155 requires a plumbing license, registration, or

permit to perform:

(I)  The installation, extension, alteration, or maintenance, including the

related water piping and the indirect waste piping, of domestic appliances equipped with backflow preventers, including lawn sprinkling systems; residential ice makers, humidifiers, electrostatic filter washers, or water heating appliances; building heating appliances and systems; fire protection systems except for multipurpose residential fire sprinkler systems in one- and two-family dwellings and townhouses that are part of the potable water supply; air conditioning installations; process and industrial equipment and piping systems; or indirect drainage systems not a part of a sanitary sewer system; or

(II)  The repair and replacement of garbage disposal units and dishwashers

directly connected to the sanitary sewer system, including the necessary replacement of all tail pipes and traps, or the repair, maintenance, and replacement of sinks, faucets, drains, showers, tubs, and toilets.

(b)  Notwithstanding subsection (6)(a) of this section, plumbing does not

include:

(I)  Installations, extensions, improvements, remodeling, additions, and

alterations in water and sewer systems owned or acquired by counties pursuant to article 20 of title 30, cities and towns pursuant to article 35 of title 31, or water and sanitation districts pursuant to article 1 or article 4 of title 32;

(II)  Installations, extensions, improvements, remodeling, additions, and

alterations performed by contractors employed by counties, cities, towns, or water and sewer districts that connect to the plumbing system within a property line; or

(III)  Performance, location, construction, alteration, installation, and use of

on-site wastewater treatment systems pursuant to article 10 of title 25 that are located within a property line.

Source: L. 2019: Entire title R&RE with relocations, (HB 19-1172), ch. 136, p.

1002, � 1, effective October 1. L. 2022: (3) amended, (HB 22-1242), ch. 172, p. 1137, � 31, effective August 10. L. 2024: (2) and (4) amended, (HB 24-1344), ch. 343, p. 2326, � 18, effective July 1. L. 2025: (4) amended, (HB 25-1077), ch. 39, p. 187, � 1, effective March 28.

Editor's note: This section is similar to former � 12-58-113 as it existed prior

to 2019.


C.R.S. § 12-235-111

12-235-111. Grounds for discipline - definitions. (1) The director is authorized to take disciplinary action pursuant to section 12-235-112 against any person who has:

(a)  Advertised, represented, or held himself or herself out as a licensed

massage therapist after the expiration, suspension, or revocation of his or her license;

(b)  Engaged in a sexual act with a client while a therapeutic relationship

exists. For the purposes of this subsection (1)(b):

(I)  Sexual act means sexual contact, sexual intrusion, or sexual penetration

as defined in section 18-3-401.

(II)  Therapeutic relationship means the period of time commencing with the

initial session of massage and ending upon written termination of the relationship from either party.

(c)  Failed to refer a patient to a general health-care practitioner when the

services required by the client are beyond the level of competence of the massage therapist or beyond the scope of massage practice;

(d)  Falsified information in any application; attempted to obtain or obtained a

license by fraud, deception, or misrepresentation; engaged in fraud, misrepresentation, deception, or cheating in taking or furnishing the results of the examination required by section 12-235-108 (1)(b); or had the person's score on the examination required by section 12-235-108 (1)(b) invalidated by the testing provider because the person was determined to have cheated or engaged in fraud, misrepresentation, or deception in taking the examination;

(e)  Fraudulently obtained or furnished a massage therapy license; a renewal

or reinstatement of a license, diploma, certificate, or record; or aided and abetted any of those acts;

(f)  A substance use disorder, as defined in section 27-81-102, or a

dependence on or addiction to alcohol or any habit-forming drug, or who abuses or engages in the habitual or excessive use of any habit-forming drug or any controlled substance as defined in section 18-18-102 (5), but the director may take into account the licensee's participation in a substance use disorder treatment program when considering disciplinary action;

(g) (I)  Failed to notify the director of a physical condition, physical illness, or

behavioral, mental health, or substance use disorder that affects the licensee's ability to treat clients with reasonable skill and safety or that may endanger the health or safety of clients receiving massage services from the licensee;

(II)  Failed to act within the limitations created by a physical illness, physical

condition, or behavioral, mental health, or substance use disorder that renders the licensee unable to practice massage therapy with reasonable skill and safety or that may endanger the health or safety of persons under his or her care; or

(III)  Failed to comply with the limitations agreed to under a confidential

agreement entered pursuant to sections 12-30-108 and 12-235-117;

(h)  Refused to submit to a physical or mental examination when so ordered

by the director pursuant to section 12-235-114;

(i)  Failed to notify the director, in writing, of the entry of a final judgment by

a court of competent jurisdiction in favor of any party and against the licensee for malpractice of massage therapy or any settlement by the licensee in response to charges or allegations of malpractice of massage therapy. The notice shall be given within ninety days after the entry of the judgment or settlement and, in the case of a judgment, shall contain the name of the court, the case number, and the names of all parties to the action.

(j)  Been convicted of, pled guilty or nolo contendere to, or received a

deferred sentence for a felony or a crime for which the act giving rise to the crime was related to the practice of massage therapy or was perpetrated against a massage client during a therapeutic relationship, as defined in subsection (1)(b)(II) of this section; or committed any act specified in this section. A certified copy of a document from a court of competent jurisdiction documenting a conviction or entry of a plea is conclusive evidence of the conviction or plea. In considering the disciplinary action, the director shall be governed by the provisions of sections 12-20-202 (5) and 24-5-101.

(k)  Advertised, represented, held himself or herself out in any manner, or

used any designation in connection with his or her name as a massage therapist without being licensed or exempt pursuant to this article 235;

(l)  Violated or aided or abetted a violation of any provision of this article 235,

an applicable provision of article 20 or 30 of this title 12, any rule adopted under this article 235, or any lawful order of the director;

(m)  Been convicted of, pled guilty or nolo contendere to, or received a

deferred sentence for a charge of unlawful sexual behavior as defined in section 16-22-102, any prostitution-related offense, or any human-trafficking-related offense as described in sections 18-3-503 and 18-3-504, whether or not the act was committed in Colorado;

(n)  Failed to report to the director the surrender of a massage therapy

license, certification, or registration to, or an adverse action taken against a license, certification, or registration by, a licensing agency in another state, territory, or country, a governmental agency, a law enforcement agency, or a court for acts that constitute grounds for discipline under this article 235;

(o)  Committed an act that does not meet, or failed to perform an act

necessary to meet, generally accepted standards of massage therapy care;

(p)  Used fraudulent, coercive, or dishonest practices, or demonstrated

incompetence or untrustworthiness, in this state or elsewhere; or

(q)  Exposed an intimate part of his or her body to the view of a client or any

person present with the client, or performed an act of masturbation in the presence of a client. For the purposes of this subsection (1)(q):

(I)  Intimate part means the external genitalia, the perineum, the anus, the

buttocks, the pubes, or the breast of any person.

(II)  Masturbation means the real or simulated touching, rubbing, or

otherwise stimulating of a person's own genitals or pubic area, regardless of whether the genitals or pubic area is exposed or covered.

Source: L. 2019: Entire title R&RE with relocations, (HB 19-1172), ch. 136, p.

1161, � 1, effective October 1. L. 2020: (1)(f) amended, (SB 20-007), ch. 286, p. 1411, � 33, effective July 13. L. 2022: (1)(d) amended, (HB 22-1226), ch. 85, p. 410, � 4, effective September 1.

Editor's note: This section is similar to former � 12-35.5-111 as it existed prior

to 2019.


C.R.S. § 12-280-135

12-280-135. Unused medicine - licensed facilities - correctional facilities - reuse - definitions - rules. (1) As used in this section, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a)  Correctional facility means a facility under the supervision of the United

States, the department of corrections, or a similar state agency or department in a state other than Colorado in which persons are or may be lawfully held in custody as a result of conviction of a crime; a jail or an adult detention center of a county, city, or city and county; and a private contract prison operated by a state, county, city, or city and county.

(b)  Licensed facility means a hospital, hospital unit, behavioral health

safety net provider, hospice, nursing care facility, assisted living residence, or any other facility that is required to be licensed pursuant to section 25-3-101 or a licensed long-term care facility as defined in section 25-1-124 (2.5)(b).

(c)  Medical device means an instrument, apparatus, implement, machine,

contrivance, implant, or similar or related article that is required to be labeled pursuant to 21 CFR 801.

(d)  Medical supply means a consumable supply item that is disposable and

not intended for reuse.

(e) (I)   Medicine means prescription drugs.


(II)  Medicine includes:


(A)  A prescription drug that requires refrigeration, freezing, or special

storage if the prescription drug has been continually maintained by a donor pursuant to the manufacturer's storage requirements, so long as the cold chain can be verified; and

(B)  Prescription supplies and devices.


(III)  Medicine does not include:


(A)  Compounded drugs;


(B)  Prescription drugs dispensed by pharmacies outside of the United States;


(C)  Prescription drugs that are subject to risk evaluation and mitigation

strategies (REMS) under 21 U.S.C. sec. 355-1 (f)(3) unless all of the required guidelines for the medicine are followed or REMS drugs that were initially dispensed by a pharmacy pursuant to a restricted REMS distribution channel; or

(D)  Controlled substances.


(2) (a) (I)  If donated by the patient, the resident, or the patient's or resident's

next of kin, a licensed facility may return unused medicine or medical supplies and used or unused medical devices to a pharmacist within the licensed facility or a prescription drug outlet in order for the materials to be redispensed to another patient or donated to a nonprofit entity that has the legal authority to possess the materials or to a practitioner authorized by law to dispense the materials.

(II) (A)  A licensed facility or a prescription drug outlet may donate materials

to an entity that has legal authority to possess the materials or to a person legally authorized to dispense the materials. A licensed pharmacist shall review the process of donating the unused medicine to the entity.

(B)  Nothing in this subsection (2)(a)(II) creates or abrogates any liability on

behalf of a prescription drug manufacturer for the storage, donation, acceptance, or dispensing of medicine or a product or creates any civil cause of action against a prescription drug manufacturer in addition to that which is available under applicable law.

(C)  A person or entity is not subject to civil or criminal liability or professional

disciplinary action for donating, accepting, dispensing, or facilitating the donation of materials in good faith, without negligence or willful or wanton misconduct, and in compliance with this section.

(III)  A correctional facility may return unused medicine or medical supplies

and used or unused medical devices to the pharmacist within the correctional facility or a prescription drug outlet in order for the medicine to be redispensed to another patient or donated to an entity that has the legal authority to possess the materials or to a practitioner authorized by law to prescribe the materials.

(b)  Medicine is only available to be dispensed to another person or donated

to an entity under this section if the medicine is:

(I)  Liquid and the vial is still sealed and properly stored;


(II)  Individually packaged and the packaging has not been damaged;


(III)  In unopened, tamper-evident packaging; or


(IV)  For medicine that requires refrigeration, freezing, or special storage,

continually maintained by the donor pursuant to the manufacturer's storage requirements, so long as the cold chain can be verified.

(c)  The following medicine is not acceptable for donation:


(I)  Medicine that is not packaged in a traditional dispensing system, as

defined by the board by rule;

(II)  Controlled substances;


(III)  Except as provided in subsection (2)(b)(IV) of this section, medicine that

requires refrigeration, freezing, or special storage;

(IV)  Repealed.


(V)  Medicine that is adulterated or misbranded, as determined by a person

legally authorized to dispense the medicine on behalf of the nonprofit entity or a person legally authorized to dispense the medicine;

(VI)  Compounded medicine;


(VII)  Medicine dispensed by pharmacies outside of the United States; or


(VIII)  Medicine that is subject to risk evaluation and mitigation strategies

(REMS) under 21 U.S.C. sec. 355-1 (f)(3) unless all of the required guidelines for the medicine are followed or REMS drugs that were initially dispensed by a pharmacy pursuant to a restricted REMS distribution channel.

(3)  Medicine dispensed or donated pursuant to this section must not be

expired. A prescribing practitioner shall not dispense medicine that will expire before the use by the patient based on the prescribing practitioner's directions for use.

(4)  Medicine, medical supplies, and medical devices donated pursuant to this

section shall not be resold and are considered nonsaleable; except that handling, dispensing, or usual and customary charges to an eligible patient, health plan, pharmacy benefit manager, pharmacy service, administrative organization, government agency, or other entity is not considered reselling. If the donation recipient is a for-profit entity, these charges must not exceed the donation recipient's cost of providing the medicine, including the current and anticipated costs of educating eligible donors and individual donors, providing technical support to participating donors and individual donors, shipping and handling, labor, storage, licensing, utilities, advertising, technology, supplies, and equipment. Except as described in this subsection (4), the amount of these charges is not subject to additional limitations.

(5)  Repealed.


(6) (a)  Except as provided in subsection (6)(b) of this section, nothing in this

section or section 25.5-5-502 creates or abrogates any liability on behalf of a prescription drug manufacturer for the storage, donation, acceptance, or dispensing of unused donated medicine or creates any civil cause of action against a prescription drug manufacturer in addition to that which is available under applicable law.

(b)  A manufacturer of a prescription drug that is subject to risk evaluation

and mitigation strategies (REMS) is not subject to criminal prosecution or liability in tort or other civil action for injury, death, or loss to person or property for matters related to the donation, acceptance, or dispensing of a REMS drug manufactured by the drug manufacturer that is donated by any person pursuant to the program, including liability for failure to transfer or communicate product or consumer information or the expiration date of the donated prescription drug.

Source: L. 2019: Entire title R&RE with relocations, (HB 19-1172), ch. 136, p.

1482, � 1, effective October 1. L. 2022: (1)(b) amended, (HB 22-1278), ch. 222, p. 1588, � 216, effective July 1, 2024. L. 2025: (1)(e), (2)(a), IP(2)(b), (2)(b)(II), (2)(b)(III), IP(2)(c), (2)(c)(I), (2)(c)(III), (2)(c)(V), (3), (4), and (6) amended, (2)(b)(IV), (2)(c)(VI), (2)(c)(VII), and (2)(c)(VIII) added, and (2)(c)(IV) and (5) repealed, (SB 25-289), ch. 273, p. 1411, � 1, effective August 6.

Editor's note: This section is similar to former � 12-42.5-133 as it existed prior

to 2019.


C.R.S. § 12-280-135.5

12-280-135.5. Colorado drug donation program - created - rules - records - definitions. (1) As used in this section, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a)  Colorado drug donation program or program means the Colorado drug

donation program created in this section.

(b)  Controlled substance has the meaning set forth in section 18-18-102.


(c) (I)  Donation recipient means an entity that:


(A)  Is legally authorized to possess medicine;


(B)  Has a license or registration in good standing in the state in which the

entity is located; and

(C)  Receives a donation of medicine.


(II)  Donation recipient includes a hospital, a pharmacy, a clinic, a health-care provider, or a prescriber office.


(III)  Donation recipient also includes a wholesaler, a distributor, a third-party logistics provider, a reverse distributor, or a repackager if the entity is a

nonprofit entity or is directly or indirectly owned, controlled, or could be controlled by a nonprofit entity.

(d) (I)  Donor means any entity legally authorized to possess medicine,

including a wholesaler, a distributor, a third-party logistics provider, a pharmacy, a dispenser, a clinic, a surgical or health center, a rehabilitation center, a detention center, a jail, a prison, a laboratory, a prescriber or other health-care professional, a long-term care facility or health-care facility, and any other entity regulated by the board that donates medicine.

(II)  Donor includes government agencies and entities that are federally

authorized to possess medicine, including manufacturers, repackagers, relabelers, outsourcing facilities, veterans affairs hospitals, FDA-authorized importers such as those described under the federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, 21 U.S.C. secs. 801 and 804, as amended, or similar provisions, and federal prisons.

(e) (I)  Eligible patient means an individual with a need for donated medicine

who is indigent, uninsured, or underinsured.

(II)  Eligible patient includes other individuals if a need for donated

medicine is not identified among individuals who are indigent, uninsured, or underinsured.

(f)  Health-care professional means an individual who is licensed to practice

as a physician, registered nurse, advanced practice registered nurse, practical nurse, optometrist, or pharmacist; a certified midwife with prescriptive authority pursuant to section 12-255-112; or any other practitioner authorized to dispense or administer medicine.

(g)  Individual donor means a nonlicensed individual member of the public.


(h) (I)  Medicine means prescription drugs.


(II)  Medicine includes:


(A)  A prescription drug that requires refrigeration, freezing, or special

storage if the medicine has been continually maintained by the donor pursuant to the manufacturer's storage requirements, so long as the cold chain can be verified; and

(B)  Prescription supplies and devices.


(III)  Medicine does not include:


(A)  Compounded drugs;


(B)  Prescription drugs dispensed by pharmacies outside of the United States;


(C)  Prescription drugs that are subject to risk evaluation and mitigation

strategies (REMS) under 21 U.S.C. sec. 355-1 (f)(3) unless all of the required guidelines for the medicine are followed or REMS drugs that were initially dispensed by a pharmacy pursuant to a restricted REMS distribution channel; or

(D)  Controlled substances.


(i)  Prescriber has the meaning set forth in section 12-280-125.7 (1)(f).


(j)  Returns processor has the meaning set forth in 21 U.S.C. sec. 360eee

(18) and includes a reverse distributor.

(k) (I)  Unopened, tamper-evident packaging means an intact packaging

system that renders medicine inaccessible without obvious destruction of the seal or some portion of the packaging system.

(II)  Unopened, tamper-evident packaging may include unopened unit-dose,

multiple-dose, immediate, secondary, or tertiary packaging.

(2)  There is created the Colorado drug donation program to facilitate the

safe donation and redispensing of unused medicine to Coloradans in need of the medicine. Participation in the program is voluntary.

(3) (a)  Notwithstanding any other law or rule to the contrary, a donor or an

individual donor may donate medicine to a donation recipient. A donation recipient may receive donated medicine from a donor or an individual donor.

(b)  Prior to the first donation from a person, a donation recipient shall record

the person's name, address, phone number, and license number, if applicable, and shall:

(I)  Verify that the person meets the definition provided in subsection (1)(d) of

this section;

(II)  Confirm that the person agrees to make donations of medicine only in

accordance with this section and rules adopted by the board relating to donated medicine; and

(III)  If applicable, confirm that the person agrees to remove or redact any

patient names and prescription numbers on donated medicine or to otherwise maintain patient confidentiality by executing a confidentiality agreement with the authorized donation recipient.

(c)  No other information or records are required prior to the first donation

from a new donor or a new individual donor other than as described in subsection (3)(b) of this section.

(4)  A donation recipient shall maintain a written or an electronic record of

donated medicine consisting of the name, strength, quantity, and lot number, if known, of each accepted or transferred drug and the name, address, and phone number of the donor, individual donor, or transferring entity. No other record of donation is required.

(5)  A donation recipient shall ensure that donated medicine is identified

physically or electronically as separate from regular stock.

(6)  Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, a donation recipient may:


(a)  Transfer donated medicine to another donation recipient or to an entity

participating in a drug donation program operated by another state;

(b)  Repackage donated medicine in accordance with subsection (8) of this

section as necessary for storage, dispensing, administration, or transfer; or

(c)  If the donation recipient is a prescription drug outlet or other outlet,

replace medicine of the same drug name and strength previously dispensed or administered to eligible patients in accordance with 42 U.S.C. sec. 256b, as amended.

(7) (a)  Donated medicine that does not meet the requirements specified in

this section and the rules adopted by the board must be disposed of by:

(I)  Returning the donated medicine to the donor;


(II)  Destroying the donated medicine through an incinerator, a medical waste

hauler, a reverse distributor, or other lawful method; or

(III)  Transferring the donated medicine to a returns processor.


(b)  A donation recipient shall maintain a written or an electronic record of

disposed medicine consisting of the disposal method, as described in subsection (7)(a) of this section; the date of disposal; and the name, strength, and quantity of each disposed drug. No other record of disposal is required.

(8)  Repackaged medicine must be labeled with the drug name, strength, and

expiration date, if the expiration date is known, and identified separately from regular stock until inspected and initialed by a licensed pharmacist. If multiple packaged, donated medicines with varied expiration dates are repackaged together, the earliest expiration date must be used. Prescription drugs specified by NDC number in a recall notice must be considered recalled unless the prescription drug has an affixed lot number that excludes it from the recall.

(9)  A donation recipient shall only administer or redispense medicine that:


(a)  Is in unopened, tamper-evident packaging or has been repackaged under

this program;

(b)  Meets the requirements set forth in this section based on an inspection

by a licensed pharmacist;

(c)  If dispensed to an eligible patient, is repackaged by a licensed pharmacist

into a new container or, if kept in the donated container, is in a container that has all previous patient information redacted or removed;

(d)  Is properly labeled in accordance with the rules adopted by the board;


(e)  Has an expiration or beyond-use date that will not expire before the

medicine is used by the eligible patient based on the prescriber's directions for use; and

(f)  If the medicine requires refrigeration, freezing, or special storage, has

been continually maintained by the donor pursuant to the manufacturer's storage requirements, so long as the cold chain can be verified.

(10)  A donation recipient:


(a)  May dispense or administer prescription drugs to an eligible patient

pursuant to this section only if otherwise permitted by law pursuant to a valid prescription or prescription drug order; and

(b)  Shall maintain eligible patient-specific written or electronic records in

accordance with rules adopted by the board.

(11)  A manufacturer, prescription drug outlet, repackager, dispenser, or

wholesaler, other than a returns processor, participating in the program shall comply with the requirements of 21 U.S.C. secs. 360eee-1 to 360eee-4 relating to drug supply chain security.

(12)  The donation, transfer, or receipt of medicine or the facilitation of a

donation, transfer, or receipt of medicine pursuant to this section is not wholesale distribution and does not require licensing as a wholesale distributor.

(13)  Medicine donated to the program must not be resold and is considered

nonsaleable; except that handling, dispensing, or usual and customary charges to an eligible patient, health plan, pharmacy benefit manager, pharmacy services administrative organization, government agency, or other entity is not considered reselling. If the donation recipient is a for-profit entity, these charges must not exceed the donation recipient's cost of providing the medicine, including the current and anticipated costs of educating eligible donors and individual donors, providing technical support to participating donors and individual donors, shipping and handling, labor, storage, licensing, utilities, advertising, technology, supplies, and equipment. Except as described in this subsection (13), the amount of these charges is not subject to any additional limitations.

(14)  When performing any action associated with the program or otherwise

processing donated medicine for tax, a manufacturer credit, or other credit, a donation recipient is considered to be acting as a returns processor and shall comply with all record-keeping requirements under federal law for nonsaleable returns.

(15)  All required records must be retained in physical or electronic format, on

or off the donation recipient's premises, for a period of two years. Donors or donation recipients may contract with one another or with a third party to create or maintain records. An identifier, such as a serial number or bar code, may be used in place of information if it allows for the information to be readily retrievable. Upon request by a state or federal regulator, the identifier used for a requested record must be replaced with the original information. An identifier must not be used on labels when dispensing or administering a drug to an eligible patient.

(16)  A donation or other transfer of possession or control is not a change of

ownership unless it is specified as such by the donation recipient. If a record of the donation's transaction information or history is required, the history must begin with the donor or individual donor, must include all prior donations, and, if the medicine was previously dispensed, must include only drug information that is required to be on the patient label in accordance with rules adopted by the board.

(17)  An entity participating in a drug donation or repository program

operated by another state may participate in the program and, if the registered entity is a prescription drug outlet, may dispense donated drugs to eligible patients of this state. The registered entity is required to comply with all statutes and rules in this state unless the statutes or rules differ from or conflict with the statutes or rules of the state in which the entity is located.

(18)  The board shall adopt any rules necessary to implement this section. The

rules must require the least amount of record keeping necessary to ensure patient safety and must allow flexibility in the format for record keeping.

(19)  Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, this section controls all

activities under the program and supersedes any inconsistent law or rule.

(20)  When acting in good faith, without negligence or willful or wanton

misconduct, the following individuals or entities are not subject to civil or criminal liability or professional disciplinary action:

(a)  An individual or entity involved in the supply chain of donated medicine,

including the donor, the individual donor, the donation recipient, the manufacturer, the repackager, the prescription drug outlet or other entity regulated by the board, and the eligible patient;

(b)  An individual or entity, including an employee, an officer, a volunteer, an

owner, a partner, a member, a director, a contractor, or other individual or entity associated with the individual or entity that, in compliance with this section, prescribes, donates, receives donations of, dispenses, administers, transfers, replaces, or repackages medicine or facilitates any of the actions described in this section; and

(c)  The board.


(21)  Notwithstanding subsection (20) of this section, a manufacturer of a

prescription drug that is subject to risk evaluation and mitigation strategies (REMS) is not subject to criminal prosecution or liability in tort or other civil action for injury, death, or loss to person or property for matters related to the donation, acceptance, or dispensing of a REMS drug manufactured by the drug manufacturer that is donated by any person pursuant to the program, including liability for failure to transfer or communicate product or consumer information or the expiration date of the donated prescription drug.

(22)  A donation recipient operating primarily for the purpose of participating

in this program shall not be required to possess a comprehensive or minimum supply of medicine.

Source: L. 2025: Entire section added, (SB 25-289), ch. 273, p. 1414, � 2,

effective August 6.


C.R.S. § 12-300-104

12-300-104. Definitions. As used in this article 300, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1)  Medical director means a licensed physician who holds such title in any

inpatient or outpatient facility, department, or home care agency, and who is responsible for the quality, safety, and appropriateness of the respiratory therapy provided.

(2)  Respiratory therapist means a person who is licensed to practice

respiratory therapy pursuant to this article 300.

(3)  Respiratory therapy means providing therapy, management,

rehabilitation, support services for diagnostic evaluation, and care of patients with deficiencies and abnormalities that affect the pulmonary system under the overall direction of a medical director. Respiratory therapy includes the following:

(a)  Direct and indirect pulmonary care services that are safe, aseptic,

preventive, and restorative to the patient;

(b)  The teaching or instruction of the techniques and skill of respiratory care

whether or not in a formal educational setting;

(c)  Direct and indirect respiratory care services, including the administration

of pharmacological, diagnostic, and therapeutic agents related to respiratory care procedures necessary to implement a treatment, disease prevention, and pulmonary rehabilitative or diagnostic regimen prescribed by a physician, a physician assistant, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a certified midwife;

(d)  Observation and monitoring of signs, symptoms, reactions, general

behavior, and general physical response to respiratory care treatment and diagnostic testing for:

(I)  The determination of whether such signs, symptoms, reactions, behavior,

or general response exhibit abnormal characteristics; or

(II)  The implementation based on observed abnormalities of appropriate

reporting, referral, or respiratory care protocols or changes in treatment regimen pursuant to a prescription by a physician, a physician assistant, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a certified midwife or the initiation of emergency procedures;

(e)  The diagnostic and therapeutic use of the following in accordance with

the prescription of a physician, a physician assistant, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a certified midwife:

(I)  Administration of medical gases, exclusive of general anesthesia;


(II)  Aerosols;


(III)  Humidification;


(IV)  Environmental control systems and biomedical therapy;


(V)  Pharmacologic agents related to respiratory care procedures;


(VI)  Mechanical or physiological ventilatory support;


(VII)  Bronchopulmonary hygiene;


(VIII)  Respiratory protocol and evaluation;


(IX)  Cardiopulmonary resuscitation;


(X)  Maintenance of the natural airways;


(XI)  Insertion and maintenance of artificial airways;


(XII)  Diagnostic and testing techniques required for implementation of

respiratory care protocols;

(XIII)  Collection of specimens from the respiratory tract; or


(XIV)  Analysis of blood gases and respiratory secretions and participation in

cardiopulmonary research; and

(f)  The transcription and implementation of the written and verbal orders of a

physician pertaining to the practice of respiratory care.

Source: L. 2019: Entire title R&RE with relocations, (HB 19-1172), ch. 136, p.

1578, � 1, effective October 1. L. 2023: (3)(c), (3)(d)(II), and (3)(e) amended, (SB 23-167), ch. 261, p. 1546, � 51, effective May 25. L. 2024: (3)(c), (3)(d)(II), and (3)(e) amended, (HB 24-1253), ch. 179, p. 973, � 3, effective August 7.

Editor's note: This section is similar to former � 12-41.5-103 as it existed prior

to 2019.


C.R.S. § 12-300-112

12-300-112. Exceptions. (1) This article 300 does not prohibit:

(a) (I)  Any practice of respiratory therapy that is an integral part of a program

of study by students enrolled in an accredited respiratory therapy program. Students enrolled in respiratory therapy education programs shall be identified as student respiratory therapists and shall only provide respiratory therapy under direct supervision of a respiratory therapist on the premises who is available for prompt consultation or treatment.

(II)  The practice of respiratory therapy by pulmonary function technology

students or polysomnographic technology students that is an integral part of a program of study that leads to certification or registration for their respective disciplines. Students enrolled in those programs shall be identified as student pulmonary functions technologists or student polysomnographic technologists and shall practice only under the direct supervision of a respiratory therapist or physician or under the supervision of an individual exempted from the provisions of this article 300 pursuant to subsection (1)(g) of this section.

(III)  The practice of respiratory therapy by polysomnographic technologists

who are not registered by or do not hold credentials from a nationally recognized organization, but those polysomnographic technologists shall only practice under the supervision of a respiratory therapist, a physician, or an individual exempted from this article 300 pursuant to subsection (1)(g) of this section, and those polysomnographic technologists' scope of practice must not exceed oxygen titration with pulse oximetry and noninvasive positive pressure ventilation titration.

(b)  Self-therapy by a patient or gratuitous therapy by a friend or family

member who does not represent himself or herself to be a respiratory therapist;

(c)  Any service provided during an emergency that may be included in the

definition of the practice of respiratory therapy;

(d)  Respiratory therapy services rendered in the course of assigned duties of

persons serving in the military or persons working in federal facilities;

(e)  Respiratory therapy services rendered in the course of assigned duties of

persons delivering oxygen supplies, including the inspection and maintenance of associated apparatus by a person who does not represent himself or herself as a respiratory therapist;

(f)  Any person registered, certified, or licensed in this state under this title 12

from engaging in the practice for which the person is registered, certified, or licensed;

(g)  The practice of procedures that fall within the definition of respiratory

therapy by certified pulmonary function technologists, registered pulmonary function technologists, registered polysomnographic technologists, or others who hold credentials from a nationally recognized organization as determined by the director; except that the scope of practice of a registered polysomnographic technologist must not exceed oxygen titration with pulse oximetry and noninvasive positive pressure ventilation titration;

(h)  The instruction or training of persons to administer emergency oxygen

during an aquatic emergency, when the instruction or training is provided by an individual who has been certified to conduct the instruction or training by a nationally recognized certifying agency; or

(i)  The practice by an unlicensed person of procedures that fall within the

definition of respiratory therapy but that do not require the unlicensed person to perform an assessment, to perform an invasive procedure as defined by the director, or to alter care beyond the scope of approved protocols, so long as the unlicensed person is under supervision as determined appropriate by the respiratory therapist and after the respiratory therapist has considered all of the following:

(I)  The health status and mental and physical stability of the individual

receiving care;

(II)  The complexity of the procedures;


(III)  The training and competence of the unlicensed person;


(IV)  The proximity and availability of the respiratory therapist when the

procedures are performed;

(V)  The degree of supervision required for the unlicensed person;


(VI)  The length and number of times that the procedure may be performed;

and

(VII)  The predictability of the outcome of the procedure.


Source: L. 2019: Entire title R&RE with relocations, (HB 19-1172), ch. 136, p.

1589, � 1, effective October 1. L. 2024: (1)(a)(III) amended, (HB 24-1253), ch. 179, p. 974, � 4, effective August 7.

Editor's note: This section is similar to former � 12-41.5-110 as it existed prior

to 2019.


C.R.S. § 13-32-101

13-32-101. Docket fees in civil actions - judicial stabilization cash fund - justice center cash fund - justice center maintenance fund - equal justice fee collection - created - report - legislative declaration. (1) At the time of first appearance in all civil actions and special proceedings in all courts of record, except in the supreme court and the court of appeals, and except in the probate proceedings in the district court or probate court of the city and county of Denver, and except as provided in subsection (3) of this section and in sections 13-32-103 and 13-32-104, there shall be paid in advance the total docket fees, as follows:

(a)  On and after July 1, 2009, by the petitioner in a proceeding for dissolution

of marriage, legal separation, or declaration of invalidity of marriage and by the petitioner in an action for a declaratory judgment concerning the status of marriage, a fee of two hundred thirty dollars;

(a.5)  On and after October 1, 2013, by the petitioner in a proceeding for

dissolution of a civil union, legal separation of a civil union, or declaration of invalidity of a civil union and by the petitioner in an action for a declaratory judgment concerning the status of a civil union, a fee of two hundred thirty dollars;

(b)  On and after July 1, 2009, by the respondent in a proceeding for

dissolution of marriage, legal separation, or declaration of invalidity of marriage and by the respondent to an action for a declaratory judgment concerning the status of marriage, a fee of one hundred sixteen dollars;

(b.5)  On and after October 1, 2013, by the respondent in a proceeding for

dissolution of a civil union, legal separation of a civil union, or declaration of invalidity of a civil union and by the respondent to an action for a declaratory judgment concerning the status of a civil union, a fee of one hundred sixteen dollars;

(c) (I) to (III)  Repealed.


(III.5)  Except as provided in subsections (1)(c)(IV) and (1)(c)(V) of this section:


(A)  On or after January 1, 2019, by each plaintiff, petitioner, third-party

plaintiff, and party filing a cross claim or counterclaim, when a money judgment sought is less than one thousand dollars and such action is commenced in a court of record of appropriate limited jurisdiction, a fee in the amount of eighty-five dollars.

(B)  On or after January 1, 2019, by each defendant, respondent, third-party

defendant, or other party in such court not filing a cross claim or counterclaim, when a money judgment sought is less than one thousand dollars and such action is commenced in a court of record of appropriate limited jurisdiction, a fee in the amount of eighty dollars.

(C)  On or after January 1, 2019, by each plaintiff, petitioner, third-party

plaintiff, and party filing a cross claim or counterclaim, when a money judgment sought is one thousand dollars or more but less than fifteen thousand dollars and such action is commenced in a court of record of appropriate limited jurisdiction, a fee in the amount of one hundred five dollars.

(D)  On or after January 1, 2019, by each defendant, respondent, third-party

defendant, or other party in such court not filing a cross claim or counterclaim, when a money judgment sought is one thousand dollars or more but less than fifteen thousand dollars and such action is commenced in a court of record of appropriate limited jurisdiction, a fee in the amount of one hundred dollars.

(E)  On or after January 1, 2019, by each plaintiff, petitioner, third-party

plaintiff, and party filing a cross claim or counterclaim, when a money judgment sought is fifteen thousand dollars or more but does not exceed twenty-five thousand dollars and such action is commenced in a court of record of appropriate limited jurisdiction, a fee in the amount of one hundred thirty-five dollars.

(F)  On or after January 1, 2019, by each defendant, respondent, third-party

defendant, or other party in such court not filing a cross claim or counterclaim, when a money judgment sought is fifteen thousand dollars or more but does not exceed twenty-five thousand dollars and such action is commenced in a court of record of appropriate limited jurisdiction, a fee in the amount of one hundred thirty dollars.

(IV)  The general assembly hereby declares that docket fees for actions filed

in the small claims division of the county court should reflect the range of the monetary jurisdictional limit established for such actions and that such fees should promote access to the courts and reflect appropriate contributions from litigants using the court system based on the money judgment sought in an action. The general assembly hereby declares that it is appropriate to establish docket fees for the small claims division of the county court as follows:

(A)  On and after July 1, 2008, when the money judgment sought by the

plaintiff in an action filed in the small claims division of the county court is five hundred dollars or less, a plaintiff shall pay a fee of thirty-one dollars.

(B)  On and after July 1, 2008, when the money judgment sought by the

plaintiff in an action filed in the small claims division of the county court is five hundred dollars or less, a defendant filing an answer without a counterclaim in such an action shall pay a fee of twenty-six dollars.

(C)  On and after July 1, 2008, when the money judgment sought in an action

filed in the small claims division of the county court exceeds five hundred dollars and is no more than seven thousand five hundred dollars, a plaintiff shall pay a fee of fifty-five dollars.

(D)  On and after July 1, 2008, when the money judgment sought in an action

filed in the small claims division of the county court exceeds five hundred dollars and is no more than seven thousand five hundred dollars, a defendant filing an answer without a counterclaim in such an action shall pay a fee of forty-one dollars.

(E)  On and after July 1, 2008, if a defendant files an answer with a

counterclaim in an action in the small claims division of the county court and the amount sought in the action and amount sought in the counterclaim are each five hundred dollars or less, the fee for such answer and counterclaim shall be thirty-one dollars.

(F)  On and after July 1, 2008, if a defendant files an answer with a

counterclaim in an action in the small claims division of the county court and the amount sought in either the action or the counterclaim is more than five hundred dollars and is not more than seven thousand five hundred dollars, the fee for such answer and counterclaim shall be forty-six dollars.

(V)  A defendant or third-party defendant shall not be charged any fee,

charge, or cost for filing an answer in response to a forcible entry and detainer complaint, regardless of whether the filing of the answer includes a counterclaim or cross claim, and regardless of whether a money judgment is being sought for any amount.

(d)  On and after January 1, 2019, by each plaintiff, petitioner, third-party

plaintiff, and party filing a cross claim or counterclaim filed in a district court of the state, a fee of two hundred thirty-five dollars;

(e)  On and after July 1, 2008, by each appellant, a fee of one hundred sixty-three dollars;


(f)  On and after January 1, 2019, by an appellee and by each defendant or

respondent not filing a cross claim or counterclaim, a fee of one hundred ninety-two dollars;

(g)  On and after July 1, 2008, by a petitioner in adoption proceedings, a fee of

one hundred sixty-seven dollars.

(2)  On and after July 1, 2008, in any proceeding held pursuant to articles 5,

10, 11, 13, and 14 of title 14, C.R.S., where a decree or final or permanent order has been entered and more than sixty days have passed, there shall be assessed at the time of filing a motion to modify, amend, or alter said decree or order a fee of one hundred five dollars.

(3) (a)  Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (1) of this section, if

parties appear jointly, only one fee shall be charged or paid, and no fee shall be charged in any event for the filing of a disclaimer, or for an acknowledgment of service for the purpose of conferring jurisdiction, or for an appearance or answer filed by a guardian ad litem, or by an attorney appointed by the court to represent and protect the interest of any defendant.

(b) (I)  No docket fee shall be charged in mental health proceedings under

article 10 or 10.5 of title 27, C.R.S.; but, where an estate is thereafter probated for any mental incompetent, the committing court has a claim against such estate, as a cost of the mental health proceedings, in the sum of twenty dollars, in addition to any other expense of commitment allowed and paid by the county, to be paid by the conservator of such estate as a claim pursuant to section 15-14-429, C.R.S.

(II)  On and after July 1, 2009, all claims of twenty dollars that are paid to and

collected by the committing court under subparagraph (I) of this paragraph (b) shall be transmitted to the state treasurer for deposit in the judicial stabilization cash fund created in subsection (6) of this section.

(c)  No docket fee shall be charged in proceedings concerning dependent or

neglected children, relinquishment of children, or delinquent children.

(4) (a)  In a civil case in which there is a contested trial to the court or a trial to

a jury and a monetary judgment rendered which is paid in whole or in part in cash or other property, there shall be assessed, against the judgment debtor, by the clerk of the court an additional fee as provided in paragraph (b) of this subsection (4). This additional fee shall be paid to the clerk of the district court upon request for full or partial satisfaction of judgment and before the certificate of satisfaction of judgment is issued.

(b)  The additional fee to be paid by the judgment debtor, as provided in

paragraph (a) of this subsection (4), is as follows:

(I)  Judgments over $5,000 and not more than $10,000, a total additional fee

of $10;

(II)  Judgments over $10,000 and not more than $20,000, a total additional

fee of $30;

(III)  Judgments over $20,000 and not more than $30,000, a total additional

fee of $50;

(IV)  Judgments over $30,000 and not more than $50,000, a total additional

fee of $90;

(V)  Judgments over $50,000, $90 plus an additional fee of $2 for each

$1,000 above $50,000.

(5) (a)  Each fee collected pursuant to subsection (1)(a) or (1)(a.5) of this

section must be transmitted to the state treasurer and divided as follows:

(I)  Fifteen dollars must be deposited in the Colorado child abuse prevention

trust fund created in section 26.5-3-206;

(II)  One hundred fifteen dollars shall be deposited in the performance-based

collaborative management incentive cash fund created in section 24-1.9-104, C.R.S.;

(III)  Fifty dollars shall be deposited in the judicial stabilization cash fund

created in subsection (6) of this section;

(IV)  Five dollars shall be deposited in the court security cash fund

established pursuant to section 13-1-204;

(V)  Twenty-six dollars shall be deposited in the justice center cash fund

created in paragraph (a) of subsection (7) of this section;

(VI)  One dollar shall be deposited in the general fund pursuant to section 2-5-119, C.R.S.;


(VII)  Pursuant to section 25-2-107 (2) or 25-2-107.5, C.R.S., three dollars shall

be deposited in the vital statistics records cash fund created in section 25-2-121, C.R.S.;

(VIII)  Five dollars shall be deposited in the displaced homemakers fund

created in section 8-15.5-108, C.R.S.;

(IX)  Five dollars shall be deposited in the Colorado domestic abuse program

fund created in section 39-22-802 (1), C.R.S.; and

(X)  Five dollars shall be deposited in the family violence justice fund created

in section 14-4-107 (1), C.R.S.

(b)  Each fee collected pursuant to paragraph (b) or (b.5) of subsection (1) of

this section shall be transmitted to the state treasurer and divided as follows:

(I)  Repealed.


(II)  On and after July 1, 2010, seventy-five dollars shall be deposited in the

judicial stabilization cash fund created in subsection (6) of this section, five dollars shall be deposited in the court security cash fund established pursuant to section 13-1-204, twenty-six dollars shall be deposited in the justice center cash fund created in paragraph (a) of subsection (7) of this section, five dollars shall be deposited in the Colorado domestic abuse program fund created in section 39-22-802 (1), C.R.S., and five dollars shall be deposited in the family violence justice fund created in section 14-4-107 (1), C.R.S.

(c) to (g)  Repealed.


(g.5)  Each fee collected pursuant to subsection (1)(c)(III.5)(A), (1)(c)(III.5)(C),

or (1)(c)(III.5)(E) of this section shall be transmitted to the state treasurer and five dollars shall be deposited in the court security cash fund established pursuant to section 13-1-204, thirty-eight dollars shall be deposited in the justice center cash fund created in subsection (7)(a) of this section, and one dollar shall be deposited in the general fund pursuant to section 2-5-119. The remaining balance shall be deposited in the judicial stabilization cash fund created in subsection (6) of this section.

(h)  Repealed.


(h.5)  Each fee collected pursuant to subsection (1)(c)(III.5)(B), (1)(c)(III.5)(D), or

(1)(c)(III.5)(F) of this section shall be transmitted to the state treasurer and five dollars shall be deposited in the court security cash fund established pursuant to section 13-1-204, and thirty-eight dollars shall be deposited in the justice center cash fund created in subsection (7)(a) of this section. The remaining balance shall be deposited in the judicial stabilization cash fund created in subsection (6) of this section.

(i)  Each fee collected pursuant to sub-subparagraph (A) of subparagraph (IV)

of paragraph (c) of subsection (1) of this section shall be transmitted to the state treasurer and divided as follows:

(I)  Repealed.


(II)  On and after July 1, 2010, fourteen dollars shall be deposited in the

judicial stabilization cash fund created in subsection (6) of this section, five dollars shall be deposited in the court security cash fund established pursuant to section 13-1-204, eleven dollars shall be deposited in the justice center cash fund created in paragraph (a) of subsection (7) of this section, and one dollar shall be deposited in the general fund pursuant to section 2-5-119, C.R.S.

(j)  Each fee collected pursuant to sub-subparagraph (B) of subparagraph (IV)

of paragraph (c) of subsection (1) of this section shall be transmitted to the state treasurer and divided as follows:

(I)  Repealed.


(II)  On and after July 1, 2010, ten dollars shall be deposited in the judicial

stabilization cash fund created in subsection (6) of this section, five dollars shall be deposited in the court security cash fund established pursuant to section 13-1-204, and eleven dollars shall be deposited in the justice center cash fund created in paragraph (a) of subsection (7) of this section.

(k)  Each fee collected pursuant to sub-subparagraph (C) of subparagraph

(IV) of paragraph (c) of subsection (1) of this section shall be transmitted to the state treasurer and divided as follows:

(I)  Repealed.


(II)  On and after July 1, 2010, thirty-eight dollars shall be deposited in the

judicial stabilization cash fund created in subsection (6) of this section, five dollars shall be deposited in the court security cash fund established pursuant to section 13-1-204, eleven dollars shall be deposited in the justice center cash fund created in paragraph (a) of subsection (7) of this section, and one dollar shall be deposited in the general fund pursuant to section 2-5-119, C.R.S.

(l)  Each fee collected pursuant to sub-subparagraph (D) of subparagraph (IV)

of paragraph (c) of subsection (1) of this section shall be transmitted to the state treasurer and divided as follows:

(I)  Repealed.


(II)  On and after July 1, 2010, twenty-five dollars shall be deposited in the

judicial stabilization cash fund created in subsection (6) of this section, five dollars shall be deposited in the court security cash fund established pursuant to section 13-1-204, and eleven dollars shall be deposited in the justice center cash fund created in paragraph (a) of subsection (7) of this section.

(m)  Each fee collected pursuant to sub-subparagraph (E) of subparagraph

(IV) of paragraph (c) of subsection (1) of this section shall be transmitted to the state treasurer and divided as follows:

(I)  Repealed.


(II)  On and after July 1, 2010, fifteen dollars shall be deposited in the judicial

stabilization cash fund created in subsection (6) of this section, five dollars shall be deposited in the court security cash fund established pursuant to section 13-1-204, and eleven dollars shall be deposited in the justice center cash fund created in paragraph (a) of subsection (7) of this section.

(n)  Each fee collected pursuant to sub-subparagraph (F) of subparagraph

(IV) of paragraph (c) of subsection (1) of this section shall be transmitted to the state treasurer and divided as follows:

(I)  Repealed.


(II)  On and after July 1, 2010, thirty dollars shall be deposited in the judicial

stabilization cash fund created in subsection (6) of this section, five dollars shall be deposited in the court security cash fund established pursuant to section 13-1-204, and eleven dollars shall be deposited in the justice center cash fund created in paragraph (a) of subsection (7) of this section.

(o)  Each fee collected pursuant to subsection (1)(d) of this section shall be

transmitted to the state treasurer and divided as follows:

(I)  Repealed.


(II)  On and after January 1, 2019, one hundred sixty-one dollars shall be

deposited in the judicial stabilization cash fund created in subsection (6) of this section, five dollars shall be deposited in the court security cash fund established pursuant to section 13-1-204, sixty-eight dollars shall be deposited in the justice center cash fund created in subsection (7)(a) of this section, and one dollar shall be deposited in the general fund pursuant to section 2-5-119.

(p)  Each fee collected pursuant to paragraph (e) of subsection (1) of this

section shall be transmitted to the state treasurer and divided as follows:

(I)  Repealed.


(II)  On and after July 1, 2010, ninety dollars shall be deposited in the judicial

stabilization cash fund created in subsection (6) of this section, five dollars shall be deposited in the court security cash fund established pursuant to section 13-1-204, and sixty-eight dollars shall be deposited in the justice center cash fund created in paragraph (a) of subsection (7) of this section.

(q)  Each fee collected pursuant to subsection (1)(f) of this section shall be

transmitted to the state treasurer and divided as follows:

(I)  Repealed.


(II)  On and after January 1, 2019, one hundred nineteen dollars shall be

deposited in the judicial stabilization cash fund created in subsection (6) of this section, five dollars shall be deposited in the court security cash fund established pursuant to section 13-1-204, and sixty-eight dollars shall be deposited in the justice center cash fund created in subsection (7)(a) of this section.

(r)  Each fee collected pursuant to paragraph (g) of subsection (1) of this

section shall be transmitted to the state treasurer and divided as follows:

(I)  Repealed.


(II)  On and after July 1, 2010, one hundred forty-three dollars shall be

deposited in the judicial stabilization cash fund created in subsection (6) of this section, five dollars shall be deposited in the court security cash fund established pursuant to section 13-1-204, fifteen dollars shall be deposited in the justice center cash fund created in paragraph (a) of subsection (7) of this section, one dollar shall be deposited in the general fund pursuant to section 2-5-119, C.R.S., and three dollars shall be deposited in the vital statistics records cash fund created in section 25-2-121, C.R.S.

(s)  Each fee collected pursuant to subsection (2) of this section shall be

transmitted to the state treasurer and divided as follows:

(I)  Repealed.


(II)  On and after July 1, 2010, ninety-five dollars shall be deposited in the

judicial stabilization cash fund created in subsection (6) of this section and ten dollars shall be deposited in the justice center cash fund created in paragraph (a) of subsection (7) of this section.

(6)  There is hereby created in the state treasury the judicial stabilization

cash fund, referred to in this subsection (6) as the fund, that shall consist of all fees required to be deposited in the fund. The moneys in the fund shall be subject to annual appropriation by the general assembly for the expenses of trial courts in the judicial department. Any moneys in the fund not expended for the purpose of this subsection (6) may be invested by the state treasurer as provided in section 24-36-113, C.R.S. All interest and income derived from the investment and deposit of moneys in the fund shall be credited to the fund. Any unexpended and unencumbered moneys remaining in the fund at the end of any fiscal year shall remain in the fund and shall not be credited or transferred to the general fund or any other fund.

(7) (a)  There is hereby created in the state treasury the justice center cash

fund, referred to in this subsection (7) as the fund, that shall consist of all fees required by law to be deposited in the fund and any lease payments received by the judicial department from agencies occupying the state justice center. The money in the fund shall be subject to annual appropriation by the general assembly for the expenses related to the design, construction, maintenance, operation, and interim accommodations for the state justice center, including but not limited to payments on any financed purchase of an asset or certificate of participation agreements entered into pursuant to the provisions of section 2 of Senate Bill 08-206, as enacted at the second regular session of the sixty-sixth general assembly, collectively referred to in this subsection (7) as financed purchase of an asset or certificate of participation agreements. Any money in the fund not expended for the purpose of this subsection (7) may be invested by the state treasurer as provided in section 24-36-113. All interest and income derived from the investment and deposit of money in the fund shall be credited to the fund. Any unexpended and unencumbered money remaining in the fund at the end of any fiscal year shall remain in the fund and shall not be credited or transferred to the general fund or any other fund.

(b) (I)  The general assembly hereby finds and declares:


(A)  The state judicial department is in need of additional space;


(B)  The state museum and the offices of the state historical society occupy a

building on the same block at Fourteenth avenue and Broadway as the current offices of the Colorado supreme court, the Colorado court of appeals, and the supreme court library;

(C)  By building a new facility on the entire block at Fourteenth avenue and

Broadway, the judicial department will consolidate its offices into a single location and the state judicial department will operate more efficiently and cost-effectively; and

(D)  It is appropriate for the judicial department to pay the state museum and

the state historical society for its building and for vacating its current location at Fourteenth avenue and Broadway and to assist in relocation expenses so that the entire block is available for use by the state judicial department.

(II)  Repealed.


(III)  The general assembly further finds and declares that it is not the general

assembly's intent that the judicial department artificially raise the fees that are required by law to be deposited in the fund in order to increase the amount of money appropriated from the fund to the maintenance fund created in subsection (7)(d) of this section.

(c) (I)  For the fiscal year commencing July 1, 2014, and each fiscal year

thereafter so long as there are any payments due under any financed purchase of an asset or certificate of participation agreements, the executive director of the department of personnel shall calculate the net savings to the state by locating the department of law and any other executive branch agency in the new state justice center.

(II)  For the fiscal year commencing July 1, 2014, and each year thereafter so

long as there are payments due on any financed purchase of an asset or certificate of participation agreements, the general assembly shall appropriate from the general fund to the fund the amount of savings calculated by the executive director of the department of personnel pursuant to subsection (7)(c)(I) of this section. Any money received in the fund pursuant to this subsection (7)(c) shall be used to prepay any obligations due pursuant to any financed purchase of an asset or certificate of participation agreement.

(d) (I)  The justice center maintenance fund is hereby created in the state

treasury and referred to in this subsection (7)(d) as the maintenance fund. The maintenance fund consists of money annually appropriated by the general assembly to the maintenance fund from the justice center cash fund and any other money that the general assembly may appropriate or transfer to the fund. The amount appropriated to the maintenance fund from the justice center cash fund must be equal to the amount described in subsection (7)(d)(II) of this section. The state treasurer shall credit all interest and income derived from the deposit and investment of money in the maintenance fund to the maintenance fund. Subject to annual appropriation by the general assembly and subject to capital development review of any controlled maintenance needs that the committee would typically review for state-funded projects, money from the maintenance fund may be expended for controlled maintenance needs of the Ralph L. Carr Colorado judicial center.

(II)  Current and projected appropriations to the maintenance fund from the

justice center cash fund should be sufficient to pay for current and projected controlled maintenance needs for the Ralph L. Carr Colorado judicial center as outlined in the report required in subsection (7)(d)(IV) of this section, taking into account any projected interest earnings on the maintenance fund.

(III)  For purposes of this subsection (7)(d), controlled maintenance has the

same meaning as set forth in section 24-30-1301 (4); except that it may include any maintenance needs that would ordinarily be funded in the judicial department's operating budget and it may include information technology equipment to support network operations, such as servers or uninterruptible power supply units, or to regulate or control building systems, such as lighting or HVAC.

(IV)  The judicial department shall provide a written report to the joint budget

committee and the capital development committee on November 1, 2018, and each November 1 thereafter, that documents expenditures that have been made from the maintenance fund and that documents projected future expenditures from the maintenance fund over a twenty-year term, or such other term as requested by the capital development committee and the joint budget committee. Notwithstanding section 24-1-136 (11)(a), the reporting requirement specified in this subsection (7)(d)(IV) continues indefinitely.

(8)  At the time of filing a motion pursuant to section 19-4-107.3 or 14-10-122

(6), C.R.S., seeking to set aside a final or permanent order concerning parentage based upon DNA evidence establishing the exclusion of the petitioner as the biological father of a child, or to terminate an order requiring the petitioner to pay child support for that child, the petitioner shall pay a fee of seventy dollars. The fee collected pursuant to this subsection (8) shall be transmitted to the state treasurer for deposit in the judicial stabilization cash fund created in subsection (6) of this section.

(9)  Beginning January 1, 2025, the court shall collect the equal justice fee on

filings specified in subsection (1) of this section in the amount of thirty dollars on civil actions filed in district court and ten dollars on civil actions filed in county court, except for filings in small claims court, on behalf of the equal justice authority and transmit the equal justice fee in the manner specified in section 13-5.7-205 (2).

Source: L. 21: p. 227, � 1. C.L. � 7873. L. 23: p. 249, � 1. CSA: C. 66, � 4. L. 47:

p. 456, � 1. CRS 53: � 56-5-1. L. 58: pp. 241, 249, �� 6, 19, 20. L. 60: p. 144, � 2. L. 61: p. 384, � 1. C.R.S. 1963: � 56-5-1. L. 64: p. 463, � 4. L. 67: p. 991, � 1. L. 69: p. 388, �� 3, 4. L. 72: p. 598, � 84. L. 73: p. 1405, �� 41, 42. L. 75: (1)(c) amended, p. 579, � 1, effective July 1; (1)(d) amended, p. 581, � 1, effective July 1; (2) amended, p. 924, � 17, effective July 1; (2) amended, p. 209, � 22, effective July 16. L. 76: (1)(c) amended, p. 302, � 31, effective May 20; (1)(c) amended, p. 520, � 2, effective October 1. L. 79: (4) amended, p. 621, � 1, effective June 1; (4)(a) and IP(4)(b) amended, p. 600, � 22, effective July 1. L. 80: (4) amended, p. 515, � 1, effective January 29. L. 81: (1)(c) amended, p. 2031, � 43, effective July 14. L. 82: (1)(c) amended, p. 294, � 1, effective July 1; (1)(d) amended, p. 295, � 1, effective July 1. L. 83: (1)(c) amended, p. 2047, � 3, effective October 14. L. 84: (1)(a), (1)(b), and (1)(f) amended, p. 455, � 6, effective July 1. L. 87: (1)(a), (1)(b), (1)(c)(I), (1)(d), and (1)(f) amended, p. 562, � 4, effective July 1; (1)(c)(II) amended, p. 544, � 3, effective July 1. L. 90: (1)(c)(I) amended and (1)(c)(II) R&RE, p. 851, �� 12, 13, effective May 31; (1)(c)(I) amended and (1)(c)(II) R&RE, p. 856, �� 5, 6, effective July 1. L. 91: (1)(a), (1)(c)(I), and (1)(d) amended and (1)(a.5) and (5) added, pp. 386, 379, �� 1, 3, effective July 1. L. 92: (1)(a.5)(I) amended, p. 218, � 23, effective August 1. L. 94: (1)(a.5) amended, p. 1691, � 1, effective July 1. L. 95: (1)(a), (1)(b), (1)(d), (1)(f), and (5) amended, p. 740, � 2, effective July 1; (1)(c)(II)(D) and (1)(c)(III) added, pp. 728, 729, �� 2, 3, effective January 1, 1996. L. 98: (1)(a.5)(III) added by revision, pp. 767, 769, �� 18, 23. L. 99: (1)(a.5) amended, p. 1084, � 1, effective July 1. L. 2000: (1)(a) amended, p. 1571, � 9, effective July 1; (2) amended, p. 1832, � 4, effective January 1, 2001. L. 2001: (1)(a) amended, p. 741, � 6, effective June 1; (1)(c)(I), (1)(c)(II), and (1)(c)(III) amended, pp. 1518, 1516, �� 12, 10, effective September 1. L. 2002: (1)(a) amended, p. 529, � 3, effective May 24; (6) added, p. 671, � 1, effective May 28. L. 2003: (1)(a) amended, p. 386, � 2, effective March 5; (1)(a), (1)(b), (1)(c), (1)(d), (1)(f), and (5) amended and (1.5) added, p. 568, � 1, effective March 18. L. 2004: (1)(a) amended, p. 1555, � 4, effective May 28. L. 2007: (7) added, p. 1268, � 2, effective May 25; (1)(a), (1)(b), (1)(c), (1)(d), (1)(f), (2), and (5) amended, p. 1530, � 19, effective May 31. L. 2008: Entire section amended, p. 2114, � 7, effective June 4; (8) added, p. 1658, � 5, effective August 15. L. 2009: (1)(a), (1)(b), (5)(a)(VII), (5)(a)(VIII), and (5)(b) amended and (5)(a)(IX) and (5)(a)(X) added, (SB 09-068), ch. 264, p. 1210, � 4, effective July 1; (1)(c)(III)(C) repealed, (SB 09-038), ch. 119, p. 498, � 1, effective July 1. L. 2013: (1)(a.5) and (1)(b.5) added and IP(5)(a), (5)(a)(VII), and IP(5)(b) amended, (SB 13-011), ch. 49, pp. 160, 161, �� 8, 9, effective May 1; (7)(c) amended, (HB 13-1300), ch. 316, p. 1674, � 33, effective August 7. L. 2015: (7)(b)(II) repealed, (SB 15-264), ch. 259, p. 949, � 30, effective August 5. L. 2018: (7)(b)(III) and (7)(d) added, (SB 18-267), ch. 407, p. 2392, � 1, effective August 8; IP(1)(c)(III), (1)(c)(III)(A), (1)(c)(III)(B), (5)(g), and (5)(h) repealed, (1)(c)(III.5), (5)(g.5), and (5)(h.5) added, (1)(d), (1)(f), IP(5)(o), (5)(o)(II), IP(5)(q), and (5)(q)(II) amended, (SB 18-056), ch. 298, p. 1817, � 3, effective January 1, 2019; (1)(c)(III)(D), (5)(g)(II), and (5)(h)(II) added by revision, (SB 18-056), ch. 298, pp. 1817, 1820, �� 3, 5. L. 2021: (7)(a) and (7)(c) amended, (HB 21-1316), ch. 325, p. 1999, � 9, effective July 1; IP(5)(a) and (5)(a)(I) amended, (HB 21-1248), ch. 335, p. 2167, � 2, effective September 7. L. 2022: (5)(a)(I) amended, (HB 22-1295), ch. 123, p. 828, � 27, effective July 1. L. 2024: (9) added, (HB 24-1286), ch. 339, p. 2297, � 4, effective June 3; IP(1)(c)(III.5) amended and (1)(c)(V) added, (HB 24-1099), ch. 379, p. 2569, � 1, effective November 1.

Editor's note: (1)  Amendments to subsection (2) by Senate Bill 75-135 and

Senate Bill 75-453 were harmonized. Amendments to subsection (4) by House Bill 79-1568 were harmonized in part with and superseded in part by House Bill 79-1206. Amendments to subsection (1)(a) by Senate Bill 03-172 and Senate Bill 03-186 were harmonized. Amendments to this section by Senate Bill 08-206 and Senate Bill 08-183 were harmonized.

(2)  Subsection (1)(a.5)(III) provided for the repeal of subsection (1)(a.5),

effective January 1, 2001. (See L. 99, p. 1084.)

(3)  Subsection (1)(c)(I)(C) provided for the repeal of subsection (1)(c)(I),

effective July 1, 2009. (See L. 2008, p. 2114.)

(4)  Subsection (5)(c)(II) provided for the repeal of subsection (5)(c), effective

July 1, 2009. (See L. 2008, p. 2114.)

(5)  Subsections (1)(c)(II)(C), (5)(d)(II), (5)(e)(II), and (5)(f)(II) provided for the

repeal of subsections (1)(c)(II), (5)(d), (5)(e), and (5)(f), respectively, effective July 1, 2010. (See L. 2008, p. 2114.)

(6)  Subsections (5)(b)(I)(B), (5)(i)(I)(B), (5)(j)(I)(B), (5)(k)(I)(B), (5)(l)(I)(B),

(5)(m)(I)(B), (5)(n)(I)(B), (5)(o)(I)(B), (5)(p)(I)(B), (5)(q)(I)(B), (5)(r)(I)(B), and (5)(s)(I)(B) provided for the repeal of subsections (5)(b)(I), (5)(i)(I), (5)(j)(I), (5)(k)(I), (5)(l)(I), (5)(m)(I), (5)(n)(I), (5)(o)(I), (5)(p)(I), (5)(q)(I), (5)(r)(I), and (5)(s)(I), respectively, effective July 1, 2011. (See L. 2008, p. 2114.)

(7)  Subsections (1)(c)(III)(D), (5)(g)(II), and (5)(h)(II) provided for the repeal of

subsections (1)(c)(III), (5)(g), and (5)(h), respectively, effective January 1, 2019. (See L. 2018, pp. 1817, 1820.)

Cross references: (1)  For the additional fee assessed against the petitioner

of a dissolution of marriage action and deposited in the displaced homemakers fund, see � 14-10-120.5.

(2)  For the legislative declaration contained in the 1990 act amending

subsections (1)(c)(I) and (1)(c)(II), see section 1 of chapter 100, Session Laws of Colorado 1990. For the legislative declaration contained in the 2008 act amending this section, see section 1 of chapter 417, Session Laws of Colorado 2008. For the legislative declaration in HB 24-1286, see section 1 of chapter 339, Session Laws of Colorado 2024.


C.R.S. § 13-54-101

13-54-101. Definitions. As used in this article, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1)  Debtor means a person whose property or earnings are subject to

attachment, execution, or garnishment.

(2)  Dependent means a person who receives more than one-half of his

support from the debtor.

(2.5)  Disabled debtor, disabled spouse, or disabled dependent means a

debtor, spouse, or dependent who has a physical or mental impairment that is disabling and that, because of other factors such as age, training, experience, or social setting, substantially precludes the debtor, spouse, or dependent from engaging in a useful occupation as a homemaker, a wage-earner, or a self-employed person in any employment that exists in the community for which he or she has competence.

(3)  Repealed.


(3.5)  Elderly debtor, elderly spouse, or elderly dependent means a

debtor, spouse, or dependent who is sixty years of age or older.

(4)  Household goods means, by way of illustration, household furniture,

furnishings, dishes, utensils, cutlery, tableware, napery, pictures, prints, appliances, stoves, microwave ovens, beds and bedding, freezers, refrigerators, washing machines, dryers, exercise equipment, musical instruments, bicycles, sewing machines, toys, and home electronics, including but not limited to cameras, television sets, radios, stereos, computers, facsimile machines, telephones, and other audio and video equipment.

(5)  Value means the fair market value of any property less the amount of

any lien thereon valid as between the owner of the property and the holder of any such lien.

Source: L. 59: p. 529, � 1. CRS 53: � 77-13-1. C.R.S. 1963: � 77-2-1. L. 81:

Entire section R&RE, p. 892, � 1, effective July 1. L. 2000: (4) amended, p.715, � 1, effective May 23. L. 2007: (2.5) and (3.5) added and (4) amended, p. 875, � 2, effective May 14. L. 2015: (3) repealed, (SB 15-283), ch. 301, p. 1237, � 1, effective July 1.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration contained in the 2007 act

enacting subsections (2.5) and (3.5) and amending subsection (4), see section 1 of chapter 226, Session Laws of Colorado 2007.


C.R.S. § 16-13-303

16-13-303. Class 1 public nuisance. (1) Every building or part of a building including the ground upon which it is situate and all fixtures and contents thereof, every vehicle, and any real property shall be deemed a class 1 public nuisance when:

(a)  Used as a public or private place of prostitution or used as a place where

the commission of soliciting for prostitution, as defined in section 18-7-202, C.R.S.; pandering, as defined in section 18-7-203, C.R.S.; keeping a place of prostitution, as defined in section 18-7-204, C.R.S.; pimping, as defined in section 18-7-206, C.R.S.; or human trafficking, as described in section 18-3-503 or 18-3-504, C.R.S., occurs;

(b) (I)  Used, or designed and intended to be used, as gambling premises, as

defined in section 18-10-102 (5), C.R.S., or as a place where any gambling device or gambling record, as such terms are defined in section 18-10-102 (3) and (7), C.R.S., is kept;

(II)  Used for transporting gambling proceeds, records, or devices as defined

in section 18-10-102 (3), (6), and (7), C.R.S.;

(c) (I)  Used for unlawful manufacture, cultivation, growth, production,

processing, sale, or distribution or for storage or possession for any unlawful manufacture, sale, or distribution of any controlled substance, as defined in section 18-18-102 (5), C.R.S., or any other drug the possession of which is an offense under the laws of this state, or any imitation controlled substance, as defined in section 18-18-420 (3), C.R.S.;

(II)  Used for unlawful possession of any controlled substance, as defined in

section 18-18-102 (5), C.R.S., except for possession of less than sixteen ounces of marijuana;

(d)  Used for a purpose declared by a statute of this state to be a class 1

public nuisance;

(e) (I)  Used as a place where the commission of theft, as specified in section

18-4-401, C.R.S., occurs;

(II)  Used for transporting property which is the subject of theft, as specified

in section 18-4-401, C.R.S.;

(f)  Used for the unlawful manufacture, sale, or distribution of drug

paraphernalia, as defined in section 18-18-426, C.R.S.;

(g)  Used for prostitution of a child, as defined in section 18-7-401, C.R.S., or

used as a place where the commission of soliciting for child prostitution, as defined in section 18-7-402, C.R.S., pandering of a child, as defined in section 18-7-403, C.R.S., keeping a place of child prostitution, as defined in section 18-7-404, C.R.S., pimping of a child, as defined in section 18-7-405, C.R.S., or inducement of child prostitution, as defined in section 18-7-405.5, C.R.S., occurs;

(h)  Used for the sexual exploitation of children pursuant to part 4 of article 6

of title 18, C.R.S.;

(h.5)  Repealed.


(h.6)  Used in violation of section 43-10-114, C.R.S.;


(i)  Used in the commission of any felony not otherwise included in this

section;

(j)  Used in the commission of felony vehicular eluding pursuant to section 18-9-116.5, C.R.S.;


(k)  Used in the commission of hit and run with serious bodily injury or death

pursuant to section 42-4-1601 (1), (2)(b), and (2)(c), C.R.S.;

(l)  Used in committing a drive-by crime, as defined in section 16-13-301 (2.2);


(m) (I)  Used, or designed and intended to be used, as gaming premises, or as

a place where any gaming device, as the term is defined in section 44-30-103 (13), or gaming record is kept, in violation of article 30 of title 44, or in violation of article 20 of title 18;

(II)  Used for transporting adjusted gross proceeds or gaming devices as the

terms are defined in section 44-30-103 (1) and (13), or records in violation of the provisions of article 30 of title 44, or in violation of article 20 of title 18;

(III)  Used for the unlawful manufacture, production, sale, distribution, or for

storage or possession for any unlawful manufacture, sale, or distribution of any gaming device, as defined in section 44-30-103 (13), or any other gaming device, equipment, key, electronic or mechanical device, slot machine, bogus chips, counterfeit chips, cards, coins, gaming billets, cheating device, thieving device, tools, drills, or wires used in violation of article 30 of title 44, or in violation of article 20 of title 18; or

(n)  Used in committing, attempting to commit, or conspiring to commit

against an elderly person any felony set forth in part 4 of article 4 of title 18, C.R.S., in part 1, 2, 3, or 5 of article 5 of title 18, C.R.S., article 5.5 of title 18, C.R.S., or section 11-51-603, C.R.S. For purposes of this paragraph (n), an elderly person means a person sixty years of age or older.

(1.5)  All equipment, mechanical systems, or machinery, or parts thereof, shall

be deemed to be a class 1 public nuisance at the location of the automatic dialing system when used for soliciting with an automatic dialing system containing a prerecorded message in violation of section 18-9-311 (1), C.R.S.

(2) (a)  Except as otherwise provided in subsection (2)(b) of this section, all

fixtures and contents of any building, structure, vehicle, or real property that is a class 1 public nuisance under subsection (1) of this section and all property that is a class 1 public nuisance under subsection (1.5) of this section are subject to seizure, confiscation, and forfeiture as provided in this part 3. In addition, the personal property of every kind and description, including currency and other negotiable instruments and vehicles, used in conducting, maintaining, aiding, or abetting any class 1 public nuisance is subject to seizure, confiscation, and forfeiture, as provided in this part 3.

(b)  Subsection (2)(a) of this section does not apply to an owner, operator,

employee, or customer of a simulated gambling device, or of a business offering simulated gambling devices, who:

(I)  Ceased participating in such activity on or before July 1, 2018; and


(II)  Provides clear documentation to the district attorney that:


(A)  A lawful contract has been entered into for the sale or transfer of all

simulated gambling devices connected with the activity to a person by whom, or into a jurisdiction where, the activity is lawful; and

(B)  Consummates the contract by actually selling or transferring the

simulated gambling devices within one hundred eighty days after the contract was entered into or after any simulated gambling devices that were seized, confiscated, or forfeited by law enforcement authorities have been returned, whichever occurs later.

(3)  The following shall be deemed class 1 public nuisances and be subject to

forfeiture and distributed as provided in section 16-13-311 (3), and no property rights shall exist in them:

(a)  All currency, negotiable instruments, securities, or other things of value

furnished or intended to be furnished by any person in exchange for any public nuisance act; or

(b)  All proceeds traceable to any public nuisance act; or


(c)  All currency, negotiable instruments, and securities used or intended to

be used to facilitate any public nuisance act; or

(d)  All equipment of any kind, including but not limited to computers and any

type of computer hardware, software, or other equipment, used in committing sexual exploitation of a child, as described in section 18-6-403, or cybercrime, as described in section 18-5.5-102.

(4)  Whenever it is established, in an action brought pursuant to this part 3,

that a person has received proceeds derived from any public nuisance act, the court shall award to the plaintiff a money judgment of forfeiture for the amount of said proceeds shown to have been derived from any public nuisance act or for an amount shown to have been derived from a series of similar acts which fall within a pattern of public nuisance acts. The person subjected to such a money judgment may claim a setoff equal to the fair market value of the property forfeited if he shows that said property is traceable to the public nuisance act upon which the money judgment is predicated.

(5) (a)  In any action seeking forfeiture of property pursuant to this part 3, any

person contesting the forfeiture shall establish by a preponderance of the evidence such person's standing as a true owner of the property or a true owner with an interest in the property.

(b)  To establish standing, the person shall first prove that the person had a

recorded or registered interest in the property, or a bona fide marital interest in the property, prior to title-vesting in the state, if the property is of the type for which interests can be, and customarily are, recorded or registered in a public office.

(c)  The person shall also prove that he or she is a true owner of the property

or a true owner of an interest in the property. The factors to be considered by the court in determining whether a person is a true owner shall include, but need not be limited to:

(I)  Whether the person had the primary use, benefit, possession, or control of

the property;

(II)  How much of the consideration for the purchase or ownership of the

property was furnished by the person, and whether the person furnished reasonably equivalent value in exchange for the property or interest;

(III)  Whether the transaction by which the person acquired the property or

interest was secret, concealed, undisclosed, hurried, or not in the usual mode of doing business;

(IV)  Whether the transaction by which the person acquired the property or

interest was conducted through the use of a shell, alter ego, nominee, or fictitious party;

(V)  Whether the person is a relative, a co-conspirator, complicitor, or an

accessory in the public nuisance act or acts or other criminal activity, a business associate in a legal or illegal business, one who maintains a special or close relationship with, or an insider with respect to the perpetrator of the alleged public nuisance act or acts;

(VI)  Whether the person is silent or fails to call parties to testify or to

produce available evidence explaining the acquisition of the property or factors which may be badges of fraud or deceit, or show lack of true ownership;

(VII)  Whether the timing of the transaction by which the person acquired the

property was during the pendency or threat of litigation, or during any time when the person knew, should have known, or had notice of the public nuisance act or acts or the threat of a forfeiture action;

(VIII)  Whether the placing of the title in the name of, or the putative

ownership in, or transfer to, the person was done with intent to delay, hinder, or avoid a forfeiture, or for some purpose other than ownership of the property;

(IX)  Whether the perpetrator of the alleged public nuisance act or acts has

absconded or is a fugitive from justice and the conveyance occurred after the flight, or before the flight, in any of the circumstances set forth in subparagraph (III) of this paragraph (c);

(X)  Whether the subject matter property is of a kind in which property or

ownership rights can legally exist;

(XI)  Any other badge or indicia of fraud under article 8 of title 38, C.R.S., or

the general law of fraudulent transfers or conveyances.

(d)  The court shall consider the totality of the circumstances in determining

whether a person is a true owner. A person contesting the forfeiture does not necessarily have to show that all of the factors enumerated in paragraph (c) of this subsection (5) support the claim of true ownership, nor does the person necessarily establish true ownership by showing the absence of fraudulent intent or badges of fraud.

(e)  No private sale or conveyance of a used motor vehicle shall be deemed to

make a party eligible to assert standing to contest the forfeiture thereof, unless the title to the motor vehicle, with transfer duly executed to the party, has been filed with the division of motor vehicles in the department of revenue prior to the physical seizure of the vehicle and the recording of a notice of seizure, or the party attempting to assert standing has exclusive possession of the vehicle at the time of seizure. A party eligible to assert standing under this paragraph (e) must nevertheless establish that the party is a true owner of the vehicle or has an interest therein pursuant to paragraph (c) of this subsection (5).

(f)  Unless the standing of a particular party is conceded in the complaint

initiating the public nuisance action, a party must assert standing in the answer and fully describe the party's interest in the property which is the subject matter of the action, and submit a verified statement, supported by any available documentation, of the party's ownership of or interest in the property.

(5.1) (a)  In any action to forfeit property pursuant to this part 3, the plaintiff,

in addition to any other matter which must be proven in the plaintiff's case in chief, shall prove by clear and convincing evidence that possession of the property is unlawful or that the owner of the property was a party to the creation of the public nuisance. The plaintiff shall also prove by clear and convincing evidence that the property was instrumental in the commission or facilitation of a crime creating a public nuisance or the property constitutes traceable proceeds of the crime or related criminal activity.

(a.5) (I)  The defendant in an action brought pursuant to this part 3 may

petition the court to determine whether a forfeiture was constitutionally excessive. Upon the conclusion of a trial resulting in a judgment of forfeiture in an action brought pursuant to this part 3, if the evidence presented raises an issue of proportionality under this paragraph (a.5), the defendant may petition the court to set a hearing, or the court may on its own motion set a hearing, to determine whether a forfeiture was constitutionally excessive. This determination shall be made prior to any sale or distribution of forfeited property.

(II)  In making this determination, the court shall compare the forfeiture to the

gravity of the public nuisance act giving rise to the forfeiture and related criminal activity.

(III)  The defendant shall have the burden of establishing by a preponderance

of the evidence that the forfeiture is grossly disproportional.

(IV)  If the court finds that the forfeiture is grossly disproportional to the

public nuisance act and related criminal activity, it shall reduce or eliminate the forfeiture as necessary to avoid a violation of the excessive fines clause of the eighth amendment of the United States constitution or article II, section 20, of the Colorado constitution.

(V) and (VI)  (Deleted by amendment, L. 2003, p. 889, � 1, effective July 1,

2003.)

(b)  As used in paragraph (a) of this subsection (5.1), an owner was a party to

the creation of the public nuisance if it is established that:

(I)  The owner was involved in the public nuisance act; or


(II) (A)  The owner knew of the public nuisance act or had notice of the acts

creating the public nuisance or prior similar conduct.

(B)  Notwithstanding the provisions of sub-subparagraph (A) of this

subparagraph (II), if the plaintiff proves by clear and convincing evidence the owner knew or had notice of the public nuisance, the owner must prove by a preponderance of the evidence that the owner took reasonable steps to prohibit or abate the unlawful use of the property for the court to find the owner was not a party to the creation of the public nuisance.

(5.2) (a)  With respect to a partial or whole ownership interest in existence at

the time the conduct constituting a public nuisance took place, innocent owner means any owner who:

(I)  Did not have actual knowledge of the conduct constituting a public

nuisance, or notice of an act or circumstance creating the public nuisance or prior similar conduct, notice being satisfied by, but not limited to, sending notice of an act or circumstance creating the public nuisance by certified mail; or

(II)  Upon learning of the conduct constituting a public nuisance, took

reasonable action to prohibit such use of the property. An owner may demonstrate that he or she took reasonable action to prohibit the conduct constituting a public nuisance if the owner:

(A)  Timely revoked or attempted to revoke permission for the persons

engaging in such conduct to use the property; or

(B)  Took reasonable action to discourage or prevent the use of the property

in conduct constituting a public nuisance.

(b)  With respect to a partial or whole ownership interest acquired after the

conduct constituting a public nuisance has occurred, innocent owner means a person who, at the time he or she acquired the interest in the property, had no knowledge or notice that the illegal conduct subjecting the property to seizure had occurred or that the property had been seized for forfeiture, and:

(I)  Acquired an interest in the property in a bona fide transaction for value; or


(II)  Acquired an interest in the property through probate or inheritance; or


(III)  Acquired an interest in the property through dissolution of marriage or

by operation of law.

(c)  An innocent owner's interest in property shall not be forfeited under any

provision of state law. An innocent owner has the burden of proving by a preponderance of the evidence that he or she has an ownership interest in the subject property. Otherwise, the burden of proof under this subsection (5.2) shall be as provided in subsection (5.1) of this section.

(d)  A person who is convicted of a criminal offense arising from the same

activity giving rise to the forfeiture proceedings in accordance with section 16-13-307 (1.5) shall not be eligible to assert an innocent owner defense.

(6)  Whenever clear and convincing evidence adduced in an action pursuant

to this part 3 shows a substantial connection between currency and the acts specified in subparagraph (I) of paragraph (c) of subsection (1) of this section, a rebuttable presumption shall arise that said currency is property subject to forfeiture. A substantial connection exists if:

(a)  Currency in the aggregate amount of one thousand dollars or more was

seized at or close to the time that evidence of the acts specified in subparagraph (I) of paragraph (c) of subsection (1) of this section was developed or recovered; and

(b) (I)  Said amount of currency was seized on the same premises or in the

same vehicle where evidence of said acts was developed or recovered; or

(II)  Said amount of currency was seized from the possession or control of a

person engaged in said acts; or

(III)  Traces of a controlled substance were discovered on the currency or an

animal trained in the olfactory detection of controlled substances indicated the presence of the odor of a controlled substance on the currency as testified to by an expert witness.

(6.5)  Notwithstanding any other provision of this part 3 to the contrary, the

plaintiff shall have the burden of proving, by clear and convincing evidence, only the facts that give rise to the presumption that currency is property subject to forfeiture pursuant to subsection (6) of this section. However, when a preponderance of credible evidence is adduced to rebut a presumption that has arisen pursuant to subsection (6) of this section, the burden of proof shall revert to the plaintiff to prove, by clear and convincing evidence, the elements of the plaintiff's case with respect to the currency.

(7)  Currency seized pursuant to this part 3 may be placed in an interest-bearing account during the proceedings pursuant to this part 3 if so ordered by the

court upon the motion of any party. Photocopies of portions of the bills shall serve as evidence at all hearings. The account and all interest accrued shall be forfeited or returned to the prevailing party in lieu of the currency.

(8)  The provisions of subsection (6) of this section shall not be construed so

as to limit the introduction of any other competent evidence offered to prove that seized currency is a public nuisance.

(9)  It is not a violation of this section if a person is acting in compliance with

section 18-18-434, article 170 of title 12, or article 50 of title 44.

Source: L. 72: R&RE, p. 260, � 1. C.R.S. 1963: � 39-13-303. L. 77: (1)(b), (1)(c),

(1)(d), and (2) amended and (1)(e) added, p. 889, � 1, effective July 1. L. 80: (1)(f) added, p. 472, � 2, effective July 1. L. 81: IP(1), (1)(a), (1)(b), (1)(d), (1)(e), (1)(f), and (2) amended and (1)(g) to (1)(i) and (3) added, pp. 954, 956, �� 2, 3, effective July 1; (1)(c) amended, p. 737, � 17, effective July 1. L. 83: IP(3) amended, p. 686, � 1, effective April 21; IP(1), (1)(c), and (2) amended, p. 683, � 2, effective July 1; (1)(c) amended, p. 704, � 2, effective July 1. L. 87: (1)(b), (1)(c), (1)(e), (1)(h), (2), and (3)(a) to (3)(c) amended and (1)(j), (1)(k), and (4) to (8) added, p. 631, �� 3, 4, effective July 1. L. 88: (1)(h.5) added, p. 1354, � 1, effective July 1; (1.5) added and (2) amended, p. 346, � 11, effective July 1; (1)(h.6) added, p. 1090, � 2, effective January 1, 1989. L. 89: (1)(h.5) repealed, p. 1645, � 18, effective June 5; (1)(l) added, p. 875, � 8, effective June 5. L. 91: (1)(m) added, p. 1581, � 5, effective June 4; (1)(h.6) amended, p. 1057, � 12, effective July 1. L. 92: (1)(m) amended, p. 2171, � 20, effective June 2; (1)(c)(I) and (1)(f) amended, p. 391, � 16, effective July 1; (5) amended and (5.1) and (5.2) added, p. 447, � 2, effective July 1. L. 94: (1)(k) amended, p. 2551, � 38, effective January 1, 1995. L. 95: (1)(m)(I) and (1)(m)(II) amended, p. 1110, � 62, effective May 31; (1)(c)(II) amended, p. 463, � 5, effective July 1. L. 99: (3)(d) added, p. 799, � 18, effective July 1. L. 2000: (1)(n) added, p. 1108, � 6, effective August 2. L. 2002: (5.1) and (5.2) amended, p. 917, � 2, effective July 1. L. 2003: (5), (5.1)(a), (5.1)(a.5), (5.1)(b)(II), (5.2)(a)(I), IP(5.2)(b), (5.2)(c), and IP(6) amended and (5.2)(d) and (6.5) added, pp. 898, 889, 902, 896, �� 10, 1, 12, 6, effective July 1. L. 2010: (1)(c)(II) amended, (HB 10-1352), ch. 259, p. 1172, � 14, effective August 11. L. 2012: (1)(a) amended, (HB 12-1151), ch. 174, p. 621, � 3, effective August 8. L. 2013: (1)(e)(I) and (1)(e)(II) amended, (HB 13-1160), ch. 373, p. 2200, � 8, effective June 5. L. 2014: (1)(a) amended, (HB 14-1273), ch. 282, p. 1153, � 12, effective July 1. L. 2018: (2) amended, (HB 18-1234), ch. 381, p. 2298, � 2, effective June 6; (3)(d) amended, (HB 18-1200), ch. 379, p. 2292, � 4, effective August 8; (1)(m) amended, (SB 18-034), ch. 14, p. 238, � 11, October 1. Initiated 2022: (9) added, Proposition 122, L. 2023, p. 3591, effective upon proclamation of the Governor, December 27, 2022. L. 2023: (9) amended, (SB 23-290), ch. 249, p. 1411, � 22, effective July 1.

Editor's note: (1)  Subsections (5.1)(b)(II)(A) and (5.1)(b)(II)(B) were numbered

as (5.1)(b)(II) and (5.1)(b)(III), respectively, in HB 02-1404 but were renumbered on revision in 2010 to conform to statutory format.

(2)  Subsection (9) was added by Proposition 122, effective upon

proclamation of the governor, December 27, 2022. The vote count for the measure at the general election held November 8, 2022, was as follows:

FOR:  1,296,992


AGAINST:  1,121,124

C.R.S. § 18-13-106

18-13-106. Unlawful to discard or abandon iceboxes or motor vehicles and similar items. Any person abandoning or discarding, in any public or private place accessible to children, any chest, closet, piece of furniture, refrigerator, icebox, motor vehicle, or other article, having a compartment of a capacity of one and one-half cubic feet or more and having a door or lid which when closed cannot be opened easily from the inside, or who, being the owner, lessee, or manager of such place, knowingly permits such abandoned or discarded article to remain in such condition commits a petty offense.

Source: L. 71: R&RE, p. 484, � 1. C.R.S. 1963: � 40-13-106. L. 2021: Entire

section amended, (SB 21-271), ch. 462, p. 3213, � 356, effective March 1, 2022.


C.R.S. § 18-13-114

18-13-114. Sale of secondhand property - record - inspection - false information - penalties - definitions. (1) Every secondhand dealer, as defined in subsection (5) of this section, shall make a record, as provided in subsection (2) of this section, of each sale or trade of secondhand property made by him, his agent, or any person acting on his behalf, which sale or trade equals or exceeds thirty dollars in value for each item. Such record shall be made available to any peace officer for inspection at any reasonable time. The secondhand dealer shall mail or deliver the record of the sale or trade to the local law enforcement agency within three days of the date of such sale or trade. The secondhand dealer shall keep a copy of the record of the sale or trade for at least one year after the date of the sale or trade.

(2)  The record required by this section shall be made in writing on forms

designed by the Colorado bureau of investigation or a reasonable facsimile thereof as provided in subsection (3) or (4) of this section and shall consist of the following:

(a)  The name, address, and date of birth of the seller or trader;


(b)  The date, time, and place of the sale or trade;


(c)  An accurate and detailed account and description of the item sold or

traded, including, but not limited to, any trademark, identification number, serial number, model number, brand name, or other identifying mark on such item;

(d)  The identification number from any of the following forms of

identification of the seller or trader:

(I)  A valid Colorado driver's license;


(II)  An identification card issued in accordance with section 42-2-302, C.R.S.;


(III)  A valid driver's license, containing a picture, issued by another state;


(IV)  A military identification card;


(V)  A valid passport;


(VI)  An alien registration card; or


(VII)  A nonpicture identification document issued by a state or federal

government entity;

(e)  The signature of the seller or trader;


(f)  A declaration by the secondhand dealer that he is the rightful owner of

the secondhand property and a description of how he obtained the property, including the serial number of such property if available or a copy of the bill of sale of such property; and

(g)  A declaration by the secondhand dealer that he has knowledge of the

requirement that he mail or deliver a record of the sale or trade to the local law enforcement agency, as required by subsection (1) of this section.

(3)  Any city, municipality, city and county, or county which regulates

secondhand dealers and assesses a fee as provided in section 18-13-118 shall print and provide the forms for reporting required pursuant to subsection (2) of this section.

(4)  In cities, municipalities, city and counties, and counties which do not

license secondhand dealers and assess a fee as provided in section 18-13-118, the secondhand dealer shall report all the information required pursuant to subsection (2) of this section in a form acceptable to the local law enforcement agency.

(5)  As used in this section and sections 18-13-115 to 18-13-118, unless the

context otherwise requires:

(a)  Local law enforcement agency means any marshal's office, police

department, or sheriff's office with jurisdiction in the locality in which the sale or trade occurs.

(b)  Peace officer means any undersheriff, deputy sheriff other than one

appointed with authority only to receive and serve summonses and civil process, police officer, Colorado state patrol officer, town marshal, or investigator for a district attorney or the attorney general who is engaged in full-time employment by the state, a city, city and county, town, judicial district, or county within this state.

(c)  Secondhand dealer means any person whose principal business is that

of engaging in selling or trading secondhand property. The term also includes the following: Any person whose principal business is not that of engaging in selling or trading secondhand property but who sells or trades secondhand property through means commonly known as flea markets or any similar facilities in which secondhand property is offered for sale or trade; any person who sells or trades secondhand property from a nonpermanent location; and any person who purchases for resale any secondhand property which carries a manufacturer or serial number. The term does not include:

(I)  A person selling or trading secondhand property so long as such property

was not originally purchased for resale and so long as such person does not sell or trade secondhand property more than five weekend periods in any one calendar year, as verified by a declaration to be prepared by the seller. For the purposes of this subparagraph (I), weekend period means Friday through the immediately following Monday.

(II)  A person who is a retailer as defined in section 39-26-102 (8), C.R.S., or a

wholesaler as defined in section 39-26-102 (18), C.R.S., and who is selling or trading secondhand property in a location which is a permanent storefront location, unless such property carries a manufacturer or serial number;

(III)  A person or organization selling or trading secondhand property at an

exhibition or show which is intended to display and advertise a particular commodity or class of products, including, but not limited to, antique exhibitions, firearm exhibitions, home and garden shows, and recreational vehicle shows;

(IV)  A person or organization which is charitable, nonprofit, recreational,

fraternal, or political in nature or which is exempt from taxation pursuant to section 501 (c)(3) of the federal Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended;

(V)  A person selling or trading firewood, Christmas trees, plants, food

products, agricultural products, fungible goods, pets, livestock, or arts and crafts, excluding jewelry and items crafted of gold or silver, if sold or traded by the artist or craftsman, his immediate family, or regular employees;

(VI)  A person who sells new goods exclusively, is in the business of selling

such goods, is in all respects a retailer of such goods, and holds a retail license and a sales tax license in the city, county, or city and county in which the sale occurs;

(VII)  An antique dealer who sells antiques, has a retail license and sales tax

license in the city, county, or city and county in which the sale occurs, and sells such antiques from a permanent storefront location.

(d)  Secondhand property means the following items of tangible personal

property sold or traded by a secondhand dealer:

(I)  Cameras, camera lenses, slide or movie projectors, projector screens,

flashguns, enlargers, tripods, binoculars, telescopes, and microscopes;

(II)  Televisions, phonographs, tape recorders, video recorders, radios, tuners,

speakers, turntables, amplifiers, record changers, citizens' band broadcasting units and receivers, and video games;

(III)  Skis, ski poles, ski boots, ski bindings, golf clubs, guns, jewelry, coins,

luggage, boots, and furs;

(IV)  Typewriters, adding machines, calculators, computers, portable air

conditioners, cash registers, copying machines, dictating machines, automatic telephone answering machines, and sewing machines;

(V)  Bicycles, bicycle frames, bicycle derailleur assemblies, bicycle hand

brake assemblies, and other bicycle components; and

(VI)  Any item of tangible personal property which is marked with a serial or

identification number and the selling price of which is thirty dollars or more, except motor vehicles, off-highway vehicles as defined in section 42-1-102 (63), C.R.S., snowmobiles, ranges, stoves, dishwashers, refrigerators, garbage disposals, boats, airplanes, clothes washers, clothes driers, freezers, mobile homes, and nonprecious scrap metal.

(6) (a)  Any secondhand dealer who violates subsection (1) or (2) of this

section commits a petty offense.

(b)  Any buyer or person who trades with a secondhand dealer or any

secondhand dealer who knowingly gives false information with respect to the information required by subsection (2) of this section commits a class 2 misdemeanor.

(7) (a)  Local law enforcement agencies who print and provide forms as

designed by the Colorado bureau of investigation for recording the information required by subsection (2) of this section may charge a reasonable fee for each form to defray the cost of providing such form.

(b)  Each local law enforcement agency may establish rules or policies

requiring that secondhand dealers provide it with copies of such records. The local law enforcement agency may set forth how often such copies shall be provided to it. Each local law enforcement agency shall forward copies of records received by it to the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction in the area in which the buyer or trader resides.

(8)  In the case of flea markets and similar facilities in which secondhand

property is offered for sale or trade, the operator thereof shall inform each secondhand dealer of the requirements of this section and shall provide the forms for recording the information required by subsection (2) of this section. Any person who violates the provisions of this subsection (8) commits a petty offense.

(9)  In the case of flea markets and similar facilities in which secondhand

property is offered for sale or trade, the operator thereof shall record the name and address of each secondhand dealer operating at the flea market or similar facility and the identification number of such dealer as obtained from any of the forms of identification enumerated in paragraph (d) of subsection (2) of this section. Such record shall be mailed or delivered by the operator to the local law enforcement agency within three days of the date the secondhand dealer offered secondhand property for sale or trade at the flea market or similar facility. A copy of such record shall be retained by the operator for at least one year after the date the secondhand dealer offered secondhand property for sale or trade at the flea market or similar facility.

Source: L. 83: Entire section added, p. 713, � 1, effective July 1. L. 89: IP(5)(c),

(5)(c)(II), and (5)(d)(VI) amended, p. 912, � 1, effective July 1. L. 94: (2)(d)(II) and (5)(d)(VI) amended, p. 2553, � 43, effective January 1, 1995. L. 2000: (5)(c)(IV) amended, p. 1848, � 37, effective August 2. L. 2021: (6) and (8) amended, (SB 21-271), ch. 462, p. 3215, � 364, effective March 1, 2022. L. 2023: (6)(a) amended, (HB 23-1293), ch. 298, p. 1793, � 51, effective October 1.


C.R.S. § 18-20-106

18-20-106. Cheating. (1) It is unlawful for any person, whether he is an owner or employee of, or a player in, an establishment, to cheat at any limited gaming activity.

(2)  For purposes of article 30 of title 44, cheating means to alter the

selection of criteria which determine:

(a)  The result of a game; or


(b)  The amount or frequency of payment in a game.


(3)  Any person issued a license pursuant to article 30 of title 44, violating

any provision of this section commits a class 6 felony, and any other person violating any provision of this section commits a class 2 misdemeanor. If the person is a repeating gambling offender, the person commits a class 5 felony.

Source: L. 91: Entire article added, p. 1585, � 11, effective June 4. L. 2018:

IP(2) and (3) amended, (SB 18-034), ch. 14, p. 242, � 19, effective October 1. L. 2021: (3) amended, (SB 21-271), ch. 462, p. 3219, � 381, effective March 1, 2022.


C.R.S. § 18-20-109

18-20-109. Use of counterfeit or unapproved chips or tokens or unlawful coins or devices - possession of certain unlawful devices, equipment, products, or materials. (1) It is unlawful for any licensee, employee, or other person to use counterfeit chips in any limited gaming activity.

(2)  It is unlawful for any person, in playing or using any limited gaming

activity designed to be played with, to receive, or to be operated by chips or tokens approved by the Colorado limited gaming control commission or by lawful coin of the United States of America:

(a)  Knowingly to use anything other than chips or tokens approved by the

Colorado limited gaming control commission or lawful coin, legal tender of the United States of America, or to use coin not of the same denomination as the coin intended to be used in that limited gaming activity; or

(b)  To use any device or means to violate the provisions of article 30 of title

44.

(3)  It is unlawful for any person to possess any device, equipment, or

material which he knows has been manufactured, distributed, sold, tampered with, or serviced in violation of the provisions of article 30 of title 44.

(4)  It is unlawful for any person, not a duly authorized employee of a licensee

acting in furtherance of his or her employment within an establishment, to have on his or her person or in his or her possession any device intended to be used to violate the provisions of article 30 of title 44.

(5)  It is unlawful for any person, not a duly authorized employee of a licensee

acting in furtherance of his or her employment within an establishment, to have on his or her person or in his or her possession while on the premises of any licensed gaming establishment any key or device known to have been designed for the purpose of and suitable for opening, entering, or affecting the operation of any limited gaming activity, drop box, or electronic or mechanical device connected thereto, or for removing money or other contents therefrom.

(6)  Possession of more than one of the devices, equipment, products, or

materials described in this section shall give rise to a rebuttable presumption that the possessor intended to use them for cheating.

(7)  It is unlawful for any person to use or possess while on the premises any

cheating or thieving device, including but not limited to, tools, drills, wires, coins, or tokens attached to strings or wires or electronic or magnetic devices, to facilitate the alignment of any winning combination or to facilitate removing from any slot machine any money or contents thereof, unless the person is a duly authorized gaming employee acting in the furtherance of his or her employment.

(8)  A person violating any provision of this section commits a class 6 felony.


Source: L. 91: Entire article added, p. 1587, � 11, effective June 4. L. 2001: (8)

amended, p. 605, � 3, effective July 1. L. 2018: (2)(b), (3), and (4) amended, (SB 18-034), ch. 14, p. 243, � 22, effective October 1. L. 2023: (8) amended, (HB 23-1293), ch. 298, p. 1795, � 57, effective October 1.


C.R.S. § 18-20-110

18-20-110. Cheating game and devices. (1) It is unlawful for any person playing any licensed game in licensed gaming premises to:

(a)  Knowingly conduct, carry on, operate, or deal or allow to be conducted,

carried on, operated, or dealt any cheating or thieving game or device; or

(b)  Knowingly deal, conduct, carry on, operate, or expose for play any game

or games played with cards or any mechanical device, or any combination of games or devices, which have in any manner been marked or tampered with or placed in a condition or operated in a manner the result of which tends to deceive the public or tends to alter the normal random selection of characteristics or the normal chance of the game which could determine or alter the result of the game.

(2)  Any person violating any provision of this section commits a class 6

felony; except that, if the person is a repeating gambling offender, the person commits a class 5 felony.

Source: L. 91: Entire article added, p. 1589, � 11, effective June 4. L. 2001: (2)

amended, p. 606, � 4, effective July 1.


C.R.S. § 18-20-111

18-20-111. Unlawful manufacture, sale, distribution, marking, altering, or modification of equipment and devices related to limited gaming - unlawful instruction. (1) It is unlawful to manufacture, sell, or distribute any cards, chips, dice, game, or device that is intended to be used to violate any provision of article 30 of title 44.

(2)  It is unlawful to mark, alter, or otherwise modify related equipment or a

limited gaming device in a manner that:

(a)  Affects the result of a wager by determining win or loss; or


(b)  Alters the normal criteria of random selection, which affects the

operation of a game or which determines the outcome of a game.

(3)  It is unlawful for any person to instruct another in cheating or in the use

of any device for that purpose, with the knowledge or intent that the information or use so conveyed may be employed to violate any provision of article 30 of title 44.

(4)  Any person issued a license pursuant to article 30 of title 44 violating any

provision of this section commits a class 6 felony, and any other person violating any provision of this section commits a class 2 misdemeanor.

Source: L. 91: Entire article added, p. 1589, � 11, effective June 4. L. 2013:

IP(2) amended, (SB 13-173), ch. 397, p. 2323, � 19, effective July 1. L. 2018: (1), (3), and (4) amended, (SB 18-034), ch. 14, p. 243, � 23, effective October 1. L. 2021: (4) amended, (SB 21-271), ch. 462, p. 3219, � 384, effective March 1, 2022. L. 2023: (4) amended, (HB 23-1293), ch. 298, p. 1795, � 58, effective October 1.


C.R.S. § 18-6-805

18-6-805. Repeal of sections. (Repealed)

Source: L. 95: Entire section added, p. 569, � 10, effective July 1. L. 96: (1)

amended, p. 1470, � 12, effective June 1. L. 98: Entire section amended, p. 771, � 1, effective May 22. L. 99: (1) amended, p. 623, � 20, effective August 4. L. 2000: Entire section repealed, p. 914, � 5, effective July 1.

ARTICLE 6.5

Wrongs to At-risk Adults

18-6.5-101.  Legislative declaration. The general assembly recognizes that

fear of mistreatment is one of the major personal concerns of at-risk persons and that at-risk persons are more vulnerable to and disproportionately damaged by crime in general but, more specifically, by abuse, exploitation, and neglect because they are less able to protect themselves against offenders, a number of whom are in positions of trust, and because they are more likely to receive serious injury from crimes committed against them and not to fully recover from such injury. At-risk persons are more impacted by crime than the general population because they tend to suffer great relative deprivation, financially, physically, and psychologically, as a result of the abuses against them. A significant number of at-risk persons are not as physically, intellectually, or emotionally equipped to protect themselves or aid in their own security as non-at-risk persons in society. They are far more susceptible than the general population to the adverse long-term effects of crimes committed against them, including abuse, exploitation, and neglect. The general assembly therefore finds that penalties for specified crimes committed against at-risk persons should be more severe than the penalties for the commission of the same crimes against other members of society.

Source: L. 91: Entire article added, p. 1778, � 2, effective July 1. L. 93: Entire

section amended, p. 1733, � 22, effective July 1. L. 2016: Entire section amended, (HB 16-1394), ch. 172, p. 545, � 1, effective July 1.

18-6.5-102.  Definitions. As used in this article 6.5, unless the context

otherwise requires:

(1)  Abuse means any of the following acts or omissions committed against

an at-risk person:

(a)  The nonaccidental infliction of bodily injury, serious bodily injury, or

death;

(b)  Confinement or restraint that is unreasonable under generally accepted

caretaking standards; or

(c)  Subjection to sexual conduct or contact classified as a crime under this

title.

(2)  At-risk adult means any person who is seventy years of age or older or

any person who is eighteen years of age or older and is a person with a disability as said term is defined in subsection (11) of this section.

(2.5)  At-risk adult with IDD means a person who is eighteen years of age or

older and is a person with an intellectual and developmental disability, as defined in section 25.5-10-202 (26)(a), C.R.S.

(3)  At-risk elder means any person who is seventy years of age or older.


(4)  At-risk juvenile means any person who is under the age of eighteen

years and is a person with a disability as said term is defined in subsection (11) of this section.

(4.5)  At-risk person means an at-risk adult, an at-risk adult with IDD, an at-risk elder, or an at-risk juvenile.


(5)  Caretaker means a person who:


(a)  Is responsible for the care of an at-risk person as a result of a family or

legal relationship;

(b)  Has assumed responsibility for the care of an at-risk person; or


(c)  Is paid to provide care or services to an at-risk person.


(6) (a)  Caretaker neglect means neglect that occurs when adequate food,

clothing, shelter, psychological care, physical care, medical care, habilitation, supervision, or any other treatment necessary for the health or safety of an at-risk person is not secured for an at-risk person or is not provided by a caretaker in a timely manner and with the degree of care that a reasonable person in the same situation would exercise, or a caretaker knowingly uses harassment, undue influence, or intimidation to create a hostile or fearful environment for an at-risk person.

(b)  Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (a) of this subsection (6), the

withholding, withdrawing, or refusing of any medication, any medical procedure or device, or any treatment, including but not limited to resuscitation, cardiac pacing, mechanical ventilation, dialysis, and artificial nutrition and hydration, in accordance with any valid medical directive or order or as described in a palliative plan of care, is not deemed caretaker neglect.

(c)  As used in this subsection (6), medical directive or order includes a

medical durable power of attorney, a declaration as to medical treatment executed pursuant to section 15-18-104, C.R.S., a medical order for scope of treatment form executed pursuant to article 18.7 of title 15, C.R.S., and a CPR directive executed pursuant to article 18.6 of title 15, C.R.S.

(7)  Clergy member means a priest; rabbi; duly ordained, commissioned, or

licensed minister of a church; member of a religious order; or recognized leader of any religious body.

(8)  Convicted and conviction mean a plea of guilty accepted by the court,

including a plea of guilty entered pursuant to a deferred sentence under section 18-1.3-102, a verdict of guilty by a judge or jury, or a plea of no contest accepted by the court.

(9)  Crime against an at-risk person means any offense listed in section 18-6.5-103 or criminal attempt, conspiracy, or solicitation to commit any of those

offenses.

(10)  Exploitation means an act or omission committed by a person who:


(a)  Uses deception, harassment, intimidation, or undue influence to

permanently or temporarily deprive an at-risk person of the use, benefit, or possession of any thing of value;

(b)  Employs the services of a third party for the profit or advantage of the

person or another person to the detriment of the at-risk person;

(c)  Forces, compels, coerces, or entices an at-risk person to perform services

for the profit or advantage of the person or another person against the will of the at-risk person; or

(d)  Misuses the property of an at-risk person in a manner that adversely

affects the at-risk person's ability to receive health care or health-care benefits or to pay bills for basic needs or obligations.

(10.5)  Mistreated or mistreatment means:


(a)  Abuse;


(b)  Caretaker neglect; or


(c)  Exploitation.


(11)  Person with a disability means any person who:


(a)  Is impaired because of the loss of or permanent loss of use of a hand or

foot or because of blindness or the permanent impairment of vision of both eyes to such a degree as to constitute virtual blindness;

(b)  Is unable to walk, see, hear, or speak;


(c)  Is unable to breathe without mechanical assistance;


(d)  Is a person with an intellectual and developmental disability as defined in

section 25.5-10-202, C.R.S.;

(e)  Has a mental health disorder, as defined in section 27-65-102;


(f)  Is mentally impaired as the term is defined in section 24-34-501 (1.3)(b)(II),

C.R.S.;

(g)  Is blind as that term is defined in section 26-2-103 (3), C.R.S.; or


(h)  Is receiving care and treatment for a developmental disability under

article 10.5 of title 27, C.R.S.

(12)  Position of trust means assuming a responsibility, duty, or fiduciary

relationship toward an at-risk adult or at-risk juvenile.

(13)  Undue influence means the use of influence to take advantage of an

at-risk person's vulnerable state of mind, neediness, pain, or emotional distress.

(14)  Unlawful abandonment means the intentional and unreasonable

desertion of an at-risk person in a manner that endangers the safety of that person.

Source: L. 91: Entire article added, p. 1778, � 2, effective July 1. L. 92: (3)(d)

amended, p. 1397, � 54, effective July 1. L. 93: (1.5) added and (3)(a) and (3)(f) amended, pp. 1733, 1637, �� 23, 21, effective July 1. L. 2006: (3)(e) amended, p. 1388, � 17, effective August 7. L. 2007: (3.5) added, p. 2006, � 1, effective July 1. L. 2010: (3)(e) amended, (SB 10-175), ch. 188, p. 786, � 31, effective April 29. L. 2012: (1.7) and (1.8) added, (HB 12-1226), ch. 279, p. 1486, � 1, effective August 15. L. 2013: Entire section amended, (SB 13-111), ch. 233, p. 1119, � 3, effective May 16; (3)(d) amended, (HB 13-1314), ch. 323, p. 1804, � 30, effective March 1, 2014. L. 2014: (1), (10)(a), and (13) amended, (SB 14-098), ch. 103, p. 386, � 1, effective April 7. L. 2015: (2.5) added, (SB 15-109), ch. 278, p. 1140, � 2, effective June 5; (11)(f) amended, (SB 15-264), ch. 259, p. 952, � 40, effective August 5. L. 2016: (1), (2.5), (5), (6), (9), (10), and (13) amended and (4.5) and (10.5) added, (HB 16-1394), ch. 172, p. 545, � 2, effective July 1. L. 2017: IP and (11)(e) amended, (SB 17-242), ch. 263, p. 1307, � 142, effective May 25. L. 2019: (14) added, (SB 19-172), ch. 365, p. 3359, � 2, effective July 1. L. 2022: (11)(e) amended, (HB 22-1256), ch. 451, p. 3229, � 27, effective August 10.

Editor's note: Amendments to subsection (3)(d) by House Bill 13-1314 and

Senate Bill 13-111 were harmonized, and subsection (3)(d) was relocated to subsection (11)(d).

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in the 2013 act amending

this section, see section 1 of chapter 233, Session Laws of Colorado 2013. For the legislative declaration in SB 17-242, see section 1 of chapter 263, Session Laws of Colorado 2017. For the legislative declaration in SB 19-172, see section 1 of chapter 365, Session Laws of Colorado 2019.

18-6.5-103.  Crimes against at-risk persons - classifications. (1)  Crimes

against at-risk persons are as prescribed in this section.

(2)  Any person whose conduct amounts to criminal negligence, as defined in

section 18-1-501 (3), commits:

(a)  A class 4 felony if such negligence results in the death of an at-risk

person;

(b)  A class 5 felony if such negligence results in serious bodily injury to an

at-risk person; and

(c)  A class 6 felony if such negligence results in bodily injury to an at-risk

person.

(3) (a)  Any person who commits a crime of assault in the first degree, as such

crime is described in section 18-3-202, and the victim is an at-risk person, commits a class 4 felony if the circumstances described in section 18-3-202 (2)(a) are present and a class 2 felony if such circumstances are not present.

(b)  Any person who commits a crime of assault in the second degree, as such

crime is described in section 18-3-203, and the victim is an at-risk person, commits a class 5 felony if the circumstances described in section 18-3-203 (2)(a) are present and a class 3 felony if such circumstances are not present.

(c)  Any person who commits a crime of assault in the third degree, as such

crime is described in section 18-3-204, and the victim is an at-risk person, commits a class 6 felony.

(4)  Any person who commits robbery, as such crime is described in section

18-4-301 (1), and the victim is an at-risk person, commits a class 3 felony. If the offender is convicted of robbery of an at-risk person, the court shall sentence the defendant to the department of corrections for at least the presumptive sentence under section 18-1.3-401 (1).

(5)  Any person who commits theft, and commits any element or portion of

the offense in the presence of the victim, as such crime is described in section 18-4-401 (1), and the victim is an at-risk person, or who commits theft against an at-risk person while acting in a position of trust, whether or not in the presence of the victim, or who commits theft against an at-risk person knowing the victim is an at-risk person, whether in the presence of the victim or not, commits a class 5 felony if the value of the thing involved is less than five hundred dollars or a class 3 felony if the value of the thing involved is five hundred dollars or more. Theft from the person of an at-risk person by means other than the use of force, threat, or intimidation is a class 4 felony without regard to the value of the thing taken.

(5.5)  (Deleted by amendment, L. 2016.)


(6) (a)  Any person who knowingly commits caretaker neglect against an at-risk person or knowingly acts in a manner likely to be injurious to the physical or

mental welfare of an at-risk person commits a class 1 misdemeanor.

(b)  A person who unlawfully abandons an at-risk person commits a class 1

misdemeanor.

(7) (a)  Any person who commits a crime of sexual assault, as such crime is

described in section 18-3-402, sexual assault in the first degree, as such crime was described in section 18-3-402, as it existed prior to July 1, 2000, and the victim is an at-risk person, commits a class 2 felony.

(b)  Any person who commits a crime of sexual assault in the second degree,

as such crime was described in section 18-3-403, as it existed prior to July 1, 2000, and the victim is an at-risk person, commits a class 3 felony.

(c)  Any person who commits unlawful sexual contact, as such crime is

described in section 18-3-404, or sexual assault in the third degree, as such crime was described in section 18-3-404, as it existed prior to July 1, 2000, and the victim is an at-risk person, commits a class 6 felony; except that the person commits a class 3 felony if the person compels the victim to submit by use of such force, intimidation, or threat as specified in section 18-3-402 (4)(a), (4)(b), or (4)(c), or if the actor engages in the conduct described in section 18-3-404 (1)(g) or (1.5).

(d)  Any person who commits sexual assault on a child, as such crime is

described in section 18-3-405, and the victim is an at-risk juvenile, commits a class 3 felony; except that, if the circumstances described in section 18-3-405 (2)(a), (2)(b), (2)(c), or (2)(d) are present, the person commits a class 2 felony.

(e)  Any person who commits sexual assault on a child by one in a position of

trust, as such crime is described in section 18-3-405.3, and the victim is an at-risk juvenile, commits a class 2 felony if the victim is less than fifteen years of age or a class 3 felony if the victim is fifteen years of age or older but less than eighteen years of age.

(f)  Any person who commits sexual assault on a client by a psychotherapist,

as such crime is described in section 18-3-405.5, and the victim is an at-risk person, commits a class 3 felony if the circumstances described in section 18-3-405.5 (1) exist or a class 6 felony if such circumstances are not present.

(7.5) (a)  A person commits criminal exploitation of an at-risk person when he

or she knowingly uses deception, harassment, intimidation, or undue influence to permanently or temporarily deprive an at-risk person of the use, benefit, or possession of any thing of value.

(b)  Criminal exploitation of an at-risk person is a class 3 felony if the thing of

value is five hundred dollars or greater. Criminal exploitation of an at-risk person is a class 5 felony if the thing of value is less than five hundred dollars.

(8)  (Deleted by amendment, L. 2016.)


(9) (a)  A person commits false imprisonment of an at-risk person if without

proper legal authority:

(I) (A)  The person knowingly confines or detains an at-risk person in a locked

or barricaded room or other space; and

(B)  Such confinement or detention was part of a continued pattern of cruel

punishment or unreasonable isolation or confinement of the at-risk person; or

(II)  The person knowingly and unreasonably confines or detains an at-risk

person by tying, caging, chaining, or otherwise using similar physical restraints to restrict the at-risk person's freedom of movement; or

(III)  The person knowingly and unreasonably confines or detains an at-risk

person by means of force, threats, or intimidation designed to restrict the at-risk person's freedom of movement.

(b)  It is an affirmative defense for any person with responsibility for the care

or supervision of an at-risk person whose conduct would otherwise constitute an offense pursuant to subsection (9)(a)(II) of this section that the conduct with respect to the at-risk person is reasonable and appropriate under the circumstances and is also reasonably necessary to promote the safety and welfare of the at-risk person.

(c) (I)  False imprisonment of an at-risk person pursuant to subsection (9)(a)(I)

or (9)(a)(II) of this section is a class 6 felony.

(II)  False imprisonment of an at-risk person pursuant to subsection (9)(a)(III)

of this section is a class 1 misdemeanor.

Source: L. 91: Entire article added, p. 1779, � 2, effective July 1. L. 93: Entire

section amended, p. 1733, � 24, effective July 1. L. 95: (3) amended, p. 1254, � 14, effective July 1. L. 97: (7) added, p. 1539, � 2, effective July 1. L. 98: (5) amended and (8) added, pp. 1440, 1441, �� 19, 24, effective July 1. L. 99: (6) amended, p. 799, � 20, effective July 1. L. 2000: (7)(a), (7)(b), and (7)(c) amended, p. 706, � 32, effective July 1. L. 2002: (4) amended, p. 1516, � 201, effective October 1. L. 2003: (4) amended, p. 1428, � 10, effective April 29. L. 2007: (5) amended, p. 2006, � 2, effective July 1. L. 2013: (5.5) and (7.5) added and (6) and (8) amended, (SB 13-111), ch. 233, p. 1122, � 4, effective May 16. L. 2014: (7.5) R&RE, (SB 14-098), ch. 103, p. 387, � 2, effective April 7. L. 2016: Entire section amended, (HB 16-1394), ch. 172, p. 547, � 3, effective July 1. L. 2019: (6) amended and (9) added, (SB 19-172), ch. 365, p. 3359, � 3, effective July 1.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration contained in the 2002 act

amending subsection (4), see section 1 of chapter 318, Session Laws of Colorado 2002. For the legislative declaration in the 2013 act adding subsections (5.5) and (7.5) and amending subsections (6) and (8), see section 1 of chapter 233, Session Laws of Colorado 2013. For the legislative declaration in SB 19-172, see section 1 of chapter 365, Session Laws of Colorado 2019.

18-6.5-103.5.  Video tape depositions - at-risk adult victims and witnesses.

(1) In any case in which a defendant is charged with a crime against an at-risk adult or at-risk elder, or in any case involving a victim or witness who is an at-risk adult or at-risk elder, the prosecution may file a motion with the court at any time prior to commencement of the trial for an order that a deposition be taken of the testimony of the victim or witness and that the deposition be recorded and preserved on a video imaging format.

(2)  The prosecution shall file a motion requesting a recorded deposition at

least fourteen days prior to the taking of the deposition. The defendant shall receive reasonable notice of the taking of the deposition. The defendant shall have the right to be present and to be represented by counsel at the deposition; except that for good cause shown, the court may permit the filing of a motion requesting a recorded deposition less than fourteen days prior to taking the deposition.

(3) (a) (I)  Upon receipt of the motion, the court shall schedule the deposition

to take place within fourteen days without further findings, except for good cause shown by the prosecution if the motion asks for the deposition to be taken in less than fourteen days, if the victim is an at-risk elder.

(II)  Except for depositions of at-risk elder victims as described in

subparagraph (I) of this paragraph (a), upon the filing of the motion by the prosecution stating reasons the victim or witness may be unavailable at trial, the court may order a deposition for an at-risk adult victim or witness or at-risk elder witness. Filing the motion creates a rebuttable presumption that a deposition should be taken to prevent injustice. The court may deny the motion for deposition upon a finding that granting the motion will not prevent injustice. The prosecution may file a new request for a deposition if circumstances change prior to trial.

(III)  Both the prosecution and the defendant shall provide all available

discovery no later than five days before the scheduled deposition. If the discovery has not been provided as set forth in this subparagraph (III), either party may file a motion with the court to reschedule the deposition in order to obtain the necessary discovery to adequately prepare for the deposition.

(b)  The deposition must be taken, preserved on a video imaging format, and

conducted pursuant to rule 15 (d) of the Colorado rules of criminal procedure; except that after consultation with the chief judge of the judicial district, the trial court may appoint an active or senior district or county court judge to serve in its place and preside over all aspects of the taking of the deposition. After the deposition is taken, the prosecution shall transmit the recording to the clerk of the court in which the action is pending.

(4)  If at the time of trial the court finds that the victim or witness is medically

unavailable or otherwise unavailable within the meaning of rule 804 (a) of the Colorado rules of evidence, the court may admit the recording of the victim's or witness' deposition as former testimony under rule 804 (b)(1) of the Colorado rules of evidence.

Source: L. 2000: Entire section added, p. 416, � 1, effective April 13. L. 2004:

(3) amended, p. 422, � 1, effective August 4. L. 2013: (1) amended, (SB 13-111), ch. 233, p. 1127, � 12, effective May 16. L. 2016: Entire section amended, (HB 16-1027), ch. 179, p. 615, � 1, effective July 1.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in the 2013 act amending

subsection (1), see section 1 of chapter 233, Session Laws of Colorado 2013.

18-6.5-104.  Statutory privilege not allowed. The statutory privileges

provided in section 13-90-107 (1), C.R.S., are not available for excluding or refusing testimony in any prosecution for a crime committed against an at-risk person pursuant to this article.

Source: L. 91: Entire article added, p. 1780, � 2, effective July 1. L. 93: Entire

section amended, p. 1734, � 25, effective July 1. L. 2016: Entire section amended, (HB 16-1394), ch. 172, p. 550, � 4, effective July 1.

18-6.5-105.  Preferential trial dates of cases involving crimes against at-risk persons. Consistent with the constitutional right to a speedy trial, all cases

involving the commission of a crime against an at-risk person must take precedence before the court, and the court shall hear these cases as soon as possible after they are filed.

Source: L. 91: Entire article added, p. 1780, � 2, effective July 1. L. 93: Entire

section amended, p. 1735, � 26, effective July 1. L. 2016: Entire section amended, (HB 16-1394), ch. 172, p. 550, � 5, effective July 1.

18-6.5-106.  Payment of treatment costs for victims of crimes against at-risk persons - restitution. (1)  In addition to any other penalty provided by law, the

court may order any person who is convicted of a crime against an at-risk person, as set forth in this article, to meet all or any portion of the financial obligations of treatment prescribed for the victim or victims of such person's offense.

(2)  At the time of sentencing, the court may order that an offender described

in subsection (1) of this section be put on a period of probation for the purpose of paying the treatment costs of the victim or victims, which, when added to any time served, does not exceed the maximum sentence imposable for the offense.

(3)  If an at-risk person has sustained monetary damages as a result of the

commission of a crime described in this article against such person, the court shall order the offender to provide restitution pursuant to article 18.5 of title 16 and article 28 of title 17, C.R.S. If, after a reasonable period not to exceed one hundred eighty-two days, the offender has not, in the opinion of the court, completed adequate restitution, the offender's probation may be revoked. However, any remaining amount of restitution continues to have the full force and effect of a final judgment and remain enforceable pursuant to article 18.5 of title 16, C.R.S.

Source: L. 91: Entire article added, p. 1780, � 2, effective July 1. L. 93: Entire

section amended, p. 1735, � 27, effective July 1. L. 2000: (3) amended, p. 1050, � 18, effective September 1. L. 2012: (3) amended, (SB 12-175), ch. 208, p. 873, � 129, effective July 1. L. 2016: (1) and (3) amended, (HB 16-1394), ch. 172, p. 550, � 6, effective July 1.

18-6.5-107.  Surcharge - collection and distribution of funds - crimes

against at-risk persons surcharge fund - creation - report. (1) Each person who is convicted of a crime against an at-risk person or who is convicted of identity theft pursuant to section 18-5-902, when the victim is an at-risk person, shall be required to pay a surcharge to the clerk of the court for the judicial district in which the conviction occurs.

(2)  Surcharges pursuant to subsection (1) of this section shall be in the

following amounts:

(a)  For each class 2 felony of which a person is convicted, one thousand five

hundred dollars;

(b)  For each class 3 felony of which a person is convicted, one thousand

dollars;

(c)  For each class 4 felony of which a person is convicted, five hundred

dollars;

(d)  For each class 5 felony of which a person is convicted, three hundred

seventy-five dollars;

(e)  For each class 6 felony of which a person is convicted, two hundred fifty

dollars;

(f)  For each class 1 misdemeanor of which a person is convicted, two hundred

dollars;

(g)  For each class 2 misdemeanor of which a person is convicted, one

hundred fifty dollars; and

(h)  For each class 3 misdemeanor of which a person is convicted, seventy-five dollars.


(3)  The clerk of the court shall allocate the surcharge required pursuant to

this section as follows:

(a)  Five percent shall be retained by the clerk of the court for administrative

costs incurred pursuant to this subsection (3). Such amount retained shall be transmitted to the state treasurer for deposit in the judicial stabilization cash fund created in section 13-32-101 (6), C.R.S.

(b)  Ninety-five percent shall be transferred to the state treasurer, who shall

credit the same to the crimes against at-risk persons surcharge fund created pursuant to subsection (4) of this section.

(4) (a)  There is created in the state treasury the crimes against at-risk

persons surcharge fund, referred to in this section as the fund, that consists of money received by the state treasurer pursuant to this section. The money in the fund is subject to annual appropriation by the general assembly to the state office on aging in the department of human services, created pursuant to section 26-11-202, C.R.S., for distribution to a fiscal agent that is an affiliate of a national organization that serves individuals affected by a disability and chronic condition across the life span and is working with the state of Colorado to implement the lifespan respite care program, referred to in this section as the fiscal agent. Provided that programs selected to receive money from the fund meet the guidelines for distribution pursuant to paragraph (b) of this subsection (4), the fiscal agent shall award money to programs selected by a statewide coalition of nonprofit or not-for-profit organizations that focus on the needs of caregivers of at-risk persons.

(b)  The state office on aging in the department of human services shall

establish guidelines for the distribution of the moneys from the fund, including but not limited to:

(I)  Procedures for programs to use in applying for an award of moneys from

the fund;

(II)  Procedures for the fiscal agent to use in reporting to the state office on

aging pursuant to paragraph (e) of this subsection (4); and

(III)  Accountability and performance standards for programs that receive

moneys from the fund.

(c)  Notwithstanding any provisions of paragraph (a) of this subsection (4) to

the contrary, the fiscal agent may use a portion of the money that it receives pursuant to paragraph (a) of this subsection (4) for training and to facilitate the coordination of programs that provide respite services for caregivers of at-risk persons. The fiscal agent shall distribute the remainder of the money directly to the programs.

(d)  Each program that receives moneys from the fund shall:


(I)  Provide respite services that allow a caregiver to have a break from

caregiving;

(II)  Have a signed agreement and protocol with the fiscal agent;


(III)  Conduct a fingerprint-based criminal history record check of staff and

providers; and

(IV)  Satisfy the accountability and performance standards established by the

state office on aging pursuant to subparagraph (III) of paragraph (b) of this subsection (4).

(e)  The fiscal agent shall report to the state office on aging in the

department of human services on a regular basis to be specified by the state office on aging. The report shall include, but need not be limited to:

(I)  A list of all programs that received moneys from the fund in the preceding

fiscal year;

(II)  A description of how each program that received moneys from the fund in

the preceding fiscal year used those moneys; and

(III)  Documentation demonstrating that each program that received moneys

from the fund in the preceding fiscal year satisfied all of the criteria specified in paragraph (d) of this subsection (4).

(f)  The state office on aging shall not expend any moneys until the fund has

enough money to pay the expenses necessary to administer the fund.

(g)  All interest derived from the deposit and investment of moneys in the

fund shall be credited to the fund. Any moneys not appropriated by the general assembly shall remain in the fund and shall not be transferred or revert to the general fund of the state at the end of any fiscal year.

(5)  The court may waive all or any portion of the surcharge required by

subsection (1) of this section if the court finds that a person convicted of a crime against an at-risk person is indigent or financially unable to pay all or any portion of the surcharge. The court may waive only that portion of the surcharge that the court finds that the person convicted of a crime against an at-risk person is financially unable to pay.

Source: L. 2012: Entire section added, (HB 12-1226), ch. 279, p. 1486, � 2,

effective August 15. L. 2016: (1), (4)(a), (4)(c), and (5) amended, (HB 16-1394), ch. 172, p. 550, � 7, effective July 1.

18-6.5-108.  Mandatory reports of mistreatment of at-risk elders and at-risk adults with IDD - list of reporters - penalties. (1) (a)  On and after July 1, 2016, a

person specified in paragraph (b) of this subsection (1) who observes the mistreatment of an at-risk elder or an at-risk adult with IDD, or who has reasonable cause to believe that an at-risk elder or an at-risk adult with IDD has been mistreated or is at imminent risk of mistreatment, shall report such fact to a law enforcement agency not more than twenty-four hours after making the observation or discovery.

(b)  The following persons, whether paid or unpaid, shall report as required by

subsection (1)(a) of this section:

(I)  Any person providing health care or health-care-related services,

including general medical, surgical, or nursing services; medical, surgical, or nursing speciality services; dental services; vision services; pharmacy services; chiropractic services; naturopathic medicine services; or physical, occupational, musical, or other therapies;

(II)  Hospital and long-term care facility personnel engaged in the admission,

care, or treatment of patients;

(III)  First responders including emergency medical service providers, fire

protection personnel, law enforcement officers, and persons employed by, contracting with, or volunteering with any law enforcement agency, including victim advocates;

(IV)  Medical examiners and coroners;


(V)  Code enforcement officers;


(VI)  Veterinarians;


(VII)  Psychologists, addiction counselors, professional counselors, marriage

and family therapists, and unlicensed psychotherapists, as those persons are defined in article 245 of title 12;

(VIII)  Social workers, as defined in part 4 of article 245 of title 12;


(IX)  Staff of case management agencies, as defined in section 25.5-6-1702

(2);

(X)  Staff, consultants, or independent contractors of service agencies as

defined in section 25.5-10-202 (34), C.R.S.;

(XI)  Staff or consultants for a licensed or unlicensed, certified or uncertified,

care facility, agency, home, or governing board, including but not limited to long-term care facilities, home care agencies, or home health providers;

(XII)  Staff of, or consultants for, a home care placement agency, as defined

in section 25-27.5-102 (5), C.R.S.;

(XIII)  Persons performing case management or assistant services for at-risk

elders or at-risk adults with IDD;

(XIV)  Staff of county departments of human or social services;


(XV)  Staff of the state departments of human services, public health and

environment, or health care policy and financing;

(XVI)  Staff of senior congregate centers or senior research or outreach

organizations;

(XVII)  Staff, and staff of contracted providers, of area agencies on aging,

except attorneys at law providing legal assistance to individuals pursuant to a contract with an area agency on aging, the staff of such attorneys at law, and the long-term care ombudsmen;

(XVIII)  Employees, contractors, and volunteers operating specialized

transportation services for at-risk elders and at-risk adults with IDD;

(XIX)  Court-appointed guardians and conservators;


(XX)  Personnel at schools serving persons in preschool through twelfth

grade;

(XXI)  Clergy members; except that the reporting requirement described in

paragraph (a) of this subsection (1) does not apply to a person who acquires reasonable cause to believe that an at-risk elder or an at-risk adult with IDD has been mistreated or has been exploited or is at imminent risk of mistreatment or exploitation during a communication about which the person may not be examined as a witness pursuant to section 13-90-107 (1)(c), C.R.S., unless the person also acquires such reasonable cause from a source other than such a communication; and

(XXII) (A)  Personnel of banks, savings and loan associations, credit unions,

and other lending or financial institutions who directly observe in person the mistreatment of an at-risk elder or who have reasonable cause to believe that an at-risk elder has been mistreated or is at imminent risk of mistreatment; and

(B)  Personnel of banks, savings and loan associations, credit unions, and

other lending or financial institutions who directly observe in person the mistreatment of an at-risk adult with IDD or who have reasonable cause to believe that an at-risk adult with IDD has been mistreated or is at imminent risk of mistreatment by reason of actual knowledge of facts or circumstances indicating the mistreatment.

(c)  A person who willfully violates subsection (1)(a) of this section commits a

class 2 misdemeanor and shall be punished in accordance with section 18-1.3-501.

(d)  Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (a) of this subsection (1), a

person described in paragraph (b) of this subsection (1) is not required to report the mistreatment of an at-risk elder or an at-risk adult with IDD if the person knows that another person has already reported to a law enforcement agency the same mistreatment that would have been the basis of the person's own report.

(2) (a)  A law enforcement agency that receives a report of mistreatment of

an at-risk elder or an at-risk adult with IDD shall acquire, to the extent possible, the following information from the person making the report:

(I)  The name, age, address, and contact information of the at-risk elder or at-risk adult with IDD;


(II)  The name, age, address, and contact information of the person making

the report;

(III)  The name, age, address, and contact information of the caretaker of the

at-risk elder or at-risk adult with IDD, if any;

(IV)  The name of the alleged perpetrator;


(V)  The nature and extent of any injury, whether physical or financial, to the

at-risk elder or at-risk adult with IDD;

(VI)  The nature and extent of the condition that required the report to be

made; and

(VII)  Any other pertinent information.


(b)  Not more than twenty-four hours after receiving a report of mistreatment

of an at-risk elder or an at-risk adult with IDD, a law enforcement agency shall provide the report to the county department for the county in which the at-risk elder or at-risk adult with IDD resides and the district attorney's office of the location where the mistreatment occurred.

(c)  The law enforcement agency shall complete a criminal investigation

when appropriate. The law enforcement agency shall provide a summary report of the investigation to the county department for the county in which the at-risk elder or at-risk adult with IDD resides and to the district attorney's office of the location where the mistreatment occurred.

(3)  A person, including but not limited to a person specified in paragraph (b)

of subsection (1) of this section, who reports mistreatment of an at-risk elder or an at-risk adult with IDD to a law enforcement agency pursuant to subsection (1) of this section is immune from suit and liability for damages in any civil action or criminal prosecution if the report was made in good faith; except that such a person is not immune if he or she is the alleged perpetrator of the mistreatment.

(4)  A person, including but not limited to a person specified in subsection

(1)(b) of this section, who knowingly makes a false report of mistreatment of an at-risk elder or an at-risk adult with IDD to a law enforcement agency commits a class 2 misdemeanor and must be punished as provided in section 18-1.3-501 and is liable for damages proximately caused thereby.

(5)  The reporting duty described in subsection (1) of this section does not

create a civil duty of care or establish a civil standard of care that is owed to an at-risk elder or an at-risk adult with IDD by a person specified in paragraph (b) of subsection (1) of this section.

Source: L. 2013: Entire section added, (SB 13-111), ch. 233, p. 1117, � 2,

effective May 16. L. 2015: (1)(a), (1)(b)(IX), (1)(b)(XVI), (1)(d), and (2) to (5) amended, (SB 15-109), ch. 278, p. 1140, � 3, effective July 1, 2016. L. 2016: (1)(a), (1)(b)(IX), (1)(b)(XVI), (1)(d), and (2) to (5) amended, (HB 16-1394), ch. 172, p. 551, � 8, effective July 1. L. 2017: IP(1)(b) and (1)(b)(I) amended, (SB 17-106), ch. 302, p. 1649, � 7, effective August 9. L. 2018: (1)(b)(XVII) amended, (HB 18-1405), ch. 392, p. 2345, � 1, effective September 1. L. 2019: (1)(b)(VII) and (1)(b)(VIII) amended, (HB 19-1172), ch. 136, p. 1676, � 97, effective October 1. L. 2020: (1)(b)(VII) amended, (HB 20-1206), ch. 304, p. 1550, � 63, effective July 14. L. 2021: (1)(c) and (4) amended, (SB 21-271), ch. 462, p. 3193, � 263, effective March 1, 2022; (1)(b)(IX) amended, (HB 21-1187), ch. 83, p. 326, � 6, effective July 1, 2024.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in the 2013 act adding this

section, see section 1 of chapter 233, Session Laws of Colorado 2013.

18-6.5-109.  At-risk adults with intellectual and developmental disabilities

mandatory reporting implementation task force - report - repeal. (Repealed)

Source: L. 2015: Entire section added, (SB 15-109), ch. 278, p. 1137, � 1,

effective June 5.

Editor's note: Subsection (9) provided for the repeal of this section, effective

July 1, 2016. (See L. 2015, p. 1137.)

ARTICLE 7

Offenses Relating to Morals

Editor's note: This title was repealed and reenacted in 1971. For historical

information concerning the repeal and reenactment, see the editor's note following the title heading.

PART 1

OBSCENITY - OFFENSES

Editor's note: This title was repealed and reenacted in 1971, and this part 1

was subsequently repealed and reenacted in 1976, 1977, and 1981, resulting in the addition, relocation, and elimination of sections as well as subject matter. For amendments to this part 1 prior to 1981, consult the Colorado statutory research explanatory note and the table itemizing the replacement volumes and supplements to the original volume of C.R.S. 1973 beginning on page vii in the front of this volume and the editor's note following the title heading. Former C.R.S. section numbers prior to 1981 are shown in editor's notes following those sections that were relocated.

Cross references: For power of boards of county commissioners and

governing bodies of municipalities to regulate obscene material or performance, see �� 30-15-401 (1)(c) and 31-15-401 (1)(g).


C.R.S. § 22-32-153

22-32-153. School ventilation and energy efficiency verification and repair - applicability of section - ventilation verification assessment - filtration - HVAC assessment report - mechanical engineer review - adjustments, repairs, upgrades, and replacements - HVAC verification report - certified contractors - grants - definitions. (1) Definitions. As used in this section, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a)  ACCA means the Air Conditioning Contractors of America.


(b)  ASHRAE means the American Society of Heating, Refrigerating and

Air-Conditioning Engineers.

(c)  Certified contractor means a contractor on the certified contractor list.


(d)  Certified contractor list means the certified contractor list created by

the department of labor and employment pursuant to section 40-3.2-105.6 (3)(a).

(e)  Certified TAB technician means a technician certified to perform

testing, adjusting, and balancing of HVAC systems by:

(I)  The Associated Air Balance Council;


(II)  The National Environmental Balancing Bureau;


(III)  The Testing, Adjusting and Balancing Bureau; or


(IV)  A successor organization of an organization named in subsection (1)(e)(I),

(1)(e)(II), or (1)(e)(III) of this section.

(f)  CO2 means carbon dioxide.


(g)  Department means the department of education created in section 24-1-115.


(h)  HVAC means heating, ventilation, and air conditioning.


(i)  HVAC assessment report means an HVAC assessment report described

in subsection (4) of this section.

(j)  International mechanical code means the 2021 international mechanical

code published by the International Code Council or the most recent version adopted by the office of the state architect created in section 24-30-1302.5.

(k)  ISO/IEC 17024 personnel certification standard means the ISO/IEC

17024 personnel certification accreditation standard developed by the International Organization for Standardization and the International Electrotechnical Commission for the purpose of certifying personnel.

(l)  Local education provider means:


(I)  A local education provider, as defined in section 22-16-103 (4); and


(II)  The Colorado school for the deaf and the blind described in section 22-80-102.


(m)  Mechanical engineer means a professional engineer who is licensed

pursuant to part 2 of article 120 of title 12 and has professional experience with HVAC systems.

(n)  MERV means minimum efficiency reporting value, as established by:


(I)  ANSI/ASHRAE standard 52.2-2017, Method of Testing General

Ventilation Air-Cleaning Devices for Removal Efficiency by Particle Size;

(II)  ANSI/ASHRAE standard 62.1-2022, Ventilation and Acceptable Indoor

Air Quality;

(III)  ANSI/ASHRAE/ACCA standard 180-2018, Standard Practice for

Inspection and Maintenance of Commercial Building HVAC Systems; and

(IV)  ASHRAE standard 241-2023, Control of Infectious Aerosols.


(o)  NOx has the meaning set forth in section 25-7-1502 (8).


(p)  Occupied areas means the classrooms, auditoriums, gymnasiums,

cafeterias, nurses' offices, restrooms, and offices of a school.

(q)  Project labor agreement has the meaning set forth in 48 CFR 52.222-34.


(r)  Qualified adjusting personnel means:


(I)  A certified TAB technician; or


(II)  A worker who is under the direct supervision of a certified TAB technician.


(s)  Qualified personnel means qualified testing personnel, qualified

adjusting personnel, or other workforce that is hired by and under the direct supervision of a certified contractor for the purpose of performing HVAC work.

(t)  Qualified testing personnel means:


(I)  A certified TAB technician; or


(II)  An individual certified to perform ventilation assessments of HVAC

systems by the International Certification Board or through an equivalent certification program or body accredited under the ISO/IEC 17024 personnel certification standard.

(u)  School means an educational facility operated by a local education

provider.

(v)  TAB means testing, adjusting, and balancing of an HVAC system.


(2)  Applicability of section. On and after August 6, 2025, if a local education

provider undertakes HVAC infrastructure improvements at a school using money from the Infrastructure Investment and Jobs Act cash fund created in section 24-75-232 (3), the local education provider shall comply with the procedures set forth in this section in implementing the HVAC infrastructure improvements.

(3)  Ventilation verification assessment. Qualified personnel shall perform

all of the following:

(a)  Filtration. MERV 13 or better filtration must be installed in a school's

HVAC system where feasible. Qualified personnel shall:

(I)  Review system capacity and airflow to determine the highest MERV

filtration that can be installed without adversely impacting equipment; and

(II)  Replace or upgrade filters where needed and verify that filters are

installed correctly.

(b)  Ventilation and exhaust. After assessing the filtration as described in

subsection (3)(a) of this section, qualified personnel shall assess the ventilation rates in the school's occupied areas to determine whether they meet the minimum ventilation rate requirements set forth in the international mechanical code. Assessment of the ventilation and exhaust must include all the following:

(I)  Calculation of the estimated minimum outside air ventilation rates for

each occupied area based on the maximum anticipated occupancy and the minimum required ventilation rate per occupant. Calculations must be based on maximum anticipated classroom or other occupied area occupancy rates and determined by the international mechanical code.

(II)  Measurement of outside air and verification that the system provides at

least the minimum outside air ventilation rates calculated pursuant to subsection (3)(b)(I) of this section;

(III)  Verification of coil velocities and unit discharge air temperatures

required to maintain desired indoor conditions and to avoid moisture carryover from cooling coils;

(IV)  Verification that separation between outdoor air intakes and exhaust

discharge outlets meets the requirements of the international mechanical code;

(V)  Confirmation that the air handling unit is bringing in outdoor air and

removing exhaust air as intended by the system design; and

(VI)  Measurement of all exhaust air volume for exhaust fans, such as

restroom exhaust fans, including documentation of any discrepancies from system design.

(c)  Economizers. For HVAC systems with economizers, qualified personnel

shall test system economizer dampers and controls for proper operation. Economizer dampers and controls that are not properly functioning shall be repaired by a certified contractor or the certified contractor's qualified personnel. Qualified personnel shall record recommendations for additional maintenance, replacements, or upgrades in the HVAC assessment report.

(d)  Demand control ventilation. (I)  If demand control ventilation systems are

installed, qualified personnel shall verify their proper operation.

(II)  Demand control ventilation systems that are not properly functioning

shall be repaired by a certified contractor or the certified contractor's qualified personnel.

(III)  If a demand control ventilation system is recommended to be disabled or

is unable to provide recommended ventilation rates, the HVAC system must be configured to meet the minimum ventilation rate requirements without use of the demand control ventilation system and must be tested and adjusted to achieve at least the estimated minimum outside air ventilation rate, as described in subsection (3)(b)(I) of this section.

(e)  Air distribution and building pressurization. (I)  Qualified personnel shall:


(A)  Perform survey readings of inlets and outlets to verify that all ventilation

is reaching the served zones and that there is adequate air distribution;

(B)  Verify that inlets and outlets are balanced within tolerance of the system

design; and

(C)  Document read values and deficiencies. If the original system design

values are not available, qualified personnel shall document available information and note the unavailability of system design values in the HVAC assessment report.

(II)  Qualified personnel shall verify building and space pressure to ensure

that:

(A)  The pressure differential is within tolerance of design, if known; and


(B)  The school building is not over pressurized.


(f)  General maintenance. Qualified personnel shall verify coil condition,

condensate drainage, cooling coil air temperature differential (entering and leaving dry bulb), heat exchanger air temperature differential (entering and leaving dry bulb), and drive assembly condition.

(g)  Operational controls. Qualified personnel shall review control sequences

to verify that systems will maintain intended ventilation, temperature, and humidity conditions during school operation.

(4)  HVAC assessment report. Qualified personnel shall prepare an HVAC

assessment report for review by a mechanical engineer. The HVAC assessment report must include all of the following information:

(a)  The name and address of the school and the certified contractor

completing the work, including the name of the qualified personnel preparing the assessment report and the name of the mechanical engineer certifying the assessment report;

(b)  A description of assessment, maintenance, adjustment, and repair

activities and outcomes;

(c)  Documentation of HVAC equipment model numbers, serial numbers, the

general condition of units, and any additional information that could be used to assess replacement and repair options given the potential for increased energy efficiency benefits;

(d)  Verification that either:


(I)  MERV 13 filters have been installed; or


(II)  The maximum MERV-rated filter that the system is able to effectively

handle has been installed, including an indication of the MERV rating of that filter;

(e)  Verification that all requirements described in this subsection (4) have

been satisfied;

(f)  The verified ventilation rates for occupied areas and whether those rates

meet the estimated requirements set forth in the international mechanical code;

(g)  The verified exhaust rates for occupied areas and whether those rates

meet the requirements of the system's design; and

(h)  Documentation of system deficiencies and recommendations for

additional maintenance, replacement, or upgrades to improve energy efficiency, safety, or performance or to reduce NOx emissions or greenhouse gas emissions, if any.

(5)  Mechanical engineer review. A mechanical engineer shall:


(a)  Review the HVAC assessment report;


(b)  Verify or adjust the estimated minimum outside air ventilation rates;


(c)  Determine what, if any, additional adjustments, repairs, upgrades, or

replacements are necessary to meet the minimum ventilation and filtration requirements of the international mechanical code;

(d)  Recommend a pathway for reducing NOx emissions and greenhouse gas

emissions; and

(e)  Provide a cost estimate for all recommended work.


(6)  Adjustments, repairs, upgrades, and replacements. All HVAC repairs,

upgrades, and replacements shall be performed by a certified contractor or the certified contractor's qualified personnel. All HVAC adjustments shall be performed by qualified adjusting personnel.

(7)  HVAC verification report. (a)  A certified contractor or a member of the

certified contractor's qualified personnel shall prepare an HVAC verification report within ten business days after completion of all work described in subsections (3) to (6) of this section.

(b)  The HVAC verification report must include all of the following

information:

(I)  The name and address of the school and the person preparing and

certifying the report;

(II)  A description of assessment, maintenance, adjustment, repair, upgrade,

and replacement activities and outcomes;

(III)  Verification that the certified contractor or the certified contractor's

qualified personnel has complied with all requirements of this section;

(IV)  Verification that either:


(A)  MERV 13 filters have been installed; or


(B)  The maximum MERV-rated filter that the system is able to effectively

handle has been installed, including an indication of the MERV rating of that filter;

(V)  The verified ventilation rates for occupied areas and whether those rates

meet the requirements set forth in the international mechanical code. If ventilation rates do not meet applicable guidance, then the HVAC verification report must include an explanation of why the current system is unable to meet those rates.

(VI)  The verified exhaust rates for occupied areas and whether those rates

meet the requirements set forth in the system's design;

(VII)  Documentation of repairs, upgrades, or replacements performed in

response to:

(A)  The HVAC assessment report; and


(B)  The mechanical engineer's recommendations made pursuant to

subsection (5) of this section;

(VIII)  Documentation of recommendations for additional maintenance,

repairs, replacements, or upgrades to improve energy efficiency, safety, or performance or to reduce NOx emissions or greenhouse gas emissions;

(IX)  Documentation of the mechanical engineer's recommended pathway for

reducing NOx emissions and greenhouse gas emissions;

(X)  Documentation of initial operating verifications, adjustments, and final

operating verifications and documentation of any adjustments or repairs performed; and

(XI)  Verification that all work has been performed by a certified contractor or

the certified contractor's qualified personnel, including the contractor's name, the names of the qualified personnel, the certification numbers of any qualified personnel, and verification that all construction work has been performed by a certified contractor or the certified contractor's qualified personnel.

(c)  A local education provider shall maintain a copy of the HVAC verification

report for at least five years and make it available to the public upon request.

(8)  Certified contractors (a)  If a local education provider undertakes HVAC

infrastructure improvements as described in this section using money from the Infrastructure Investment and Jobs Act cash fund created in section 24-75-232 (3), the local education provider shall:

(I)  Obtain and make use of the certified contractor list to assist in contractor

selection and ensure compliance with federal funding requirements; and

(II)  Employ only certified contractors or contractors that use prevailing

wages and apprentices registered with the federal department of labor or the state apprenticeship agency created in section 8-15.7-102 for the performance of the HVAC infrastructure improvements.

(b)  The department shall publish the certified contractor list on its website

and include or reference the list in all of the relevant marketing material for school infrastructure improvement programs to assist in contractor selection and ensure compliance with federal funding requirements.

(c)  The requirement described in subsection (8)(a) of this section does not

apply to mechanical, plumbing, and electrical work that is performed pursuant to a project labor agreement that allows a contractor and all subcontractors to compete for contracts and subcontracts without regard to whether they are parties to a collective bargaining agreement.

(d) (I)  Upon evaluation of bids submitted for an HVAC infrastructure

improvement contract, the local education provider may waive the requirements of this subsection (8) if the local education provider determines that there is substantial evidence that there were no responsive, eligible subcontractors available to fulfill the mechanical, electrical, or plumbing portions of the contract.

(II)  A local education provider that undertakes HVAC infrastructure

improvements subject to the requirements of this subsection (8) shall make public all waivers and the specific rationale for granting a waiver. The local education provider shall post notice of a waiver and a justification for the waiver on its website.

Source: L. 2025: Entire section added, (HB 25-1245), ch. 400, p. 2262, � 2,

effective August 6.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in HB 25-1245, see section 1

of chapter 400, Session Laws of Colorado 2025.

ARTICLE 32.5

Innovation Schools and Innovation School Zones

Within School Districts

22-32.5-101.  Short title. This article shall be known and may be cited as the

Innovation Schools Act of 2008.

Source: L. 2008: Entire article added, p. 1420, � 1, effective May 28.


22-32.5-102.  Legislative declaration. (1)  The general assembly hereby finds

that:

(a)  The constitutional provisions regarding the public education system

direct the general assembly to establish a thorough and uniform statewide system of public education, but they also recognize the importance of preserving local flexibility by granting to each school district board of education the control of instruction in the schools of the school district;

(b)  The constitution's requirement that each school district board of

education is responsible for controlling the instruction in its schools is based on the belief that the delivery of educational services must be tailored to the specific population of students they are intended to serve and that the parents of those students should have great opportunity for input regarding the educational services their children receive;

(c)  In tailoring the delivery of educational services, it is also important that

the persons delivering those services, the principal of the public school and the faculty employed at that school, have the maximum degree of flexibility possible to determine the most effective and efficient manner in which to meet their students' needs;

(d)  To further the goals of high-quality public education throughout the

state, therefore, each school district board of education should have the authority to grant public schools of the school district the maximum degree of flexibility possible to meet the needs of individual students and the communities in which they live; and

(e)  While the ultimate responsibility for controlling the instruction in public

schools continues to lie with the school district board of education of each public school, each school district board of education is strongly encouraged to delegate to each public school a high degree of autonomy in implementing curriculum, making personnel decisions, organizing the school day, determining the most effective use of resources, and generally organizing the delivery of high-quality educational services, thereby empowering each public school to tailor its services most effectively and efficiently to meet the needs of the population of students it serves.

(2)  The general assembly therefore finds that it is in the best interests of the

people of Colorado to enact the Innovation Schools Act of 2008 to achieve the following purposes:

(a)  To grant to Colorado's school districts and public schools greater ability

to meet the educational needs of a diverse and constantly changing student population;

(b)  To encourage intentionally diverse approaches to learning and education

within individual school districts;

(c)  To improve educational performance through greater individual school

autonomy and managerial flexibility;

(d)  To encourage school districts, where appropriate, to create and manage a

portfolio of schools that meet a variety of education needs, including identifying elementary, middle or junior high, and high schools to collectively operate as a vertically integrated innovation zone of schools;

(e)  To encourage innovation in education by providing local school

communities and principals with greater control over levels of staffing, personnel selection and evaluation, scheduling, and educational programming with the goal of achieving improved student achievement;

(f)  To encourage school districts and public schools to find new ways to

allocate resources, including through implementation of specialized school budgets, for the benefit of the students they serve; and

(g)  To hold public schools that receive greater autonomy under this article

accountable for student academic achievement, as measured by the Colorado student assessment program, other more specifically tailored accountability measures, and the federal requirements of adequate yearly progress.

(3)  The general assembly further declares that:


(a)  Since the Innovation Schools Act of 2008 was passed, innovations have

been used to leverage outcomes for students and support creative school models to meet the needs of students, educators, and families;

(b)  The cornerstone of innovation work is empowering educators and families

to be part of the design process, helping to develop an innovation plan, and voting to approve the school's plan and any revisions to the innovation plan;

(c)  The Innovation Schools Act of 2008 identifies areas of innovation that

schools are encouraged to explore, including innovations in governance;

(d)  Local school boards and innovation school zones have implemented

alternative governance models for innovation school zones and schools within the innovation school zones, including delegation of some management activities from a local school board to a nonprofit organization affiliated with an innovation school zone;

(e)  Innovation schools were designed as an opportunity for schools that

operate within their school district to exercise autonomy and flexibility to adapt to meet the needs of schools and students whom innovation schools serve;

(f)  If disputes arise between an innovation school zone as a whole, or a

school within the innovation school zone, and the local school board that oversees the innovation school zone regarding the administration of an innovation plan, a fair and consistent resolution process is needed to address the dispute; and

(g)  The dispute resolution process described in this article 32.5 is modeled

from existing statutory dispute resolution processes and intends to support both parties, encourage innovation school zones to practice innovative governance, and allow the local school board to reach solutions with innovation school zones with alternative governance.

Source: L. 2008: Entire article added, p. 1420, � 1, effective May 28. L. 2022:

(3) added, (SB 22-197), ch. 307, p. 2213, � 1, effective August 10.

22-32.5-103.  Definitions.  As used in this article 32.5, unless the context

otherwise requires:

(1)  Commissioner means the commissioner of education appointed by the

state board of education pursuant to section 22-2-110.

(1.5)  Community school means a public school that implements the

following:

(a)  An annual asset and needs assessment of and by both the school and the

community that engages at least seventy-five percent of families, students, and educators in the community;

(b)  A strategic plan that includes the creation of problem-solving teams who

are dedicated to continuous school improvement and define how educators and community partners use all available assets to meet specific student needs and achieve better results and utilize key tools and lessons from improvement science in the continuous improvement process;

(c)  A process to engage partners who bring assets and expertise to

implement the school's goals; and

(d)  A community school coordinator who is a school staff member at the

community school site and who:

(I)  Has the primary responsibility to facilitate the problem-solving teams

implemented pursuant to subsection (1.5)(b) of this section; and

(II)  In consultation with school leadership, shall assemble relevant

stakeholders to solve problems identified by the assessment performed pursuant to subsection (1.5)(a) of this section.

(1.7)  Department means the department of education created in section

24-1-115.

(2)  District of innovation means a school district that is designated as a

district of innovation pursuant to section 22-32.5-107.

(3)  Innovation school means a school in which a local school board

implements an innovation plan pursuant to section 22-32.5-104.

(4)  Innovation school zone means a group of schools of a school district

that share common interests, such as geographical location or educational focus, or that sequentially serve classes of students as they progress through elementary and secondary education and in which a local school board implements a plan for creating an innovation school zone pursuant to section 22-32.5-104.

(4.5)  Innovation school zone with alternative governance means an

innovation school zone that either operates as an innovation school zone with alternative governance on or before August 10, 2022, or submits to its local school board an innovation plan, which the local school board approves, that authorizes alternative governance and delegates management activities to another organization pursuant to section 22-32.5-104 (5), including but not limited to a nonprofit organization. An organization does not include a for-profit organization.

(5)  Local school board means the board of education of a school district.


(5.5)  Neutral third party means a trained individual who assists disputants

in reaching a mutually acceptable resolution of their disputes by identifying and evaluating alternatives, and is on an approved list by the office of dispute resolution established in section 13-22-303 or the American arbitration association, or its successor.

(6)  State board means the state board of education created pursuant to

section 1 of article IX of the state constitution.

Source: L. 2008: Entire article added, p. 1422, � 1, effective May 28. L. 2019:

IP amended and (1.5) added, (SB 19-102), ch. 82, p. 293, � 1, effective August 2. L. 2022: (1.7), (4.5), and (5.5) added, (SB 22-197), ch. 307, p. 2214, � 2, effective August 10.

22-32.5-104.  Innovation plans - submission - contents. (1) (a)  A public

school of a school district may submit to its local school board an innovation plan as described in subsection (3) of this section. A group of public schools of a school district that share common interests, such as geographical location or educational focus, or that sequentially serve classes of students as they progress through elementary and secondary education may jointly submit to their local school board a plan to create an innovation school zone as described in subsection (4) of this section.

(b)  A local school board shall receive and review each innovation plan or plan

for creating an innovation school zone submitted pursuant to paragraph (a) of this subsection (1). The local school board shall either approve or disapprove the innovation plan or plan for creating an innovation school zone within sixty days after receiving the plan.

(c)  If the local school board rejects the plan, it shall provide to the public

school or group of public schools that submitted the plan a written explanation of the basis for its decision. A public school or group of public schools may resubmit an amended innovation plan or amended plan for creating an innovation school zone at any time after denial.

(d)  If the local school board approves the plan, it may proceed to seek

designation of the school district as a district of innovation pursuant to section 22-32.5-107.

(2)  A local school board may initiate and collaborate with one or more public

schools of the school district to create one or more innovation plans, as described in subsection (3) of this section, or one or more plans to create innovation school zones, as described in subsection (4) of this section. In creating an innovation plan or a plan to create an innovation school zone, the local school board shall ensure that each public school that would be affected by the plan has opportunity to participate in creation of the plan. A local school board may approve or create a plan to create an innovation school zone that includes all of the public schools of the school district. If the local school board creates an innovation plan or a plan for creating an innovation school zone, the local school board may seek designation of the school district as a district of innovation pursuant to section 22-32.5-107.

(3)  Each innovation plan, whether submitted by a public school or created by

a local school board through collaboration between the local school board and a public school, must include the following information:

(a)  A statement of the public school's mission and why designation as an

innovation school would enhance the school's ability to achieve its mission;

(b)  A description of the innovations the public school would implement,

which may include, but need not be limited to, innovations in school staffing; curriculum and assessment; class scheduling; use of financial and other resources; faculty recruitment, employment, evaluation, and compensation; whether the school will operate as a community school; and implementation of transformational school strategies such as shared leadership, culturally relevant curriculum, student and family supports, positive discipline practices, and family and community engagement;

(c)  A listing of the programs, policies, or operational documents within the

public school that would be affected by the public school's identified innovations and the manner in which they would be affected. The programs, policies, or operational documents may include, but need not be limited to:

(I)  The research-based educational program the public school would

implement;

(II)  The length of school day and school year at the public school;


(III)  The student promotion and graduation policies to be implemented at the

public school;

(IV)  The public school's assessment plan;


(V)  The proposed budget for the public school; and


(VI)  The proposed staffing plan for the public school.


(d)  An identification of the improvements in academic performance that the

public school expects to achieve in implementing the innovations;

(e)  An estimate of the cost savings and increased efficiencies, if any, the

public school expects to achieve in implementing its identified innovations;

(f)  Evidence that a majority of the administrators employed at the public

school, a majority of the teachers employed at the public school, and a majority of the school accountability committee for the public school consent to designation as an innovation school;

(g)  A statement of the level of support for designation as an innovation

school demonstrated by the other persons employed at the public school, the students and parents of students enrolled in the public school, and the community surrounding the public school;

(h)  A description of any statutory sections included in this title or any

regulatory or district policy requirements that would need to be waived for the public school to implement its identified innovations;

(i)  A description of any provision of the collective bargaining agreement in

effect for the personnel at the public school that would need to be waived for the public school to implement its identified innovations; and

(j)  Any additional information required by the local school board of the

school district in which the innovation plan would be implemented.

(4)  Each plan for creating an innovation school zone, whether submitted by a

group of public schools or created by a local school board through collaboration with a group of public schools, shall include the information specified in subsection (3) of this section for each public school that would be included in the innovation school zone. A plan for creating an innovation school zone shall also include the following additional information:

(a)  A description of how innovations in the public schools in the school

innovation zone would be integrated to achieve results that would be less likely to be accomplished by each public school working alone;

(b)  An estimate of any economies of scale that would be achieved by

innovations implemented jointly by the public schools within the innovation school zone;

(c)  Evidence that a majority of the administrators and a majority of the

teachers employed at each public school that would be included in the innovation school zone and a majority of the school accountability committee for each public school that would be included in the innovation school zone consent to creating the innovation school zone; and

(d)  A statement of the level of support for creating an innovation school zone

demonstrated by the other persons employed at each public school that would be included in the zone, the students and parents of students enrolled in each public school that would be included in the zone, and the community in which the local school board would approve the innovation school zone. In determining the level of support, each public school shall specifically solicit input concerning the selection of public schools included in the innovation school zone and the strategies and procedures that would be used in implementing and integrating the innovations within the public schools in the zone.

(5)  A group of schools that submits a plan to create an innovation school

zone as provided in this section and seeks to have management activities delegated by the local board to an organization that forms a partnership with the local school board must, in addition to the provisions specified in subsection (4) of this section, include the following information in the innovation plan:

(a)  An explanation of how alternative governance will help achieve the vision

and goals of the group of schools in a school district;

(b)  A description of the organization and the organization's governing board

and governance structure;

(c)  A description of the roles and duties of the organization's governing

board, which duties must include, at a minimum, overseeing the implementation of the innovation plan and supporting academic progress;

(d)  A description of the zone staffing structure and management the

organization would provide;

(e)  A description of how funds will be used to achieve the mission and

academic performance of the innovation plan;

(f)  A description of where an easily accessible link to the federal form 990,

990-EZ, or 990-PF, as required by section 22-44-304, or other relevant financial information if the organization does not receive a federal form 990, is located on the zone website;

(g)  A description of the terms under and process by which a school within an

innovation school zone may elect to leave the innovation school zone; and

(h)  A description of the method the school district will use for determining

the cost of services and a corresponding financial agreement with the innovation school zone.

Source: L. 2008: Entire article added, p. 1422, � 1, effective May 28. L. 2009:

(3)(f) and (4)(c) amended, (SB 09-163), ch. 293, p. 1542, � 44, effective May 21; (3)(f) and (4)(c) amended, (SB 09-090), ch. 291, p. 1444, � 17, effective August 5. L. 2018: IP(3) and (3)(b) amended, (HB 18-1355), ch. 324, p. 1954, � 18, effective May 30. L. 2019: (3)(b) amended, (SB 19-102), ch. 82, p. 294, � 2, effective August 2. L. 2022: (5) added, (SB 22-197), ch. 307, p. 2214, � 3, effective August 10.

22-32.5-105.  Suggested innovations. (1)  In considering or creating an

innovation plan or a plan for creating an innovation school zone, each local school board is strongly encouraged to consider innovations in the following areas:

(a)  Curriculum and academic standards and assessments;


(b)  Accountability measures, including but not limited to expanding the use

of a variety of accountability measures to more accurately present a complete measure of student learning and accomplishment. The accountability measures adopted by an innovation school or an innovation school zone may include, but need not be limited to:

(I)  Use of graduation or exit examinations;


(II)  Use of end-of-course examinations;


(III)  Use of student portfolio reviews;


(IV)  Use of national and international accountability measures such as the

national assessment of educational progress and the program for international student assessment;

(V)  Measuring the percentage of students continuing into higher education;

and

(VI)  Measuring the percentage of students simultaneously obtaining a high

school diploma and an associate's degree or a career and technical education certificate.

(c)  Provision of services, including but not limited to special education

services; services for gifted and talented students; services for English language learners; educational services for students at risk of academic failure, expulsion, or dropping out; and support services provided by the state department of human services or county departments or agencies of human or social services;

(d)  Teacher recruitment, training, preparation, and professional

development;

(e)  Teacher employment;


(f)  Performance expectations and evaluation procedures for teachers and

principals;

(g)  Compensation for teachers, principals, and other school building

personnel, including but not limited to performance pay plans, total compensation plans, and other innovations with regard to retirement and other benefits;

(h)  School governance and the roles, responsibilities, and expectations of

principals in innovation schools or schools within an innovation school zone; and

(i)  Preparation and counseling of students for transition to higher education

or the work force.

Source: L. 2008: Entire article added, p. 1425, � 1, effective May 28. L. 2010:

(1)(c) amended, (SB 10-062), ch. 168, p. 595, � 12, effective April 29. L. 2014: (1)(c) amended, (HB 14-1298), ch. 244, p. 937, � 22, effective May 21. L. 2018: (1)(c) amended, (SB 18-092), ch. 38, p. 438, � 92, effective August 8.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in SB 18-092, see section 1

of chapter 38, Session Laws of Colorado 2018.

22-32.5-106.  Innovation planning - financial support. Each public school

and each local school board is authorized and encouraged to seek and accept public and private gifts, grants, and donations to offset the costs of developing and implementing innovation plans and plans for creating innovation school zones.

Source: L. 2008: Entire article added, p. 1426, � 1, effective May 28.


22-32.5-107.  District of innovation - designation. (1)  Each local school

board may seek for its school district designation by the state board as a district of innovation. A local school board may seek the designation on the basis of innovation plans or plans for creating innovation school zones approved or collaboratively created by the local school board pursuant to section 22-32.5-104.

(2)  A local school board that seeks designation as a district of innovation

shall submit one or more innovation plans or plans for creating an innovation school zone to the commissioner for review and comment by the commissioner and the state board. Within sixty days after receiving a local school board's plan, the commissioner and the state board shall respond to the local school board with any suggested changes or additions to the plan, including but not limited to suggestions for further innovations or for measures to increase the likelihood that the innovations will result in greater academic achievement within the innovation schools or innovation school zones. Based on the commissioner's and the state board's comments, the local school board may choose to withdraw and resubmit its innovation plan or plan for creating an innovation school zone.

(3) (a)  Within sixty days after receiving a local school board's innovation plan

or plan for creating an innovation school zone, the state board shall designate the local school board's school district as a district of innovation if the state board concludes that the submitted plan:

(I)  Is likely to enhance educational opportunity, standards, and quality within

the innovation schools or innovation school zones; and

(II)  Is fiscally feasible.


(b)  If the state board does not designate a school district as a district of

innovation, it shall provide to the local school board a written explanation of the basis for its decision. The local school board may resubmit an amended innovation plan or plan for creating an innovation school zone and seek designation of its school district as a school district of innovation at any time after denial.

(4)  It is the intent of the general assembly that the department of education

receive a one-time appropriation to offset the costs incurred by the department and the state board in adopting rules and otherwise establishing the procedures for implementation of this section. The general assembly finds, however, that the department of education and the state board may implement this section in future years without additional state funding.

Source: L. 2008: Entire article added, p. 1426, � 1, effective May 28. L. 2017:

(3)(a) amended, (HB 17-1271), ch. 343, p. 1813, � 1, effective August 9.

22-32.5-108.  District of innovation - waiver of statutory and regulatory

requirements. (1) Upon designation of a district of innovation, the state board shall waive any statutes or rules specified in the school district's innovation plan as they pertain to the innovation schools or innovation school zones of the district of innovation; except that the state board shall not waive:

(a)  Any statutes specified in section 22-2-117 (1)(b);


(b)  Any provision of article 64 of this title; or


(c)  Any statutes that are not included in this title, including but not limited to

article 51 of title 24, C.R.S.

(2)  Each district of innovation continues to be subject to all statutes and

rules that are not waived by the state board pursuant to subsection (1) of this section, including but not limited to all statutes and rules concerning implementation of:

(a)  The state assessment requirements specified in section 22-7-1006.3;


(b)  Article 11 of this title; and


(c)  The requirements of the federal No Child Left Behind Act of 2001, 20

U.S.C. sec. 6301 et seq.

(3)  Designation as a district of innovation must not affect a school district's:


(a)  Total program funding calculated pursuant to the Public School Finance

Act of 2025, article 54 of this title 22; or

(b)  Eligibility for funding under, or the amount received through, a

categorical program, as defined in section 22-55-102 (4).

(4)  Each district of innovation that receives a waiver pursuant to this section

shall specify the manner in which the innovation school or the schools within the innovation school zone shall comply with the intent of the waived statutes or rules and shall be accountable to the state for such compliance.

(5) (a)  If the local school board for a district of innovation revises an

innovation plan as provided in section 22-32.5-110, the local school board may request additional waivers or changes to existing waivers as necessary to accommodate the revisions to the innovation plan, and the state board shall grant the additional waivers or changes to existing waivers if it determines that the new or changed waivers would enhance educational opportunity, standards, and quality within the innovation schools or innovation school zones of the district of innovation and are fiscally feasible. In requesting a new waiver or a change to an existing waiver, the local school board shall demonstrate the consent of a majority of the teachers and a majority of the administrators employed at and a majority of the school advisory committee for each public school that is affected by the new or changed waiver.

(b)  Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (a) of this subsection (5), a

waiver that is granted pursuant to this section shall continue to apply to a public school so long as the public school continues to be designated as an innovation school or included in an innovation school zone.

Source: L. 2008: Entire article added, p. 1427, � 1, effective May 28. L. 2009:

(2)(b) amended, (SB 09-163), ch. 293, p. 1543, � 45, effective May 21. L. 2015: IP(2) and (2)(a) amended, (HB 15-1323), ch. 204, p. 725, � 35, effective May 20. L. 2017: (5)(a) amended, (HB 17-1271), ch. 343, p. 1813, � 2, effective August 9. L. 2024: IP(3) and (3)(a) amended, (HB 24-1448), ch. 236, p. 1533, � 44, effective May 23.

22-32.5-109.  District of innovation - collective bargaining agreements. (1)

(a) On and after the date on which the state board designates a school district as a district of innovation, any collective bargaining agreement initially entered into or renewed by the local school board of the district of innovation shall include a term that allows each innovation school and each innovation school zone in the school district to waive any provisions of the collective bargaining agreement identified in the innovation plan as needing to be waived for the innovation school or the innovation school zone to implement its identified innovations.

(b)  For an innovation school, waiver of one or more of the provisions of the

collective bargaining agreement shall be based on obtaining the approval, by means of a secret ballot vote, of at least sixty percent of the members of the collective bargaining unit who are employed at the innovation school.

(c)  For an innovation school zone, waiver of one or more of the provisions of

the collective bargaining agreement shall be based on obtaining, at each school included in the innovation school zone, the approval of at least sixty percent of the members of the collective bargaining unit who are employed at the school. The innovation school zone shall seek to obtain approval of the waivers through a secret ballot vote of the members of the collective bargaining unit at each school included in the innovation school zone. The local school board for the innovation school zone may choose to revise the plan for creating an innovation school zone to remove from the zone any school in which at least sixty percent of the members of the collective bargaining unit employed at the school do not vote to waive the identified provisions of the collective bargaining agreement.

(d)  If a local school board, in collaboration with the innovation school or the

public schools included in the innovation school zone, revises the innovation plan as provided in section 22-32.5-110 and the revisions include changes to the identified provisions of the collective bargaining agreement that need to be waived to implement the innovations that are included in the innovation plan, the local school board shall seek such additional waivers or revision or revocation of the existing waivers of provisions of the collective bargaining agreement as are necessary to implement the revised innovation plan. Any changes to waivers, or additional waivers, of the identified provisions of the collective bargaining agreement shall be subject to approval in the same manner as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this subsection (1) for the initial approval of waivers of provisions of the collective bargaining agreement.

(e)  Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (d) of this subsection (1),

waiver of identified provisions of a collective bargaining agreement for an innovation school or the public schools within an innovation school zone pursuant to this subsection (1) shall continue so long as the innovation school remains an innovation school or a public school remains a part of the innovation school zone. A waiver approved pursuant to this subsection (1) shall continue to apply to any substantially similar provision that is included in a new or renewed collective bargaining agreement for the schools of the district of innovation.

(2)  A district of innovation shall not be required to seek a waiver by an

innovation school or a public school in an innovation school zone of any provision of the collective bargaining agreement. Each district of innovation shall include in its innovation plan a statement as to whether it will seek a waiver by an innovation school or the public schools included in an innovation school zone of any of the provisions of the collective bargaining agreement.

(3)  A person who is a member of the collective bargaining unit and is

employed by an innovation school or by a school included in an innovation school zone may request a transfer to another public school of the district of innovation. The local school board shall make every reasonable effort to accommodate the


C.R.S. § 22-5-123

22-5-123. BOCES - HVAC infrastructure improvements. On and after August 6, 2025, if a BOCES undertakes HVAC infrastructure improvements using money from the Infrastructure Investment and Jobs Act cash fund created in section 24-75-232 (3), the BOCES shall comply with the requirements described in section 22-32-153 in implementing the HVAC infrastructure improvements.

Source: L. 2025: Entire section added, (HB 25-1245), ch. 400, p. 2270, � 3,

effective August 6.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in HB 25-1245, see section 1

of chapter 400, Session Laws of Colorado 2025.

ARTICLE 5.5

Regional Service Areas Act

22-5.5-101.  Short title. This article shall be known and may be cited as the

Regional Service Areas Act.

Source: L. 2008: Entire article added, p. 1693, � 1, effective June 2.


22-5.5-102.  Legislative declaration. (1)  The general assembly hereby finds

and declares that:

(a)  Colorado should align its education system to maximize the state's

limited resources in improving student achievement and closing the learning gap;

(b)  One of the most effective ways to align the state's education system and

maximize resources is to expand the department of education's eight existing regional service areas to twelve regional service areas, and to include in the expansion process representation from community and local district colleges, technical colleges, state institutions of higher education, early childhood councils, and business and industry;

(c)  Colorado experimented with successful results with regional consortiums

for professional development during 2000 and 2001 as a means to deliver professional development programs across school district lines in an efficient and effective manner;

(d)  Regions can serve as an efficient and effective link between the state,

the department of education, boards of cooperative services, administrative units, school districts, state institutions of higher education, and business and industry to leverage and implement scarce resources for education reform initiatives at state, regional, and local levels;

(e)  A regional service area system would extend and expand service delivery

in many areas, including but not limited to data centers, financial services, cooperative purchases, technological support, capital construction planning assistance, dropout prevention, early childhood and preschool programs, postsecondary partnerships and student transitions into postsecondary schools, professional development, curriculum and instructional expertise and support, and shared administration and services among school districts;

(f)  Funding for regional service areas should be consistent and sustainable

over time;

(g)  School districts, boards of cooperative services, administrative units,

community colleges, local district colleges, technical colleges, postsecondary institutions, early childhood councils, and representatives from business and industry located within the same geographic area should work collaboratively to develop a regional plan that meets the needs of participants in order to increase the effectiveness of a regional system.

(2)  The general assembly therefore declares that it is in the best interest of

the state of Colorado and its citizens to assist in providing a thorough and uniform educational system by creating a system of regional service areas that utilizes existing relationships to provide programs and services beyond the boundaries of the current twenty-one boards of cooperative services, fifty-seven administrative units, and one hundred seventy-eight school districts.

(3)  The general assembly further finds and declares that, for purposes of

section 17 of article IX of the state constitution, the establishment of twelve regional service areas which will effectively align the state's education system and maximize resources is a critical element of accountable education reform, accountable programs to meet state academic standards, expanding technology education, improving student safety, expanding the availability of preschool and kindergarten programs, and accountability reporting and, therefore, may receive funding from the state education fund created in section 17 (4) of article IX of the state constitution.

Source: L. 2008: Entire article added, p. 1693, � 1, effective June 2.


22-5.5-103.  Definitions. As used in this article 5.5, unless the context

otherwise requires:

(1)  Administrative unit means a school district, a board of cooperative

services, a charter school network, a charter school collaborative, or the state charter school institute, that is providing educational services to exceptional children.

(2)  Board means the board of education of a school district.


(3)  Board of cooperative services means a regional educational service unit

created pursuant to article 5 of this title.

(4)  Department means the department of education created and existing

pursuant to section 24-1-115, C.R.S.

(5)  Postsecondary institution means a community or technical college, a

local district college, or a state-supported institution of higher education.

(5.5)  Pupil enrollment count day has the same meaning as set forth in

section 22-54-103 (10.5).

(6)  Regional service area means one of twelve regional service areas

created pursuant to section 22-5.5-104.

(7)  Regional service council means the governing body of a regional

service area plan, which governing body is established pursuant to section 22-5.5-105.

(8)  School district means a school district existing pursuant to law.


(9)  State board means the state board of education created and existing

pursuant to section 1 of article IX of the state constitution.

Source: L. 2008: Entire article added, p. 1695, � 1, effective June 2. L. 2012:

(5.5) added, (HB 12-1090), ch. 44, p. 150, � 4, effective March 22. L. 2022: IP and (1) amended, (HB 22-1294), ch. 242, p. 1795, � 13, effective August 10.

22-5.5-104.  Regional service areas - creation - rules. (1)  On or before

December 1, 2008, the state board, in consultation with the department, school districts, and boards of cooperative services, shall divide the state into twelve regional service areas throughout the state. Each regional service area shall consist of at least two school districts and one or more boards of cooperative services.

(2)  The state board and the department shall consult with the department of

higher education and the governor's office to establish the state's education initiatives, including priorities for preschool through postsecondary education.

(3)  On or before December 1, 2008, the state board shall promulgate rules

for the development, expansion, implementation, and management of the regional service areas created pursuant to this article.

Source: L. 2008: Entire article added, p. 1695, � 1, effective June 2.


22-5.5-105.  Regional service areas - establishment - plan - governance. (1)

(a) Following the creation of the twelve regional service areas by the state board pursuant to section 22-5.5-104, but on or before June 30, 2009, individuals in a regional service area may organize a regional service area. Participants in a regional service area may include, but need not be limited to, representatives from school districts, boards of cooperative services, administrative units, early childhood councils, postsecondary institutions, business and industry, other education agencies in the regional service area, teachers, and parents. A regional service area plan shall be governed by no more than one regional service council.

(b)  Participation by school districts or boards of cooperative services in a

regional service area is voluntary.

(2) (a)  Each plan for a regional service area shall be administered by a locally

appointed regional service council, representing the following entities within the regional service area and composed of a minimum of five members; except that a regional service council initially formed or reorganized on or after August 5, 2009, shall be composed of a minimum of six members as follows:

(I)  Each participating board of cooperative services shall appoint at least one

council member. A board of cooperative services that has more than five member districts shall appoint an additional council member. The terms shall run coterminously with the council member's term on his or her board.

(II)  Each board of cooperative services superintendent advisory council

within a regional service area shall appoint two superintendents or their designees to serve on the regional service council. A superintendent advisory council that has more than five members shall appoint an additional superintendent or his or her designee to the regional service council. The superintendents or their designees shall each represent a participating school district.

(III)  Each school district that chooses to participate in the regional service

area and that is not a member of a board of cooperative services within the regional service area shall appoint one board member, superintendent, or designee to the regional service council. The terms shall run coterminously with the council member's term on his or her board, if applicable.

(IV)  The regional service council, within ninety days after its initial formation

and each time the regional service council reorganizes thereafter, shall appoint one council member representing business and industry, one council member representing each existing early childhood council from within the regional service area, and, for a regional service council initially formed or reorganized on or after August 5, 2009, one council member who is a parent of a student enrolled in a public preschool, elementary, secondary, or postsecondary institution located within the regional service area.

(V)  Each four-year institution of higher education, each community college,

and each technical college within the regional service area may appoint a trustee or advisory council member, or the president of the institution or his or her designee, to serve on the regional service council.

(VI)  The department of education regional manager for the regional service

area and the executive director for any board of cooperative services in the regional service area shall serve as ex-officio, nonvoting members of the regional service council.

(b)  The regional service council shall have the authority to set terms of

office, organize, have meetings, and accept moneys and shall be accountable for funding and programs.

(3)  To receive funding pursuant to section 22-5.5-106 (2) and (3), the regional

service council on behalf of each regional service area shall submit a plan to the state board for approval on or before June 30, 2009. The plan shall address the needs of large and small school districts within the regional service area and focus on increasing effectiveness and efficiencies in providing education and services throughout the region. The plan shall include, at a minimum:

(a)  A list of representatives from various educational agencies and business

and industry in the regional service area;

(b)  A description of how the regional service area intends to use and develop

state, regional, and local expertise;

(c)  An outline of available funding sources, including local and regional

contributions, federal moneys, and any available state resources;

(d)  A description of how the agencies within the regional service area will

coordinate and collaborate to enhance effectiveness and efficiencies among and between regional service areas;

(e)  A strategy to address the needs of participating school districts within

the regional service area;

(f)  A budget outlining projected expenditures by the regional service area;

and

(g)  Accountability criteria associated with the plan, including but not limited

to:

(I)  Evaluation of alignment with established state priorities;


(II)  Rationale for selection of priorities based upon regional needs

assessment data;

(III)  Goals that are specific, measurable, achievable, and realistic, all within

an established time frame;

(IV)  Specific outcomes demonstrated with effectiveness and efficiencies;


(V)  An evaluation process and criteria; and


(VI)  Budget alignment with priorities and activities.


(4) (a)  Each regional service council shall submit a plan developed pursuant

to subsection (3) of this section to the state board for approval as a prerequisite to the receipt of state moneys pursuant to this article.

(b)  On or before August 1, 2009, the state board shall notify each regional

service council that submitted a plan for a regional service area of its approval or rejection.

Source: L. 2008: Entire article added, p. 1695, � 1, effective June 2. L. 2009:

IP(2)(a) and (2)(a)(IV) amended, (SB 09-090), ch. 291, p. 1439, � 4, effective August 5.

22-5.5-106.  Funding. (1)  On or before June 30, 2009, a regional service

council may apply to the state board on behalf of a regional service area for a one-time grant of up to ten thousand dollars for direct reimbursement of expenses related to the development of the plan for the regional service area. The state board shall provide an applying regional service council with the one-time grant for reimbursement of expenses related to the development of the plan no later than thirty days following the submission of the grant application.

(2)  If the plan for a regional service area is approved by the state board

pursuant to section 22-5.5-105, on or after July 1, 2009, and annually thereafter, the state board shall award to the regional service area a grant of up to fifty thousand dollars, subject to available appropriations by the general assembly. If available moneys are insufficient to award each eligible regional service area a full fifty-thousand-dollar grant, the state board shall reduce proportionately all grant awards for eligible regional service areas for that year. A regional service council may choose not to accept funding on behalf of the regional service area if the prorated amount is insufficient to allow the regional service area to function effectively.

(3)  In addition to the grants described in subsections (1) and (2) of this

section, on or after July 1, 2009, and annually thereafter, the department shall, subject to available appropriations, allocate to each eligible regional service area an amount equal to up to fifty cents per pupil based on the pupil enrollment for each school district in the regional service area as of the pupil enrollment count day of the previous year.

(4)  Funding for a regional service area after the first grant pursuant to this

section is contingent upon the successful implementation of the regional service area's plan, as evaluated by the state board and the department. The state board shall annually notify each regional service council on or before September 1 regarding whether the regional service area will receive moneys pursuant to subsections (2) and (3) of this section in the coming year and the amounts.

(5)  A regional service council may use a maximum of ten percent of the

amount annually received by the regional service area for grant management and fiscal oversight. For regions with a total pupil enrollment of less than fifteen thousand students, the regional service council may use up to twenty percent of the amount annually received by the regional service area for grant management and fiscal oversight.

(6)  Each regional service council that receives funding on behalf of a

regional service area pursuant to subsections (2) and (3) of this section shall submit to the department a revised annual budget on or before March 1, 2010, and on or before March 1 each year thereafter. If a regional service council expects to exceed by more than ten percent the projected expenditures specified in the budget included in the original plan submitted to the state board pursuant to section 22-5.5-105, the regional service council shall seek prior approval for the expenditure from the department.

(6.5)  Each regional service council is authorized to seek and accept gifts,

grants, or donations from private or public sources for the purposes of this article; except that a gift, grant, or donation shall not be accepted if the conditions attached to the gift, grant, or donation require its expenditure in a manner contrary to law. Any gifts, grants, or donations received by a regional service council shall be submitted directly to the board of cooperative services that is acting as the regional service council's fiscal agent pursuant to subsection (7) of this section.

(7)  Each regional service council shall select one board of cooperative

services in the regional service area to act as its fiscal agent to receive the moneys from the state treasurer or any gifts, grants, or donations accepted pursuant to subsection (6.5) of this section.

Source: L. 2008: Entire article added, p. 1698, � 1, effective June 2. L. 2010:

(4) amended, (HB 10-1013), ch. 399, p. 1908, � 22, effective June 10. L. 2012: (3) amended, (HB 12-1090), ch. 44, p. 150, � 5, effective March 22.

22-5.5-107.  Regional service areas - programs and services. (1)  A regional

service area may provide any of the following services and programs, including but not limited to:

(a)  Data and assessment centers;


(b)  Shared financial services among school districts and boards of

cooperative services;

(c)  Cooperative purchases;


(d)  Technology infrastructure and support;


(e)  Distance, online learning, and other alternative learning opportunities for

students;

(f)  Precollegiate programs, counseling, and dropout prevention;


(g)  Capital construction planning assistance;


(h)  Curriculum and instructional expertise and support;


(i)  Professional development for teachers and administrators;


(j)  Regional and state initiatives;


(k)  Shared administration and support services for school districts;


(l)  Early childhood and preschool programs; and


(m)  Postsecondary partnerships and services to support student transitions

into postsecondary schools.

Source: L. 2008: Entire article added, p. 1699, � 1, effective June 2.


22-5.5-108.  Reporting requirements. On or before July 1 of the year

following the approval of a regional service area's plan pursuant to section 22-5.5-105, and on or before January 1 each year thereafter, the regional service council shall submit a written report on behalf of the regional service area to the state board and the department summarizing its activities for the calendar year, especially those activities related to the measurable goals and objectives outlined in the plan, a summary of any efficiencies or improved effectiveness achieved at the district or regional level by the regional service area, and any proposed amendments to the plan originally submitted to the state board pursuant to this article.

Source: L. 2008: Entire article added, p. 1700, � 1, effective June 2.

ARTICLE 6

Comprehensive Educational Planning

22-6-101 to 22-6-113. (Repealed)


Source: L. 84: Entire article repealed, p. 584, � 1, effective March 19.


Editor's note: This article was numbered as article 43 of chapter 123 in C.R.S.
  1. For amendments to this article prior to its repeal in 1984, consult the Colorado statutory research explanatory note and the table itemizing the replacement volumes and supplements to the original volume of C.R.S. 1973 beginning on page vii in the front of this volume.

ARTICLE 7

Educational Accountability

Editor's note: This article was numbered as article 41 of chapter 123 in C.R.S.
  1. This article was amended with relocations in 1997, resulting in the addition, relocation, and elimination of sections as well as subject matter. For amendments to this article prior to 1997, consult the Colorado statutory research explanatory note and the table itemizing the replacement volumes and supplements to the original volume of C.R.S. 1973 beginning on page vii in the front of this volume. Former C.R.S. section numbers are shown in editor's notes following those sections that were relocated.

PART 1

LOCAL ACCOUNTABILITY PROGRAMS

22-7-101 to 22-7-107. (Repealed)


Source: L. 2009: Entire part repealed, (SB 09-163), ch. 293, p. 1525, � 5,

effective May 21.

Editor's note: This article was amended with relocations in 1997, and this

part 1 was subsequently repealed in 2009. For amendments to this part 1 prior to its repeal in 2009, consult the Colorado statutory research explanatory note beginning on page vii in the front of this volume and the editor's note following the article heading.

PART 2

EDUCATIONAL ACHIEVEMENT

22-7-201 to 22-7-207. (Repealed)


Source: L. 2009: Entire part repealed, (SB 09-163), ch. 293, p. 1525, � 5,

effective May 21.

Editor's note: This article was amended with relocations in 1997, and this

part 2 was subsequently repealed in 2009. For amendments to this part 2 prior to its repeal in 2009, consult the Colorado statutory research explanatory note beginning on page vii in the front of this volume and the editor's note following the article heading.

PART 3

COLORADO STATE ADVISORY COUNCIL

FOR PARENT INVOLVEMENT IN EDUCATION

Editor's note: This article was amended with relocations in 1997, and this

part 3 was repealed in 1997 and subsequently recreated and reenacted in 2009, resulting in the addition, relocation, and elimination of sections as well as subject matter. For additional historical information concerning this article, see the editor's note following the article heading.


C.R.S. § 22-80-120

22-80-120. HVAC infrastructure improvements. On and after August 6, 2025, if the school undertakes HVAC infrastructure improvements using money from the Infrastructure Investment and Jobs Act cash fund created in section 24-75-232 (3), the school shall comply with the requirements described in section 22-32-153 in implementing the HVAC infrastructure improvements.

Source: L. 2025: Entire section added, (HB 25-1245), ch. 400, p. 2271, � 6,

effective August 6.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in HB 25-1245, see section 1

of chapter 400, Session Laws of Colorado 2025.

ARTICLE 81

Pre-K-16 Mathematics, Science,

and Technology Improvement

PART 1

PRE-K-16 MATHEMATICS, SCIENCE, AND

TECHNOLOGY EDUCATION STRATEGIC PLAN


C.R.S. § 23-3-107

23-3-107. Age qualification for loan guarantee. Any person otherwise qualifying for a loan shall not be disqualified to receive a loan under the guarantee loan program by reason of his being under the age of twenty-one years. For the purpose of applying for, receiving, and repaying a loan, any person shall be deemed to have full legal capacity to act and shall have all the rights, powers, privileges, and obligations of a person of legal age with respect thereto.

Source: L. 68: p. 174, � 1. C.R.S. 1963: � 124-22-18.


Cross references: For age of competence generally, see � 13-22-101.

ARTICLE 3.1

Student Loan Program

Cross references: For exclusion from the Uniform Consumer Credit Code of

loans made or guaranteed by an agency, instrumentality, or political subdivision of the state pursuant to this article, see � 5-1-202 (1)(f); for the Higher Education Act of 1965, see 20 U.S.C. 1001 et seq.

PART 1

ADMINISTRATION OF PROGRAM

23-3.1-101.  Legislative declaration. The general assembly hereby declares

that the availability of improved access to and choice of higher education opportunities in this state will benefit the residents of this state and that the establishment of a student loan program will assist such residents in meeting the expenses incurred in availing themselves of such opportunities.

Source: L. 79: Entire article added, p. 807, � 1, effective July 1. L. 84: Entire

section amended, p. 617, � 1, effective April 10.

23-3.1-102.  Definitions. As used in this article 3.1 or in the specified portion

of this article 3.1, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1)  Borrower means any person who receives a loan made, originated,

disbursed, serviced, or guaranteed by the division, or made, purchased, originated, disbursed, or serviced by collegeinvest, created by part 2 of this article, or made from or in anticipation of an institutional loan as defined in section 23-3.1-202 by one or more institutions of higher education or a nonprofit corporation acting on behalf of one or more institutions of higher education.

(1.3)  Clock hour means a period of time that is the equivalent of:


(a)  A fifty-to-sixty-minute class, lecture, or recitation; or


(b)  A fifty-to-sixty-minute faculty-supervised laboratory, shop training, or

internship.

(1.5)  Commission means the Colorado commission on higher education.


(2)  Department means the department of higher education.


(3)  Director, as used in this part 1, means the director of the division.


(4)  Division means the student loan division in the department which shall

constitute the successor division for all obligations incurred by the loan guarantee division formerly established by this part 1.

(4.2)  Educational loan means a student loan which is:


(a)  Secured in such manner as the division or the authority created by part 2

of this article deems appropriate or prudent; and

(b)  Not authorized by Title IV, Part B of the federal Higher Education Act of

1965, as amended.

(4.5)  Guaranteed student loan means a student loan authorized by Title IV,

Part B of the federal Higher Education Act of 1965, as amended.

(5)  Institution of higher education means an educational institution which

meets all of the following criteria:

(a)  It admits as regular students persons having a certificate of graduation

from a school providing secondary education or comparable qualifications and persons for enrollment in courses which they reasonably may be expected to complete successfully or persons who have the ability to benefit from the training offered;

(b) (I)  It is a college, university, or community or local district college inside

the United States which is either accredited by a nationally recognized accrediting agency or association or, if not so accredited, meets the alternative criteria set forth in the federal Higher Education Act of 1965, as amended, 20 U.S.C. sec. 1085 (b); or

(II)  It is a vocational or occupational school inside the United States which is

either accredited by a nationally recognized accrediting agency or association or meets the criteria set forth in the federal Higher Education Act of 1965, as amended, 20 U.S.C. sec. 1085 (c)(4), and, in the case of private occupational schools located in Colorado, holds a certificate of approval as required by article 64 of this title 23;

(c) (I)  It provides an educational program for which it awards a bachelor's

degree; or

(II)  It provides not less than a two-year program which is acceptable for full

credit towards such a degree; or

(III)  It provides not less than a one-year program of training to prepare

students for gainful employment in a recognized occupation; or

(IV)  It is a private occupational school providing a program of not less than

three hundred clock hours of classroom instruction or its equivalent to prepare students for gainful employment in a recognized occupation.

(6)  Lender means any bank operating under a national or state charter, any

domestic savings and loan association operating under a national or state charter, any domestic branch or agency of a foreign bank duly licensed by a state or the United States, any credit union established pursuant to federal law or the law of the state in which its principal place of operation is established, any insurance company authorized to do business within this state, any institution of higher education that applies for and receives formal approval of the division as an eligible lender pursuant to the rules of the division, any pension fund eligible under the federal Higher Education Act of 1965, 20 U.S.C. 1071 et seq., as amended, any secondary market operation established pursuant to the federal Education Amendments of 1972, as amended, or the authority created by part 2 of this article.

(7) (a)  Resident means any person attending an institution of higher

education in Colorado, any person attending an institution of higher education outside Colorado who would qualify for Colorado in-state tuition status under article 7 of this title, or any person attending an institution of higher education outside Colorado who has applied for a loan from a lender approved by the division.

(b)  Resident includes a parent of any person specified in paragraph (a) of

this subsection (7) if such person is a dependent of such parent.

(8)  Student loan means a loan made to finance higher education

opportunities or to consolidate or refinance loans made to finance higher education opportunities, which loan is made, originated, disbursed, or serviced by the division or by collegeinvest, created pursuant to part 2 of this article, or which one or more institutions of higher education or a nonprofit corporation acting on behalf of one or more institutions of higher education may make from or in anticipation of an institutional loan as defined in section 23-3.1-202 or which is guaranteed by the division and may include guaranteed student loans and educational loans.

Source: L. 79: Entire article added, p. 807, � 1, effective July 1. L. 81: (1) R&RE,

(1.5) added, and (7) amended, p. 1087, �� 1, 2, effective May 29; (5)(b) and (5)(c)(IV) amended, p. 852, � 26, effective July 1. L. 82: (1.3) added and (5)(c)(IV) amended, p. 342, � 1, effective March 22. L. 83: (5)(a) and (5)(b) amended, p. 782, � 1, effective April 5; (6) amended, p. 784, � 1, effective April 5. L. 84: (1) and (4) R&RE, (4.2), (4.5), and (8) added, and (6) amended, p. 617, 618, �� 2, 3, effective April 10; (6) amended, p. 376, � 12, effective July 1. L. 85: (7)(a) amended, p. 773, � 2, effective April 5. L. 2000: IP and (3) amended, p. 1296, � 17, effective May 26. L. 2004: (1), (6), and (8) amended, p. 558, � 1, effective July 1. L. 2017: IP and (5)(b)(II) amended, (HB 17-1239), ch. 261, p. 1205, � 11, effective August 9.

23-3.1-103.  Division created - director - staff. (1)  The student loan division

and the office of the director of the division are created in the department of higher education. The division and the office of the director of the division are type 2 entities, as defined in section 24-1-105, and exercise their powers and perform their duties and functions under the department. The director of collegeinvest is the director of the division. The director, with the approval of the executive director of the commission, shall employ such professional and clerical personnel as deemed necessary to carry out the duties and functions of the division. The director and professional personnel hold educational offices and are exempt from the state personnel system.

(2)  Personnel hired by the director, with the approval of the executive

director of the commission, on and after July 1, 2002, to carry out the duties and functions of the division shall receive compensation for their services as determined by the director. Such personnel are declared to hold educational offices and to be exempt from the state personnel system but shall, by acceptance of employment, be subject to the provisions of article 51 of title 24, C.R.S.

(3)  Any personnel hired within the state personnel system pursuant to

subsection (1) of this section prior to July 1, 2002, shall retain all rights related to state personnel system and retirement benefits under the laws of this state until termination of employment with the division; except that, if such personnel accept a promotion, a voluntary demotion, or a transfer for purposes of a change of duties performed for the benefit of the division, such personnel shall become exempt from the state personnel system. Nothing in this subsection (3) shall prohibit personnel hired prior to July 1, 2002, from continuing membership in the public employees' retirement association pursuant to the provisions of article 51 of title 24, C.R.S., with all attendant rights and duties.

Source: L. 79: Entire article added, p. 808, � 1, effective July 1. L. 84: Entire

section amended, p. 618, � 4, effective April 10. L. 2002: Entire section amended, p. 961, � 1, effective June 1. L. 2006: (1) amended, p. 511, � 1, effective July 1. L. 2022: (1) amended, (SB 22-162), ch. 469, p. 3354, � 12, effective August 10.

Cross references: For the short title (the Debbie Haskins 'Administrative

Organization Act of 1968' Modernization Act) in SB 22-162, see section 1 of chapter 469, Session Laws of Colorado 2022.

23-3.1-103.5.  Enterprise status of division. (1) (a)  The division shall

constitute an enterprise for the purposes of section 20 of article X of the state constitution so long as the division retains the authority to issue revenue bonds and the division receives less than ten percent of its total annual revenues in grants from all Colorado state and local governments combined.

(b) and (c)  (Deleted by amendment, L. 2006, p. 511, � 2, effective July 1, 2006.)


(d)  Repealed.


(2) (a)  As used in this section, grant means any direct cash subsidy or other

direct contribution of money from the state or any local government in Colorado which is not required to be repaid.

(b)  Grant does not include:


(I)  Any indirect benefit conferred upon the division from the state or any

local government in Colorado;

(II)  Any revenues resulting from rates, fees, assessments, or other charges

imposed by the division for the provision of goods or services by the division;

(III)  Any federal funds, regardless of whether such federal funds pass

through the state or any local government in Colorado prior to receipt by the division.

(3)  Repealed.


Source: L. 93: Entire section added, p. 1827, � 11, effective June 6. L. 94: (1)

amended, p. 100, � 3, effective March 18. L. 95: (3) added, p. 717, � 1, effective May 23. L. 2000: (3) repealed, p. 29, � 1, effective March 10. L. 2006: (1)(a), (1)(b), and (1)(c) amended, p. 511, � 2, effective July 1.

Editor's note: Subsection (1)(d)(II) provided for the repeal of subsection (1)(d),

effective July l, 1994. (See L. 94, p. 100.)

23-3.1-104.  Duties and powers of division - rules. (1)  The division shall:


(a)  Promulgate rules and regulations for administration of the Colorado

student loan program established by this article, including but not limited to the following:

(I)  Criteria for eligibility of borrowers, lenders, and institutions of higher

education to participate in the network;

(II)  Procedures to be followed by participating borrowers, lenders, and

institutions of higher education;

(III)  With the advice of the authority created by part 2 of this article,

procedures and criteria by which the powers of the division pursuant to section 23-3.1-104.5 may be exercised;

(b)  Approve or arrange for approval of loan applications for guarantee;


(c)  Establish the level of the insurance premium charged to borrowers of

guaranteed student loans, not to exceed the amount permitted by federal law;

(d)  Assist lenders in seeking payment from delinquent borrowers;


(e)  Purchase defaulted guaranteed student loans promptly;


(f)  Collect or provide for the collection of defaulted guaranteed student

loans purchased from lenders;

(g)  Repealed.


(h)  Train lenders in the requirements of the network;


(i)  Evaluate lender performance in the network;


(j)  Train personnel of institutions of higher education in the requirements of

the network;

(k)  Evaluate the performance of institutions of higher education in the

network;

(l)  Educate borrowers in the requirements of the network;


(m)  Communicate on a periodic basis with borrowers to inform them of the

status of their loans;

(n)  Bill the federal government for administrative allowances and

reinsurance payments;

(o)  Repealed.


(p) (I)  At times prescribed by the department of revenue, but not less

frequently than annually, certify to the department of revenue information regarding persons who owe a loan repayment to the division, the amount of which has been determined to be owing as a result of a final agency determination or judicial decision pursuant to section 39-21-108 (3), C.R.S., or which has been reduced to judgment.

(II)  Such information shall include the name and social security number of

the person owing the debt, the amount of the debt, and any other identifying information required by the department of revenue.

(III)  Upon notification by the department of revenue of amounts deposited

with the state treasurer pursuant to section 39-21-108 (3), C.R.S., the state treasurer shall disburse such amounts to the division.

(q) (I)  At least quarterly, certify to the controller information regarding

persons who owe a loan repayment to the division.

(II)  Such information shall include the name and social security number of

the person owing the debt, the amount of the debt, and any other identifying information required by the controller.

(III)  Upon notification by the controller to the state agency of amounts

deposited with the state treasurer pursuant to section 24-30-202.4 (3.5)(a)(V), C.R.S., the state treasurer shall disburse such amounts to the division.

(2)  The division may:


(a)  Permit lenders to require cosigners;


(b)  Provide incentives to lenders, which may include but are not limited to:


(I)  Billing the federal government for interest payments owed to lenders;


(II)  Preparing federal reports required of lenders;


(III)  Guaranteeing, originating, servicing, making, and purchasing

consolidation loans and refinancing loans pursuant to the provisions of section 23-3.1-112;

(IV)  Verifying in-school status of students;


(c)  Employ legal counsel;


(d)  Garnish wages of defaulted borrowers;


(e)  Enter into contracts and guarantee agreements with approved lenders,

approved institutions of higher education, state and federal governmental agencies, and corporations, including agreements for federal insurance of losses resulting from death, default, bankruptcy, or total and permanent disability of borrowers. Contracts with corporations to provide services shall clearly specify the role and duties of such corporations and may be entered into without regard to the provisions of the Procurement Code, articles 101 to 112 of title 24, C.R.S., without regard to the provisions of section 17-24-111, C.R.S., and without regard to the provisions of part 11 of article 30 of title 24, C.R.S.

(f)  Make, originate, disburse, service, or guarantee student loans;


(g)  Establish the level of insurance premium or interest rate charged to the

borrowers of student loans;

(h)  Purchase defaulted student loans;


(i)  Collect or provide for the collection of defaulted student loans purchased

from lenders;

(j) and (k)  Repealed.


(l)  Advise the commission and the department on matters pertaining to

student loans;

(m)  Make and enter into contracts and all other instruments necessary or

convenient for the exercise of its powers and functions pursuant to this part 1 without regard to the provisions of the Procurement Code, articles 101 to 112 of title 24, C.R.S., without regard to the provisions of section 17-24-111, C.R.S., and without regard to the provisions of part 11 of article 30 of title 24, C.R.S.;

(n)  Do all things necessary or convenient to carry out the purposes of this

part 1;

(o)  Repealed.


(p)  Require a lender or institution of higher education to take reasonable

corrective action to remedy a violation of applicable laws, regulations, special arrangements, agreements, or limitations, including but not limited to requiring such lender or institution to make payments to the secretary of the United States department of education, the division, or their designated recipients of any funds that the lender or institution improperly received, withheld, or disbursed or caused to be disbursed;

(q)  Establish an investigations unit, which shall have the following powers

and duties:

(I)  To conduct investigations, as it deems necessary, to determine whether

applications and other data submitted to the division contain any misrepresentations or false statements made for the purpose of cheating or defrauding and to locate defaulted borrowers;

(II)  To investigate, as it deems necessary, alleged violations of any state or

federal criminal statute related to fraud committed by any person who has obtained or attempted to obtain or who aids, assists, or abets in obtaining or attempting to obtain student loans or loan guarantees or other money from the division;

(III)  To work in conjunction with the appropriate law enforcement and

prosecuting authorities in the investigation and prosecution of cases where evidence of criminal activity exists;

(IV)  To request and obtain information, assistance, and data from any

department, division, board, bureau, commission, or other agency of the local, state, or federal government, including, but not limited to, arrest and conviction records available from any law enforcement agency or crime information center pursuant to the provisions of part 3 of article 72 of title 24, C.R.S.

(3)  All rules promulgated by the division pursuant to subsection (1)(a) of this

section are subject to section 24-4-103. Any guarantee made pursuant to any rule continues to be governed by the rule in effect at the time when the guarantee was made, whether or not the rule has been continued.

Source: L. 79: Entire article added, p. 808, � 1, effective July 1. L. 80: (3)

amended, p. 787, � 20, effective June 5. L. 81: (1)(a)(I), (1)(a)(II), (1)(c), (1)(l), (1)(m), (1)(o), and (2)(e) amended, p. 1087, � 3, effective May 29. L. 84: (1)(p) added and (2)(d) amended, p. 1008, �� 1, 2, effective March 29; (2)(f) to (2)(o) added, p. 619, 1008, �� 5, 2, 6, effective April 10. L. 85: (2)(p) added, p. 773, � 4, effective April 5; (2)(q) added, p. 776, � 1, effective April 30. L. 87: (2)(b)(III) amended, p. 845, � 1, effective February 26. L. 97: (1)(q) added, p. 941, � 4, effective July 1. L. 2002: (2)(e) and (2)(m) amended, p. 962, � 2, effective June 1; (1)(p)(I) amended, p. 100, � 2, effective August 7. L. 2004: IP(1)(a), (1)(a)(I), (1)(g), (1)(h), (1)(i), (1)(j), (1)(k), (1)(l), (2)(j), and (2)(o) amended, pp. 578, 559, �� 38, 2, effective July 1. L. 2006: IP(1)(a) amended, p. 512, � 5, effective July 1. L. 2010: (1)(g), (1)(o), (2)(j), (2)(k), and (2)(o) repealed, (HB 10-1428), ch. 390, p. 1829, � 4, effective June 9. L. 2022: (3) amended, (SB 22-091), ch. 28, p. 168, � 4, effective August 10.

23-3.1-104.5.  Additional powers of division. (1)  The division is hereby

authorized to make, originate, disburse, or service student loans directly to residents. Resident for the purpose of this section means any person attending an institution of higher education in Colorado, or any person attending an institution of higher education outside Colorado who would qualify for Colorado in-state tuition status under article 7 of this title. In order to obtain funds to make, originate, disburse, or service such student loans, the division is authorized to borrow or enter into other types of agreements with any person, corporation, financial institution, state or federal authority, political subdivision, or state or federal government agency for the advancement of funds for such purposes, so long as such student loans are insured against default.

(1.5)  Repealed.


(2)  Any agreement made by the division to repay funds borrowed from any

person, corporation, financial institution, state or federal authority, political subdivision, or state or federal government agency shall not constitute or become an indebtedness, a debt, or a liability of the state or constitute the giving, pledging, or loaning of the full faith and credit of the state. Repayment of such borrowed funds shall be made solely from funds received from proceeds or earnings derived from the funds borrowed, from borrowers and insurers, or from federal payments, and the state shall have no liability with respect to such an agreement.

(3)  The division is hereby authorized to issue revenue bonds after approval

by both houses of the general assembly either by bill or by joint resolution and after approval by the governor in accordance with section 39 of article V of the state constitution.

Source: L. 81: Entire section added, p. 1088, � 4, effective May 29. L. 84:

Entire section amended p. 619, � 7, effective April 10. L. 85: (1) R&RE, (1.5) repealed, and (2) amended, pp. 774, 775, �� 5, 10, 6, effective April 5. L. 93: (3) added, p. 1827, � 12, effective June 6. L. 2006: (3) amended, p. 513, � 6, effective July 1.

23-3.1-104.7.  Restructuring plan - legislative declaration. (1)  The general

assembly hereby finds and declares that:

(a)  Due to changes in federal law, the department shall no longer be involved

in student loans that are guaranteed by the federal government;

(b)  There are a number of employees of the division that are involved in

originating, disbursing, servicing, and administering student loans that are guaranteed by the federal government; and

(c)  It is in the best interest of the state for the department to prepare and

submit to the general assembly a restructuring plan to deal with the changes in administering student loans.

(2)  On or before January 1, 2011, the department shall prepare and submit to

the education committees of the senate and the house of representatives, or any successor committees, a restructuring plan to deal with changes in administering student loans. The plan shall address, but need not be limited to, the following issues:

(a)  Any ongoing or future role for the Colorado student obligation bond

authority;

(b)  Whether the division should continue to originate, disburse, service,

guarantee, and administer student loans;

(c)  If the division does not continue administering student loans, the entity

that should be responsible for such administration and the authority that entity may need;

(d)  The number of employees necessary to administer student loans; and


(e)  The employment of persons who formerly were responsible for

administering student loans guaranteed by the federal government.

Source: L. 2010: Entire section added, (HB 10-1428), ch. 390, p. 1827, � 1,

effective June 9.

23-3.1-105.  Advisory committee established - duties - membership -

repeal. (Repealed)

Source: L. 79: Entire article added, p. 810, � 1, effective July 1. L. 84: IP(1)

amended, p. 620, � 8, effective April 10. L. 86: (3) added, p. 413, � 21, effective March 21. L. 91: (2) and (3) amended, p. 695, � 8, effective April 20. L. 2004: Entire section R&RE, p. 372, � 1, effective April 8. L. 2006: Entire section repealed, p. 512, � 3, effective July 1.

23-3.1-106.  Student loan program established. (1) (a)  There is hereby

established a student loan program, to be administered by the division, which shall guarantee, in accordance with applicable provisions of federal law, a percentage of the unpaid principal and interest on all guaranteed student loans approved by the division. No guaranteed student loan shall be guaranteed to a percentage or an amount in excess of the limits authorized by federal law, nor shall interest charged on any guaranteed student loan exceed the interest rate permitted by federal law, but each guaranteed student loan may carry a special loan insurance premium which shall not exceed that permitted by federal law. No guaranteed student loan shall be guaranteed or made to any borrower which would not be eligible for federal reinsurance as authorized by Title IV, Part B of the federal Higher Education Act of 1965, as amended. A loan guarantee made by the division in good faith for a student loan which has been disbursed and which does not meet the requirements of this article, except for cases of misfeasance by the holder, shall not be invalidated.

(b)  On and after July 1, 2006, the student loan program established pursuant

to paragraph (a) of this subsection (1) shall be formally and legally known as and designated the Colorado student loan program. On and after July 1, 2006, whenever the student loan program or the guaranteed student loan program is referred to or designated by a contract or other document, such reference or designation shall be deemed to apply to the Colorado student loan program. All contracts entered into by or on behalf of the student loan program or the guaranteed student loan program prior to July 1, 2006, are hereby validated as obligations of the Colorado student loan program.

(2)  It is the intent of the general assembly that the Colorado student loan

program established by subsection (1) of this section shall operate in such a manner that its costs can be fully met by user fees and federal payments.

(3) (a)  Loan guarantees made by the division shall not constitute or become

an indebtedness, a debt, or a liability of the state, nor shall such loan guarantees constitute the giving, pledging, or loaning of the full faith and credit of the state. The state shall have no liability with respect to loan guarantees which shall be payable solely from the user fees and federal payments provided for in section 23-3.1-107.

(b)  The loan guarantees shall not obligate the state, directly, indirectly, or

contingently, nor empower the state or the general assembly to levy or collect any form of taxes or assessments, to create any indebtedness payable out of taxes or assessments, or to make any appropriation for their payment, and any such appropriation, levy, or collection is prohibited. Nothing in this part 1 shall be construed to authorize the division to create a debt of the state within the meaning of the constitution or statutes of Colorado or to authorize the division to levy or collect any form of taxes or assessments.

(c)  The state shall not be liable in any event for the purchase of defaulted

loans made, originated, disbursed, serviced, or guaranteed by the division or for the performance of any pledge, obligation, or agreement of any kind in connection with such loans which may be undertaken by the division except from the user fees and federal payments provided for in section 23-3.1-107. No breach of any such pledge, obligation, or agreement shall impose any pecuniary liability upon the state or a charge upon the general credit or taxing power of the state.

(4)  On and after July 1, 2015, the Colorado student loan program may enter

into an agreement with the department or another state entity to administer all or part of the college opportunity fund program created in parts 1 and 2 of article 18 of this title 23.

Source: L. 79: Entire article added, p. 811, � 1, effective July 1. L. 81: (3)(c)

amended, p. 1088, � 5, effective May 29. L. 84: (1), (2), and (3)(c) amended, p. 620, � 9, effective April 10. L. 85: (1) amended, p. 774, � 7, effective April 5. L. 94: (1) amended, p. 453, � 1, effective March 29. L. 2004: (1) and (2) amended, p. 559, � 3, effective July 1. L. 2006: (1)(b) and (2) amended, p. 513, � 7, effective July 1. L. 2017: (4) added, (HB 17-1131), ch. 29, p. 84, � 2, effective March 8.

23-3.1-106.5.  Special funds. (1)  The division may create a special fund into

which any funds borrowed from any person, corporation, financial institution, state or federal authority, political subdivision, or state or federal agency pursuant to the provisions of section 23-3.1-104.5 (1) may be deposited.

(1.5)  Repealed.


(2)  All moneys deposited or paid into any special fund established by this

section shall be continuously available and are hereby appropriated to the division to be expended in accordance with the provisions of this article. Any income from the investment of this special fund shall be deposited in such fund.

Source: L. 81: Entire section amended, p. 1089, � 6, effective May 29. L. 84:

Entire section amended, p. 621, � 10, effective April 10. L. 85: (1) amended and (1.5) repealed, p. 775, �� 8, 10, effective April 5.

23-3.1-107.  Student loan guarantee fund - created. (1) (a)  There is hereby

created in the state treasury a fund to be known as the student loan guarantee fund that shall contain:

(I)  A reserve account for guaranteed student loans that is established to

fulfill the functions of the federal student loan reserve fund established by section 422A of the federal Higher Education Act of 1965, as amended;

(II)  An operating account that is established to fulfill the functions of the

agency operating fund established by section 422B of the federal Higher Education Act of 1965, as amended;

(III)  A loan servicing account; and


(IV)  Such other accounts as the division may require.


(b)  The reserve account shall be used only for those purposes permitted by

section 422A of the federal Higher Education Act of 1965, as amended. All moneys required to be deposited by the division in the federal student loan reserve fund created by said act shall be deposited in the reserve account. The division shall maintain at all times a minimum reserve requirement that is equal to, and calculated in the same manner as, that which is required for the federal student loan reserve fund established by said act. Such minimum reserve requirement may be maintained in cash in such account or in federal reinsurance receivables held by the division.

(c)  The operating account shall be used only for those purposes permitted by

section 422B of the federal Higher Education Act of 1965, as amended. All moneys required to be deposited by the division in the agency operating fund created by said act shall be deposited in the operating account.

(d)  The loan servicing account shall be used for the deposit of revenues

generated by the division's loan servicing activities and for the payment of expenses related to those activities. Until such time as the division has reached agreement with the federal department of education as to the monetary amount of any federal interest in the loan servicing account, and has made arrangements to satisfy that interest, moneys in the loan servicing account shall be considered the property of the United States. After any federal interest in the loan servicing account has been satisfied pursuant to the agreement, all revenues remaining in the loan servicing account, after payment of expenses attributable to the account, may be transferred to either the operating account or the reserve account for such uses as are permitted for those accounts.

(e)  Other income earned or received by the division that is not required to be

deposited in the reserve account or the loan servicing account may be deposited in the operating account, which shall be used to pay staff compensation and other expenses of the division.

(f)  Repealed.


(2)  All moneys deposited or paid into the student loan guarantee fund,

including any interest earned from the investment of this fund and income earned or received by the division, shall be continuously available and are hereby appropriated to the division to be expended in accordance with the provisions of this article. Any income or interest earned from the investment of this fund shall be credited to the student loan guarantee fund. Such investment income or interest, together with any other income earned or received by the division, shall be apportioned to each account as required by applicable law and may be used only for the purposes permitted thereby.

Source: L. 79: Entire article added, p. 811, � 1, effective July 1. L. 84: Entire

section R&RE, p. 621, � 11, effective April 10. L. 85: (1)(b) amended, p. 775, � 9, effective April 5. L. 91: (1)(b) amended, p. 590, � 1, effective March 28. L. 2001: (1) R&RE and (2) amended, pp. 165, 166, �� 1, 2, effective March 28. L. 2004: (1)(f) repealed, p. 202, � 18, effective August 4.

23-3.1-108.  Age qualification. Any person otherwise qualifying for a student

loan shall not be disqualified to receive a student loan under the Colorado student loan program by reason of being under the age of eighteen years. For the purpose of applying for, receiving, and repaying a student loan, any person shall be deemed to have full legal capacity to act and shall have all the rights, powers, privileges, and obligations of a person of legal age with respect thereto.

Source: L. 79: Entire article added, p. 812, � 1, effective July 1. L. 84: Entire

section amended, p. 622, � 12, effective April 10. L. 2004: Entire section amended, p. 578, � 39, effective July 1. L. 2006: Entire section amended, p. 513, � 8, effective July 1.

23-3.1-109.  Subject to audit. The Colorado student loan program shall be

audited annually by the state auditor.

Source: L. 79: Entire article added, p. 812, � 1, effective July 1. L. 81: Entire

section amended, p. 341, � 4, effective March 27. L. 84: Entire section amended, p. 622, � 13, effective April 10. L. 96: Entire section amended, p. 1238, � 83, effective August 7. L. 99: Entire section amended, p. 849, � 3, effective May 24. L. 2004: Entire section amended, p. 578, � 40, effective July 1. L. 2006: Entire section amended, p. 513, � 9, effective July 1.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration contained in the 1996 act

amending this section, see section 1 of chapter 237, Session Laws of Colorado 1996.

23-3.1-110.  Designation as sole state agency. The division is the agency

authorized to enter into contracts concerning the programs established by Title IV, Part B of the federal Higher Education Act of 1965, 20 U.S.C. 1071, as amended. To the extent any fiscal policies required by the federal Higher Education Act of 1965, 20 U.S.C. 1071, as amended, are in conflict with state fiscal policies, the division shall comply with the required federal policies.

Source: L. 79: Entire article added, p. 812, � 1, effective July 1. L. 2004: Entire

section amended, p. 578, � 37, effective July 1.

23-3.1-111.  Authority of division to enter into agreements to provide

administrative and guarantee services. (1) The division is hereby authorized to enter into contracts or other agreements or both contracts and other agreements with private or public entities to make, originate, disburse, or service guaranteed student loans, educational loans, and student loans. Such authorization includes but shall not be limited to the power to enter into agreements with collegeinvest, established by part 2 of this article, to make, originate, disburse, or service institutional loans and student obligations as those terms are defined in section 23-3.1-202, whether or not such institutional loans and student obligations are eligible for federal reinsurance as authorized by Title IV, Part B of the federal Higher Education Act of 1965, as amended.

(2)  The division may enter into contracts or other agreements or both

contracts and other agreements with private or public entities to guarantee or reinsure student loans or educational loans which may include but not be limited to guaranteeing or reinsuring the institutional loans or student obligations as those terms are defined in section 23-3.1-202.

(3)  No guarantee or reinsurance agreement made by the division pursuant to

subsection (2) of this section shall constitute or become an indebtedness, a debt, or a liability of the state, nor shall such loan guarantee constitute the giving, pledging, or loaning of the full faith and credit of the state.

(4)  All income and interest thereon earned pursuant to the exercise of the

power established in subsections (1) and (2) of this section are continuously available and are hereby appropriated to the division and may be used to pay the operating expenses thereof, or a portion of such income or interest may be deposited into any applicable reserve or guarantee account.

Source: L. 84: Entire section added, p. 622, � 14, effective April 10. L. 2004:

(1) and (2) amended, p. 560, � 4, effective July 1.

23-3.1-112.  Authority and power of the division to guarantee, originate,

service, make, and purchase consolidation loans and refinancing loans. (1) Notwithstanding any provisions or definitions contained in this article to the contrary, the division is hereby authorized to guarantee, originate, service, make, and purchase consolidation loans and refinancing loans for all persons eligible for the consolidation and refinancing of student loans under Part B of Title IV of the federal Higher Education Act of 1965, as amended. For the purposes of this section, student loans means, notwithstanding any provisions of this article to the contrary, those loans eligible for consolidation and refinancing under the federal provisions of Part B of Title IV of the Higher Education Act of 1965, as amended.

(2)  The powers and duties of the division specified in section 23-3.1-104 shall

also pertain to the authority of the division with respect to consolidation loans and refinancing loans under this section.

Source: L. 87: Entire section added, p. 845, � 2, effective February 26.

PART 2

STUDENT OBLIGATIONS AND INSTITUTIONAL LOANS

23-3.1-201.  Legislative declaration. The general assembly hereby declares

that the availability of improved access to and choice of higher education opportunities in this state will benefit the residents of the state and that the establishment of a prepaid postsecondary education expense program will assist residents in meeting the expenses incurred in availing themselves of higher education opportunities. It is the intent of the general assembly in enacting this part 2 to create collegeinvest, which shall be a division within the department of higher education and which authority shall make or purchase student obligations and shall develop and administer a prepaid postsecondary education expense program. This part 2 shall be liberally construed to accomplish the intentions expressed in this section.

Source: L. 79: Entire article added, p. 812, � 1, effective July 1. L. 84: Entire

section amended, p. 623, � 15, effective April 10. L. 96: Entire section amended, p. 421, � 1, effective April 22. L. 2000: Entire section amended, p. 1268, � 1, effective May 26. L. 2004: Entire section amended, p. 560, � 5, effective July 1. L. 2010: Entire section amended, (HB 10-1428), ch. 390, p. 1830, � 5, effective June 9.

23-3.1-202.  Definitions. As used in this part 2, unless the context otherwise

requires:

(1)  Advance payment contract means a contract entered into by the

authority, as defined in subsection (2) of this section, and a purchaser in connection with the prepaid postsecondary education expense program as authorized in section 23-3.1-206.7.

(2)  Authority means collegeinvest, transferred to the department and

existing as a division of the department pursuant to section 23-3.1-203.

(3)  Board means the board of directors of the authority.


(4)  Bond means any bond, note, debenture, interim certificate, or other

evidence of indebtedness authorized to be issued by the authority pursuant to this part 2, including refunding bonds.

(5)  Bond resolution means the resolution authorizing the issuance of or

providing the terms and conditions related to bonds issued pursuant to this part 2 and includes any trust agreement or trust indenture providing terms and conditions for such bonds.

(6)  Collegeinvest means:


(a)  The Colorado student obligation bond authority, as it existed prior to May

26, 2000, as an independent public body politic in accordance with section 23-3.1-203, as it existed prior to said date;

(b)  On and after May 26, 2000, but prior to July 1, 2004, the Colorado student

obligation bond authority transferred to the department and existing as a division of the department pursuant to section 23-3.1-203, as it existed prior to said date;

(c)  On and after July 1, 2004, the successor to the Colorado student

obligation bond authority existing as a division of the department pursuant to section 23-3.1-203, but designated and formally and legally known, as of July 1, 2004, as collegeinvest.

(7)  Contract price means the aggregate of all payment amounts to be

remitted during the contract term by purchasers under the outstanding advance payment contracts as provided on the respective dates of execution thereof.

(8)  Director means the executive officer of collegeinvest, appointed in

accordance with section 23-3.1-203.

(9)  Excess amount means the assets in the Colorado prepaid

postsecondary education expense trust fund that the actuarial calculation under section 23-3.1-206.7 (5) demonstrates are in excess of the assets required to pay the obligations of the prepaid expense trust fund with a likelihood of such sufficiency of at least ninety-five percent.

(10)  Executive director means the executive director of the department of

higher education.

(11)  Executive officer means the director of collegeinvest, transferred to

the department and existing as a division of the department pursuant to section 23-3.1-203.

(12)  Expected tuition units means the total tuition units paid for and not

distributed or refunded together with the portion of tuition units available for purchase under outstanding advance payment contracts that, based on an actuarial projection, are expected to be paid for and become obligations of the Colorado prepaid postsecondary education expense trust fund.

(13)  Institutional loan means a loan made by collegeinvest from bond

proceeds, or other available moneys, to one or more institutions of higher education, to a nonprofit corporation acting on behalf of one or more institutions of higher education, to the division, or to purchasers, and made for the purpose of funding student obligations or payments to be made under advance payment contracts.

(14)  Investable assets means cash and cash equivalents on deposit in the

prepaid expense trust fund and investments of amounts deposited to the prepaid expense trust fund.

(15)  Prepaid expense program means the Colorado prepaid postsecondary

education expense program authorized in section 23-3.1-206.7.

(16)  Prepaid expense trust fund means the Colorado prepaid

postsecondary education expense trust fund established by the authority in accordance with section 23-3.1-206.7 (5) and transferred on May 26, 2000, pursuant to section 23-3.1-206.7 (5).

(17)  Purchaser means a person who makes or is obligated to make a

payment or payments in accordance with an advance payment contract on behalf of a qualified beneficiary.

(18)  Qualified beneficiary means a person identified in an advance payment

contract as the recipient of moneys or benefits to be disbursed in accordance with an advance payment contract.

(19)  State institution shall have the same meaning as provided in section

23-3.3-101 (4).

(20)  Student means a student who, under rules promulgated by the

division, is enrolled or accepted for enrollment at an institution of higher education and who is making suitable progress in his or her education toward obtaining a degree or other appropriate certification in accordance with standards promulgated by the division.

(21)  Student obligations means student obligation notes and other debt

obligations evidencing loans made for higher education purposes, or to any person for the purposes of consolidating or refinancing loans for higher education purposes, which are either guaranteed student loans, educational loans, or loans eligible for consolidation or refinancing under Part B of Title IV of the federal Higher Education Act of 1965, as amended, which the authority may make, acquire, buy, sell, or endorse pursuant to this part 2, or which one or more institutions of higher education, or a nonprofit corporation acting on behalf of one or more institutions of higher education, or the division may make from or in anticipation of an institutional loan and which include a direct or indirect interest, in whole or part, of the notes or obligations.

(22)  Tuition means the quarter, semester, or term charges imposed by an

institution of higher education and such fees or charges as may be included in the advance payment contract at the option of the authority.

Source: L. 79: Entire article added, p. 812, � 1, effective July 1. L. 81: (7)

amended, p. 1090, � 1, effective May 29. L. 84: (1.5) and (4.5) added and (7) amended, p. 623, � 16, effective April 10. L. 87: (7) amended, p. 846, � 3, effective February 26. L. 96: (1) and (1.5) amended and (1.2), (4.2), (4.4), (5.1), (5.2), (5.3), (5.5), (5.6), (5.7), (5.8), (5.9), and (8) added, p. 421, � 2, effective April 22. L. 2000: Entire section amended, p. 1268, � 2, effective May 26. L. 2004: Entire section R&RE, p. 560, � 6, effective July 1.

23-3.1-203.  Authority - creation - membership - transfer of personnel. (1)

Effective May 26, 2000, the authority shall be transferred to the department of higher education, and shall become a division thereof. Except as otherwise provided in this article, on and after May 26, 2000, the authority shall exercise its powers, duties, and functions under the department of higher education as if it were transferred by a type 2 transfer under the provisions of the Administrative Organization Act of 1968, article 1 of title 24, C.R.S. The director shall be appointed by the executive director, shall function as the executive officer of the authority, and shall also be director of the student loan division. The director, with the approval of the executive director, shall employ such professional and clerical personnel as may be deemed necessary to carry out the duties and functions of the authority. Such personnel shall receive compensation for their services as determined by the director. The director and all personnel of the authority are declared to hold educational offices and to be exempt from the state personnel system.

(2) (a)  Effective May 26, 2000, the board of directors of the authority, as it

existed prior to May 26, 2000, shall be transferred with the authority to the department of higher education. The board continues to consist of nine members who are appointed by the governor, with the consent of the senate. Such members must be residents of the state. The term of office of each member is four years; except that the terms shall be staggered so that no more than three members' terms expire in the same year. Each member shall serve until a successor has been appointed by the governor. Any member is eligible for reappointment. The governor shall fill any vacancy by appointment for the remainder of an unexpired term. Any member appointed by the governor when the general assembly is not in regular session, whether appointed for an unexpired term or for a full term, shall be deemed to be duly appointed and qualified until the appointment of such member is approved or rejected by the senate. Such appointment shall be submitted to the senate for its approval or rejection during the next regular session of the general assembly following the appointment.

(b)  Any member of the board appointed b

C.R.S. § 23-31-313

23-31-313. Healthy forests - vibrant communities - funds created - outreach working group - loan program - legislative declaration - definitions - repeal. (1) Short title. This section shall be known and may be cited as the Colorado Healthy Forests and Vibrant Communities Act of 2009.

(2)  Legislative declaration. The general assembly hereby declares that

addressing the wildfire risk in Colorado and the development of community wildfire protection plans to bring together federal, state, and local interests, including nongovernmental entities such as electric, gas, and water utilities, to address wildfire risk to life, property, and infrastructure in Colorado is a matter of statewide concern.

(3)  Definitions. As used in this section, unless the context otherwise

requires:

(a)  Community-based collaborative process means a process in which a

diverse range of governmental and nongovernmental stakeholders, representing a wide variety of perspectives, are meaningfully engaged in analyzing and identifying forest management needs for their community.

(b)  Community wildfire protection plan or CWPP means a plan that meets

the definition of a community wildfire protection plan in the federal Healthy Forests Restoration Act of 2003, 16 U.S.C. sec. 6511, including the minimum requirements for collaboration with local and state government representatives, including conservation districts created pursuant to article 70 of title 35, C.R.S., and county noxious weed program administrators and consultation with federal agencies and other interested nongovernmental parties, including any electric, gas, and water utilities in the affected area, and the minimum requirements for approval by representatives of local government, local fire authorities, and the forest service.

(b.5)  Director means the director of the forest service.


(c)  Forest service means the Colorado state forest service identified in

section 23-31-302.

(d)  GIS means a geographical information system, a systematic integration

of computer hardware, software, and spatial data, for capturing, storing, displaying, updating, manipulating, and analyzing geographical information in order to solve complex management problems.

(e)  Good neighbor authority means the authority of the state of Colorado

pursuant to section 331 of the federal Department of Interior and Related Agencies Appropriation Act of 2001, Pub.L. 106-291, 114 Stat. 922, or any analogous successor authority.

(f)  Temporary field capacity means full-time, temporary field support hired

by the forest service to implement projects until such time that program funding is no longer available.

(g)  Wildfire risk mitigation or fuel mitigation treatments means

preventive forest management projects or actions, which meet or exceed forest service standards or any other applicable state rules, that are designed to reduce the potential for unwanted impacts caused by wildfires, including:

(I)  The creation of a defensible space around structures;


(II)  The establishment of fuel breaks;


(III)  The thinning of woody vegetation for the primary purpose of reducing

risk to structures from wildland fire;

(IV)  The secondary treatment of woody fuels by lopping and scattering,

piling, chipping, removing from the site, broadcast burning, or prescribed burning; and

(V)  Other nonemergency preventive activities designed to reduce the

unwanted impacts caused by wildfires that the forest service may deem to be risk reduction or fuel mitigation treatments.

(h)  Wildland-urban interface means an area where structures or other

human development meet or intermingle with wildland vegetation.

(4)  Community and firefighter planning and preparedness. To help ensure

that communities and firefighters have sufficient resources, technical support, and training to adequately assess wildfire risks, the forest service shall:

(a)  Facilitate the CWPP process with communities and other entities seeking

to prepare a CWPP to ensure that state and federal CWPP standards are met;

(b)  Work with conservation districts created pursuant to article 70 of title 35,

C.R.S., county noxious weed program administrators, and other state, local, federal, and nongovernmental partners, including any electric, gas, and water utilities in the affected area, to provide CWPP standards for Colorado that promote greater consistency among CWPPs in the state and ensure that communities address community risks and values, identify protection priorities, assess their ability to respond to wildland fire, establish fuels treatment projects, and identify ways to minimize wildland-urban interface risk in the future;

(c)  Provide technical assistance to communities seeking to prepare, update,

or implement a CWPP and track the progress of CWPPs and implementation practices through GIS web-based applications; and

(d)  Provide technical assistance to the board of county commissioners of

each county to determine whether there are fire hazard areas within the unincorporated areas of the county and to assist the board of county commissioners of each county with developing CWPPs for those areas.

(e)  Repealed.


(5)  Community wildfire risk mitigation. To help communities address the

urgent need to reduce wildfire risks by supporting implementation of risk mitigation treatments that focus on protecting lives, homes, and essential community infrastructure, and by improving inventory and monitoring of forest conditions, the forest service shall:

(a)  Expand its fuels mitigation program through sixty percent cost-share

grants to address needs expressed by landowners or utility easement owners in the wildland-urban interface. In order to qualify for these funds, projects shall be included in or provide for implementation of an approved CWPP that meets the standards established pursuant to paragraph (b) of subsection (4) of this section. In awarding these grants, the forest service shall establish evaluation criteria that emphasize projects that reduce risks to the public, firefighters, and community infrastructure; that improve forest health; and that substantially leverage additional financial resources. In making grant awards, the forest service shall also prioritize projects that provide an opportunity to implement Colorado's good neighbor authority or that have been identified through a community-based collaborative process.

(b)  Hire additional field capacity to support the implementation and

monitoring of fuels mitigation grant awards;

(c)  Provide sufficient resources to conduct enhanced aerial surveys to

annually assess forest conditions, identify emerging and existing insect and disease epidemics, and make timely management decisions; and

(d)  Provide sufficient resources to assess and incorporate forest pathology

information into analysis of forest conditions and trends.

(6)  Community watershed restoration. (a)  In order to support communities

and land managers in efforts to reduce risk to people and property and increase firefighter safety, and in support of long-term ecological restoration so that the underlying condition of Colorado's forests supports a variety of values, including public water supply and high-quality wildlife habitat, the forest service shall:

(I)  Repealed.


(II)  Facilitate and work collaboratively with the division of fire prevention and

control, landowners, local governments, including conservation districts created pursuant to article 70 of title 35, C.R.S., and county noxious weed program administrators and other appropriate parties, including any electric, gas, and water utilities in the affected area, to design prescribed fire and fuel mitigation treatment projects and to encourage increased responsible use of prescribed fire and fuel mitigation treatments as a tool for restoring healthy forest conditions consistent with programs established pursuant to section 25-7-106 (7) and (8), C.R.S., and section 24-33.5-1217, C.R.S. The forest service shall emphasize providing training and technical assistance for landowners, local communities, and state agencies.

(III)  Repealed.


(IV)  Conduct, or contract with one or more entities to conduct, one or more

demonstration projects that utilize Colorado's good neighbor authority with the United States forest service to implement forest management treatments that improve forest health and resilience and supply forest products to Colorado businesses. In overseeing a project, the forest service shall:

(A)  Use a collaborative approach;


(B)  Leverage state resources to accomplish work across land ownership

boundaries in order to treat more acres at reduced cost;

(C)  Target a Colorado watershed to implement forest management

treatments that will protect and enhance forest resilience, reduce the potential for catastrophic wildfire, salvage insect- and disease-impacted trees, and provide forest products for businesses in Colorado; and

(D)  Consider locations that have already been subject to review under the

federal National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, 42 U.S.C. sec. 4321 et seq., including the Alpine plateau in Gunnison county and areas in the Grand Mesa, Uncompahgre, and Gunnison national forests that are subject to the spruce beetle epidemic and aspen decline draft environmental impact statement.

(b)  Repealed.


(7)  Enhanced economic opportunities. In order to support local business

development and job creation through the implementation of forest treatments, the forest service shall:

(a)  Administer a revolving loan fund to support woody biomass utilization and

the development and marketing of traditional and nontraditional timber products as specified in subsection (8) of this section;

(b)  Work with the air quality control commission created in section 25-7-104

to support the appropriately increased use of woody biomass in bio-heating.

(8)  Wildfire risk mitigation loan program. (a)  The forest service shall issue a

statewide request for proposals for loans to businesses to provide start-up capital for new facilities or equipment to harvest, remove, use, and market beetle-killed and other timber taken from private, federal, state, county, or municipal forest lands as part of a wildfire risk reduction or fuels mitigation treatment.

(b)  The forest service shall solicit applications for and make loans under this

section. In deciding whether to make a loan, the forest service shall consider the extent to which the applicant:

(I)  Helps retain or expand other local businesses;


(II)  Helps maintain or increase the number of jobs in the area;


(III)  Contributes to the stability of rural communities;


(IV)  Demonstrates operational experience and a good reputation;


(V)  Promotes and publicizes the efforts undertaken pursuant to this section;

and

(VI)  Helps recruit new business activity in the area.


(c)  No later than July 1, 2010, the state forester shall submit a report to the

governor that shall include an assessment of whether, and to what extent, projects funded by loans under this subsection (8) have achieved the purposes identified in this subsection (8).

(d)  There is hereby created in the state treasury the wildfire risk mitigation

revolving fund, which shall be administered by the forest service. All moneys in the fund are continuously appropriated to the department of higher education for allocation to the board of governors of the Colorado state university system for loans specified in this subsection (8). All moneys in the fund at the end of each fiscal year shall be retained in the fund and shall not revert to the general fund or any other fund.

(e)  On June 15, 2021, or as soon as possible thereafter, the state treasurer

shall transfer two million five hundred thousand dollars from the general fund to the wildfire risk mitigation revolving fund.

(9)  Improved outreach and technical assistance. In order to ensure that the

forest service has the capacity to deliver key funding and technical assistance that will be needed to guide and support implementation of wildfire preparedness, risk mitigation, watershed restoration, and economic development initiatives in a way that adds value to these efforts at the state level and across community boundaries, the forest service shall:

(a)  Secure full-time staff for developing, revising, and implementing CWPPs

and collaborative landscape level prioritization plans; developing and implementing risk mitigation and watershed restoration plans; strengthening the responsible use of prescribed fire; and supporting economically beneficial uses of woody biomass;

(b)  Secure sufficient GIS capacity to assist with wildfire, insect, and disease

risk assessments, as well as landscape-scale prioritization and planning; and emphasize making data available to and usable by local entities and other interested parties, including any electric, gas, and water utilities in the affected area; and

(c)  Develop a web-based clearinghouse for technical assistance and funding

resources relevant to the initiatives established in this section.

(d)  Repealed.


(9.2)  Outreach to high school students. The forest service, in consultation

with the department of natural resources, the division of fire prevention and control in the department of public safety, the state board for community colleges and occupational education, and timber industry representatives, shall develop educational materials relating to career opportunities in forestry and wildfire risk mitigation to distribute to high school guidance counselors to provide to high school students.

(9.5)  Wildfire risk mitigation public outreach and educational campaign -

legislative declaration. (a) (I) The general assembly hereby finds and declares that:

(A)  Wildfires increasingly pose a threat to homes and communities in

Colorado as more people move into the wildland areas of our state, and long-term weather and climate trends, including drought and warmer temperatures, as well as the buildup of wildland fuels, further increase wildfire risk;

(B)  In 2020, Colorado experienced the three largest wildfires in its history,

with the fires burning over six hundred thousand acres, causing significant displacement, devastating communities, degrading water and air quality, and ultimately resulting in the loss of human life and hundreds of millions of dollars in property loss and damage;

(C)  Local, state, and federal agencies and entities continue to address the

short- and long-term social, economic, and environmental impacts of these fires;

(D)  With more than half of all Coloradans living in the wildland-urban

interface, there is an urgent need for wildfire prevention and preparedness at both the community and individual homeowner and property owner levels;

(E)  Coordinated education concerning how, where, and why wildfires burn, as

well as collaborative efforts to increase survivability of homes and property, is paramount to coexisting in a wildfire environment; and

(F)  While homeowners and property owners in Colorado bear the ultimate

responsibility to prepare their homes and property for wildfire, many still do not understand this responsibility, the risk they face living in the wildland-urban interface, or the necessary steps to reduce their wildfire risk.

(II)  Therefore, the general assembly declares that it is vital to the health and

safety of Colorado's citizens, communities, and forests for local, state, and federal agencies in Colorado, in partnership with organizations engaged in wildfire risk mitigation in the state, to enhance outreach efforts to residents in the wildland-urban interface to educate and motivate those residents to engage in effective wildfire risk mitigation and wildfire preparedness activities.

(b) (I)  The forest service shall convene a working group of local, state, and

federal partners engaged in wildfire risk mitigation, referred to in this subsection (9.5) as the working group, to enhance outreach efforts to residents in the wildland-urban interface concerning effective wildfire risk mitigation and to coordinate the financial and other resources that may be available for such work. State and federal partners include the division of fire prevention and control in the department of public safety and the United States forest service. The forest service may invite other partners to join the working group and seek input from entities engaged in wildfire risk mitigation in the wildland-urban interface.

(II)  The working group shall:


(A)  Prior to the annual wildfire awareness month outreach campaigns in

2023 and 2024, consider how best to conduct an enhanced outreach campaign for the public that educates and motivates residents in the wildland-urban interface to engage in more wildfire risk mitigation;

(B)  Consider how best to distribute educational resources and information to

residents in the wildland-urban interface, including the forest service's publication The Home Ignition Zone or a successor publication, and whether other educational and marketing tools could be developed to educate residents and motivate increased wildfire risk mitigation;

(C)  Consider which local, statewide, or regional outreach efforts, including

direct mail, web-based material, telephone outreach, social media, print media, television and radio spots, billboards, and community events, are most effective in increasing awareness among the targeted residents in the wildland-urban interface of the importance of wildfire risk mitigation and how to prepare for wildfires;

(D)  Consider how best to coordinate efforts by working group partners and

other entities engaged in wildfire risk mitigation to disseminate web-based educational resources and information concerning effective wildfire risk mitigation and wildfire preparedness activities through links to the forest service's web-based clearinghouse for technical assistance and to web-based resources of other working group partners and entities engaged in wildfire risk mitigation;

(E)  Consider how best to leverage existing state, local, and federal resources

and expertise to implement the enhanced outreach efforts considered by the working group; and

(F)  Consider what funding or additional resources would be necessary for the

forest service and other partners to build upon the enhanced wildfire awareness month outreach campaign, as well as other potential outreach efforts, in subsequent years.

(c)  After considering feedback from the working group, and subject to

available appropriations, the forest service:

(I)  Shall implement an enhanced wildfire awareness month outreach

campaign in conjunction with the division of fire prevention and control in the department of public safety and the United States forest service in 2023 through 2027; and

(II)  Shall implement other outreach efforts during the 2022-23 through

2026-27 state fiscal years that are expected to increase awareness of wildfire risk mitigation by residents in the wildland-urban interface.

(d) (I)  To implement this subsection (9.5), the forest service, subject to

available appropriations, may:

(A)  Develop or contract for the development or placement of marketing and

educational materials, including videos, direct mail, social media, print media, television and radio spots, and billboards;

(B)  Conduct or contract for educational events targeted to residents in the

wildland-urban interface;

(C)  Retain consultants, as necessary, to implement all or part of an outreach

campaign, as well as other outreach efforts;

(D)  Make enhancements to the forest service's web-based clearinghouse for

technical assistance and funding resources created pursuant to subsection (9) of this section, as necessary, to better implement outreach efforts described in this subsection (9.5) and coordinate with working group partners and other entities engaged in wildfire risk mitigation to provide links to web-based educational resources and information; and

(E)  Secure necessary staff to implement the outreach efforts described in

this subsection (9.5).

(II)  Consistent with the outreach plan, the general assembly may appropriate

money to the division of fire prevention and control in the department of public safety.

(e) (I)  During the 2023 through the 2027 legislative interims, the state

forester shall submit a report to the wildfire matters review committee created in section 2-3-1602 concerning outreach efforts implemented pursuant to this subsection (9.5) or, if the wildfire matters review committee is repealed, to the house of representatives agriculture, water, and natural resources committee and the senate agriculture and natural resources committee, or their successor committees.

(II)  The report must include:


(A)  A description of the outreach efforts;


(B)  The amount and use of money appropriated to implement this subsection

(9.5);

(C)  Data and information received by the forest service or its partners

relating to the impact of the outreach efforts in increasing awareness of wildfire risk mitigation by residents in the wildland-urban interface; and

(D)  Proposed future outreach efforts, including any additional funding or

other resources needed to implement those outreach efforts.

(f) (I)  For purposes of conducting ongoing wildfire awareness month

outreach campaigns and other outreach efforts pursuant to subsection (9.5)(c) of this section, the general assembly shall appropriate forty thousand dollars to the healthy forests and vibrant communities fund created in subsection (10) of this section.

(II)  This subsection (9.5)(f) is repealed, effective July 1, 2028.


(9.6)  Carbon accounting framework. (a)  On and after September 1, 2022,

the state forest service shall develop a publicly accessible statewide carbon accounting framework that yields carbon stock and flux estimates for:

(I)  Ecosystems by county and forest cover type; and


(II)  Wood products.


(b)  The state forest service shall also develop a forest carbon co-benefit

framework for project-level forest management practices, including wildfire mitigation. The state forest service shall use this framework to train practitioners in adaptive management practices to be incorporated into current forest management practices, including wildfire mitigation. The state forest service shall provide technical expertise to assist industry and landowners with carbon inventories and monitoring.

(c)  As used in this subsection (9.6), unless the context otherwise requires:


(I)  Carbon accounting framework means a model that uses data from the

forest inventory and analysis program of the United States department of agriculture's forest service to develop tabular data of carbon flux and stock estimates for all forest types and wood products in the state of Colorado.

(II)  Forest carbon co-benefit framework means a framework that links

goals, strategies, and approaches in the 2020 Colorado forest action plan to forest management and wildfire risk mitigation practices that serve to improve carbon sequestration.

(9.7)  Wildfire mitigation resources and best practices grant program. (a)

There is hereby created in the forest service the wildfire mitigation resources and best practices grant program, referred to in this section as the grant program. Grant recipients may use the money to conduct outreach among landowners to inform them of resources available for wildfire mitigation and best practices for wildfire mitigation.

(b)  The forest service shall administer the grant program and, subject to

available appropriations, shall award grants as provided in this section. The forest service shall develop and publish policies and procedures to implement the grant program in accordance with this section. At a minimum, the policies and procedures must specify the time frames for applying for grants, the form of the grant program application, and the grant program evaluation and reporting requirements for grant recipients.

(c)  To be eligible to receive a grant, an entity must be an agency of local

government, a county, a municipality, a special district, a tribal agency or program, or a nonprofit organization that is registered and in good standing with the secretary of state's office. Applicants must meet any other criteria specified in the forest service's policies and procedures.

(d)  The forest service shall review the applications received pursuant to this

section. The forest service shall only award grants to applicants proposing to conduct outreach among landowners in high wildfire hazard areas and shall consider the potential impact of the applicants' proposed outreach when awarding grants.

(e)  Subject to available appropriations, not later than January 1, 2024, and on

or before January 1 each year thereafter for the duration of the grant program, the director shall award grants as provided in this section. Grants are awarded at the sole discretion of the director in accordance with this section.

(f)  On or before September 1, 2025, and on or before September 1 each year

thereafter for the duration of the grant program, the forest service shall submit a report to the wildfire matters review committee, or any successor committee, on the grant program. Notwithstanding section 24-1-136 (11)(a)(I), the reporting requirement continues until the grant program is repealed pursuant to subsection (9.7)(h) of this section.

(g)  Commencing no later than the fiscal year that begins on July 1, 2023, the

general assembly shall annually appropriate money from the general fund to the healthy forests and vibrant communities fund, created in subsection (10)(a)(I) of this section, to implement the grant program. The forest service may use a portion of the money annually appropriated for the grant program to pay the direct and indirect costs that the forest service incurs to administer the grant program.

(h)  This subsection (9.7) is repealed, effective January 1, 2029.


(10)  Healthy forests and vibrant communities fund. (a) (I)  There is hereby

created in the state treasury the healthy forests and vibrant communities fund. The fund consists of all money that may be appropriated or transferred thereto by the general assembly and all private and public money received through gifts, grants, reimbursements, or donations that are transmitted to the state treasurer and credited to the fund. All interest earned from the investment of money in the fund is credited to the fund. The money in the fund is hereby continuously appropriated for the purposes specified in this section and remains available until expended. Any money not expended at the end of the fiscal year shall remain in the fund and shall not be transferred to or revert to the general fund.

(II)  On July 1, 2017, and July 1, 2018, the state treasurer shall transfer one

million one hundred eighty-six thousand three hundred sixty-three dollars from the general fund to the healthy forests and vibrant communities fund.

(III)  On June 15, 2021, or as soon as possible thereafter, the state treasurer

shall transfer five million dollars from the general fund to the healthy forests and vibrant communities fund.

(IV)  Repealed.


(V)  On June 30, 2025, the state treasurer shall transfer from the healthy

forests and vibrant communities fund to the general fund thirty-two thousand nine hundred eighty-eight dollars that did not originate from the money the state received from the federal coronavirus state fiscal recovery fund.

(b)  By executive order or proclamation, the governor may access and

designate moneys in the healthy forests and vibrant communities fund for healthy forests and vibrant communities activities, subject to paragraph (c) of this subsection (10). The state forest service shall implement the directives set forth in such executive order or proclamation.

(c)  Of the money transferred to the fund pursuant to section 39-29-109.3

(2)(n) prior to its repeal:

(I)  Three hundred eighty thousand dollars may be expended for purposes

specified in subsection (4) of this section;

(II)  Two hundred thousand dollars may be expended for purposes specified in

subsection (5) of this section;

(III)  One hundred thousand dollars may be expended for purposes specified

in subsection (6) of this section;

(IV)  Sixty-five thousand dollars may be expended for purposes specified in

subsection (7) of this section;

(V)  Two hundred thousand dollars may be expended for purposes specified

in subsection (8) of this section;

(VI)  Three hundred sixty thousand dollars may be expended for purposes

specified in subsection (9) of this section; and

(VII)  The unencumbered balance may be used for any purpose specified in

this subsection (10)(c).

(d)  Repealed.


(11)  Repealed.


(12)  Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, the forest service's

duties pursuant to this section shall be reduced pro rata with any reduction in the funding specified in this section.

(13)  In carrying out projects pursuant to this section, the forest service shall,

whenever feasible, contract with the Colorado youth corps association or an accredited Colorado youth corps to provide labor. For purposes of this subsection (13), accredited Colorado youth corps means a youth corps organization that is accredited by the Colorado youth corps association.

Source: L. 2009: Entire section added, (HB 09-1199), ch. 411, p. 2271, � 1,

effective June 3; (10)(c)(II), (10)(c)(IV), (10)(c)(V), and (10)(c)(VI) amended, (SB 09-293), ch. 370, p. 2009, � 2, effective June 1. L. 2010: (6)(a)(III) added, (SB 10-102), ch. 101, p. 343, � 1, effective April 15. L. 2012: (6)(a)(I)(A) and (6)(b) amended, (HB 12-1032), ch. 69, p. 239, � 2, effective March 24; (4)(e) and (6)(a)(III) repealed, (HB 12-1283), ch. 240, p. 1137, �� 56, 55, effective July 1; (7)(b) amended, (HB 12-1315), ch. 224, p. 961, � 12, effective July 1. L. 2013: (6)(a)(II) amended, (SB13-083), ch. 249, p. 1308, � 10, effective May 23; (6)(a)(II) amended, (HB 13-1300), ch. 316, p. 1680, � 44, effective August 7. L. 2014: (10)(c)(I) amended and (10)(d) added, (SB 14-154), ch. 313, p. 1355, � 1, effective May 31. L. 2016: (3)(g)(IV) and (6)(a)(II) amended, (HB 16-1019), ch. 39, p. 97, � 1, effective March 22; (6)(a)(IV) added and (6)(b)(I) and (9) amended, (HB 16-1255), ch. 113, p. 318, � 1, effective April 21. L. 2017: (10)(a) amended, (SB 17-259), ch. 190, p. 689, � 2, effective May 3; IP(6)(a), (6)(b), IP(10)(c), and (10)(c)(VII) amended and (6)(a)(I) repealed, (SB 17-050), ch. 34, p. 97, � 2, effective July 1. L. 2018: (10)(a)(II) amended, (HB 18-1338), ch. 201, p. 1308, � 2, effective May 4; (7)(b) amended, (SB 18-003), ch. 359, p. 2132, � 3, effective June 1. L. 2021: (5)(b) and (9)(a) amended and (8)(e) and (10)(a)(III) added, (SB 21-258), ch. 238, p. 1249, � 3, effective June 15; (10)(a)(I) and IP(10)(c) amended, (SB 21-281), ch. 255, p. 1501, � 9, effective June 18. L. 2022: (3)(b.5) and (9.7) added and (10)(a)(I) amended, (HB 22-1007), ch. 343, p. 2456, � 1, effective June 3; (3)(h) and (9.5) added, (SB 22-007), ch. 342, p. 2452, � 1, effective June 3; (9.6) and (10)(a)(IV) added and (10)(a)(I) amended, (HB 22-1012), ch. 341, p. 2449, � 1, effective August 10. L. 2023: (9.2) added, (SB 23-005), ch. 172, p. 843, � 1, effective May 12; (9.7)(f) amended, (HB 23-1301), ch. 303, p. 1824, � 30, effective August 7. L. 2024: (9.5)(c) and (9.5)(e)(I) amended and (9.5)(f) added, (HB 24-1024), ch. 210, p. 1287, � 1, effective May 20; (11) repealed, (HB 24-1450), ch. 490, p. 3416, � 45, effective August 7. L. 2025: (10)(a)(V) added, (SB 25-312), ch. 301, p. 1536, � 7, effective May 30.

Editor's note: (1)  Subsection (6)(a)(III) was relocated to � 24-33.5-1217 in

2012.

(2)  Amendments to subsection (6)(a)(II) by Senate Bill 13-083 and House Bill

13-1300 were harmonized.

(3)  Subsection (10)(d)(II) provided for the repeal of subsection (10)(d),

effective July 1, 2015. (See L. 2014, p. 1355.)

(4)  Subsection (9)(d)(III) provided for the repeal of subsection (9)(d), effective

September 1, 2018. (See L. 2016, p. 318.)

(5)  Subsection (6)(b)(II) provided for the repeal of subsection (6)(b), effective

September 1, 2023. (See L. 2017, p. 97)

(6)  Subsection (10)(a)(IV)(B) provided for the repeal of subsection (10)(a)(IV),

effective July 1, 2023. (See L. 2022, p. 2449.)

Cross references: (1)  For the legislative declaration in the 2012 act repealing

subsections (4)(e) and (6)(a)(III), see section 1 of chapter 240, Session Laws of Colorado 2012. In 2013, subsection (6)(a)(II) was amended by the Colorado Prescribed Burning Act.

(2)  For the short title and legislative declaration, see sections 1 and 2 of

chapter 249, Session Laws of Colorado 2013.

(3)  For the legislative declaration in SB 21-258, see section 1 of chapter 238,

Session Laws of Colorado 2021. For the legislative declaration in SB 21-281, see section 1 of chapter 255, Session Laws of Colorado 2021.


C.R.S. § 23-31-319

23-31-319. Forest service seedling tree nursery - necessary upgrades and improvements - definition - funding - reports - repeal. (1) Definition. As used in this section, unless the context otherwise requires, nursery means the Colorado state forest service seedling tree nursery located on the foothills campus of Colorado state university in Fort Collins and operated by the Colorado state forest service.

(2)  Greenhouses. To upgrade greenhouses and expand their capacity, the

nursery shall:

(a)  Repair existing structures as needed;


(b)  Add square footage to existing structures or construct new structures;


(c)  Replace pumps and other equipment with equipment that is calibrated for

current nutrient delivery standards;

(d)  Implement energy efficiency measures;


(e)  Implement modern pest control measures; and


(f)  Upgrade water delivery systems, including irrigation systems.


(2.5)  Field upgrades. To upgrade the fields where the nursery grows bare-root trees and shrubs, the nursery shall:


(a)  Install a new pump and pump house;


(b)  Overhaul the irrigation system; and


(c)  Grade and improve the roads to and within the fields.


(3)  Shade house structures. To improve and expand shade house structures,

the nursery shall:

(a)  Remove and replace existing rotted structures;


(b)  Refill and level sunken or eroded ground;


(c)  Install new foundations;


(d)  Install new irrigation lines; and


(e)  Add square footage to existing structures, construct new structures, or

both.

(3.5)  Seed storage cooler. To improve the capacity, security, and energy

efficiency of seed storage, the nursery shall purchase a new seed storage cooler.

(4)  Containers and shipping supplies. To prepare for increased production,

the nursery shall:

(a)  Purchase sufficient containers and shipping materials to serve the

nursery's storage and shipping needs; and

(b)  Purchase a pressure washer to clean and sterilize containers for reuse.


(4.5)  Delivery trucks. To improve the timeliness of deliveries and eliminate

the cost of renting delivery trucks, the nursery shall purchase two refrigerated box trucks.

(5)  Capacity, expertise, and infrastructure analysis. To guide further

investment in the modernization of the nursery, the nursery shall contract with nursery management and reforestation professionals to conduct an analysis of priority capacity and knowledge investments that are necessary to address reforestation needs in response to more frequent and intense wildfire, flood, insect, and disease incidents.

(6)  Appropriation. For the 2022-23 and 2023-24 state fiscal years, the

general assembly shall appropriate money to the Colorado state university system for allocation to and expenditure by the Colorado state forest service for the purposes specified in this section. Any money appropriated by the general assembly pursuant to this subsection (6) that is not expended before the end of the fiscal year for which it is appropriated remains available for expenditure for the same purposes until the close of the 2026-27 state fiscal year.

(7)  Reporting. No later than June 1, 2023, and no later than June 1 of any

other year in which the Colorado state forest service expends money appropriated to the Colorado state university system pursuant to this section, the state forester shall submit a report concerning the use of money received by the Colorado state forest service pursuant to this section to the wildfire matters review committee created in section 2-3-1602 (1)(a).

(8)  Repeal. This section is repealed, effective June 30, 2027.


Source: L. 2022: Entire section added, (HB 22-1323), ch. 434, p. 3058, � 2,

effective August 10. L. 2023: (2.5), (3.5), and (4.5) added and (6) and (8) amended, (HB 23-1060), ch. 185, p. 904, � 1, effective August 7. L. 2025: (6) and (8) amended, (SB 25-115), ch. 4, p. 10, � 1, effective February 27.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in HB 22-1323, see section 1

of chapter 434, Session Laws of Colorado 2022.


C.R.S. § 24-21-631

24-21-631. Board - duties. (1) In addition to any other duties set forth in this part 6, the board shall:

(a)  Conduct a continuous study of charitable gaming throughout the state

for the purpose of improving charitable gaming and ascertaining any defects in this part 6 or in the rules promulgated pursuant to this part 6; and

(b)  Commencing on and after January 1, 2025, at the discretion of the board,

submit a report to the general assembly containing recommendations for changes to this part 6, which report shall be submitted on or before October 31, 2025, and on or before October 31 of each year thereafter.

(2)  The licensing authority is encouraged to collaborate with the board on

proposals developed by the board concerning subjects including but not limited to:

(a)  The types of charitable gaming activities to be conducted, the existing

rules and potential new rules for those activities, and the number of occasions per year upon which a licensee may hold, operate, or conduct a game of bingo or lotto;

(b)  The types of charitable gaming activities to be conducted in the future

based upon a continuing review of the available state-of-the-art equipment in Colorado and other states and the policies and procedures approved and implemented by other states for the conduct of charitable gaming activities, provided that no new type of charitable gaming activity is recommended by the board for approval for licensing or play, or approved by the licensing authority for licensing or play, that does not comport with the limitations of section 2 (3) of article XVIII of the state constitution concerning the conduct only of the specific game of chance commonly known as bingo or lotto or the specific game of chance commonly known as raffles; and

(c)  An annual review of at least ten percent of all charitable gaming rules

and a complete review of all charitable gaming rules every five years.

(3)  The board shall offer advice to the licensing authority upon subjects

including but not limited to:

(a)  The requirements, qualifications, and grounds for the issuance of all

types of permanent and temporary licenses required for the conduct of charitable gaming;

(b)  The requirements, qualifications, and grounds for the revocation,

suspension, and summary suspension of all licenses required for the conduct of charitable gaming;

(c)  Activities that constitute fraud, cheating, or illegal activities;


(d)  The granting of licenses with special conditions or for limited periods, or

both;

(e)  The establishment of a schedule of reasonable fines to be assessed for

violations of this part 6 or any rule adopted pursuant to this part 6;

(f)  The amount of fees for licenses issued by the licensing authority and for

the performance of administrative services pursuant to this part 6;

(g)  The establishment of criteria under which a person may serve as a games

manager;

(h)  The content and conduct of classes or training seminars to benefit bingo-raffle charitable licensees, officers, and volunteers to better account for funds

collected from games of chance;

(i)  Standardized rules, procedures, and policies to clarify and simplify the

auditing of licensees' records; and

(j)  The conditions for a licensee's plan for disposal of any equipment and the

distribution of any remaining net proceeds upon termination of a bingo-raffle license for the licensee's failure to timely or sufficiently renew such license.

Source: L. 2017: Entire part added with relocations, (SB 17-232), ch. 233, p.

943, � 2, effective May 23. L. 2024: Entire section R&RE, (HB 24-1326), ch. 420, p. 2871, � 10, effective June 5.

Editor's note: This section is similar to former � 12-9-202 as it existed prior to

2017.


C.R.S. § 24-30-1305

24-30-1305. Life-cycle cost - application - definitions. (1) The general assembly authorizes and directs that state agencies and state institutions of higher education shall employ design and construction methods for real property under their jurisdiction, in such a manner as to further the policy declared in section 24-30-1304, insuring that life-cycle cost analyses and energy conservation practices are employed in new or renovated real property.

(2)  The life-cycle cost analysis must include but not be limited to such

elements as:

(a)  The coordination, orientation, and positioning of the facility on its physical

site;

(b)  The amount and type of fenestration employed in the facility;


(c)  Thermal performance and efficiency characteristics of materials

incorporated into the facility design;

(d)  The variable occupancy and operating conditions of the facility, including

illumination levels; and

(e)  Architectural features which affect energy consumption.


(f)  (Deleted by amendment, L. 2014.)


(3)  The life-cycle cost analysis performed for real property with a facility of

twenty thousand or more gross square feet with significant energy demands must provide but not be limited to the following information:

(a)  The initial estimated cost of each energy-consuming system being

compared and evaluated;

(b)  The estimated annual operating cost of all utility requirements, including

consideration of possible escalating costs of energy. The office may rely on any national or locally appropriate fuel escalating methodology approved by the office of the state architect in performing life-cycle cost analyses.

(c)  The estimated annual cost of maintaining each energy-consuming

system;

(d)  The average estimated replacement cost for each system expressed in

annual terms for the economic life of the facility;

(e)  The use of biofuel to provide supplemental or exclusive heating, power, or

both for the facility. For a renovation of such a facility, the cost analysis regarding the use of biofuel must consider any stranded utility costs; and

(f)  An energy consumption analysis of such real property's heating,

ventilating, and air conditioning system, lighting system, and all other energy-consuming systems. The energy consumption analysis of the operation of energy-consuming systems in the real property should include but not be limited to:

(I)  The comparison of two or more system alternatives;


(II)  The simulation or engineering evaluation of each system over the entire

range of operation of the real property for a year's operating period; and

(III)  The engineering evaluation of the energy consumption of component

equipment in each system considering the operation of such components at other than full or rated outputs.

(4)  The life-cycle cost analysis shall be certified by a licensed architect or

professional engineer, or by both architect and engineer, particularly qualified by training and experience for the type of work involved.

(5)  In order to protect the integrity of historic buildings, no provision of

section 24-30-1304 or this section should be interpreted to require such analysis with respect to any real property eligible for, nominated to, or entered in the national register of historic places, designated by statute, or included in an established list of places compiled by the state historical society.

(6)  Selection of the optimum system or combination of systems to be

incorporated into the design of real property must be based on the life-cycle cost analysis over the economic life of the real property, unless a request for an alternative system is made and approved by the office prior to beginning construction.

(7)  The principal representatives of all state agencies and state institutions

of higher education are responsible for implementing the provisions of this section and the policy established in section 24-30-1304.

(8)  The provisions of section 24-30-1304 and this section shall not apply to

municipalities or counties nor to any agency or department of any municipality or county.

(9)  Repealed.


(10)  As used in this section, unless the context otherwise requires:


(a)  Biofuel means nontoxic plant matter consisting of agricultural or

silvicultural crops or their byproducts, urban wood waste, mill residue, slash, or brush.

(b)  Energy consumption analysis means the evaluation of all energy-consuming systems and components by demand and type of energy, including the

internal energy load imposed on real property by its occupants, equipment, and components and the external energy load imposed on the real property by climatic conditions.

Source: L. 79: Entire part added, p. 884, � 1, effective July 1. L. 2004: (4)

amended, p. 1311, � 55, effective May 28. L. 2006: (3)(e) added, p. 158, � 1, effective March 31. L. 2007: (9) added, p. 485, � 2, effective September 1. L. 2008: (3)(b) amended, p. 1307, � 2, effective August 5. L. 2013: (9)(b) amended and (9)(c)(IV) repealed, (SB 13-028), ch. 66, p. 218, � 2, effective March 22. L. 2014: (1), (2), (3), (5), (6), and (7) amended, (9) repealed, and (10) added, (HB 14-1387), ch. 378, pp. 1813, 1855, �� 8, 71, effective June 6. L. 2015: (3)(b) and (6) amended, (SB 15-270), ch. 296, p. 1211, � 5, effective June 5.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in the 2013 act amending

subsection (9)(b) and repealing subsection (9)(c)(IV), see section 1 of chapter 66, Session Laws of Colorado 2013. For the legislative declaration in HB 14-1387, see section 1 of chapter 378, Session Laws of Colorado 2014.


C.R.S. § 24-30-1305.5

24-30-1305.5. High performance standards - report - legislative declaration - definition. (1) The office shall, in consultation with the Colorado commission on higher education, adopt and update from time to time a high performance standard certification program.

(2)  A state agency or state institution of higher education controlling the

substantial renovation, design, or new construction of a building shall, pursuant to the program adopted in subsection (1) of this section, perform the substantial renovation, design, or new construction to achieve the highest performance certification attainable as certified by an independent third party pursuant to the high performance standard certification program. A certification is attainable if the increased initial costs of the substantial renovation, design, or new construction, including the time value of money, to achieve the highest performance certification attainable can be recouped from decreased operational costs within fifteen years.

(3) (a)  For all buildings that started the design process on or after January 1,

2010, each state agency or state institution of higher education shall monitor, track, and verify utility vendor bill data pertaining to the building and must annually report to the office. The annual report must also include information related to building performance based on the building's utility consumption.

(b)  The general assembly hereby finds, determines, and declares that

buildings that have achieved the highest performance certification attainable and started the design process prior to January 1, 2010, are strongly encouraged to monitor, track, and verify utility vendor bill data pertaining to such building in order to ensure that the increased initial costs to achieve the highest performance certification attainable are in fact recouped. If such data is monitored, tracked, and verified, then the state agency or state institution of higher education must annually report to the office. If such data is not monitored, tracked, and verified, then the state agency or state institution of higher education must provide the office, in writing, a reasonable explanation and also must work with the office to find a way to start monitoring, tracking, verifying, and reporting such data.

(c)  The state agency or state institution of higher education, not a utility

company, shall compile the utility vendor bill data.

(4)  If the state agency or state institution of higher education estimates that

the increased initial costs of the substantial renovation, design, or new construction, including the time value of money, to achieve the highest performance certification attainable will exceed five percent of the total cost of the substantial renovation, design, or new construction, the capital development committee shall specifically examine such estimate before approving any appropriation for the substantial renovation, design, or new construction.

(5)  If a building undergoing substantial renovation cannot achieve high

performance due to either the historical nature of the building or because the increased costs of renovating the building cannot be recouped from decreased operational costs within fifteen years, an accredited professional shall assert in writing that, as much as possible, the substantial renovation has been consistent with the high performance standard certification program.

(6)  Any design or new construction of a building of less than five thousand

square feet that is, but for its size, otherwise subject to this section and any minor renovation and controlled maintenance of a building that is subject to this section must be executed to the high performance standards adopted in the high performance standard certification program even if high performance certification is not sought at that time.

(7)  Notwithstanding section 24-1-136 (11)(a)(I), the office shall report annually

to the capital development committee regarding contracting documents, project guidelines, and reporting and tracking procedures related to the implementation of this section.

(8)  As used in this section, unless the context otherwise requires:


(a) (I)  Building means a facility that:


(A)  Is substantially renovated, designed, or constructed with state moneys or

with moneys guaranteed or insured by a state agency or state institution of higher education and such moneys constitute at least twenty-five percent of the project cost;

(B)  Contains five thousand or more gross square feet;


(C)  Includes a heating, ventilation, or air conditioning system; and


(D)  Did not enter the design phase prior to January 1, 2008.


(II)  Building includes an academic facility as defined in section 23-1-106

(10.3)(a), C.R.S., including an academic facility as defined in the guidelines described in section 23-1-106 (10.2)(b)(I), C.R.S.

(III)  Building does not include:


(A)  An auxiliary facility as defined in section 23-1-106 (10.3)(b), C.R.S.,

including an auxiliary facility as defined in the guidelines described in section 23-1-106 (10.2)(b)(I), C.R.S.; or

(B)  A publicly assisted housing project as defined in section 24-32-718.


(b)  High performance standard certification program means a real property

renovation, design, and construction standard that:

(I)  Is quantifiable, measurable, and verifiable as certified by an independent

third party;

(II)  Reduces the operating costs of real property by reducing the

consumption of energy, water, and other resources;

(III)  Results in the recovery of the increased initial capital costs attributable

to compliance with the program over time by reducing long-term energy, maintenance, and operating costs;

(IV)  Improves the indoor environmental quality of real property for a

healthier work environment;

(V)  Encourages the use of products harvested, created, or mined within

Colorado, regardless of product certification status;

(VI)  Protects Colorado's environment; and


(VII)  Complies with the federal secretary of the interior's standards for the

treatment of historic real property when such work will affect real property fifty years of age or older, unless the state historical society, designated in section 24-80-201, determines that such real property is not of historical significance as defined in section 24-80.1-102 (6).

(c)  Substantial renovation means any renovation with a cost that exceeds

twenty-five percent of the value of the building.

(d)  Utility vendor bill data means information or data limited to the usage

data measured by the state agency or state institution of higher education or the information or data required to meet minimum program standards by an independent third party pursuant to the high performance standard certification program.

Source: L. 2014: Entire section added, (HB 14-1387), ch. 378, p. 1815, � 9,

effective June 6. L. 2015: (1), (3)(a), (3)(b), (7), and (8)(d) amended, (SB 15-270), ch. 296, p. 1212, � 6, effective June 5. L. 2017: (7) amended, (HB 17-1058), ch. 18, p. 59, � 6, effective March 8.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in HB 14-1387, see section 1

of chapter 378, Session Laws of Colorado 2014.


C.R.S. § 24-30-2001

24-30-2001. Definitions. As used in this part 20, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1)  Energy cost-savings contract means a utility cost-savings contract or a

vehicle fleet operational and fuel cost-savings contract.

(1.3)  Energy cost-savings measure means a utility cost-savings measure or

a vehicle fleet operational and fuel cost-savings measure.

(1.5)  Energy performance contract means a contract for evaluations,

recommendations, or implementation of one or more energy cost-savings measures designed to produce utility cost savings, operation and maintenance cost savings, or vehicle fleet operational and fuel cost savings, which contract:

(a)  Sets forth savings attributable to the calculated energy cost savings or

operation and maintenance cost savings for each year during the contract period;

(b)  Provides that the amount of actual savings for each year during the

contract period shall exceed annual contract payments, including maintenance costs, to be made during such year by the state agency contracting for the energy cost-savings measures; except that, for the purposes of this part 20 only, the term annual contract payments does not include moneys received by the state from rebates, gifts, grants, or donations specifically designated by the gifting, granting, or donating party for the design or implementation of an energy cost-savings measure or state moneys that have been specifically appropriated in a distinct line item, or, in the case of the department of transportation, otherwise set aside in the department's budget, for the design or implementation of an energy cost-savings measure that is wholly addressed within the scope of the energy cost-savings contract;

(c)  Requires the party entering into the energy performance contract with

the state agency to provide a written guarantee that the sum of energy cost savings and operation and maintenance cost savings for each year during the first three years of the contract period shall not be less than the calculated savings for that year described in paragraph (a) of this subsection (1.5); and

(d)  Requires payments by a state agency to be made within twelve years

after the date of the execution of the contract; except that the maximum term of the payments shall be less than the cost-weighted average useful life of energy cost-savings equipment for which the contract is made, not to exceed twenty-five years.

(2)  Operation and maintenance cost savings means a measurable decrease

in operation and maintenance costs that is a direct result of the implementation of one or more utility cost-savings measures or one or more vehicle fleet operational and fuel cost-savings measures. Such savings shall be calculated in comparison with an established baseline of operation and maintenance costs.

(3)  Shared-savings contract means a contract for one or more energy cost-savings measures that do not involve capital equipment projects, which contract:


(a)  Provides that all payments to be made by the state agency contracting

for the energy cost-savings measures shall be a stated percentage of calculated savings of energy costs attributable to such measures over a defined period of time and that such payments shall be made only to the extent that such savings occur; except that this paragraph (a) shall not apply to payments for maintenance and repairs and obligations on termination of the contract prior to its expiration;

(b)  Provides for an initial contract period of no longer than ten years; and


(c)  Requires no additional capital investment or contribution of funds.


(4)  State agency means a department or institution of this state, including

institutions of higher education.

(5)  Utility cost savings means:


(a)  A cost savings caused by a reduction in metered or measured physical

quantities of a bulk fuel or utility resulting from the implementation of one or more energy conservation measures when compared with an established baseline of usage; or

(b)  A decrease in utility costs as a result of changes in applicable utility rates

or utility service suppliers. The savings shall be calculated in comparison with an established baseline of utility costs.

(6)  Utility cost-savings contract means an energy performance contract or

a shared-savings contract or any other agreement in which utility cost savings are used to pay for services or equipment.

(7)  Utility cost-savings measure means any installation, modification, or

service that is designed to reduce energy consumption and related operating costs in buildings and other facilities and includes, but is not limited to, the following:

(a)  Insulation in walls, roofs, floors, and foundations and in heating and

cooling distribution systems;

(b)  Heating, ventilating, or air conditioning and distribution system

modifications or replacements in buildings or central plants;

(c)  Automatic energy control systems;


(d)  Replacement or modification of lighting fixtures;


(e)  Energy recovery systems;


(f)  Renewable energy and alternate energy systems;


(g)  Cogeneration systems that produce steam or forms of energy, such as

heat or electricity, for use primarily within a building or complex of buildings;

(h)  Devices that reduce water consumption or sewer charges;


(i)  Changes in operation and maintenance practices;


(j)  Procurement of low-cost energy supplies of all types, including

electricity, natural gas, and other fuel sources, and water;

(k)  Indoor air quality improvements that conform to applicable building code

requirements;

(l)  Daylighting systems;


(m)  Building operation programs that reduce utility and operating costs

including, but not limited to, computerized energy management and consumption tracking programs, staff and occupant training, and other similar activities;

(n)  Services to reduce utility costs by identifying utility errors and optimizing

existing rate schedules under which service is provided; and

(o)  Any other location, orientation, or design choice related to, or installation,

modification of installation, or remodeling of, building infrastructure improvements that produce utility or operational cost savings for their appointed functions in compliance with applicable state and local building codes.

(8)  Vehicle fleet operational and fuel cost savings means a measurable

decrease in the operation and maintenance costs of state vehicles that is associated with fuel or maintenance based on higher efficiency ratings or alternative fueling methods, including but not limited to savings from the reduction in maintenance requirements and a reduction in or the elimination of projected fuel purchase expenses as a direct result of investment in higher efficiency or alternative fuel vehicles or vehicle or charging infrastructure.

(9)  Vehicle fleet operational and fuel cost-savings contract means an

energy performance contract or shared-savings contract or any other agreement in which vehicle fleet operational and fuel cost savings are used to pay for the cost of the vehicle or associated capital investments.

(10)  Vehicle fleet operational and fuel cost-savings measure means any

installation, modification, or service that is designed to reduce energy consumption and related operating costs in vehicles and includes, but is not limited to, the following:

(a)  Vehicle purchase or lease costs either in full or in part;


(b)  Charging or fueling infrastructure to appropriately charge or fuel

alternative fuel vehicles included in an energy cost-savings contract.

Source: L. 2001: Entire part added, p. 1088, � 1, effective August 8. L. 2010:

(1)(b) and (7)(o) amended, (SB 10-207), ch. 410, p. 2027, � 2, effective June 10. L. 2013: (1), (2), IP(3), and (3)(a) amended and (1.3), (1.5), (8), (9), and (10) added, (SB 13-254), ch. 403, p. 2358, � 1, effective June 5.


C.R.S. § 24-32-134

24-32-134. Disaster resilience rebuilding program - fund - creation - policies - report - definitions. (1) As used in this section, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a)  Administrator means an entity or entities that the division contracts

with pursuant to subsection (2)(b) of this section to administer the program.

(b)  Declared disaster means a disaster emergency declared by the

governor pursuant to section 24-33.5-704 (4) in or after 2018 that resulted in widespread or severe damage or loss of property or infrastructure as determined pursuant to policies adopted by the division pursuant to subsection (4) of this section.

(c)  Eligible applicant means:


(I)  A person who owns or rents a home that is the person's primary residence,

including an apartment or a modular, manufactured, or mobile home, that was affected by a declared disaster and meets eligibility criteria established by policies adopted pursuant to subsection (5) of this section;

(II)  A person who owns rental housing, including a modular, manufactured, or

mobile home, that was affected by a declared disaster and meets eligibility criteria established by policies adopted pursuant to subsection (4) of this section;

(III)  A business that owns real or personal property that was affected by a

declared disaster or experienced an interruption or loss of business due to a declared disaster and meets eligibility criteria established by policies adopted pursuant to subsection (4) of this section;

(IV)  A housing authority created pursuant to part 2 or part 5 of article 4 of

title 29 or a low-income housing tax credit partnership that serves an area affected by a declared disaster;

(V)  A Colorado nonprofit corporation that provides construction assistance

to low-income households and meets eligibility criteria established by policies adopted pursuant to subsection (4) of this section; or

(VI)  A governmental entity with jurisdiction in an area affected by a declared

disaster.

(d)  Fund means the disaster resilience rebuilding program fund created in

subsection (7) of this section.

(e)  Governmental entity means any authority, county, municipality, city and

county, district, or other political subdivision of the state; any tribal government with jurisdiction in Colorado; and any institution, department, agency, or authority of any of the foregoing.

(f)  Program means the disaster resilience rebuilding program created in

subsection (2) of this section.

(2) (a)  The division shall establish the disaster resilience rebuilding program

as a loan and grant program in accordance with the requirements of this section and the policies established by the division. The program may provide loans and grants from the fund to eligible applicants seeking assistance as they rebuild their community after a declared disaster.

(b)  The division may contract with or provide a grant to a governmental

entity, housing authority, Colorado-based nonprofit organization, business nonprofit organization, bank, nondepository community development financial institution, or business development corporation or other entity as determined by the division to administer the program. If the division contracts with an entity or entities to administer the program, the division shall use an open and competitive process pursuant to the state procurement code, articles 101 to 112 of this title 24, to select the entity or entities. A contract with an administrator may include an administration fee established by the division at an amount reasonably calculated to cover the ongoing administrative costs of the division in overseeing the program. The division may advance money to an entity under a contract in preparation for issuing loans and grants and administering the program.

(3)  A contract with an administrator may require the administrator to repay

all lending capital that is not committed to loans or grants under the program and all principal and interest that is repaid by borrowers under the program at the end of the contract period if, in the judgment of the division, the administrator has not performed successfully under the terms of the contract. The division may redeploy money repaid under this subsection (3) as grants or loans under the program or through another administrator.

(4)  The division shall establish and publicize policies for the program. At a

minimum, the policies must address:

(a)  Coordination with the office of emergency management created in

section 24-33.5-705 to prioritize the use of the disaster emergency fund created in section 34-33.5-706 for the allowable uses of loans and grants under the program that are not housing related;

(b)  The process and any deadlines for applying for and receiving a loan or

grant under the program, including the information and documentation required for the application;

(c)  Eligibility criteria for applicants to the program;


(d)  Maximum assistance levels for loans and grants;


(e)  Loan terms, including interest rates and repayment terms;


(f)  Any additional specifications or criteria for the uses of the grant or loan

money allowed by subsection (5) of this section;

(g)  Any reporting requirements for recipients, which must include the

demographic data of each recipient aggregated by race, ethnicity, disability status, and income level;

(h)  Any program fees, including any application fee or origination fee, and

closing costs;

(i)  Underwriting and risk management policies;


(j)  Any requirements for applicants to apply for or exhaust other sources of

assistance or reimbursement to be eligible for a loan or grant under the program. If the policies establish such a requirement, the policies must specify to which applicants the requirement applies, which sources must be applied for and denied or exhausted, and what documentation is necessary to establish the applicant has met the requirement.

(k)  Equitable community outreach and equitable access to program

information, including communications in the relevant languages of the community and equitable hearing, sight, and physical accessibility; and

(l)  Any additional policies necessary to administer the program.


(5)  The program may provide loans or grants or a combination of both to

eligible applicants. In reviewing applications and awarding grants, the division shall give priority to eligible applicants who demonstrate that their needs cannot be met by other sources of assistance. Loans or grants may be used to:

(a)  Subsidize costs to repair or rebuild a homeowner's primary residence that

are insufficiently covered by the homeowner's insurance or by loans, grants, or other assistance available from the federal emergency management agency, the federal small business administration, or other state or federal assistance programs. Costs that may be covered include, but are not limited to:

(I)  Direct costs of repairs or reconstruction of a damaged or destroyed

primary residence, including costs to rebuild to advanced fire and other natural hazard mitigation standards;

(II)  Soft costs such as architectural and engineering costs and permitting

fees associated with repairing or rebuilding a primary residence;

(III)  Soil sampling and air quality monitoring;


(IV)  Clearance and demolition costs, including concrete flat work removal

and removal of hazardous material, including asbestos;

(V)  Private road or bridge repair if necessary to access a primary residence;


(VI)  Costs associated with using building and site design measures that

reduce risk to natural hazards, including fire resistant building materials and landscape design;

(VII)  Costs to replant climate ready trees and vegetation;


(VIII)  Temporary rental assistance during relocation or rebuilding or recovery

work; and

(IX)  Other recovery costs not covered by other sources that will increase

resilience to future disasters;

(b)  Repair or reconstruct housing stock in an area that is affected by a

declared disaster and is experiencing a shortage of adequate housing or has a significant number of affected households. The program may provide a grant or loan under this subsection (5)(b) to:

(I)  A housing authority or low-income housing tax credit partnership to fund

the replacement or repair of multi-family housing in an area affected by a declared disaster;

(II)  A nonprofit corporation to provide construction assistance to low-income

households in an area affected by a declared disaster;

(III)  A person who owns rental housing and requires additional resources to

rebuild or repair the rental housing. A loan or grant made pursuant to this subsection (5)(b)(III) must include provisions requiring the recipient to provide affordable rent for the rental housing following the repair or reconstruction and temporary rental assistance for displaced renters, as determined by the division.

(c)  Provide operating capital to a business experiencing a business

interruption or cover the costs of replacing or repairing the business's real property, equipment, or inventory that was lost or damaged in the disaster;

(d)  Rebuild neighborhoods or portions of neighborhoods in a manner that

serves as a pilot project for advanced community planning to resist the impacts of natural disasters caused by climate change or reduce actions that contribute to climate change, including but not limited to micro-grids, community battery storage, community district heating or geothermal heating systems, or wildfire resilient land use planning strategies;

(e)  Reimburse a governmental entity for any unmet needs associated with a

declared disaster that are not covered by public assistance from the federal emergency management agency or other state or federal assistance, including assistance provided pursuant to section 24-33.5-704 (7)(j). Unmet needs that may be covered include, but are not limited to:

(I)  Rebuilding or repairing transportation infrastructure;


(II)  Health and safety improvements or investments related to disaster

recovery and resiliency; or

(III)  Replacement of lost revenue from sales taxes, property taxes, public

utility or service fees, or other revenue sources that were negatively affected by a declared disaster; or

(f)  Assist eligible applicants in addressing other related unmet needs as

allowed by the policies adopted by the division pursuant to subsection (4) of this section in order to recover or rebuild from a declared disaster.

(6)  The division may seek, accept, and expend gifts, grants, or donations

from private or public sources for the purposes of this section. The division shall transmit all money received through gifts, grants, or donations to the state treasurer, who shall credit the money to the fund.

(7) (a)  The disaster resilience rebuilding program fund is hereby created in

the state treasury. The fund consists of money transferred to the fund in accordance with subsection (7)(d) of this section, any other money that the general assembly appropriates or transfers to the fund, and any gifts, grants, or donations credited to the fund pursuant to subsection (6) of this section.

(b)  The state treasurer shall credit all interest and income derived from the

deposit and investment of money in the fund to the fund.

(c)  Money in the fund is continuously appropriated to the division for the

purposes specified in this section and for the development of the disaster survivor portal described in section 24-33.5-1106 (4).

(d)  Three days after May 17, 2022, the state treasurer shall transfer fifteen

million dollars from the general fund to the disaster resilience rebuilding program fund created in subsection (7)(a) of this section.

(8)  The division and the department of local affairs shall collaborate with the

Colorado energy office created in section 24-38.5-101 on the implementation of this section as set forth in section 24-38.5-115 (8).

(9)  On or before January 1, 2024, and on or before each January 1 thereafter,

the division shall submit a report summarizing the program to the house of representatives transportation and local government committee and the senate local government committee, or their successor committees. Notwithstanding the requirement in section 24-1-136 (11)(a)(I), the requirement to submit the report required in this subsection (9) continues indefinitely.

Source: L. 2022: Entire section added, (SB 22-206), ch. 173, p. 1143, � 2,

effective May 17.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in SB 22-206, see section 1

of chapter 173, Session Laws of Colorado 2022.


C.R.S. § 24-32-705

24-32-705. Functions of division. (1) The division has the following functions:

(a)  To encourage private enterprise and all public and private agencies

engaged in the planning, construction, and acquisition of adequate housing or the rehabilitation or weatherization of existing housing in Colorado by providing research, advisory, and liaison services and rehabilitation, construction, acquisition, and weatherization grants and loans from appropriations made for this purpose by the general assembly. For the purposes of this subsection (1)(a), weatherization means the provision and installation of materials and devices that improve the thermal performance of a residence so as to conserve energy and reduce energy costs and includes those structural, heating, electrical, and plumbing repairs and improvements that are necessary to safely and effectively improve thermal performance. All such grants and loans to public and private agencies must be at least equally matched from a nonstate source unless sufficient local sources are not available because of other essential public functions and must be for providing energy-efficient housing to low- and moderate-income households. These grants or loans shall not be used for administration, which must be funded within the administrative budget of the division.

(b)  To assist local communities in the development and operation of local

housing authorities;

(c)  To encourage and promote cooperation among counties and

municipalities to jointly establish and operate housing authorities;

(d)  Repealed.


(e)  To conduct continuing research into new approaches to housing

throughout the state including, but not limited to, the following:

(I) to (III)  Repealed.


(IV)  Transit-oriented development that includes increased housing density

near employment, education, and town centers; and

(V)  Advanced energy performance standards that minimize the total building

operational costs during the affordability period as determined by the division;

(f)  To investigate living, dwelling, and housing conditions in the state and the

means and methods of correcting unsafe, unsanitary, or substandard conditions;

(g)  To enter upon buildings or property in order to conduct investigations or

to make surveys or soundings. In the event the division is unable to obtain permission for such entry, the director may petition the district court in which the property is located for an order authorizing such entry. Upon a finding by the court that the order requested is reasonably necessary to carry out the intent of this part 7, the order shall be granted.

(h)  To make available to responsible agencies, boards, commissions, or other

governmental agencies its findings and recommendations with regard to any building or property where conditions exist which are unsafe, unsanitary, or substandard;

(i)  To accept and receive grants and services from the federal government

and other sources and to process such grants and services for other public and private nonprofit agencies and corporations;

(j)  To enforce the provisions of part 9 of this article and the rules and

regulations adopted pursuant thereto;

(k)  To provide training and technical assistance to counties and

municipalities which have building codes in the development of energy efficiency construction and renovation performance standards by such local governments;

(l) and (m)  Repealed.


(n)  Pursuant to section 24-32-717, to administer loans to local governments,

local housing authorities, and public and private corporations;

(o)  Repealed.


(p)  Pursuant to section 24-32-718, to maintain a database of affordable

housing units to be lost as affordable housing;

(q) to (s)  Repealed.


(t)  To serve as the sole state agency for the purpose of administering and

distributing financial housing assistance to persons in low- and moderate-income households and to persons with disabilities and assist such persons in obtaining housing, including, without limitation, rental assistance;

(u)  To enforce the provisions of the Mobile Home Park Act created in part 2

of article 12 of title 38 and the Mobile Home Park Act Dispute Resolution and Enforcement Program created in part 11 of article 12 of title 38, and the rules and regulations adopted pursuant to section 38-12-1104 (2)(j).

(v)  To collaborate with other state agencies to develop incentives that

support:

(I)  Local development near transit corridors;


(II)  Increased housing density development within employment, education,

and town centers; and

(III)  Energy performance standards that minimize total building costs during

the affordability period, as determined by the division.

(w)  To prepare an annual public report on funding of affordable housing

preservation and production in accordance with section 24-32-705.5 and to satisfy other requirements in section 24-32-705.5 pertaining to the preparation and dissemination of the report. In its presentation to the joint committees of reference pursuant to section 2-7-203, the department shall summarize the information contained in the report concerning affordable housing funding administered by the division since the department's prior presentation.

(x)  To optimize the outcomes of a particular program or particular use to the

benefit of households served in a manner that optimizes the socioeconomic and housing stability outcomes of households served; optimizes the financial sustainability of an affordable housing project or program; optimizes the creation, operation, and affordability length of affordable housing stock created; optimizes the preservation of naturally occurring and subsidized affordable housing; considers the impact of award terms on the financial stability of the organizations delivering development projects and resident services; leverages or is leveraged by other available sources of money; addresses housing needs throughout the state; and serves populations with the greatest unmet need.

(2)  The division, through the director thereof, shall serve in an advisory

capacity to the state housing and finance authority, created by part 7 of article 4 of title 29, C.R.S., and shall provide information on the housing facility needs of low- and moderate-income families in the state of Colorado.

(3) and (4)  Repealed.


(5)  The division shall collaborate with other state agencies in connection

with the disposition of state-owned assets to be used for low- and moderate-income housing.

(6) (a)  The division shall maintain the confidentiality of all names, addresses,

and personal identifying information of applicants, recipients, and former recipients of housing assistance, which forms of housing assistance include without limitation housing vouchers, emergency housing assistance, and homeless services.

(b)  Notwithstanding any provision of this subsection (6), the division may

publish or provide aggregate or de-identified data concerning applicants, recipients, and former recipients of housing assistance to third parties and other governmental entities, and may enter into data-sharing agreements authorizing the transfer of names, addresses, and personal identifying information of applicants, recipients, and former recipients of such housing assistance.

(c)  Any third party or governmental entity that receives names, addresses,

and personal identifying information of applicants, recipients, and former recipients of housing assistance in accordance with this subsection (6) from the division pursuant to a data-sharing agreement shall maintain the confidentiality of all names, addresses, and personal identifying information obtained from such agreements.

(d)  As used in this subsection (6), governmental entity and personal

identifying information have the same meanings as specified in section 24-73-101 (4).

(7)  The division shall administer:


(a)  Affordable housing guided toolkit and local officials guide program in

accordance with section 24-32-721.7;

(b)  The transformational affordable housing revolving loan fund program

created in section 24-32-731 (2)(a), unless the division elects to contract out full or partial administration of the loan program pursuant to section 24-32-731 (2)(b);

(c)  Local investments in the transformational affordable housing grant

program created in section 24-32-729 (2)(a);

(d)  The connecting Coloradans experiencing homelessness with services,

recovery care, and housing supports grant program created in section 24-32-732;

(e)  The child care facility development toolkit and technical assistance

program created in section 24-32-3802 (2);

(f)  The child care facility development planning grant program created in

section 24-32-3803 (2)(a); and

(g)  The child care facility development capital grant program created in

section 24-32-3804 (2)(a).

Source: L. 70: p. 240, � 1. C.R.S. 1963: � 69-9-5. L. 73: p. 815, � 2. L. 74: (1)(b)

and (1)(j) amended, p. 283, � 1, effective April 19. L. 75: (1)(j) added, p. 813, � 2, effective July 1; (1)(a) amended, p. 215, � 46, effective July 16. L. 76: (1)(a) amended, p. 612, � 1, effective May 10. L. 77: (1)(k) added, p. 356, � 2, effective July 1. L. 79: (1)(l) and (1)(m) added, p. 322, � 5, effective July 1. L. 80: (1)(a) amended and (3) added, p. 595, � 2, effective May 1. L. 82: (1) amended, p. 369, � 2, effective April 30. L. 99: (1)(d) amended and (1)(o) added, p. 440, � 3, effective August 4. L. 2000: (3) repealed, p. 1548, � 12, effective August 2. L. 2002: (1)(p) added, p. 413, � 2, effective August 7. L. 2003: (1)(d), (1)(e)(I), (1)(e)(II), and (1)(o) repealed, p. 532, � 1, effective March 5. L. 2009: (1)(r) added, (HB 09-1276), ch. 404, p. 2220, � 1, effective June 2; (1)(q) added, (HB 09-1197), ch. 101, p. 374, � 1, effective August 5. L. 2010: (1)(s) added, (HB 10-1240), ch. 200, p. 872, � 3, effective May 5. L. 2011: (1)(t) added, (HB 11-1230), ch. 170, p. 585, � 2, effective July 1. L. 2012: (1)(t) amended, (SB 12-158), ch. 151, p. 541, � 2, effective May 3. L. 2016: (1)(r) and (1)(s) repealed, (SB 16-189), ch. 210, p. 766, � 46, effective June 6. L. 2019: (1)(u) added, (HB 19-1309), ch. 281, p. 2627, � 2, effective May 23; (1)(a) and (1)(n) amended, (HB 19-1322), ch. 201, p. 2168, � 2, effective August 2; (4) added, (HB 19-1319), ch. 200, p. 2164, � 3, effective September 1. L. 2021: (7) added, (HB 21-1271), ch. 356, p. 2323, � 4, effective June 27; (1)(a) amended, (1)(e)(III), (1)(l), and (1)(m) repealed, and (1)(e)(IV), (1)(e)(V), (1)(v), (5), and (6) added, (HB 21-1009), ch. 121, p. 462, � 1, effective September 7; (1)(w) added, (HB 21-1028), ch. 396, p. 2634, � 2, effective September 7. L. 2022: (7) amended, (SB 22-159), ch. 230, p. 1705, � 3, effective May 26; (7) amended, (HB 22-1377), ch. 285, p. 2045, � 3, effective May 31; (7) amended, (HB 22-1304), ch. 290, p. 2078, � 3, effective June 1. L. 2024: (1)(x) added, (HB 24-1308), ch. 295, p. 2008, � 2, effective August 7; (4) repealed, (SB 24-178), ch. 108, p. 336, � 2, effective August 7; (7)(c) amended and (7)(e), (7)(f), and (7)(g) added, (HB 24-1237), ch. 279, p. 1848, � 2, effective August 7.

Editor's note: (1)  Subsection (1)(r) was lettered as (1)(q) in House Bill 09-1276

but has been relettered on revision for ease of location.

(2)  Subsection (1)(q)(II) provided for the repeal of subsection (1)(q), effective

January 1, 2015. (See L. 2009, p. 374.)

(3)  Amendments to subsection (7) by SB 22-159, HB 22-1304, and HB 22-1377 were harmonized.


Cross references: For the legislative declaration in HB 19-1309, see section 1

of chapter 281, Session Laws of Colorado 2019. For the legislative declaration in HB 19-1319, see section 1 of chapter 200, Session Laws of Colorado 2019. For the legislative declaration in HB 21-1271, see section 1 of chapter 356, Session Laws of Colorado 2021. For the legislative declaration in SB 22-159, see section 1 of chapter 230, Session Laws of Colorado 2022. For the legislative declaration in HB 22-1304, see section 1 of chapter 290, Session Laws of Colorado 2022. For the legislative declaration in HB 22-1377, see section 1 of chapter 285, Session Laws of Colorado 2022. For the legislative declaration in HB 24-1308, see section 1 of chapter 295, Session Laws of Colorado 2024. For the legislative declaration in HB 24-1237, see section 1 of chapter 279, Session Laws of Colorado 2024.


C.R.S. § 24-32-731

24-32-731. Revolving loan fund - eligible projects - report - definitions - legislative declaration. (1) Definitions. As used in this section, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a)  Administrator means a third-party entity or entities that the division

contracts with to administer all or any part of the loan program pursuant to subsection (2)(b) of this section.

(b)  Community partner means a nonprofit organization that undertakes any

of the activities or services described in subsection (3) of this section.

(c)  Department means the department of local affairs.


(d)  Eligible recipient means a local government, a for-profit developer, a

community partner, or a political subdivision of the state that applies for a loan through the loan program.

(e)  Fund means the transformational affordable housing revolving loan

fund created in subsection (9)(a) of this section.

(f)  Loan program means the transformational affordable housing revolving

loan fund program created in subsection (2)(a) of this section.

(g)  Local government means a county, municipality, city and county, tribal

government, special district organized under title 32, school district, district, or a housing authority created under part 2 of article 4 of title 29.

(2)  Creation of loan program - administration. (a)  The transformational

affordable housing revolving loan fund program is hereby created in the division as a revolving loan program in accordance with the requirements of this section and the policies established by the division pursuant to subsection (5) of this section. The loan program is established to provide flexible, low-interest, and below-market rate loan funding to assist eligible recipients in completing the eligible loan projects identified in subsection (3) of this section.

(b)  The division may administer the loan program or, if it determines that it

would be more efficient and effective to contract out full or partial administration of the program, it may enter into a contract with a business nonprofit organization, bank, nondepository community development financial institution, business development corporation, nonprofit organization that administers gap financing, construction, or mortgage loan programs, or other entity as determined by the division to administer the loan program in whole or in part. If the division contracts with an entity or entities to administer the program, the division shall use an open and competitive process to select the entity or entities. A contract with an administrator may include an administration fee established by the division at an amount reasonably calculated to cover the ongoing administrative costs of the division in overseeing the loan program. The division may advance money to an entity under a contract in preparation in the form of a grant or payment for issuing loans and administering the loan program.

(c)  The division may work with the Colorado housing and finance authority,

created in section 29-4-704 (1), to assist in offering loans under the loan program.

(d)  Any loan made under the loan program by the state, any department,

division, or agency of the state, or any administrator to a district, as defined in section 20 (2)(b) of article X of the state constitution, must either be approved by the voters of the district in accordance with section 20 (4)(b) of article X of the state constitution or be structured so that it is not a multiple-fiscal year direct or indirect district debt or other financial obligation whatsoever that requires voter approval under section 20 (4)(b) of article X of the state constitution.

(3)  Eligible loan projects. In order to receive loan funding under the loan

program, the project for which the loan applicant seeks loan funding must do one or more of the following:

(a)  Develop and integrate housing-related infrastructure to offset

construction and predevelopment costs;

(b)  Provide gap financing for housing development, including transactions

under the federal low-income tax credit defined in section 39-22-2101 (7) and the affordable housing tax credit created in section 39-22-2102 (1). For purposes of this subsection (3)(b), gap financing includes financing mechanisms that allow persons seeking affordable housing to purchase existing affordable housing, multi-family structures, land, and buildings, particularly in communities where efforts have been made to encourage affordable housing development or in communities in which low concentrations of affordable housing exist.

(c)  Increase the supply of new affordable for-sale housing stock by providing

funding to assist with the cost of construction, including but not limited to costs associated with construction costs, land acquisition, tap fees, building permits, or impact fees;

(d)  Maintain existing affordable housing through funding for the

preservation and restoration of affordable housing stock through rehabilitation, retrofitting, renovation, capital improvements, and repair of current affordable housing stock, including housing made available under 42 U.S.C. sec. 1437f and affordable housing for populations and households disproportionately impacted by the COVID-19 pandemic with commitments for long-term affordability. The uses covered by this subsection (3)(d) must include investments in one or more of the following:

(I)  Senior housing;


(II)  The purchase of and the remediation of low-quality or condemned

properties;

(III)  Housing units, integrated into nonsegregated housing developments,

specifically designed for people living with disabilities;

(IV)  Weatherization and energy improvements to multi-family and singe-family residents to maintain and improve the quality of affordable homes and rental

units;

(V)  The purchase and transition of current housing stock into affordable

housing, including properties currently in use on a short-term rental basis;

(VI)  Programs or initiatives to ensure that existing housing remains

affordable for local workforce or community households;

(VII)  Land acquisition for affordable housing;


(VIII)  Property conversion and adaptive reuse; or


(IX)  Permanent supportive housing;


(e)  Finance energy improvements in affordable housing, which will provide

funding for incremental up-front costs for efficient, electric measures, and renewable energy systems for both existing buildings and new housing construction;

(f)  Create permanently or long-term affordable homeownership

opportunities.

(4)  Loan program goals. (a)  The loan program must be administered with a

goal of generating enough return on loans made under the loan program to replenish the loan program for future loan allocations.

(b)  All loans financed through the loan program must offer flexible terms

and low-interest and below-market rates.

(5)  Loan program policies - eligibility for loan funding. (a)  The division or

the administrator, as applicable, shall establish and publicize policies for the loan program. At a minimum, the policies must address:

(I)  The process and deadlines for applying for and receiving a loan under the

loan program, including the information and documentation required for a loan application;

(II)  Eligibility criteria for individuals or entities applying for a loan under the

loan program;

(III)  The maximum assistance levels for loans;


(IV)  Loan terms, including interest rates and repayment terms;


(V)  Reporting requirements for loan recipients;


(VI)  Loan program fees, including the application fee, origination fee, and

closing cost policies;

(VII)  Underwriting and risk management policies;


(VIII)  The amount of any application or origination fees and closing cost

policies;

(IX)  The means by which eligible recipients who face barriers in establishing

borrower relationships with traditional lenders will be informed of the loan program and encouraged to apply for a loan financed through the loan program; and

(X)  Any additional requirements that the division deems necessary to

administer the loan program.

(a.5)  The application process for the loan program must be in accordance

with the process set forth in section 24-32-705.7. On or before September 1, 2024, the division shall amend any policies, procedures, and guidelines for the grant program that are not consistent with the application process set forth in section 24-32-705.7.

(b) (I)  In connection with the policies for the loan program that the division or

the administrator is required to establish and publicize pursuant to subsection (5)(a) of this section, the policies must specify that, in order for an eligible recipient to obtain loan funding directly from the division, an eligible recipient must follow procedures that shall be specified by the division to document the amount of leveraged funds proposed or committed as part of a loan application and the amount of funding sought from other sources, including demonstrated efforts by the eligible recipient to obtain financing for loan funding from financial institutions.

(II)  Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a lien filed by the division, is

superior only to any other lien placed on the same assets that is filed later in time except for a lien for unpaid property taxes.

(6)  Prioritization criteria. (a)  The general assembly hereby encourages the

division, to the extent practicable, in reviewing loan applications, to consider prioritizing applications for projects that:

(I)  Increase the supply of housing in communities across the state in

proportion to each community's demonstrated housing needs through:

(A)  A preference for mixed-income projects in which a percentage of units,

proportional to the demonstrated housing needs of the local community, within a particular development have restricted availability to households at and below the income levels specified in subsection (6)(b)(I) of this section. The percentage of restricted units and affordability levels must comply with laws enacted by local governments promoting the development of new affordable housing units pursuant to section 29-20-104 (1).

(B)  Developments in which housing units are restricted at income levels

demonstrated by local community needs as specified in subsection (6)(b)(I) of this section;

(II)  Are located in or serve communities that:


(A)  Face barriers to accessing capital from traditional sources;


(B)  Have suffered significant negative financial or other impacts resulting

from the COVID-19 pandemic; or

(C)  Are otherwise underserved;


(III)  Align with other state economic development efforts;


(IV)  Create permanently affordable home ownership opportunities;


(V)  Ensure the long-term affordability of any development or projects funded

by the loan program;

(VI)  Include units that are restricted for rental usage to persons with

disabilities or that include universal design features that allow individuals to reside in their dwelling units as they age; or

(VII)  Are highly energy efficient or use high-efficiency electric equipment for

space and water heating. The division may consult with the Colorado energy office created in section 24-38.5-101 (1) to develop criteria for meeting the objectives described in this subsection (6)(a)(VII).

(b) (I)  The rental and home ownership targets applicable to local

communities across the state as required by subsection (6)(a)(I) of this section are specified in this subsection (6)(b)(I) in accordance with the following:

(A)  For a household residing in housing on a rental basis, annual income of

the household is at or below one hundred twenty percent of the area median income of households of that size in the county in which the housing is located;

(B)  For a household residing in housing on a home-ownership basis, annual

income of the household is at or below one hundred twenty percent of the area median income of households of that size in the county in which the housing is located;

(C)  For a household residing in housing on a rental basis in rural resort

counties, annual income of the household is at or below one hundred forty percent of the area median income of households of that size in the county in which the housing is located; and

(D)  For a household residing in housing on a home ownership basis in rural

resort counties, annual income of the household is at or below one hundred sixty percent of the area median income of households of that size in the county in which the housing is located.

(II)  An applicant seeking funding for a particular development, project, or

program that is funded by the loan program may, at any time, request that the division grant the applicant an exception to the area median income levels specified in subsection (6)(b)(I) of this section based upon demonstrated unique economic and housing costs attributes in the local community in which the development, project, or program is located.

(c) (I)  Not later than September 1, 2022, the division of housing, created in

section 24-32-704 (1), shall classify each county in the state as urban, rural, or rural resort as used in subsection (6)(b)(I) of this section based upon the definitions of the terms as specified in the final report of the Colorado strategic housing working group final report, dated July 6, 2021. The division of housing shall regularly update and publish modifications of the initial classification of a particular county as it receives or produces information documenting changes in local economic circumstances and housing cost factors materially affecting such classifications.

(II)  Notwithstanding subsection (6)(c)(I) of this section, any county may

request from the division of housing:

(A)  A determination that a different income restriction should apply to that

county from the one made applicable to the county in accordance with subsection (6)(c)(I) of this section based upon the unique economic and housing cost factors present in the county. Not later than September 1, 2022, the division of housing shall publish any such modified income restrictions and the basis for any modification approved.

(B)  At any time, a reclassification of the county from the category in which

the county is initially classified pursuant to subsection (6)(c)(I) of this section based upon the unique economic and housing cost factors present in the county.

(d)  To the extent practicable, the division and the administrator, as

applicable, shall support innovative funding mechanisms that allow money to revolve quickly to ensure the rapid reuse of money for ongoing projects.

(7)  Publicizing the loan program. The division shall work with the minority

business office created in section 24-49.5-102, small business development centers, community development financial institutions, and stakeholder partners to promote the program to eligible recipients who primarily serve communities that are underserved or disadvantaged, including eligible recipients located in rural counties. On or before December 1, 2022, the division shall develop and administer a marketing initiative for the program in coordination with the minority business office created in section 24-49.5-102, the small business assistance center created in section 24-48.5-102, local chambers of commerce, and other local and regional economic development entities to promote the program to eligible recipients and target communities. The marketing initiative shall be conducted in the top spoken languages in those communities.

(8)  Gifts, grants, and donations - leveraging federal money. (a)  The division

may seek, accept, and expend gifts, grants, or donations from private or public sources for the purposes of this section. The division shall transmit all money received through gifts, grants, or donations to the state treasurer, who shall credit the money to the fund.

(b)  The division may expend, deploy, or leverage money received from

federal government programs that support loans and investments for one or more of the eligible projects specified in subsection (3) of this section to make loans under the loan program or to otherwise market, promote, or support loans under the program, if allowed under federal law.

(9)  Transformational affordable housing revolving loan fund - transfer of

money to fund - payment of administrative costs - appropriation. (a) The transformational affordable housing revolving loan fund is hereby created in the state treasury. The fund consists of money transferred to the fund in accordance with subsection (9)(d) of this section, any other money that the general assembly appropriates or transfers to the fund, and any gifts, grants, or donations credited to the fund pursuant to subsection (8)(a) of this section.

(b)  The state treasurer shall credit all interest and income derived from the

deposit and investment of money in the fund to the fund.

(c)  Money in the fund is continuously appropriated to the department for the

purposes specified in this section. The department may expend up to five percent of the money appropriated or transferred into, or repaid from, the fund on an annual basis to pay for its direct and indirect costs in administering this section.

(d)  On July 1, 2022, the state treasurer shall transfer one hundred fifty million

dollars from the affordable housing and home ownership cash fund created in section 24-75-229 (3)(a) that originates from the general fund, to the fund. The division shall use the money transferred pursuant to this subsection (9)(d) only for:

(I)  Making loans to eligible recipients pursuant to the loan program; and


(II)  The costs of administering the loan program as may be incurred by the

division or the administrator, as applicable, in accordance with subsection (9)(c) of this section. All such administrative costs must be paid out of the money either transferred to the fund pursuant to this subsection (9)(d) or that is appropriated to the fund.

(10)  Reporting. In connection with the public report the division prepares in

accordance with section 24-32-705.5 (1), the division shall include in the report information summarizing the use of all of the money that was provided as a loan from the loan program in the preceding state fiscal year. At a minimum, the information included in the report pertaining to the loan program must specify the number of eligible recipients that applied for a loan, the number of eligible recipients that were not awarded a loan, the amount of loan money distributed to each loan recipient, a description of each loan recipient's use of the loan money, the use of loan money along the housing and income spectrums, the amount of time from completion of a loan application through the funding of a loan, recommendations concerning future administration of the loan program, and how the use of the loan furthered the vision of transformational affordable housing described in the final report of the task force established in section 24-75-229 (6)(a). The division shall also include in the report its recommendations concerning future administration of the loan program.

Source: L. 2022: Entire section added, (SB 22-159), ch. 230, p. 1698, � 2,

effective May 26. L. 2024: (5)(a.5) added, (HB 24-1308), ch. 295, p. 2014, � 9, effective August 7.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in SB 22-159, see section 1

of chapter 230, Session Laws of Colorado 2022. For the legislative declaration in HB 24-1308, see section 1 of chapter 295, Session Laws of Colorado 2024.


C.R.S. § 24-38-205

24-38-205. Organizations banned from contract awards. Notwithstanding any provision of this part 2 to the contrary, any organization banned from receiving federal funds, and any successor organizations, shall not be awarded a public-private initiative contract pursuant to this part 2.

Source: L. 2010: Entire part added, (HB 10-1010), ch. 90, p. 309, � 1, effective

August 11.

ARTICLE 38.3

Office of Marijuana Coordination

24-38.3-101 and 24-38.3-102. (Repealed)


Source: L. 2017: Entire article repealed, (HB 17-1295), ch. 258, p. 1076, � 1,

effective July 1.

Editor's note: This article 38.3 was added in 2014. For amendments to this

article 38.3 prior to its repeal in 2017, consult the 2016 Colorado Revised Statutes and the Colorado statutory research explanatory note beginning on page vii in the front of this volume.

ARTICLE 38.5

Colorado Energy Office

PART 1

GENERAL PROVISIONS

24-38.5-101.  Colorado energy office - creation. (1)  There is hereby created

within the office of the governor the Colorado energy office, the head of which is the director of the Colorado energy office. The director of the office shall be assisted by a deputy director and a staff to fulfill the office's mission to:

(a)  Support Colorado's transition to a more equitable, low-carbon, and clean

energy economy and promote resources that reduce air pollution and greenhouse gas emissions, including pollution and emissions from electricity generation, buildings, industry, agriculture, and transportation;

(b)  Promote economic development and high quality jobs in Colorado

through advancing clean energy, transportation electrification, and other technologies that reduce air pollution and greenhouse gas emissions, including helping to finance those investments;

(c)  Promote energy efficiency;


(d)  Promote an equitable transition toward zero emission buildings;


(e)  Promote an equitable transition to transportation electrification, zero

emission vehicles, transportation systems, and land use patterns that reduce energy use and greenhouse gas emissions;

(f)  Increase energy security;


(g)  Support lower long-term consumer costs and support reduced energy

cost burden for lower-income Coloradans; and

(h)  Protect the environment and public health.


Source: L. 2008: Entire article added, p. 66, � 1, effective March 18. L. 2012:

Entire section amended, (HB 12-1315), ch. 224, p. 963, � 16, effective July 1. L. 2021: Entire section R&RE, (HB 21-1266), ch. 411, p. 2750, � 20, effective July 2.

Cross references: For the short title (Environmental Justice Act) and the

legislative declaration in HB 21-1266, see sections 1 and 2 of chapter 411, Session Laws of Colorado 2021.

24-38.5-102.  Colorado energy office - duties and powers - definitions. (1)

The Colorado energy office shall:

(a)  Work with communities, utilities, and private and public organizations to:


(I)  Support achieving legislative goals to reduce statewide greenhouse gas

pollution, as defined in section 25-7-103 (22.5);

(II)  Make progress toward eliminating greenhouse gas pollution from

electricity generation, gas utilities, and transportation;

(III)  Implement the renewable energy standard established in section 40-2-124;


(IV)  Support the deployment of renewable energy, such as wind,

hydroelectricity, solar, clean hydrogen, and geothermal;

(V)  Evaluate, and when appropriate, support the deployment of cleaner

energy sources such as clean hydrogen, geothermal, recovered methane, recovered heat, and advanced nuclear;

(VI)  Support the deployment of energy efficiency and energy load

management technologies and practices;

(VII)  Evaluate, and where appropriate, support the deployment of innovative

energy technologies as described in section 40-2-123;

(VIII)  Support the deployment of energy storage systems, including both

long-duration and short-duration energy storage;

(IX)  Support the implementation of clean heat plans pursuant to section 40-3.2-108;


(X)  Support widespread transportation electrification;


(XI)  Support beneficial electrification, as defined in section 40-1-102 (1.2) in

the building, industrial, and oil and gas sectors;

(XII)  Support industrial emissions reductions;


(XIII)  Support pollution reduction through carbon capture and sequestration

and other forms of carbon management; and

(XIV)  Support sustainable land-use patterns that reduce energy

consumption and greenhouse gas pollution.

(b)  Develop programs to reduce energy use and greenhouse gas pollution

from buildings in commercial and residential markets;

(c)  Support efforts to reduce greenhouse gas pollution by state government

through energy efficiency, load management, renewable energy, transportation electrification, and cleaner procurement;

(d)  Promote technology transfer and economic development;


(e)  Support the adoption and implementation of advanced energy codes that

reduce energy use and greenhouse gas emissions and provide information and technical assistance concerning the implementation and enforcement of energy codes to both counties and municipalities, including as specified in sections 24-38.5-103, 24-38.5-401, 24-38.5-402, and 31-15-602 (7);

(f)  Collaborate with the state board of land commissioners regarding

renewable energy resource development as specified in section 36-1-147.5 (4);

(g)  Provide home energy efficiency improvements for low-income

households, including through the weatherization assistance program, as specified in section 40-8.7-112 (3)(b);

(h)  Collaborate with stakeholders to develop and encourage increased

utilization of energy curricula, including science, technology, engineering, and math curricula, that will serve the workforce needs of clean energy industries. Such collaboration may include executive departments, research institutions, state colleges, community colleges, industry, and trade organizations in an effort to develop a means by which the state may address all facets of workforce demands in supporting a clean energy future. Institutions may also partner in the development of curricula with organizations that have existing energy curricula and training programs.

(i)  Annually report to the senate transportation and energy committee and

the house energy and environment committee, or their successor committees;

(j)  Administer the electric vehicle grant fund created in section 24-38.5-103

(1)(a) and the community access enterprise created in section 24-38.5-303 (1);

(k)  Assist the executive director of the department of local affairs in

allocating revenues from the geothermal resource leasing fund to eligible entities pursuant to section 34-63-105;

(l)  Develop basic consumer education or guidance about leased solar

installation and purchased solar installation in consultation with industries that offer these options to consumers;

(m)  In consultation with the appropriate industries, develop basic consumer

education or guidance about purchased or, if available, leased installation of a system that uses geothermal energy for water heating or space heating or cooling in a single building or for space heating for more than one building through a pipeline network;

(n)  Develop and publish an EV charger permitting model code that contains

guidelines for the adoption of EV charger permit standards and permitting processes for counties and municipalities in accordance with sections 30-28-213 (3) and 31-23-316 (3); and

(o)  Provide assistance and support to a board of county commissioners or the

governing body of a municipality in developing ordinances or resolutions for the permitting of electric motor vehicle charging systems in accordance with sections 30-28-213 (6) and 31-23-316 (6).

(2)  Repealed.


(3)  The Colorado energy office shall notify the house of representatives and

senate committees of reference to which the office is assigned pursuant to section 2-7-203 (1), C.R.S., as part of its State Measurement for Accountable, Responsive, and Transparent (SMART) Government Act hearing required by section 2-7-203 (2), C.R.S., if it has made any changes to:

(a)  Any performance plans and performance evaluations required pursuant

to section 2-7-204, C.R.S.;

(b)  Office policies related to energy transmission; and


(c)  Office policies that positively or negatively impact the energy sector.


(3.3)  As part of the hearing required by section 2-7-203 (2), for hearings held

on or after January 1, 2025, but before January 1, 2034, the Colorado energy office shall report on the estimated impact of greenhouse gas emissions reductions attributable to the tax credits created in sections 39-22-551, 39-22-552, 39-22-553, 39-22-554, 39-22-555, and 39-22-556.

(4)  The Colorado energy office may update the greenhouse gas pollution

reduction roadmap, published by the office and dated January 14, 2021, or as amended thereafter, to expressly include geothermal energy as a renewable energy resource that qualifying retail utilities may use to achieve the electric utility sector greenhouse gas pollution reduction goals set forth in the greenhouse gas pollution reduction roadmap.

(5) (a)  As used in this subsection (5), unless the context otherwise requires:


(I)  Decarbonization tax credits means the tax credits created in sections

39-22-551, 39-22-552, 39-22-553, 39-22-554, 39-22-555, and 39-22-556.

(II)  Standards mean the standards or guidelines the office is authorized to

adopt to implement the decarbonization tax credits.

(b)  Notwithstanding section 24-1-136 (11)(a)(I), beginning on and after January

1, 2024, but before January 1, 2033, the Colorado energy office shall annually report to the transportation and energy committee of the senate, the energy and environment committee of the house of representatives, and the finance committees of the senate and the house of representatives, or any successor committees, the following:

(I)  Standards adopted in the preceding year;


(II)  Amendments, modifications, changes, or repeals to previously adopted

standards in the preceding year; and

(III)  Information on any public comment solicited or received pursuant to the

adoption of standards or to the amendment, modification, change, or repeal of previously adopted standards.

(c)  The Colorado energy office may include the information required in

subsection (5)(b) of this section in its annual presentation to its joint committees of reference pursuant to section 2-7-203.

(d)  If in the preceding year the Colorado energy office does not adopt new

standards or make any changes or modifications to adopted standards, then it is not required to report in that year pursuant to subsection (5)(b) of this section.

(e)  This subsection (5) is repealed, effective December 1, 2033.


Source: L. 2008: Entire article added, p. 66, � 1, effective March 18; (1)(l)

amended, p. 1871, � 5, effective June 2. L. 2009: (1)(s) added, (HB 09-1298), ch. 417, p. 2317, � 5, effective June 4; (1)(q) added, (SB 09-075), ch. 418, p. 2319, � 2, effective August 5; (1)(r) added, (HB 09-1312), ch. 253, p. 1145, � 3, effective August 5. L. 2010: (1)(t) added, (SB 10-174), ch. 189, p. 811, � 4, effective August 11. L. 2012: IP(1), (1)(a), (1)(e), and (1)(o) amended, (1)(s) and (2) repealed, and (3) added, (HB 12-1315), ch. 224, p. 963, � 17, effective July 1. L. 2013: (3)(a) amended, (HB 13-1299), ch. 382, p. 2244, � 7, effective June 5. L. 2016: (1)(h) repealed, (SB 16-189), ch. 210, p. 767, � 51, effective June 6. L. 2018: (1)(a) and (1)(o) amended and (1)(f), (1)(g), (1)(i), and (1)(r) repealed, (SB 18-003), ch. 359, p. 2132, � 5, effective June 1. L. 2019: (1)(n) amended, (SB 19-236), ch. 359, p. 3333, � 27, effective May 30. L. 2020: (1)(u) added, (HB 20-1155), ch. 193, p. 895, � 1, effective September 14. L. 2022: (1)(v) and (4) added, (SB 22-118), ch. 335, p. 2369, � 1, effective August 10. L. 2023: (3.3) and (5) added, (HB 23-1272), ch. 167, p. 812, � 16, effective May 11; (1) amended, (SB 23-016), ch. 165, p. 730, � 2, effective August 7. L. 2024: (1)(l) and (1)(m) amended and (1)(n) and (1)(o) added, (HB 24-1173), ch. 215, p. 1321, � 4, effective August 7.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in HB 23-1272, see section 1

of chapter 167, Session Laws of Colorado 2023. For the legislative declaration in HB 24-1173, see section 1 of chapter 215, Session Laws of Colorado 2024.

24-38.5-102.4.  Energy fund - creation - use of fund - definitions - report -

repeal. (1) (a) (I) The energy fund is created in the state treasury. The principal of the fund consists of money transferred to the fund from the general fund; money transferred to the fund at the end of the 2006-07 state fiscal year and at the end of each succeeding state fiscal year from money received by the Colorado energy office; money received pursuant to the federal American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009, Pub.L. 111-5, or any amendments thereto; money received pursuant to revenue contracts, court settlement funds, supplemental environmental program funds, or the repayment or return of funds from eligible public depositories; money transferred to the fund pursuant to sections 6-7.5-110 (2)(a), 25-5-1406 (3)(a), and 25-7-1507 (3)(a); money received as gifts, grants, and donations; and any other money received by the Colorado energy office. Money in the fund at the end of any state fiscal year remains in the fund and may not be credited to the state general fund or any other fund. Money in the fund may not be transferred to the innovative energy fund created in section 24-38.5-102.5.

(II) and (III)  Repealed.


(IV) (A)  On July 1, 2025, the state treasurer shall transfer one hundred

twenty-five thousand dollars from the energy fund to the general fund.

(B)  This subsection (1)(a)(IV) is repealed, effective July 1, 2026.


(b)  For purposes of this section, Colorado energy office means the

Colorado energy office created in section 24-38.5-101.

(2) (a)  All money in the energy fund is continuously appropriated to the

Colorado energy office for the purposes of advancing energy efficiency and renewable energy throughout the state.

(b)  The Colorado energy office may expend money from the energy fund:


(I)  To attract renewable energy industry investment in the state;


(II)  To assist in technology transfer into the marketplace for newly developed

energy efficiency and renewable energy technologies;

(III)  To provide market incentives for the purchase and distribution of energy

efficient and renewable energy products;

(IV)  To assist in the implementation of energy efficiency projects throughout

the state;

(V)  To aid governmental agencies in energy efficiency government

initiatives;

(VI)  To facilitate widespread implementation of renewable energy

technologies;

(VII)  To educate the general public on energy issues and opportunities;


(VII.5)  To implement the building performance program defined in section

24-38.5-112 (3)(b) and described in that section and section 25-7-142; and

(VIII)  In any other manner that serves the purposes of advancing energy

efficiency and renewable energy throughout the state.

(c) (I)  Subject to the provisions of subparagraph (II) of this paragraph (c), the

moneys in the clean and renewable energy fund may also be used by the Colorado energy office to make grants or loans to persons, as defined in section 2-4-401 (8), C.R.S., for use in carrying out the purposes of this section. The Colorado energy office shall consider the following information in determining whether to make a grant or loan:

(A)  The amount of the grant or loan;


(B)  The quantified impact on energy demand or amount of clean energy

production generated as a result of the grant or loan;

(C)  The potential economic impact of the grant or loan; and


(D)  The public benefits expected to result from the grant or loan.


(II)  The Colorado energy office may establish terms and conditions for

making grants or loans pursuant to this section and in accordance with the objectives of the office as set forth in section 24-38.5-102.

(3) and (4)  Repealed.


(5) (a)  For state fiscal years commencing on or before July 1, 2024, and on or

after July 1, 2026, the state treasurer shall credit all interest and income derived from the deposit and investment of money in the energy fund to the fund.

(b)  Notwithstanding subsection (1)(a)(I) of this section, for the state fiscal

year commencing on July 1, 2025, in accordance with section 24-36-114 (1), the state treasurer shall credit all interest and income derived from the deposit and investment of money in the energy fund to the general fund.

(c) (I)  On June 30, 2025, the state treasurer shall transfer four hundred sixty-six thousand eight hundred two dollars from the energy fund to the general fund.


(II)  This subsection (5)(c) is repealed, effective July 1, 2026.


Source: L. 2012: Entire section added, (HB 12-1315), ch. 224, p. 965, � 18,

effective July 1. L. 2018: (1)(a)(I), (2)(a), and (2)(b) amended, (SB 18-003), ch. 359, p. 2133, � 6, effective June 1. L. 2021: (3) added, (SB 21-230), ch. 226, p. 1206, � 1, effective June 14; (4) added, (SB 21-231), ch. 227, p. 1208, � 1, effective June 14; (2)(b)(VII) amended and (2)(b)(VII.5) added, (HB 21-1286), ch. 326, p. 2083, � 2, effective September 7. L. 2023: (1)(a)(I) amended, (HB 23-1161), ch. 285, p. 1717, � 10, effective August 7. L. 2025: (1)(a)(IV) added, (SB 25-264), ch. 129, p. 502, � 21, effective April 25; (1)(a)(I) amended and (5) added, (SB 25-317), ch. 385, p. 2147, � 17, effective June 3.

Editor's note: (1)  This section is similar to former � 24-75-1201 as it existed

prior to 2012.

(2)  Subsection (1)(a)(II)(B) provided for the repeal of subsection (1)(a)(II),

effective January 1, 2013. (See L. 2012, p. 965.)

(3)  Subsection (1)(a)(III)(B) provided for the repeal of subsection (1)(a)(III),

effective January 1, 2017. (See L. 2012, p. 965.)

(4)  Subsection (4)(c) provided for the repeal of subsection (4), effective July

1, 2024. (See L. 2021, p. 1208.)

(5)  Subsection (3)(d) provided for the repeal of subsection (3), effective July

1, 2025. (See L. 2021, p. 1206.)

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in SB 25-317, see section 1

of chapter 385, Session Laws of Colorado 2025.

24-38.5-102.5.  Innovative energy fund - creation - use of fund - definitions

C.R.S. § 24-75-108

24-75-108. Intradepartmental transfers between appropriations - definition - repeal. (1) Upon approval by the governor, the head of a principal department of state government may, on or after May 1 of any fiscal year and before the forty-fifth day after the close of such fiscal year, transfer money from one item of appropriation made to the principal department in the general appropriation act to another item of appropriation made to the same principal department in said act; except that such transfers must be made only between appropriations for like purposes. A transfer is between appropriations for like purposes when both line items of appropriation are for the same specified purpose, as those purposes are defined in section 24-75-112. All transfers made pursuant to this section are between appropriations made for the expiring fiscal year.

(2)  None of the following transfers are deemed to be between like purposes

within the meaning of subsection (1) of this section:

(a) and (b)  (Deleted by amendment, L. 2010, (HB 10-1119), ch. 340, p. 1574, �

10, effective August 11, 2010.)

(c)  Transfers from any item of appropriation into a lease purchase item;


(d)  Transfers between governing boards of institutions of higher education;


(e)  Transfers between capital construction projects; except that transfers

between specific maintenance projects or between controlled maintenance projects may be made as authorized in the general appropriation act;

(f)  Transfers made to match federal funds for a program which has not been

authorized by law;

(g)  Transfers of cash-spending authority which operate to increase

appropriations of moneys out of one cash fund by decreasing appropriations of moneys out of a different cash fund in a corresponding amount if such transfers increase the total spending authority for all fund sources within a program. A transfer of cash spending authority shall not authorize a transfer of cash between cash funds.

(h)  Transfers between any line items of appropriation in the department of

corrections that are not explicitly authorized in a footnote to the annual general appropriation act.

(3) (a)  (Deleted by amendment, L. 2010, (HB 10-1119), ch. 340, p. 1574, � 10,

effective August 11, 2010.)

(b)  Any savings realized from an energy cost-savings contract pursuant to

section 24-30-2003 may be transferred to an operating expense item for the purpose of making an annual payment on a financed purchase of an asset or certificate of participation agreement under such contract.

(4)  All transfers within a department or within an office involving cash funds

shall be consistent with statutes governing the use of such cash funds.

(5)  Transfers between items of appropriation made to the judicial

department may be made, upon approval by the chief justice of the Colorado supreme court, to the same extent and subject to the same limitations as transfers within a principal department as authorized by subsections (1) to (4) of this section. Transfers between items of appropriation made to the judicial department shall also be subject to the limitation in section 24-75-110.

(6)  Transfers between items of appropriation made to the office of the

governor, including the office of state planning and budgeting, may be made, upon approval by the governor, to the same extent and subject to the same limitations as transfers within a principal department as authorized by subsections (1) to (4) of this section.

(7)  The transfers authorized by this section shall be in addition to any other

transfers within a department or within an office which are authorized by law or which are authorized in the general appropriation act and are required to implement appropriations conditioned on the distribution or transfer of the appropriated amounts.

(8)  The total amount of money transferred between items of appropriation

made to principal departments of state government and to the office of the governor pursuant to this section, other than transfers within a principal department from an operating expense item to a utilities item, from a utilities item to an operating expense item pursuant to subsection (3)(b) of this section, or from a utilities item to a utilities item, shall not exceed ten million dollars.

(9)  The governor shall report to the joint budget committee no later than

October 1 after the close of the fiscal year on the transfers approved by the governor and by the chief justice pursuant to this section and section 24-75-106 and on overexpenditures allowed under section 24-75-109.

(10)  The transfers authorized by this section shall apply to the 1990-91 and

subsequent general appropriation acts.

(11)  This section is repealed, effective September 1, 2030.


(12)  As used in this section, utilities means water, sewer service, electricity,

or other fuel sources, equipment purchased for the purpose of utility cost savings, payments made to private companies for services rendered or equipment installed for the purpose of reducing utility costs, financed purchase of an asset or certificate of participation payments to private companies for the purpose of reducing utility costs, and all heating fuels.

Source: L. 86: Entire section added, p. 962, � 1, effective May 27. L. 89: Entire

section RC&RE, p. 1095, � 4, effective May 16. L. 91: Entire section RC&RE, p. 848, � 4, effective April 27. L. 94: (8) and (11) amended, p. 1460, � 4, effective May 25. L. 99: (11) amended, p. 697, � 5, effective May 19. L. 2001: (3) and (8) amended and (12) added, p. 1092, � 2, effective August 8. L. 2004: (11) amended, p. 1520, � 5, effective May 28. L. 2009: (11) amended, (HB 09-1222), ch. 231, p. 1064, � 5, effective May 4. L. 2010: (2)(a), (2)(b), (3)(a), (8), and (11) amended, (HB 10-1119), ch. 340, p. 1574, � 10, effective August 11. L. 2013: (3)(b) amended, (SB 13-254), ch. 403, p. 2363, � 4, effective June 5. L. 2020: (11) amended, (HB 20-1426), ch. 306, p. 1558, � 8, effective July 14. L. 2021: (3)(b) and (12) amended, (HB 21-1316), ch. 325, p. 2029, � 39, effective July 1; (8) amended, (SB 21-287), ch. 421, p. 2791, � 2, effective July 2. L. 2025: (1), IP(2), and (11) amended and (2)(h) added, (SB 25-263), ch. 128, p. 497, � 5, effective April 25.

Editor's note: (1)  This section was numbered as � 24-75-109 in House Bill 86-1354 but was renumbered on revision for ease of location.


(2)  Prior to the recreations of this section in 1989 and 1991, subsections (9)

and (13) provided for the repeal of this section, effective September 1, 1986 (see L. 86, p. 962) and September 1, 1990 (see L. 89, p. 1095).

Cross references: In 2010, subsections (2)(a), (2)(b), (3)(a), (8), and (11) were

amended by the State Measurement for Accountable, Responsive, and Transparent (SMART) Government Act. For the short title, see section 1 of chapter 340, Session Laws of Colorado 2010.


C.R.S. § 24-75-112

24-75-112. Annual general appropriation act - headnote definitions - general provisions - footnotes. (1) As used in the annual general appropriation act, the following definitions and general provisions apply for the headnote terms preceding and specifying the purpose of certain line items of appropriation:

(a) (I)  Capital outlay means:


(A)  Equipment, furniture, motor vehicles, software, and other items that have

a useful life of one year or more;

(B)  Alterations and replacements, meaning major and extensive repair,

remodeling, or alteration of buildings, the replacement thereof, or the replacement and renewal of the plumbing, wiring, electrical, fiber optic, heating, and air conditioning systems therein;

(C)  New structures, meaning the construction of entirely new buildings,

including the value of materials and labor, either state-supplied or supplied by contract; or

(D)  Nonstructural improvements to land, meaning the grading, leveling,

drainage, irrigation, and landscaping thereof and the construction of roadways, fences, ditches, and sanitary and storm sewers.

(II)  Capital outlay does not include those things defined as capital

construction, capital renewal, or controlled maintenance in section 24-30-1301 (2), (3), and (4).

(b)  Centralized appropriation means the appropriation of funds to an

executive director of a department or a central administrative program intended for subsequent allocation and expenditure at and among a department's divisions, programs, agencies, or long bill groups in order to reflect the amount of such resources actually used in each program or division. Such centralized appropriations may include salary survey, step pay or anniversary increases, senior executive service, shift differential, group health and life insurance, capital outlay, ADP capital outlay, information technology asset maintenance, legal services, purchase of services from computer center, multiuse network payments, vehicle lease payments, leased space, financed purchase of an asset, certificate of participation, payment to risk management and property funds, short-term disability insurance, utilities, communications services payments, amortization equalization disbursements, supplemental amortization equalization disbursements, administrative law judge services, and centralized ADP. As provided in subsection (1)(l) of this section, capital outlay is included within the appropriation for operating expenses.

(b.5)  Certificate of participation means any certificate evidencing a

participation right or a proportionate interest in any financing agreement or the right to receive proportionate payments from the state or an agency due under any financing agreement.

(c)  Communications services payments means payments to the office of

information technology created in section 24-37.5-103 for the cost of services from the state's public safety communications infrastructure.

(c.5)  Financed purchase of an asset means a financing agreement that

includes the purchase of an asset.

(d) (I)  Except as otherwise provided in subparagraph (IV) of this paragraph

(d), full-time equivalent or FTE means the budgetary equivalent of one permanent position continuously filled full time for an entire fiscal year by elected state officials or by state employees who are paid for at least two thousand eighty hours per fiscal year, with adjustments made to:

(A)  Include in such time computation any sick, annual, administrative, or

other paid leave;

(B)  Exclude from such time computation any overtime or shift differential

payments made in excess of regular or normal hours worked and any leave payouts upon termination of employment; and

(C)  Account for the actual number of work hours in a given fiscal year.


(II)  Full-time equivalent or FTE does not include contractual, temporary,

or permanent seasonal positions.

(III)  As used in this paragraph (d), state employee means a person

employed by the state, whether or not such person is a classified employee in the state personnel system.

(IV)  For purposes of higher education professional personnel and assistants

in resident instruction and professional personnel in organized research and activities relating to instruction, full-time equivalent or FTE means the equivalent of one permanent position continuously filled for a nine-month or ten-month academic year.

(V)  The number of FTE specified in a particular item of appropriation is the

number utilized to calculate the amount appropriated and necessary to fund any combination of part-time positions or full-time positions equal to such number for the fiscal year to which the annual general appropriation act pertains in accordance with the definition contained in subsections (1)(d)(II) and (1)(d)(III) of this section and is not a limitation on the number of FTE that may be employed. No department shall make a material change in the number of FTE specified in a particular item of appropriation prior to notifying the joint budget committee in writing of such change. This subsection (1)(d)(V) does not apply to state trainee positions.

(e)  Health, life, and dental means the state contribution for group benefits

plans pursuant to section 24-50-609. These contribution amounts shall be effective in accordance with section 24-50-104 (4)(d)(II).

(f)  Indirect cost assessment means reimbursements made to an agency of

the state from federal funds, other nonstate funds, cash funds, or reappropriated funds for the indirect expenses that have been incurred by the state in operating such programs. These recoveries are made by the departments using the approved indirect cost rate, as required by the state fiscal rules.

(g)  Leased space means the use and acquisition of office facilities and

office and parking space pursuant to a rental agreement.

(h)  Repealed.


(i)  Legal services means the purchase of legal services from the

department of law; however, up to ten percent of the amount appropriated for legal services may instead be expended for operating expenses, contractual services, and tuition for employee training.

(j)  Motor vehicle means a motor truck designated three-quarters of one ton

or less, automobile, or other self-propelled vehicle.

(k)  Multiuse network payments means payments to the department of

personnel for the cost of administration and the use of the state's telecommunications network.

(l)  Operating expenses means those supplies, materials, items, services,

and travel-related expenses needed to administer the programs delegated to the departments, except for personal services, legal services, or capital construction.

(m)  Personal services means:


(I)  All salaries and wages, including overtime, whether to full-time, part-time,

or temporary employees of the state, and also includes the state's contribution to the public employees' retirement association and the state's share of federal medicare tax paid for state employees;

(II)  Professional services, meaning services requiring advanced study in a

specialized discipline that are rendered or performed by firms or individuals for the state other than for employment compensation as an employee of the state, including but not limited to accounting, consulting, architectural, engineering, physician, nurse, specialized computer, and construction management services. No appropriation for such services shall be expended on the provision of legal services by the department of law or by a private attorney or law firm prior to notifying the joint budget committee in writing of such change. Payments for professional services shall be in compliance with section 24-30-202 (2) and (3).

(III)  Temporary services, meaning clerical, administrative, and casual labor

rendered or performed by firms or individuals for the state other than for employment compensation as an employee of the state. Payments for temporary services shall be in compliance with section 24-30-202 (2) and (3).

(IV)  Tuition, meaning payments for graduate or undergraduate courses taken

by state employees at institutions of higher education; or

(V)  Payments for unemployment claims or insurance as required by the

department of labor and employment.

(n)  Pueblo data entry center payments means payments to the department

of personnel for the cost of data entry services from the data entry center.

(o)  Purchase of services from computer center means the purchase of

automated data processing services from the general government computer center.

(p)  Short-term disability means the state contribution for employee short-term disability pursuant to section 24-50-603 (13).


(q)  Utilities means water, sewer service, electricity, payments to energy

service companies, purchase of energy conservation equipment, and all heating fuels.

(r)  Vehicle lease payments means the annual payments to the department

of personnel for the cost of administration, repayment of a loan from the state treasury, and financed purchase of an asset or certificate of participation payments for new and replacement vehicles.

(2) (a)  When it is not feasible, due to the format of the annual general

appropriation act, to set forth fully in the line item description the purpose of an item of appropriation or a condition or limitation on the item of appropriation, the footnotes at the end of each section of the annual general appropriation act are provisions that set forth such purposes, conditions, or limitations. Such provisions are intended to be binding portions of the items of appropriation to which they relate to the extent that those purposes, conditions, or limitations are integral to the appropriation and are not, in accordance with the Colorado supreme court decision in Colorado General Assembly v. Owens, 136 P.3d 262 (Colo. 2006), conditions reserving to the general assembly powers of close supervision over the appropriation.

(b)  The footnotes may also contain an explanation of any assumptions used

in determining a specific amount of an appropriation. However, such footnotes shall not contain any provision of substantive law or any provision requiring or requesting that any administrative action be taken in connection with any appropriation. Footnotes may set forth any other statement of explanation or expression of legislative intent relating to any appropriation.

(3)  Where no purpose is specified or where a special program is specified,

the appropriation shall be for operating expenses and personal services.

(4)  Expenditures of funds appropriated for the purchase of goods and

services shall be in accord with section 17-24-111, C.R.S., which requires institutions, agencies, and departments to purchase such goods and services as are produced by the division of correctional industries from said division.

Source: L. 2008: Entire section added, p. 153, � 2, effective March 24. L.

2009: (1)(h) amended, (HB 09-1218), ch. 132, p. 570, � 2, effective July 1; (1)(c) amended, (HB 09-1150), ch. 309, p. 1667, � 6, effective August 5. L. 2012: (1)(d)(I) amended, (SB 12-112), ch. 32, p. 126, � 1, effective August 8; (1)(b) amended, (HB12-1321), ch. 260, p. 1352, � 13, effective September 1. L. 2014: (1)(a)(II) amended, (HB 14-1387), ch. 378, p. 1845, � 47, effective June 6. L. 2021: (1)(b) and (1)(r) amended, (1)(b.5) and (1)(c.5) added, and (1)(h) repealed, (HB 21-1316), ch. 325, p. 2030, � 40, effective July 1. L. 2022: (1)(d)(V) amended, (SB 22-226), ch. 179, p. 1191, � 8, effective May 18. L. 2023: (1)(d)(V) amended, (SB 23-051), ch. 37, p. 147, � 26, effective March 23. L. 2024: IP(1) and (1)(b) amended, (HB 24-1467), ch. 430, p. 3017, � 8, effective June 5.

Cross references: (1)  For the legislative declaration contained in the 2008

act enacting this section, see section 1 of chapter 57, Session Laws of Colorado 2008. For the legislative declaration in HB 14-1387, see section 1 of chapter 378, Session Laws of Colorado 2014. For the legislative declaration in SB 22-226, see section 1 of chapter 179, Session Laws of Colorado 2022. For the legislative declaration in HB 24-1467, see section 1 of chapter 430, Session Laws of Colorado 2024.

(2)  In 2012, subsection (1)(b) was amended by the Modernization of the State

Personnel System Act. For the short title and the legislative declaration, see sections 1 and 2 of chapter 260, Session Laws of Colorado 2012.


C.R.S. § 24-75-232

24-75-232. Infrastructure Investment and Jobs Act cash fund - creation - allowable uses - report - compliance monitoring - legislative declaration - definitions - repeal. (1) The general assembly finds and declares that:

(a)  The federal government enacted with bipartisan support the

Infrastructure Investment and Jobs Act, which includes five hundred fifty billion dollars in federal funds for new infrastructure investments nationwide;

(b)  Approximately two hundred programs identified in the federal act may be

relevant to Colorado and initial estimates show the state could receive between approximately three billion four hundred million dollars and six billion eight hundred million dollars in new federal funding for infrastructure investments, with significant funding subject to nonfederal match requirements;

(c)  With these available federal funds, Colorado has the opportunity to make

significant progress on its infrastructure goals that can create positive impacts for Coloradans across the state;

(d)  In order for the state to be competitive for the highest range of funding

available to it under the federal act, it is necessary for departments to have funding available as a nonfederal match, although due to still-evolving federal guidance the amounts needed and specific types of projects may not be known in time for this money to be appropriated in the annual general appropriation act;

(d.5)  With the passage of the Inflation Reduction Act and the

Infrastructure Investment and Jobs Act, billions of dollars in federal money is available to help public schools improve air quality in schools, student performance, and staff retention; and

(e)  The general assembly desires the money in the Infrastructure

Investment and Jobs Act cash fund to be allocated as follows; except that the anticipated percentages may change dependent on need and guidance developed by the federal government for implementation of the federal act:

(I)  Thirty-five percent for transportation programs;


(II)  Twenty-five percent for water, environmental, and resiliency programs;


(III)  Twenty-five percent for power, grid, and broadband programs;


(IV)  Ten percent for local match support; and


(V)  Five percent for grant writing support, administrative support, and

project planning.

(2)  As used in this section, unless the context otherwise requires:


(a)  Department means a principal department of the state as identified in

section 24-1-110 and the office of the governor, including any offices created therein.

(b)  Fund means the Infrastructure Investment and Jobs Act cash fund

created in subsection (3) of this section.

(b.5)  Inflation Reduction Act means the federal Inflation Reduction Act of

2022, Pub.L. 117-169, as the act may be subsequently amended.

(c)  Infrastructure Investment and Jobs Act or federal act means the

federal Infrastructure Investment and Jobs Act, Pub.L. 117-58, as the act may be subsequently amended.

(d)  Local government means a county, a municipality, a city and county, a

local education provider, or a special district.

(e)  Office means the office of the governor.


(3)  The Infrastructure Investment and Jobs Act cash fund is hereby created

in the state treasury. The fund consists of money credited or transferred to the fund pursuant to subsection (4) of this section and any other money that the general assembly may appropriate or transfer to the fund.

(4) (a) (I)  No later than three days after June 7, 2022, the state treasurer shall

transfer eighty million two hundred fifty thousand dollars from the general fund to the fund.

(II)  On July 1, 2023, the state treasurer shall transfer eighty-four million

dollars from the general fund to the fund.

(III)  On July 1, 2025, the state treasurer shall transfer four million dollars

from the general fund to the fund.

(b)  The state treasurer shall credit all interest and income derived from the

deposit and investment of money in the fund to the fund.

(c)  On June 30, 2028, the state treasurer shall transfer all unexpended

money in the fund to the general fund.

(d)  The office may seek, accept, and expend gifts, grants, or donations from

private or public sources for the purposes of subsection (5)(e) of this section. The office shall transmit all money received through gifts, grants, or donations to the state treasurer, who shall credit the money to the fund for use for the purposes of subsection (5)(e) of this section.

(5) (a)  Subject to approval by the governor, a department may expend money

in the fund as the matching nonfederal funding for infrastructure projects pursuant to requirements of the Infrastructure Investment and Jobs Act or subsequent federal infrastructure legislation for the following categories:

(I)  Transportation infrastructure projects as set forth in the federal act;


(II)  Water, environmental, and resiliency projects as set forth in the federal

act;

(III)  Power, grid, and broadband projects as set forth in the federal act; and


(IV)  Any other infrastructure project explicitly funded and set forth in the

federal act.

(b)  In addition to the uses set forth in subsection (5)(a) of this section:


(I)  Subject to approval by the governor, a department may expend money in

the fund to provide matching nonfederal funds to a local government or a federally recognized Indian tribe for match uses directed under the federal act; and

(II)  The office may expend money from the fund to provide grant writing

support, project planning support for federal funding opportunities in connection with the Infrastructure Investment and Jobs Act and related federal funding opportunities including funding opportunities from the Inflation Reduction Act, and for administrative needs in processing applications for money from the fund and disbursing money awarded from the fund in accordance with this section.

(c)  Subject to annual appropriation by the general assembly, a department

and the office may expend money from the fund for the purposes set forth in this subsection (5).

(d)  Before a departmental expenditure from the fund, the office shall

develop a process for departments to apply to expend money from the fund for infrastructure projects that require nonfederal match funds in order to be eligible for federal approval to receive federal funding for the infrastructure project under the Infrastructure Investment and Jobs Act and a process for reviewing and approving applications.

(e)  In addition to the uses set forth in subsections (5)(a) and (5)(b) of this

section, and notwithstanding subsection (1)(e) of this section, the office may expend the money in the fund at the governor's discretion for the following purposes:

(I)  Hiring and employing personnel or retaining contractors for purposes

related to federal government actions that impact federal disbursements, grants, contracts, or money received by or transferred to the state;

(II)  Reimbursing the department of law for costs associated with special

assistant attorneys general, pursuant to sections 24-31-101 and 24-31-111 (5), contracted with for the purposes of:

(A)  Providing legal services to state officers or employees related to legal

proceedings, inquiries, hearings, or investigations initiated, pursued, or threatened by the federal government, including congressional inquiries and investigations; or

(B)  Providing legal services for the criminal defense of state officers or

employees in legal actions arising out of official acts or decisions; or

(III)  Other expenditures consistent with the purposes of this section, as

determined by the governor, including expenditures to preserve and protect state sovereignty or federal funding streams that benefit the state.

(6)  Any department expending money from the fund shall include

information regarding amounts expended and anticipated to be expended and information on the specific infrastructure project or projects the money has been or is anticipated to be expended on in the department's annual presentation to joint committees of reference pursuant to section 2-7-203.

(7) (a)  On or before October 1, 2022, and on a quarterly basis beginning on

July 1, 2023, of every year thereafter, the office shall submit a report to the joint budget committee of the general assembly, the senate committee on transportation and energy or any successor committee, and the house of representatives committees on transportation and local government and energy and environment or any successor committees. The report must include:

(I)  Information, organized by department and priority funding category, on

awards that have been made pending federal approval including the amount of money awarded from the fund, the federal funds anticipated to be received upon federal approval, and any other funding sources anticipated;

(II)  Information, organized by department and priority funding category, on

awards that have been made and received federal approval including the amount of money awarded from the fund, the federal funds authorized, and any other funding sources authorized, received, or anticipated; and

(III)  Actual expenditures by department for amounts awarded from the fund.


(b)  In addition to the information required pursuant to subsection (7)(a) of

this section, the office shall include in its first report due on or before October 1, 2022, information on the process that it has established for receiving and reviewing applications pursuant to subsection (5)(d) of this section and any recommendations for legislative changes for purposes of implementing the provisions of this section.

(c)  Any department applying for an award of money from the fund must

provide the office with the information necessary for the report required by this subsection (7) and comply with any request from the office for the information.

(7.5)  If a local education provider undertakes HVAC infrastructure

improvements at a school using money from the fund, a department's grant agreement compliance monitoring shall consist of the following:

(a)  Inclusion of a clause in the award agreement that the local education

provider must comply with section 22-32-153; and

(b)  A requirement that a local education provider make a certification at the

end of the grant period that the local education provider is in compliance with section 22-32-153.

(8)  This section is repealed, effective July 1, 2028. Any unexpended and

unencumbered money remaining in the fund upon the repeal of this section reverts to the general fund.

Source: L. 2022: Entire section added, (SB 22-215), ch. 415, p. 2925, � 1,

effective June 7. L. 2023: (2)(b.5) added and (3), (4)(a), (5)(b)(II), and IP(7)(a) amended, (SB 23-283), ch. 240, p. 1291, � 1, effective May 22. L. 2025: (4)(a)(III) added, (SB 25-269), ch. 146, p. 558, � 1, effective April 28; (4)(d) and (5)(e) added and (8) amended, (HB 25-1321), ch. 206, p. 932, � 1, effective May 16; (1)(d), (2)(d), and IP(5)(a) amended and (1)(d.5) and (7.5) added, (HB 25-1245), ch. 400, p. 2271, � 8, effective August 6.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in HB 25-1245, see section 1

of chapter 400, Session Laws of Colorado 2025.

PART 3

CAPITAL CONSTRUCTION FUND

Cross references: For expenditure of receipts from fire or other insured loss,

see � 24-30-202 (21).


C.R.S. § 24-82-601

24-82-601. Definitions. As used in this part 6, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1)  Description means a nontechnical explanation of all passive solar

design and energy conservation features.

(2)  Fifty-five thousand Btu/square foot/year energy performance goal

means the goal for the amount of energy to be consumed or used on-site for the purposes of heating, cooling, lighting, and ventilation, but the term does not include energy losses associated with energy transmission, generation, or distribution.

(3)  Renewable energy systems means passive and active solar systems,

wind energy systems, biomass energy source systems, geothermal energy systems, hydroelectric energy systems, cogeneration systems, waste heat recovery systems, and other innovative energy recovery systems which meet the energy performance goal as provided in this part 6.

(4)  Unconditioned space means buildings and structures or portions

thereof which are neither heated nor cooled by fuel or electrical energy, including buildings or portions of buildings used primarily for the storage of materials and are uninhabited, except for the handling of those materials, and are not heated to fifty degrees Fahrenheit.

Source: L. 81: Entire part added, p. 1251, � 1, effective July 1.

C.R.S. § 24-82-602

24-82-602. Required energy performance goal. (1) All state buildings, and improvements thereto, with design commencing on or after July 1, 1981, shall be designed:

(a)  To achieve a fifty-five thousand Btu/square foot/year energy

performance goal for heating, cooling, lighting, and ventilation energy;

(b)  To make maximum use of passive solar concepts such as energy

conservation, natural lighting, and orientation and incorporation of thermal-mass;

(c)  To make maximum use of economically feasible renewable energy

systems;

(d)  To achieve the ease of retrofit with renewable energy systems.


(2)  A description of said system shall be posted or filed at the construction

site, and copies thereof shall be made available to any interested party upon request.

(3)  State buildings which are not office buildings shall be designed for

maximum use of passive solar concepts, economically feasible renewable energy systems, and ease of renewable energy system retrofit but may exceed the fifty-five thousand Btu/square foot/year energy performance goal if approved by the department of personnel for each building on a case-by-case basis. Said goal may also be adjusted by the department of personnel to accommodate different climate zones in the state.

(4)  This section shall not apply to space or buildings which are unconditioned

or which are listed in the historical registry.

Source: L. 81: Entire part added, p. 1252, � 1, effective July 1. L. 95: (3)

amended, p. 660, � 86, effective July 1. L. 96: (3) amended, p. 1471, � 17, effective June 1.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration contained in the 1995 act

amending subsection (3), see section 112 of chapter 167, Session Laws of Colorado 1995.

PART 7

MASTER LEASING

Cross references: Section 24-82-1207 states that the provisions of this part

7 shall not apply to leases entered into pursuant to part 12 of this article.


C.R.S. § 24-94-102

24-94-102. Definitions. As used in this article 94, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1)  Department means the department of personnel.


(2)  Develop means to plan, design, develop, build, establish, finance, lease,

acquire, install, construct, reconstruct, or expand a public project.

(3)  Executive director means the executive director of the department of

personnel or the executive director's designee.

(4)  Finance means the supply by a private partner of resources to

accomplish all or any part of the work or services for a public project, including funds, financing, income, revenue, cost sharing, technology, personnel, equipment, expertise, data, or engineering, construction, or maintenance services.

(4.3)  HVAC means heating, ventilation, and air conditioning.


(4.7)  Local education provider means:


(a)  A local education provider, as defined in section 22-16-103 (4); and


(b)  The Colorado school for the deaf and the blind described in section 22-80-102.


(5)  Operate means to finance, operate, maintain, improve, equip, modify,

repair, or administer a public project.

(6)  Private partner means any natural person, corporation, general

partnership, limited liability company, limited partnership, joint venture, business trust, public benefit corporation, nonprofit entity, local government, other private business entity, or any combination thereof.

(7)  Public-private agreement means any agreement between one or more

private partners and one or more state public entities that contractually provides for the responsibilities of all parties in negotiating, developing, or operating any aspect of a proposed or approved public project or financed purchased of an asset. Public-private agreement does not mean a grant or incentive program established in another provision of law or an agreement approved by the economic development commission pursuant to parts 1 and 3 of article 46 of this title 24.

(8)  Public-private partnership means an agreement between one or more

state public entities and one or more private partners by which a state public entity may allocate responsibility or risk to a private partner to develop or operate a public project and, in return, the private partner may receive the right to all or a portion of fees generated by the public project, availability payments made by the state public entity, other public money, or any other legally available consideration. A public-private partnership does not confer onto the relationship formed any of the attributes or incidents of a partnership pursuant to section 7-60-106 or the common law. Public-private partnership does not mean any grant or incentive program established by another provision of law or agreements that are approved by the economic development commission, including but not limited to grant or incentive programs described in parts 1 and 3 of article 46 of this title 24.

(9)  Public project means any construction, alteration, repair, demolition, or

improvement of any state-owned land, building, structure, facility, asset, or other public improvement suitable for and intended for use in the promotion of the public health, welfare, or safety, and any maintenance programs for the upkeep of such projects subject to part 2 of article 92 of this title 24. Public project includes but is not limited to a project for civic, child care, medical, utility, telecommunication, cultural, recreational, or educational facilities or services.

(10)  State public entity means any department, agency, or subdivision of

the executive branch of state government; except that state public entity does not include state entities that have specific statutory authority to enter into public-private partnerships, including but not limited to the authority specified in sections 23-3.1-301 (1), 23-3.1-306.5, 24-33.5-510, 26-6.9-102, 32-22-105 (1)(a)(VIII), 40-2-123, and 43-4-806.

(11)  Subcommittee means the public-private partnership subcommittee of

the Colorado economic development commission created in section 24-46-102 (4).

(12)  Unit means the public-private collaboration unit created in section 24-94-103 (2).


Source: L. 2022: Entire article added, (SB 22-130), ch. 232, p. 1711, � 2,

effective May 26. L. 2025: (4.3) and (4.7) added, (HB 25-1245), ch. 400, p. 2271, � 7, effective August 6.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in HB 25-1245, see section 1

of chapter 400, Session Laws of Colorado 2025.


C.R.S. § 25-1-1511

25-1-1511. Repeal of part - sunset review. This part 15 is repealed, effective September 1, 2032. Before the repeal, this part 15 is scheduled for review in accordance with section 2-3-1203.

Source: L. 2022: Entire part added, (SB 22-186), ch. 488, p. 3540, � 1,

effective August 10.

ARTICLE 1.5

Powers and Duties of the Department

of Public Health and Environment

Editor's note: This article was added with relocations in 2003. Former C.R.S.

section numbers are shown in editor's notes following those sections that were relocated.

PART 1

GENERAL POWERS AND DUTIES

25-1.5-100.3.  Definitions. As used in this article 1.5, unless the context

otherwise requires:

(1)  Department means the department of public health and environment

created in section 25-1-102 (1).

Source: L. 2025: Entire section added, (SB 25-275), ch. 377, p. 2075, � 201,

effective August 6.

25-1.5-101.  Powers and duties of department - laboratory cash fund - office

of suicide prevention - suicide prevention coordination cash fund - dispensation of payments under contracts with grantees - report - definitions. (1) The department has, in addition to all other powers and duties imposed upon it by law, the powers and duties provided in this section as follows:

(a)  To close theaters, schools, and other public places, and to forbid

gatherings of people when necessary to protect the public health;

(b) (I)  To establish and enforce minimum general sanitary standards as to the

quality of wastes discharged upon land and the quality of fertilizer derived from excreta of human beings or from the sludge of sewage disposal plants.

(II)  The phrase minimum general sanitary standards as used in this section

means the minimum standards reasonably consistent with assuring adequate protection of the public health. The word standards as used in this section means standards reasonably designed to promote and protect the public health.

(c) (I)  To collect, compile, and tabulate reports of marriages, dissolution of

marriages, declaration of invalidity of marriages, births, deaths, and morbidity and to require any person having information with regard to the same to make such reports and submit such information as the board shall by rule or regulation provide.

(II)  For the purposes of this paragraph (c), the board is authorized to require

reporting of morbidity and mortality in accordance with the provisions of section 25-1-122.

(d)  To regulate the disposal, transportation, interment, and disinterment of

the dead;

(e) (I)  To establish, maintain, and approve chemical, bacteriological, and

biological laboratories, and to conduct such laboratory investigations and examinations as it may deem necessary or proper for the protection of the public health.

(II)  The department shall transmit all fees received by the department in

connection with the laboratories established pursuant to this paragraph (e), with the exception of fees received pursuant to part 10 of article 4 of this title that are credited to the newborn screening and genetic counseling cash funds created in section 25-4-1006 (1), to the state treasurer, who shall deposit them in the laboratory cash fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury. The state treasurer shall credit all interest earned from the revenues in the fund to the fund. At the end of each fiscal year, the unencumbered balance of the fund remains in the fund. The revenues in the fund are subject to annual appropriation by the general assembly to the department to carry out its duties under this paragraph (e).

(f)  To make, approve, and establish standards for diagnostic tests by

chemical, bacteriological, and biological laboratories, and to require such laboratories to conform thereto; and to prepare, distribute, and require the completion of forms or certificates with respect thereto;

(g)  To purchase, and to distribute to licensed physicians and veterinarians,

with or without charge, as the board may determine upon considerations of emergency or need, such vaccines, serums, toxoids, and other approved biological or therapeutic products as may be necessary for the protection of the public health;

(h)  To establish and enforce sanitary standards for the operation and

maintenance of orphanages, day care nurseries, foster homes, family care homes, summer camps for children, lodging houses, outdoor nature-based preschool programs, guest child care facilities and public services short-term child care facilities as defined in section 26.5-5-303, hotels, public conveyances and stations, schools, factories, workshops, industrial and labor camps, recreational resorts and camps, swimming pools, public baths, mobile home parks, and other buildings, centers, and places used for public gatherings;

(i) (I) (A)  To establish sanitary standards and make sanitary, sewerage, and

health inspections and examinations for charitable, penal, and other public institutions.

(B)  As used in this subsection (1)(i), penal institution means any local

detention center, correctional facility, holding facility, secure residential treatment center, prison, camp, or other facility in which persons are or may be lawfully held in custody, including any public or private facility in Colorado that houses or detains noncitizens for purposes of civil immigration proceedings, including any facility that houses or detains minors, on behalf of the federal office of refugee resettlement or the United States immigration and customs enforcement agency.

(C)  With respect to the state institutions under the department of human

services specified in section 27-90-104 or under the department of corrections specified in section 17-1-104.3 (1)(b), such inspections and examinations must be made at least once each year and additional unannounced inspections may be conducted after the annual inspection. Reports on such inspections of institutions under control of the department of human services or the department of corrections must be made to the executive director of the appropriate department for appropriate action, if any.

(D)  With respect to any facility that houses or detains noncitizens for

purposes of civil immigration proceedings, such inspections and examinations must be made annually, and additional unannounced inspections may be conducted after the annual inspection.

(E)  Repealed.


(II)  Notwithstanding the provisions of subparagraph (I) of this paragraph (i),

the standards adopted pursuant to subparagraph (I) of this paragraph (i) with regard to space requirements, furnishing requirements, required special use areas or special management housing, and environmental condition requirements, including but not limited to standards pertaining to light, ventilation, temperature, and noise level, shall not apply to any penal institution operated by or under contract with a county or municipality if the penal institution begins operations on or after August 30, 1999, and if the governing body of the jurisdiction operating the penal institution has adopted standards pertaining to such issues for the penal institution pursuant to section 30-11-104 (1), C.R.S., or section 31-15-711.5, C.R.S., whichever is applicable.

(j) (I)  To:


(A)  Collect, compile, and tabulate public health information from data

sources and data provided to the department, to the extent permissible under applicable federal and state data privacy laws, rules, and regulations and federal contracts, including information concerning race, ethnicity, disability, sexual orientation, and gender identity; except that nothing in this section requires any individual to provide information relating to the individual's race, ethnicity, disability, sexual orientation, or gender identity;

(B)  Establish a process for, and provide technical assistance relating to, the

collection, compilation, and tabulation of public health information described in subsection (1)(j)(I)(A) of this section; and

(C)  Disseminate public health information;


(II)  To provide poison control services, for the fiscal year beginning July 1,

2002, and fiscal years thereafter, on a statewide basis and to provide for the dissemination of information concerning the care and treatment of individuals exposed to poisonous substances pursuant to article 32 of this title;

(k)  To establish and enforce standards for exposure to toxic materials in the

gaseous, liquid, or solid phase that may be deemed necessary for the protection of public health;

(l)  To establish and enforce standards for exposure to environmental

conditions, including radiation, that may be deemed necessary for the protection of the public health;

(m) (I)  To accept and expend on behalf of and in the name of the state, gifts,

donations, and grants for any purpose connected with the work and programs of the department.

(II)  Any such property so given shall be held by the state treasurer, but the

department shall have the power to direct the disposition of any property so given for any purpose consistent with the terms and conditions under which such gift was created.

(n)  To carry out the policies of the state as set forth in part 1 of article 6 of

this title with respect to family planning;

(o)  To carry out the policies of this state relating to the Colorado Health

Care Coverage Act as set forth in parts 1 and 4 of article 16 of title 10, C.R.S.;

(p)  To compile and maintain current information necessary to enable the

department to answer any inquiry concerning the proper action to take to counteract, eliminate, or minimize the public health hazards of a hazardous substance incident involving any specific kind of hazardous substance. To make such information available and to facilitate the reporting of hazardous substance incidents, the department shall establish, maintain, and publicize an environmental emergency telephone service that shall be available to the public twenty-four hours each day. With respect to the powers and duties specified in this paragraph (p), the department shall have no rule-making authority and shall avail itself of all available private resources. As used in this paragraph (p), the terms hazardous substance and hazardous substance incident shall have the meanings ascribed to them in section 29-22-101, C.R.S. The department shall coordinate its activities pursuant to this section with the Colorado state patrol.

(q) (I)  To establish and maintain a statewide cancer registry providing for

compilation and analysis of appropriate information regarding incidence, diagnosis, treatment, and end results and any other data designed to provide more effective cancer control for the citizens of Colorado.

(II)  For the purposes of this paragraph (q), the board is authorized to require

reports relating to cancer in accordance with the provisions of section 25-1-122 and to have access to medical records relating to cancer in accordance with the provisions of section 25-1-122.

(r)  To operate and maintain a program for children with disabilities to provide

and expedite provision of health-care services to children who have congenital birth defects or who are the victims of burns or trauma or children who have acquired disabilities;

(s)  To annually enter into an agreement with a qualified person to perform

necessary hazardous substance incident response actions when such actions are beyond the ability of the local and state response capabilities. Such response actions may include, but are not limited to, containment, clean-up, and disposal of a hazardous substance. Nothing in this article shall prevent the attorney general's office from pursuing cost recovery against responsible persons.

(t)  To operate special health programs for migrant and seasonal farm

workers and their dependent family members and to accept and employ federal and other moneys appropriated to implement such programs;

(u)  To carry out the duties prescribed in article 11.5 of title 16, C.R.S., relating

to substance abuse in the criminal justice system;

(v)  To establish and maintain a statewide gulf war syndrome registry

pursuant to part 19 of article 4 of this title providing for compilation and analysis of information regarding incidence, diagnosis, treatment, and treatment outcomes of veterans or family members of veterans suffering from gulf war syndrome;

(w) (I)  To operate the office of suicide prevention, which is established in the

division of prevention services in the department. The office of suicide prevention serves as the coordinator for crisis and suicide prevention programs throughout the state, including the Colorado suicide prevention plan established in section 25-1.5-112 and the crisis and suicide prevention training grant program established in section 25-1.5-113. For the purposes of this subsection (1)(w), the term comprehensive suicide prevention or suicide prevention includes the following components:

(A)  Strategies or approaches that seek to prevent the onset of suicidal

despair, commonly known as suicide prevention;

(B)  Public health intervention supports, including community training,

workforce development, quality improvement and provision of technical assistance to support the adoption of best suicide attempt behavior intervention and postvention practices and policies; and

(C)  Postvention responses to and support for individuals and communities

affected by the aftermath of a suicide attempt.

(II)  The department is authorized to accept gifts, grants, and donations on

behalf of the office of suicide prevention. The department shall transmit all such gifts, grants, and donations to the state treasurer who shall credit the same to the suicide prevention coordination cash fund, which fund is hereby created. The fund also consists of any money appropriated or transferred to the fund by the general assembly for the purposes of implementing section 25-1.5-112. Any money remaining in the suicide prevention coordination cash fund at the end of any fiscal year must remain in the fund and must not be transferred or credited to the general fund. The general assembly shall make appropriations from the suicide prevention coordination cash fund for expenditures incurred by the department or the office of suicide prevention in the performance of its duties pursuant to this subsection (1)(w) and section 25-1.5-112.

(III) (A)  Notwithstanding section 24-1-136 (11)(a)(I), as part of the duties of the

office of suicide prevention, on or before each November 1, the office of suicide prevention shall submit to the chairs of the senate health and human services committee and the house of representatives health and human services committee, or their successor committees, and to the members of the joint budget committee, a report listing all crisis and suicide prevention programs in the state and describing the effectiveness of the office of suicide prevention in acting as the coordinator for crisis and suicide prevention programs. For the report submitted in 2013 and each year thereafter, the office of suicide prevention shall include any findings and recommendations it has to improve crisis and suicide prevention in the state. For the report submitted in 2024 and each year thereafter, the office of suicide prevention shall include a summary of the report pursuant to section 25-1.5-113.5 (5)(b).

(B)  (Deleted by amendment, L. 2012.)


(IV)  The department and the office of suicide prevention may collaborate

with the school safety resource center and with each facility licensed or certified pursuant to section 25-1.5-103 in order to coordinate services related to crisis and suicide prevention, as that term is defined in this subsection (1)(w), including relevant training and other services as part of the Colorado suicide prevention plan established in section 25-1.5-112. When a facility treats a person who has attempted suicide or exhibits a suicidal gesture, the facility may provide oral and written information or educational materials to the person or, in the case of a minor, to parents, relatives, or other responsible persons to whom the minor will be released, prior to the person's release, regarding warning signs of depression, risk factors of suicide, methods of preventing suicide, available resources for comprehensive suicide prevention, and any other information concerning suicide awareness, and prevention. The facility shall also provide oral and written information or educational materials to the person or, in the case of a minor, to parents, relatives, or other responsible persons to whom the minor will be released, prior to the person's release, concerning the after-effects of a suicide attempt. The department and the office of suicide prevention may work with facilities and the Colorado suicide prevention plan to determine whether and where gaps exist in comprehensive suicide prevention programs and services, including gaps that may be present in:

(A)  The comprehensive suicide prevention information and materials being

used and distributed in facilities throughout the state;

(B)  Comprehensive suicide prevention resources available to persons who

attempt suicide or exhibit a suicidal gesture and, when the person is a minor, to parents, relatives, and other responsible persons to whom a minor is released; and

(C)  The process for referring persons who attempt suicide or exhibit a

suicidal gesture to comprehensive suicide prevention services and programs or other appropriate health-care providers for treatment.

(V)  The department and the office of suicide prevention shall prepare written

information for primary care offices and providers throughout the state. The information must be region-specific concerning how to recognize and respond to a suicidal patient and include separate written information for providers and information that may be shared with patients.

(x)  To implement the state dental loan repayment program created in article

23 of this title;

(y)  To coordinate with the United States secretary of the interior and the

United States secretary of agriculture to develop resource management plans consistent with this article for federal lands pursuant to 16 U.S.C. sec. 530, 16 U.S.C. sec. 1604, and 43 U.S.C. sec. 1712;

(z)  To perform the duties specified in part 6 of article 10 of title 30, C.R.S.,

relating to the Colorado coroners standards and training board;

(aa)  To determine if there is a shortage of drugs critical to the public safety

of the people of Colorado and declare an emergency for the purpose of preventing the practice of unfair drug pricing as prohibited by section 6-1-714, C.R.S.;

(bb)  To include on its public website home page a link to forms containing

advanced directives regarding a person's acceptance or rejection of life-sustaining medical or surgical treatment, which forms are available to be downloaded electronically;

(cc)  To carry out the health survey for birthing parents and reporting

requirements set forth in part 7 of this article 1.5.

(2) (a)  Notwithstanding any provision of this title 25, in contracting with any

grantee for the provision of any service for the purposes of this title 25, the department may dispense up to twenty-five percent of the total value of the payments under the contract to the grantee immediately upon the execution or renewal of the contract.

(b)  As used in this subsection (2), grantee means a person that:


(I)  Is awarded a grant pursuant to a grant program that is managed or

overseen by the department;

(II)  Pursuant to the conditions of the awarded grant, is a party to a contract

with the department;

(III)  Is classified as a nonprofit organization or a charitable organization by

the federal internal revenue service and has submitted written proof of such classification to the department; and

(IV)  Satisfies any criteria established by the department for the purpose of

implementing this subsection (2).

Source: L. 2003: Entire article added with relocations, p. 676, � 2, effective

July 1; (1)(y) added, p. 1035, � 7, effective April 17; (1)(z) added, p. 1830, � 2, effective August 6. L. 2005: (1)(aa) added, p. 372, � 1, effective April 22. L. 2007: (1)(h) amended, p. 866, � 4, effective May 14. L. 2010: (1)(i)(I) amended, (SB 10-175), ch. 188, p. 798, � 58, effective April 29; (1)(bb) added, (HB 10-1050), ch. 80, p. 271, � 2, effective August 11. L. 2011: (1)(e) amended, (SB 11-161), ch. 12, p. 34, � 1, effective March 9. L. 2012: (1)(w)(III) amended and (1)(w)(IV) added, (HB 12-1140), ch. 173, p. 619, � 1, effective May 11. L. 2015: (1)(m)(I) amended, (SB 15-247), ch. 165, p. 505, � 3, effective May 8. L. 2016: (1)(h) amended, (SB 16-189), ch. 210, p. 769, � 58, effective June 6; (1)(w)(I), (1)(w)(II), and IP(1)(w)(IV) amended, (SB 16-147), ch. 364, p. 1521, � 3, effective June 10. L. 2017: (1)(w)(III)(A) amended, (SB 17-056), ch. 33, p. 92, � 1, effective March 16. L. 2018: (1)(w)(I), (1)(w)(II), (1)(w)(III)(A), and IP(1)(w)(IV) amended, (SB 18-272), ch. 333, p. 2005, � 4, effective August 8. L. 2020: (1)(i)(I) amended, (HB 20-1409), ch. 275, p. 1349, � 1, effective July 11. L. 2021: (1)(w)(I) and (1)(w)(IV) amended and (1)(w)(V) added, (HB 21-1119), ch. 49, p. 207, � 4, effective September 7; (2) added, (HB 21-1247), ch. 219, p. 1154, � 1, effective September 7. L. 2022: (1)(j)(I) amended, (HB 22-1157), ch. 321, p. 2271, � 1, effective June 2; (1)(cc) added, (HB 22-1289), ch. 399, p. 2837, � 7, effective June 7; (1)(h) amended, (HB 22-1295), ch. 123, p. 845, � 68, effective July 1. L. 2024: (1)(w)(III)(A) amended, (SB 24-007), ch. 401, p. 2761, � 3, effective June 5; (1)(h) amended, (SB 24-078), ch. 441, p. 3087, � 4, effective August 7.

Editor's note: (1)  This section is similar to former � 25-1-107 (1)(c), (1)(e), (1)(f),

(1)(g), (1)(h), (1)(i), (1)(j), (1)(m), (1)(n), (1)(q), (1)(s), (1)(t), (1)(u), (1)(v), (1)(w), (1)(y), (1)(z), (1)(aa), (1)(bb), (1)(cc), (1)(ff), (1)(hh), (1)(ii), and (1)(kk) as they existed prior to 2003.

(2)  Subsection (1)(i)(I)(E) provided for the repeal of subsection (1)(i)(I)(E),

effective July 1, 2021. (See L. 2020, p. 1349.)

Cross references: For the legislative declaration contained in the 2003 act

enacting (1)(y), see section 1 of chapter 145, Session Laws of Colorado 2003. For the legislative declaration in SB 18-272, see section 1 of chapter 333, Session Laws of Colorado 2018. For the legislative declaration in HB 21-1119, see section 1 of chapter 49, Session Laws of Colorado 2021. For the legislative declaration in HB 22-1289, see section 1 of chapter 399, Session Laws of Colorado 2022. For the legislative declaration in SB 24-007, see section 1 of chapter 401, Session Laws of Colorado 2024. For the legislative declaration in SB 24-078, see section 1 of chapter 441, Session Laws of Colorado 2024.

25-1.5-102.  Epidemic and communicable diseases - powers and duties of

department - rules - definitions. (1) The department has, in addition to all other powers and duties imposed upon it by law, the powers and duties provided in this section as follows:

(a) (I)  To investigate and control the causes of epidemic and communicable

diseases affecting the public health.

(II)  For the purposes of this paragraph (a), the board shall determine, by rule

and regulation, those epidemic and communicable diseases and conditions that are dangerous to the public health. The board is authorized to require reports relating to such designated diseases in accordance with the provisions of section 25-1-122 and to have access to medical records relating to such designated diseases in accordance with the provisions of section 25-1-122.

(III)  For the purposes of this paragraph (a), epidemic diseases means cases

of an illness or condition, communicable or noncommunicable, in excess of normal expectancy, compared to the usual frequency of the illness or condition in the same area, among the specified population, at the same season of the year. A single case of a disease long absent from a population may require immediate investigation.

(IV)  For the purposes of this paragraph (a), communicable diseases means

an illness due to a specific infectious agent or its toxic products that arises through transmission of that agent or its products from an infected person, animal, or reservoir to a susceptible host, either directly or indirectly through an intermediate plant or animal host, vector, or the inanimate environment.

(b) (I)  To investigate and monitor the spread of disease that is considered

part of an emergency epidemic, as defined in section 24-33.5-703 (4), to determine the extent of environmental contamination resulting from the emergency epidemic, and to rapidly provide epidemiological and environmental information to the state board of health.

(II)  Except as otherwise directed by executive order of the governor, the

department shall exercise its powers and duties to control epidemic and communicable diseases and protect the public health as set out in this section.

(III)  The department may accept and expend federal funds, gifts, grants, and

donations for the purposes of an emergency epidemic or preparation for an emergency epidemic.

(IV)  When a public safety worker, emergency medical service provider, peace

officer, or staff member of a detention facility has been exposed to blood or other bodily fluid which there is a reason to believe may be infectious with hepatitis C, the state department and county, district, and municipal public health agencies within their respective jurisdictions shall assist in evaluation and treatment of any involved persons by:

(A)  Accessing information on the incident and any persons involved to

determine whether a potential exposure to hepatitis C occurred;

(B)  Examining and testing such involved persons to determine hepatitis C

infection when the fact of an exposure has been established by the state department or county, district, or municipal public health agency;

(C)  Communicating relevant information and laboratory test results on the

involved persons to such persons' attending physicians or directly to the involved persons if the confidentiality of such information and test results is acknowledged by the recipients and adequately protected, as determined by the state department or county, district, or municipal public health agency; and

(D)  Providing counseling to the involved persons on the potential health risks

resulting from exposure and the available methods of treatment.

(V)  The employer of an exposed person shall ensure that relevant

information and laboratory test results on the involved person are kept confidential. Such information and laboratory results are considered medical information and protected from unauthorized disclosure.

(VI)  For purposes of this paragraph (b), public safety worker includes, but is

not limited to, law enforcement officers, peace officers, and firefighters.

(c)  To establish, maintain, and enforce isolation and quarantine, and, in

pursuance thereof and for this purpose only, to exercise such physical control over property and the persons of the people within this state as the department may find necessary for the protection of the public health;

(d)  To abate nuisances when necessary for the purpose of eliminating

sources of epidemic and communicable diseases affecting the public health.

(e)  Repealed.


(2)  Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, the

department shall administer the provisions of this section regardless of an individual's race, religion, gender, ethnicity, national origin, or immigration status.

Source: L. 2003: Entire article added with relocations, p. 680, � 2, effective

July 1; IP(1)(b)(IV) amended, p. 1617, � 23, effective August 6. L. 2006, 1st Ex. Sess.: (2) added, p. 25, � 2, effective July 31. L. 2010: IP(1)(b)(IV), (1)(b)(IV)(B), and (1)(b)(IV)(C) amended, (HB 10-1422), ch. 419, p. 2091, � 86, effective August 11. L. 2013: (1)(b)(I) amended, (HB 13-1300), ch. 316, p. 1687, � 72, effective August 7. L. 2018: (1)(b)(I) amended, (HB 18-1394), ch. 234, p. 1473, � 20, effective August 8. L. 2022: (1)(e) added, (SB 22-226), ch. 179, p. 1192, � 10, effective May 18. L. 2023: (1)(e) amended, (HB 23-1246), ch. 199, p. 1019, � 7, effective May 16. L. 2024: (1)(e) amended, (HB 24-1465), ch. 257, p. 1684, � 7, effective May 24; (1)(e) amended, (HB 24-1466), ch. 429, p. 2941, � 27, effective June 5. L. 2025: (1)(b)(I) amended, (HB 25-1027), ch. 65, p. 274, � 9, effective April 10; (1)(e) repealed, (SB 25-312), ch. 301, p. 1538, � 19, effective May 30.

Editor's note: (1)  This section is similar to former � 25-1-107 (1)(a), (1)(a.5),

(1)(b), and (1)(d) as they existed prior to 2003.

(2)  Amendments to subsection (1)(b)(IV) by House Bill 03-1266 and Senate

Bill 03-002 were harmonized.

(3)  Amendments to subsection (1)(e) by HB 24-1465 and HB 24-1466 were

harmonized.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in SB 22-226, see section 1

of chapter 179, Session Laws of Colorado 2022. For the legislative declaration in HB 23-1246, see section 1 of chapter 199, Session Laws of Colorado 2023. For the legislative declaration in HB 24-1466, see section 1 of chapter 429, Session Laws of Colorado 2024.

25-1.5-103.  Health facilities - powers and duties of department - rules -

limitations on rules - definitions - repeal. (1) The department has, in addition to all other powers and duties imposed upon it by law, the powers and duties provided in this section as follows:

(a) (I) (A)  To annually license and to establish and enforce standards for the

operation of general hospitals, hospital units as defined in section 25-3-101 (2), freestanding emergency departments as defined in section 25-1.5-114, critical access hospitals as defined in section 25-1.5-114.5, psychiatric hospitals, community clinics, rehabilitation hospitals, convalescent centers, facilities for persons with intellectual and developmental disabilities, nursing care facilities, hospice care, assisted living residences, dialysis treatment clinics, ambulatory surgical centers, birthing centers, home care agencies, and other facilities of a like nature, except those wholly owned and operated by a governmental unit or agency.

(A.5)  Repealed.


(B)  In establishing and enforcing such standards and in addition to the

required announced inspections, the department shall, within available appropriations, make additional inspections without prior notice to the health facility, subject to sub-subparagraph (C) of this subparagraph (I). Such inspections shall be made only during the hours of 7 a.m. to 7 p.m.

(C)  The department shall extend the survey cycle or conduct a tiered

inspection or survey of a health facility licensed for at least three years and against which no enforcement activity has been taken, no patterns of deficient practices exist, as documented in the inspection and survey reports issued by the department, and no substantiated complaint resulting in the discovery of significant deficiencies that may negatively affect the life, health, or safety of consumers of the health facility has been received within the three years prior to the date of the inspection. The department may expand the scope of the inspection or survey to an extended or full survey if the department finds deficient practice during the tiered inspection or survey. The department, by rule, shall establish a schedule for an extended survey cycle or a tiered inspection or survey system designed, at a minimum, to: Reduce the time needed for and costs of licensure inspections for both the department and the licensed health facility; reduce the number, frequency, and duration of on-site inspections; reduce the scope of data and information that health facilities are required to submit or provide to the department in connection with the licensure inspection; reduce the amount and scope of duplicative data, reports, and information required to complete the licensure inspection; and be based on a sample of the facility size. Nothing in this subsection (1)(a)(I)(C) limits the ability of the department to conduct a periodic inspection or survey that is required to meet its obligations as a state survey agency on behalf of the federal centers for medicare and medicaid services or the department of health care policy and financing to assure that the health facility meets the requirements for participation in the medicare and medicaid programs or limits the ability of the department to enter, survey, and investigate hospitals pursuant to section 25-3-128.

(D)  In connection with the renewal of licenses issued pursuant to this

subparagraph (I), the department shall institute a performance incentive system pursuant to section 25-3-105 (1)(a)(I)(C).

(E)  The department shall not cite as a deficiency in a report resulting from a

survey or inspection of a licensed health facility any deficiency from an isolated event identified by the department that can be effectively remedied during the survey or inspection of the health facility, unless the deficiency caused harm or a potential for harm, created a life- or limb-threatening emergency, or was due to abuse or neglect.

(F)  Sections 24-4-104, C.R.S., and 25-3-102 govern the issuance, suspension,

renewal, revocation, annulment, or modification of licenses. All licenses issued by the department must contain the date of issue and cover a twelve-month period. Nothing contained in this paragraph (a) prevents the department from adopting and enforcing, with respect to projects for which federal assistance has been obtained or is requested, higher standards as may be required by applicable federal laws or regulations of federal agencies responsible for the administration of applicable federal laws.

(II)  To establish and enforce standards for the operation and maintenance of

the health facilities named in subparagraph (I) of this paragraph (a), wholly owned and operated by the state or any of its political subdivisions, and no such facility shall be operated or maintained without an annual certificate of compliance;

(b)  To suspend, revoke, or refuse to renew any license issued to a health

facility pursuant to subparagraph (I) or (II) of paragraph (a) of this subsection (1) if such health facility has committed abuse of health insurance pursuant to section 18-13-119, C.R.S., or if such health facility has advertised through newspapers, magazines, circulars, direct mail, directories, radio, television, or otherwise that it will perform any act prohibited by section 18-13-119 (3), C.R.S., unless the health facility is exempted from section 18-13-119 (5), C.R.S.;

(c)  Repealed.


(d) (I)  To ensure that each hospital that provides nonemergent perinatal care

services is complying with the requirements specified in section 25-52-106.5, including participating in at least one maternal or infant health quality improvement initiative and submitting outcome data to the perinatal quality collaborative defined in section 25-52-103 (3).

(II)  This subsection (1)(d) is repealed, effective September 1, 2029.


(2)  As used in this section, unless the context otherwise requires:


(a) and (a.3)  Repealed.


(a.5)  Community clinic has the same meaning as set forth in section 25-3-101 and does not include:


(I)  A federally qualified health center, as defined in the federal Social

Security Act, 42 U.S.C. sec. 1395x (aa)(4);

(II)  A rural health clinic as defined in section 1861 (aa)(2) of the federal

Social Security Act, 42 U.S.C. sec. 1395x (aa)(2); or

(III)  A freestanding emergency department, as defined in and required to be

licensed under section 25-1.5-114.

(b)  Repealed.


(b.5)  Enforcement activity means the imposition of remedies such as civil

money penalties; appointment of a receiver or temporary manager; conditional licensure; suspension or revocation of a license; a directed plan of correction; intermediate restrictions or conditions, including retaining a consultant, department monitoring, or providing additional training to employees, owners, or operators; or any other remedy provided by state or federal law or as authorized by federal survey, certification, and enforcement regulations and agreements for violations of federal or state law.

(c)  Facility for persons with developmental disabilities means a facility

specially designed for the active treatment and habilitation of persons with intellectual and developmental disabilities or a community residential home, as defined in section 25.5-10-202, C.R.S., which is licensed and certified pursuant to section 25.5-10-214, C.R.S.

(d)  Hospice care means an entity that administers services to a terminally

ill person utilizing palliative care or treatment.

(3) (a)  In the exercise of its powers pursuant to this section, the department

shall not promulgate any rule, regulation, or standard relating to nursing personnel for rural nursing care facilities, rural intermediate care facilities, and other rural facilities of a like nature more stringent than the applicable federal standards and regulations.

(b)  For purposes of this subsection (3), rural means:


(I)  A county of less than fifteen thousand population; or


(II)  A municipality of less than fifteen thousand population which is located

ten miles or more from a municipality of over fifteen thousand population; or

(III)  The unincorporated part of a county ten miles or more from a

municipality of fifteen thousand population or more.

(c)  A nursing care facility which is not rural as defined in paragraph (b) of this

subsection (3) shall meet the licensing requirements of the department for nursing care facilities. However, if a registered nurse hired pursuant to department regulations is temporarily unavailable, a nursing care facility may use a licensed practical nurse in place of a registered nurse if such licensed practical nurse is a current employee of the nursing care facility.

(3.5)  Repealed.


(4)  In the exercise of its powers, the department shall not promulgate any

rule, regulation, or standard that limits or interferes with the ability of an individual to enter into a contract with a private pay facility concerning the programs or services provided at the private pay facility. For the purposes of this subsection (4), private pay facility means a skilled nursing facility or intermediate care facility subject to the requirements of section 25-1-120 or an assisted living residence licensed pursuant to section 25-27-105 that is not publicly funded or is not certified to provide services that are reimbursed from state or federal assistance funds.

(5) (a)  This subsection (5) applies to construction, including substantial

renovation, and ongoing compliance with article 33.5 of title 24, C.R.S., of a health-care facility building or structure on or after July 1, 2013. All health facility buildings and structures shall be constructed in conformity with the standards adopted by the director of the division of fire prevention and control in the department of public safety.

(b)  Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this subsection (5) but

notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, the department shall not issue or renew any license under this article unless the department has received a certificate of compliance from the division of fire prevention and control certifying that the building or structure of the health facility is in conformity with the standards adopted by the director of the division of fire prevention and control.

(c)  The department has no authority to establish or enforce standards

relating to building or fire codes. All functions, personnel, and property of the department as of June 30, 2013, that are principally directed to the administration, inspection, and enforcement of any building or fire codes or standards shall be transferred to the health facility construction and inspection section of the division of fire prevention and control pursuant to section 24-33.5-1201 (5), C.R.S.

(d)  Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, all health facilities

seeking certification pursuant to the federal insurance or assistance provided by Title XIX of the federal Social Security Act, as amended and commonly known as medicaid, or the federal insurance or assistance provided by Title XVIII of the federal Social Security Act, as amended and commonly known as medicare, or any successor code adopted or promulgated by the appropriate federal authorities, shall continue to meet such certification requirements.

(e)  Nothing in this subsection (5) divests the department of the authority to

perform health survey work or prevents the department from accessing related funds.

(6) (a)  The department shall collaborate with the department of education,

the department of health care policy and financing, and the department of human services to develop an interagency resource guide pursuant to section 22-2-410 to assist facilities to become licensed or authorized as approved facility schools and to recommend changes related to the interagency resource guide to the department's statute, rule, or administrative procedures.

(b)  The department shall prominently post the interagency resource guide

created pursuant to subsection (6)(a) of this section on the department's website.

Source: L. 2003: Entire article added with relocations, p. 682, � 2, effective

July 1. L. 2006: (1)(a)(I), (1)(c)(I), (2), and (2)(b) amended, pp. 1389, 1404, �� 21, 63, effective August 7. L. 2008: (3.5) added, p. 1947, � 1, effective June 2; (1)(a)(I) amended, p. 2232, � 1, effective August 5. L. 2010: (3.5)(a)(I) amended, (SB 10-175), ch. 188, p. 798, � 59, effective April 29. L. 2011: (2)(a.5) added, (HB 11-1101), ch. 94, p. 277, � 1, effective April 8; (2)(a.5) amended, (HB 11-1323), ch. 265, p. 1198, � 1, effective June 2. L. 2012: (1)(a)(I), (1)(c), and IP(2)(a.5) amended and (2)(b.5) added, (HB 12-1294), ch. 252, p. 1251, � 2, effective June 4; (5) added, (HB 12-1268), ch. 234, p. 1024, � 1, effective July 1, 2013. L. 2013: (5)(a) amended, (HB 13-1300), ch. 316, p. 1687, � 73, effective August 7; (1)(a)(I)(A) and (2)(c) amended, (HB 13-1314), ch. 323, p. 1806, � 37, effective March 1, 2014. L. 2017: (2)(b) amended, (SB 17-242), ch. 263, p. 1323, � 184, effective May 25. L. 2019: (1)(a)(I)(A) and (2)(a.5)(II) amended and (2)(a.5)(III) added, (HB 19-1010), ch. 324, p. 2997, � 2, effective August 2; (3.5) amended, (HB 19-1060), ch. 10, p. 40, � 3, effective August 2; (1)(a)(I)(A) and (1)(c) amended and (2)(a.3) added, (HB 19-1237), ch. 413, p. 3639, � 8, effective July 1, 2021. L. 2020: (2)(a.5)(I) amended, (SB 20-136), ch. 70, p. 287, � 21, effective September 14. L. 2022: (1)(a)(I)(C) amended, (HB 22-1401), ch. 178, p. 1180, � 2, effective May 18; (1)(a)(I)(A.5) added and (3.5) repealed, (HB 22-1278), ch. 222, pp. 1583, 1506, �� 211, 52, effective July 1; IP(2) and (2)(a.3)(I) amended, (HB 22-1295), ch. 123, p. 845, � 69, effective July 1; (1)(a)(I)(A) amended (HB 22-1278), ch. 222, p. 1591, � 226, effective July 1, 2024; (2)(a)(II), (2)(a.3)(II), and (2)(b)(II) added by revision, (HB 22-1278), ch. 222, pp. 1591, 1605, �� 226, 263(1)(b). L. 2023: (6) added, (SB 23-219), ch. 88, p. 333, � 12, effective April 20; (1)(a)(I)(A.5), (2)(a.3)(II), and (2)(b)(II) amended and (1)(c)(III) added, (HB 23-1236), ch. 206, p. 1052, � 7, effective May 16. L. 2024: (1)(d) added, (SB 24-175), ch. 433, p. 3035, � 2, effective June 5; (1)(a)(I)(A) amended, (SB 24-121), ch. 439, p. 3065, � 1, effective August 7.

Editor's note: (1)  This section is similar to former � 25-1-107 (1)(l), (3), and (4)

as they existed prior to 2003.

(2)  Amendments to subsection (2) in sections 21 and 63 of House Bill 06-1277 were harmonized. As a result of the harmonization, subsection (2)(a) in section

63 of House Bill 06-1277 was renumbered as subsection (2)(b).

(3)  Amendments to subsection (1)(a)(I)(A) by HB 19-1010 and HB 19-1237 were

harmonized, effective July 1, 2021.

(4)  Subsection (2)(a.3)(I) was amended in HB 22-1295. Those amendments

were superseded by the repeal of subsection (2.3)(a) in SB 22-1278, effective July 1, 2024.

(5)  Subsection (2)(a)(II) provided for the repeal of subsection (2)(a), effective

July 1, 2024. (See L. 2022, pp. 1591, 1605.)

(6)  Subsections (1)(a)(I)(A.5), (1)(c)(III), (2)(a.3)(II), and (2)(b)(II) provided for the

repeal of subsections (1)(a)(I)(A.5), (1)(c), (2)(a.3), and (2)(b), respectively, effective January 1, 2025. (See L. 2023, p. 1052.)

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in the 2012 act amending

subsections (1)(a)(I) and (1)(c) and the introductory portion to subsection (2)(a.5) and adding subsection (2)(b.5), see section 1 of chapter 252, Session Laws of Colorado 2012. For the legislative declaration in SB 17-242, see section 1 of chapter 263, Session Laws of Colorado 2017. For the legislative declaration in HB 19-1060, see section 1 of chapter 10, Session Laws of Colorado 2019. For the legislative declaration in SB 20-136, see section 1 of chapter 70, Session Laws of Colorado 2020.

25-1.5-104.  Regulation of standards relating to food - powers and duties of

department. (1) The department has, in addition to all other powers and duties imposed upon it by law, the powers and duties provided in this section as follows:

(a)  To impound any vegetables and other edible crops and meat and animal

products intended for and unfit for human consumption, and, upon five days' notice and after affording reasonable opportunity for a hearing to the interested parties, to condemn and destroy the same if deemed necessary for the protection of the public health;

(b) (I)  To promulgate and enforce rules, regulations, and standards for the

grading, labeling, classification, and composition of milk, milk products, and dairy products, including imitation dairy products; to establish minimum general sanitary standards of quality of all milk, milk products, dairy products, and imitation dairy products sold for human consumption in this state; to inspect and supervise, in dairy plants or dairy farms and in other establishments handling any milk, milk products, dairy products, or imitation dairy products, the sanitation of production, processing, and distribution of all milk, milk products, dairy products, and imitation dairy products sold for human consumption in this state and, to this end, to take samples of milk, milk products, dairy products, and imitation dairy products for bacteriological, chemical, and other analyses; and to enforce the standards for milk, milk products, dairy products, and imitation dairy products in processing plants, dairy farms, and other facilities and establishments handling, transporting, or selling such products; to certify persons licensed by the department under the provisions of section 25-5.5-107 as duly qualified persons for the purpose of collecting raw milk samples for official analyses in accordance with minimum qualifications established by the department; to issue, for the fees established by law, licenses and temporary permits to operate milk plants, dairy plants, receiving stations, dairy farms, and other facilities manufacturing any milk, milk products, dairy products, or imitation dairy products for human consumption.

(II)  The phrase minimum general sanitary standards as used in this section

means the minimum standards reasonably consistent with assuring adequate protection of the public health. The word standards as used in this section means standards reasonably designed to promote and protect the public health.

(c)  To promulgate and enforce rules and regulations for the labeling and sale

of oleomargarine and for the governing of milk- or cream-weighing-and-testing operations;

(d)  To approve all oils used in reading tests of samples of cream and milk;


(e)  To examine and license persons to sample or test milk, cream, or other

dairy products for the purpose of determining the value of such products or to instruct other persons in the sampling and testing of such products and to cancel licenses issued by the department on account of incompetency or any violation of the provisions of the dairy laws or the rules and regulations promulgated by the board;

(f)  To license manufacturers of oleomargarine;


(g)  To establish and enforce sanitary standards for the operation of

slaughtering, packing, canning, and rendering establishments and stores, shops, and vehicles wherein meat and animal products intended for human consumption may be offered for sale or transported, but this shall not be construed to authorize any state officer or employee to interfere with regulations or inspections made by anyone acting under the laws of the United States.

Source: L. 2003: Entire article added w

C.R.S. § 25-17-302

25-17-302. Definitions. As used in this part 3, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1)  Commission means the solid and hazardous waste commission created

in section 25-15-302.

(2)  Consumer means a person who has purchased an electronic device

primarily for personal or home business use.

(3) (a)  Electronic device means a device that is marketed by a

manufacturer for use by a consumer and that is:

(I)  A computer, peripheral, printer, facsimile machine, digital video disc

player, video cassette recorder, or other electronic device specified by rule promulgated by the commission; or

(II)  A video display device or computer monitor, including a laptop, notebook,

ultrabook, or netbook computer, television, tablet or slate computer, electronic book, or other electronic device specified by rule promulgated by the commission that contains a cathode ray tube or flat panel screen with a screen size that is greater than four inches, measured diagonally.

(b)  Electronic device does not include:


(I)  A device that is part of a motor vehicle or any component part of a motor

vehicle, including replacement parts for use in a motor vehicle;

(II)  A device, including a touch-screen display, that is functionally or

physically part of or connected to a system or equipment designed and intended for use in any of the following settings, including diagnostic, monitoring, or control equipment:

(A)  Industrial;


(B)  Commercial, including retail;


(C)  Library checkout;


(D)  Traffic control;


(E)  Security, sensing, monitoring, or counterterrorism;


(F)  Border control;


(G)  Medical; or


(H)  Governmental or research and development;


(III)  A device that is contained within any of the following:


(A)  A clothes washer or dryer;


(B)  A refrigerator, freezer, or refrigerator and freezer;


(C)  A microwave oven or conventional oven or range;


(D)  A dishwasher;


(E)  A room air conditioner, dehumidifier, or air purifier; or


(F)  Exercise equipment;


(IV)  A device capable of using commercial mobile radio service, as defined in

47 CFR 20.3, that does not contain a video display area greater than four inches, measured diagonally; or

(V)  A telephone.


(4)  Landfill means a solid wastes disposal site and facility, as that term is

defined in section 30-20-101 (8), C.R.S.

(5)  Peripheral means a keyboard, mouse, or other device that is sold

exclusively for external use with a computer and provides input or output into or from a computer.

(6)  Processing for reuse means a method, technique, or process by which

electronic devices that would otherwise be disposed of or discarded are instead separated, processed, and returned to their original intended purposes or to other useful purposes as electronic devices.

(7)  Recycle or recycling means processing, including disassembling,

dismantling, shredding, and smelting, an electronic device or its components to recycle a useable component, commodity, or product, including processing for reuse. Recycling, with respect to electronic devices, does not include any process defined as incineration under applicable laws or rules.

(8)  State agency means any department, commission, council, board,

bureau, committee, institution of higher education, agency, or other governmental unit of the executive, legislative, or judicial branch of state government.

(9) (a)  Video display device means:


(I)  An electronic device with an output surface that displays or is capable of

displaying moving graphical images or visual representations of image sequences or pictures that show a number of quickly changing images on a screen to create the illusion of motion; or

(II)  An electronic device with a viewable screen of four inches or larger,

measured diagonally, that contains a tuner that locks on to a selected carrier frequency or cable signal and is capable of receiving and displaying television or video programming via broadcast, cable, or satellite.

(b)  Video display device includes a device that is an integral part of the

display and cannot easily be removed from the display by the consumer and that produces the moving image on the screen. A video display device may use a cathode ray tube, liquid crystal display, gas plasma, digital light processing, or other image-projection technology.

(c)  Video display device does not include a device that is part of a motor

vehicle or any component part of a motor vehicle assembled by, or for, a vehicle manufacturer or franchised dealer, including replacement parts for use in a motor vehicle.

Source: L. 2012: Entire part added, (SB 12-133), ch. 127, p. 434, � 1, effective

August 8.


C.R.S. § 25-27-104

25-27-104. Minimum standards for assisted living residences - rules - definition. (1) On or before November 1, 2002, the state board shall promulgate rules pursuant to section 24-4-103, C.R.S., providing minimum standards for the location, sanitation, fire safety, adequacy of facilities, adequacy of diet and nutrition, equipment, structure, operation, provision of personal services and protective oversight, and personnel practices of assisted living residences within the state of Colorado. Such rules shall differentiate between homes of different sizes. In formulating such rules, the state board shall seek recommendations from the advisory committee established pursuant to section 25-27-110.

(2)  State board rules promulgated pursuant to subsection (1) of this section

must include, at a minimum, rules requiring the following:

(a)  Compliance with all applicable zoning, housing, fire, sanitary, and other

codes and ordinances of the city, city and county, or county where the residence is situated, to the extent that such codes and ordinances are consistent with the federal Fair Housing Amendments Act of 1988, as amended, 42 U.S.C. sec. 3601 et seq.;

(b)  Annual inspection of assisted living residences by the department or its

designated representative;

(c)  That the premises to be used are in fit, safe, and sanitary condition and

properly equipped to provide good care to the residents;

(d)  That the Colorado long-term care ombudsman, designated by the

department of human services, have access to the premises and residents during reasonable hours for the purposes set out in the federal Older Americans Act of 1965;

(e)  Protection of the individual rights of residents either through a written

board and care plan or by means of contracts executed with the residents, which board and care plan or contract shall meet the requirements stated in section 25-27-104.5;

(f)  Responsibility of the assisted living residences for social supervision,

personal services, and coordination with community resources as needed by the residents;

(g)  That the administrator and staff of a residence:


(I) (A)  Meet minimum educational, training, and experience standards

established by the state board.

(B)  On and after January 1, 2024, the state board's minimum standards for

administrators must require, at a minimum, that each administrator, regardless of the administrator's hire date, have at least one year experience supervising the delivery of personal care services that includes activities of daily living or has attained the education or experience established by the state board in lieu of that supervisory experience.

(II)  Are of good, moral, and responsible character. In making the

determination, the owner or licensee of a residence shall have access to and shall obtain any criminal history record information from a criminal justice agency, subject to any restrictions imposed by the agency for any person responsible for the care and welfare of residents of the residence and shall obtain a check of the Colorado adult protective services data system pursuant to section 26-3.1-111 for any person who is an employee of the residence, as defined in section 26-3.1-111 (2), who will provide direct care to residents.

(h)  Intermediate enforcement remedies as authorized by section 25-27-106

(2);

(i)  Written plans, to be submitted by residences to the department for

approval, detailing the measures that will be taken to correct violations found as a result of inspections;

(j)  The definition for high medicaid utilization facility as a basis for a modified

fee schedule. A high medicaid utilization residence shall be a residence in which no less than thirty-five percent of the available beds are occupied by medicaid enrollees as indicated by the most complete claims data available.

(k)  A modified fee schedule for residences that serve a disproportionate

share of low-income residents. The board may adopt a standard for determining residences that serve a disproportionate share of low-income residents. Such standard may require a residence to submit documentation determined appropriate by the department for verification.

(l)  That the assisted living residence comply with the provisions of section

25-27-104.3 concerning the involuntary discharge of residents; and

(m)  That the state board establish, not later than January 1, 2024, a range of

fines for violations, which amounts may vary based on the size of the assisted living residence and the potential for harm to one or more persons, and shall permit the department to consider factors set forth in section 25-27-106 (4) in determining the amount of the fine. Prior to the board's adoption of rules concerning the range of fines for violations, the department shall make recommendations to the board, including a proposed schedule of fines that vary the range of fines by the severity and frequency of the violations and that may include a different range of fines based on the size of the residence. The department shall first present the recommendations to and seek feedback from the advisory committee established in section 25-27-110.

(3) (a)  Rules adopted by the state board pursuant to subsection (1) of this

section must exempt an assisted living residence from complying with the facility guideline institute (FGI) guidelines, except in the case of new construction or major renovations. An assisted living residence must still comply with all other fire and local building codes and the standards outlined in this section.

(b)  As used in subsection (3)(a) of this section, major renovations means

additions to a building's structure or changes that affect the structural integrity of the building. Major renovations do not include changing the functional operation of a space if no construction is completed and the floor plan of the building remains the same. It also does not include adding beds to accommodate more residents or upgrades to the heating or cooling systems and electrical systems if those improvements do not require construction.

Source: L. 84: Entire article added, p. 791, � 1, effective July 1. L. 85: Entire

section R&RE, p. 925, � 4, effective July 1. L. 90: (2)(a) amended and (2)(g) added, p. 1355, � 3, effective July 1. L. 94: (2)(d) amended, p. 2703, � 259, effective July 1. L. 2002: (1), IP(2), (2)(a), (2)(b), (2)(f), and (2)(g) amended and (2)(h) to (2)(k) added, p. 1318, � 4, effective July 1. L. 2003: (2)(k) amended, p. 1998, � 47, effective May 22. L. 2006: (2)(e) amended, p. 254, � 2, effective January 1, 2007. L. 2022: IP(2) and (2)(g) amended and (2)(l) and (2)(m) added, (SB 22-154), ch. 323, p. 2287, � 2, effective June 2. L. 2025: (3) added, (HB 25-1213), ch. 276, p. 1434, � 2, effective August 6.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration contained in the 1994 act

amending subsection (2)(d), see section 1 of chapter 345, Session Laws of Colorado 1994.


C.R.S. § 25-4-101

25-4-101. Premises sanitation - food defined. Every building, room, basement, enclosure, or premises occupied, used, or maintained as a bakery, confectionery, cannery, packing house, slaughterhouse, creamery, cheese factory, restaurant, hotel, grocery, meat market factory, shop, or warehouse, or any public place or manufacturing place used for the preparation, manufacture, packing, storage, sale, or distribution of any food, as defined in this section, which is intended for sale shall be properly and adequately lighted, drained, plumbed, and ventilated and shall be conducted with strict regard to the influence of such conditions upon the health of operatives, employees, clerks, or other persons therein employed and the purity and wholesomeness of the food therein produced, prepared, manufactured, packed, stored, sold, or distributed. For the purposes of this part 1, food includes all articles used for food, drink, confectionery, or condiment, whether simple, mixed, or compound, and all substances or ingredients used in the preparation thereof.

Source: L. 13: p. 510, � 1. C.L. � 1015. CSA: C. 69, � 21. CRS 53: � 66-13-1.

C.R.S. 1963: � 66-13-1.

Cross references: For safety inspections, see articles 1 and 4 of title 9; for

the Custom Processing of Meat Animals Act, see article 33 of title 35.


C.R.S. § 25-4-105

25-4-105. Toilet rooms and lavatories. Every such building, room, basement, enclosure, or premises occupied, used, or maintained for the production, preparation, manufacture, canning, packing, storage, sale, or distribution of such food shall have adequate and convenient toilet rooms or lavatories. The toilet rooms shall be separate and apart from the rooms where the process of production, preparation, manufacture, packing, storing, canning, selling, and distributing is conducted. The floors of such toilet rooms shall be of cement, tile, wood, brick, or other nonabsorbent material and shall be washed and scoured daily. Such toilets shall be furnished with separate ventilating flues and pipes discharging into soil pipes or shall be on the outside of and well removed from the building. Lavatories and washrooms shall be maintained in a sanitary condition.

Source: L. 13: p. 511, � 5. C.L. � 1019. CSA: C. 69, � 25. CRS 53: � 66-13-5.

C.R.S. 1963: � 66-13-5.


C.R.S. § 25-4-1302

25-4-1302. Definitions. As used in this part 13, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1)  Bulk foods means unpackaged or unwrapped foods, either processed or

unprocessed, in aggregate containers from which quantities desired by the consumer are withdrawn. Bulk foods does not include fresh fruits, fresh vegetables, nuts in the shell, salad bars, bulk pet foods, potentially hazardous foods, and bulk nonfood items.

(2)  Department means the department of public health and environment.


(3)  Display area means a location, including physical facilities and

equipment, where bulk foods are offered for customer self-service.

(4)  Potentially hazardous foods includes any food that consists in whole or

in part of milk or milk products, eggs, meat, poultry, fish, shellfish, edible crustacea, or other food products or ingredients, including synthetic ingredients, in a form capable of supporting rapid and progressive growth of infectious or toxigenic microorganisms. This term does not include refrigerated, clean, whole, uncracked, odor-free shell eggs.

(5)  Product module means a food-contact container (multiuse or single-service) designed for customer self-service of bulk foods by either direct or indirect

means.

(6)  Servicing area means a designated location equipped for cleaning,

sanitizing, drying, or refilling product modules or for preparing bulk foods.

Source: L. 85: Entire part added, p. 883, � 1, effective July 1. L. 89: (4)

amended, p. 1154, � 1, effective April 21. L. 94: (2) amended, p. 2770, � 460, effective July 1.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration contained in the 1994 act

amending subsection (2), see section 1 of chapter 345, Session Laws of Colorado 1994.


C.R.S. § 25-4-1602

25-4-1602. Definitions. As used in this part 16, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1)  Automated food merchandising enterprise means the collective activity

of the supplying or preparing of food or drink for automated food merchandising machines.

(1.5)  Caterer means a retail food establishment that:


(a)  Only provides food or beverages prepared in bulk at one location for

service in individual portions or buffets that are not available for individual purchase at another location; or

(b)  Provides food or beverage preparation or service on public or private

premises not under the ownership or control of the caterer.

(2)  Certificate of license means a grant to operate a retail food

establishment without a fee, under the conditions set forth in section 25-4-1607 (9).

(2.5)  County or district public health agency means a county or district

health department or a county or municipal board of health.

(2.7) [Editor's note: Subsection (2.7) is effective January 1, 2026.] Denver

retail food license has the meaning set forth in section 29-11.6-102 (1).

(3)  Department means the department of public health and environment

and its authorized employees.

(4)  Food means any raw, cooked, or processed edible substance, ice,

beverage, or ingredient used or intended for use or for sale in whole or in part for human consumption.

(5)  Fund means the food protection cash fund created in section 25-4-1608.


(5.5)  Grocery store means a retail food establishment that only offers

prepackaged, commercially prepared food and beverages, including those that are required to be refrigerated or frozen and are time or temperature controlled for safety for retail sale to consumers, for off-premises consumption.

(5.7)  Grocery store with deli means a retail food establishment that:


(a)  Offers prepackaged, commercially prepared food for off-premises

consumption; and

(b)  Prepares or serves food in individual portions for immediate on-premises

or off-premises consumption.

(6)  HACCP plan means a written document setting forth the formal

procedures for following hazard analysis critical control point principles.

(6.5) (a)  Imminent health hazard means a significant threat or danger to

health that is considered to exist when there is evidence sufficient to show that a product, practice, circumstance, or event creates a situation that requires immediate correction or cessation of operation to prevent injury or illness based on the number of potential injuries or illnesses and the nature, severity, and duration of the anticipated injury or illness.

(b)  Imminent health hazard includes an emergency such as a fire, flood,

extended interruption of electrical or water service, sewage backup, misuse of poisonous or toxic materials, onset of an apparent food-borne illness outbreak, grossly unsanitary occurrence or condition, or other circumstance that may endanger public health.

(7)  Inspection means an inspection of a retail food establishment

conducted by the department or a county or district board of health to ensure compliance by such establishment with rules promulgated by the department pursuant to this part 16.

(8)  License means a grant to a licensee to operate a retail food

establishment.

(9)  Licensee means a person that is licensed or who holds a certificate of

license pursuant to this part 16 and is responsible for the lawful operation of a retail food establishment.

(9.5)  Limited food service establishment means a retail food establishment

that offers limited service, including:

(a)  Preparing or serving food that does not require time or temperature

control for safety;

(b)  Providing self-service beverages;


(c)  Offering prepackaged, commercially prepared food and beverages that

require time or temperature control for safety; or

(d)  Reheating commercially prepared foods that require time or temperature

control for safety.

(10)  (Deleted by amendment, L. 2009, (SB 09-223), ch. 255, p. 1151, � 2,

effective May 15, 2009.)

(10.5) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (10.5) is effective until

January 1, 2026.] Mobile food establishment means a retail food establishment that:

(a)  Is operated from a movable, motor-driven or propelled vehicle, portable

structure, or watercraft;

(b)  Can change location; and


(c)  Is intended to physically report to and operate from a commissary for

servicing, restocking, and maintenance.

(10.5) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (10.5) is effective January 1,

2026.] Mobile food establishment has the meaning set forth in section 29-11.6-102 (6).

(11)  Modified atmosphere packaging means the reduction of the amount of

oxygen in a package by mechanically evacuating the oxygen, displacing the oxygen with another gas or combination of gases, or otherwise controlling the oxygen content to a level below that normally found in the surrounding atmosphere, which is twenty-one percent oxygen.

(12)  Nonpotentially hazardous means any food or beverage that, when

stored under normal conditions without refrigeration, will not support the rapid and progressive growth of microorganisms that cause food infections or food intoxications.

(13)  Person means a natural person, partnership, association, company,

corporation, or organization or a manager, agent, servant, officer, or employee of any of such entities.

(13.5)  Restaurant means a retail food establishment that prepares and

serves food in individual portions or buffets for immediate on-premises or off-premises consumption.

(14)  Retail food establishment means a retail operation that stores,

prepares, or packages food for human consumption or serves or otherwise provides food for human consumption to consumers directly or indirectly through a delivery service, whether such food is consumed on or off the premises or whether there is a charge for such food. Retail food establishment does not mean:

(a)  Any private home;


(b)  Private boarding houses;


(c)  Hospital and health facility patient feeding operations licensed by the

department;

(d)  Child care centers and other child care facilities licensed by the

department of human services;

(e)  Hunting camps and other outdoor recreation locations where food is

prepared in the field rather than at a fixed base of operation;

(f)  Food or beverage wholesale manufacturing, processing, or packaging

plants, or portions thereof, that are subject to regulatory controls under state or federal laws or regulations;

(g)  Motor vehicles used only for the transport of food;


(h)  Establishments preparing and serving only hot coffee, hot tea, instant hot

beverages, and nonpotentially hazardous doughnuts or pastries obtained from sources complying with all laws related to food and food labeling;

(i)  Establishments that handle only nonpotentially hazardous prepackaged

food and operations serving only commercially prepared, prepackaged foods requiring no preparation other than the heating of food within its original container or package;

(j)  Farmers' markets and roadside markets that offer only uncut fresh fruit

and vegetables for sale;

(k)  Automated food merchandising enterprises that supply only

prepackaged nonpotentially hazardous food or drink or food or drink in bottles, cans, or cartons only, and operations that dispense only chewing gum or salted nuts in their natural protective covering;

(l)  The donation, preparation, sale, or service of food by a nonprofit or

charitable organization in conjunction with an event or celebration if such donation, preparation, sale, or service of food:

(I)  Does not exceed the duration of the event or celebration or a maximum of

fifty-two days within a calendar year; and

(II)  Takes place in the county in which such nonprofit or charitable

organization resides or is principally located;

(m)  A home, commercial, private, or public kitchen in which a person

produces food products sold directly to consumers pursuant to the Colorado Cottage Foods Act, section 25-4-1614.

(15)  Safe food means food that does not contain any poisonous,

deleterious, or disease-causing substance or microorganisms that may render such food injurious to human health.

(16)  Special event means an organized event or celebration at which retail

food establishments prepare, serve, or otherwise provide food for human consumption.

(17)  Uniform statewide administration, implementation, interpretation, and

enforcement means the application of the rules adopted by the state board of health and the policy guidance of the department by state and county or district public health agencies responsible for implementation of the rules and policies. The uniform application shall not preclude county or district public health agencies from implementing administrative efficiencies or practices if the practices do not conflict with the state board of health rules or department policies.

Source: L. 98: Entire part R&RE, p. 1245, � 1, effective July 1. L. 2009: (2.5)

and (17) added and (7) and (10) amended, (SB 09-223), ch. 255, p. 1151, � 2, effective May 15. L. 2010: (2.5) amended, (HB 10-1422), ch. 419, p. 2101, � 110, effective August 11. L. 2012: (14)(m) added, (SB 12-048), ch. 16, p. 41, � 4, effective March 15; (6.5) added, (HB 12-1097), ch. 78, p. 259, � 1, effective April 6. L. 2019: (6.5) amended, (HB 19-1014), ch. 11, p. 42, � 1, effective January 1, 2020. L. 2025: (1.5), (5.5), (5.7), (9.5), (10.5), and (13.5) added, (SB 25-285), ch. 296, p. 1510, � 1, effective August 6; (2.7) and (10.5) added, (HB 25-1295), ch. 214, p. 973, � 2, effective January 1, 2026.

Editor's note: (1)  This section is similar to former � 25-4-1602 as it existed

prior to 1998.

(2)  Subsection (10.5) was amended in SB 25-285. Those amendments are

superseded by the amendment of subsection (10.5) in HB 25-1295, effective January 1, 2026.

(3)  Section 5(2) of chapter 214 (HB 25-1295), Session Laws of Colorado

2025, provides that the act changing this section applies to the operation of mobile food establishments on or after January 1, 2026.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in the 2012 act adding

subsection (14)(m), see section 1 of chapter 16, Session Laws of Colorado 2012.


C.R.S. § 25-4-1607

25-4-1607. Fees - rules - legislative declaration - repeal. (1) Beginning January 1, 2019, and ending December 31, 2025, each retail food establishment in this state shall be assessed an annual license fee as follows:

(a)  A retail food establishment preparing or serving food in individual

portions for immediate on- or off-premises consumption shall be assessed an annual fee based on the following schedule:

Seating Capacity        Fee


0 to 100            $ 385


101 to 200             430


Over 200               465


(a.5)  A retail food establishment limited to preparing or serving food that

does not require time or temperature control for safety, providing self-service beverages, offering prepackaged commercially prepared food and beverages requiring time or temperature control, or only reheating commercially prepared foods that require time or temperature control for safety for retail sale to consumers shall be assessed an annual fee of two hundred seventy dollars.

(b)  A retail food establishment only offering prepackaged commercially

prepared food and beverages, including those that are required to be held at refrigerated or frozen time or temperature control for safety for retail sale to consumers for off-premises consumption, shall be assessed an annual fee based on the following schedule:

Square Footage      Fee


Less than 15,001        $ 195


Over 15,000        353


(c)  A retail food establishment offering food for retail sale to consumers for

off-premises consumption and preparing or serving food in individual portions for immediate consumption either on- or off-premises shall be assessed an annual fee based on the following schedule:

Square Footage      Fee


Less than 15,001        $ 375


Over 15,000        715


(c.5)  A retail food establishment offering food at a temporary living quarter

for workers associated with oil and gas shall be assessed an annual fee of eight hundred fifty-five dollars.

(d)  A retail food establishment is subject to only one of the fees established

in this subsection (1); except that, effective September 1, 2016, the license fees established for retail food establishments at a special event, as defined in section 25-4-1602 (16), must be established by the county or district public health agency.

(d.5)  The fees established in this subsection (1) are effective September 1,

2018, for any new retail food establishment that was not licensed and in operation prior to that date.

(e) (I)  Retail food establishment license fees shall be established pursuant to

this subsection (1); except that:

(A)  The city and county of Denver may establish such fees by ordinance; and


(B)  A county or district board of health may establish fees that are lower

than the fees listed in this subsection (1) if the county or district board of health is in compliance with this part 16;

(II)  Notwithstanding subparagraph (I) of this paragraph (e), the fees

established in this subsection (1) or by ordinance of the city and county of Denver shall be the only annual license fees charged by the state or any county, district, local, or regional inspection authority and shall cover all inspections of a retail food establishment pursuant to this subsection (1) throughout an annual license period.

(f)  This subsection (1) is repealed, effective January 1, 2026.


(1.1) (a)  For calendar years 2026, 2027, and 2028 and for each subsequent

calendar year thereafter, each retail food establishment in this state must be assessed an annual license fee as follows:

(I)  A restaurant or caterer shall be assessed the applicable annual fee on or

after the dates listed in the following schedule:

Seating Capacity    1/1/2026    1/1/2027    1/1/2028


0 to 100            $ 481       $ 567       $ 682


101 to 200          $ 538       $ 634       $ 763


Over 200            $ 581       $ 687       $ 826


(II)  A limited food service establishment shall be assessed the applicable

annual fee on or after the dates listed in the following schedule:

                1/1/2026    1/1/2027    1/1/2028


                $ 338       $ 394       $ 475


(III)  A grocery store shall be assessed the applicable annual fee on or after

the dates listed in the following schedule:

Square Footage      1/1/2026    1/1/2027    1/1/2028


Less than 15,001        $ 244       $ 282       $ 340


Over 15,000         $ 441       $ 519       $ 624


(IV)  A grocery store with deli shall be assessed the applicable annual fee on

or after the dates listed in the following schedule:

Square Footage      1/1/2026    1/1/2027    1/1/2028


Less than 15,001        $ 469       $ 552       $ 664


Over 15,000         $ 894       $ 1,062 $ 1,276


(V)  A retail food establishment offering food at a temporary living quarter for

workers associated with oil and gas operations shall be assessed the applicable annual fee on or after the dates listed in the following schedule:

                1/1/2026    1/1/2027    1/1/2028


                $ 1,063 $ 1,264 $ 1,519


(VI)  A mobile food establishment shall be assessed the applicable annual fee

on or after the dates listed in the following schedule:

Mobile Type     1/1/2026    1/1/2027    1/1/2028


Full Service        $ 481       $ 567       $ 682


Prepackaged Food    $ 338       $ 394       $ 475


(VII)  The fee amounts listed for calendar year 2028 in this subsection (1.1)(a)

apply to calendar year 2029 and to each subsequent calendar year thereafter until a new fee schedule is established.

(b) (I)  A retail food establishment is subject to only one of the fees set forth

in subsection (1.1)(a) of this section.

(II)  A county or district public health agency shall establish the license fees

for a retail food establishment at a special event.

(c) (I)  The 2026 fee amounts set forth in subsection (1.1)(a) of this section

apply to, and shall be assessed for, a retail food establishment that commences operations or is newly licensed on or after September 1, 2025.

(II)  This subsection (1.1)(c) is repealed, effective January 1, 2026.


(d) (I)  Retail food establishment license fees shall be imposed pursuant to

this subsection (1.1); except that:

(A)  The city and county of Denver may establish fees by ordinance; and


(B)  A county or district board of health may establish fees that are lower

than the fees listed in subsection (1.1)(a) of this section if the county or district board of health is in compliance with this part 16.

(II)  Except as provided in subsection (1.1)(d)(I) of this section, the fees set

forth in subsection (1.1)(a) of this section or by ordinance of the city and county of Denver must:

(A)  Be the only annual license fees charged by the state or by a county,

district, local, or regional inspection authority; and

(B)  Cover all inspections required for a retail food establishment throughout

an annual license period.

(1.5)  Repealed.


(2)  At the time a plan is submitted for review, an application fee of one

hundred fifty-five dollars shall be paid to the department or a county or district board of health. The fee for plan review and preopening inspection of a new or remodeled retail food establishment must be the actual cost of such review and must not exceed nine hundred dollars. Such costs must be payable at the time the plan is approved and an inspection is completed to determine compliance.

(3)  At the time an equipment review is submitted, an application fee of one

hundred fifty-five dollars shall be paid to the department. The fee for equipment review by the department to determine compliance with applicable standards must be the actual cost of such review and must not exceed seven hundred seventy-five dollars. Such costs must be payable when the review is completed.

(4)  The fee for an HACCP plan review must not exceed six hundred twenty

dollars. Costs shall be paid at the time the plan is approved and an inspection is completed.

(5)  The fee for services requested by a person seeking department or county

or district board of health review of a potential retail food establishment site must be one hundred twenty dollars or the actual cost of such review, whichever is greater. One hundred twenty dollars of such fee shall be billed at the time the review is requested, and the remainder must be payable when services are completed.

(6)  The fee for food protection services provided to special events shall not

exceed the actual cost of such services and shall be paid by the organizer of such special event when services are completed.

(7)  The fee for any requested service not specifically set forth in this section

shall not exceed the actual cost of such service.

(8)  The actual cost of a service shall be established by the department or a

county or district board of health, whichever provided the service.

(9) (a)  A certificate of license may be issued to and in the name and address

of any:

(I)  Public or nonpublic school for students in kindergarten through twelfth

grade or any portion thereof;

(II)  Penal institution;


(III)  Nonprofit organization that provides food solely to people who are food

insecure, including, but not limited to, a soup kitchen, food pantry, or home delivery service; and

(IV)  Local government entity or nonprofit organization that donates,

prepares, or sells food at a special event, including, but not limited to, a school sporting event, firefighters' picnic, or church supper, that takes place in the county in which the local government entity or nonprofit organization resides or is principally located.

(b)  No institution or organization listed in paragraph (a) of this subsection (9)

shall pay any fee imposed on a retail food establishment pursuant to this section.

(10) (a)  County or district boards of health created in part 5 of article 1 of this

title 25 shall collect fees under this section if the county or district boards of health are authorized by the department to enforce this part 16 and any rules promulgated pursuant to this part 16.

(b)  Repealed.


(11)  (Deleted by amendment, L. 2009, (SB 09-223), ch. 255, p. 1155, � 7,

effective May 15, 2009.)

(12)  Notwithstanding the amount specified for any fee in this section, the

state board of health by rule or as otherwise provided by law may reduce the amount of one or more of the fees if necessary pursuant to section 24-75-402 (3), C.R.S., to reduce the uncommitted reserves of the fund to which all or any portion of one or more of the fees is credited. After the uncommitted reserves of the fund are sufficiently reduced, the state board of health by rule or as otherwise provided by law may increase the amount of one or more of the fees as provided in section 24-75-402 (4), C.R.S.

(13) Legislative declaration - disposition of fee revenue. (a)  The general

assembly does not intend for the fees paid by retail food establishments as outlined in subsections (1) and (1.1) of this section to subsidize inspection or other costs associated with entities exempt from fees under subsection (9)(a) of this section.

(b)  Counties may only spend the increased revenue from the increase of

retail food establishment fees on retail food health-related activities.

(14)  Repealed.


Source: L. 98: (12) added, p. 1334, � 46, effective June 1; entire part R&RE, p.

1250, � 1, effective July 1. L. 2003: (1)(a), (1)(b), and (1)(c) amended, p. 2050, � 1, effective July 1. L. 2009: (1)(a), (1)(b), (1)(c), (1)(e)(II), (2) to (5), (8), (10), and (11) amended and (1)(c.5) added, (SB 09-223), ch. 255, p. 1155, � 7, effective May 15. L. 2016: (1) and (9)(a) amended and (1.5), (13), and (14) added, (HB 16-1401), ch. 367, p. 1543, � 2, effective August 10; IP(1), IP(1.5)(a), (1.5)(a)(VI), IP(1.5)(b), and (1.5)(b)(VI) amended, (SB 16-189), ch. 210, p. 798, � 125, effective August 10. L. 2017: IP(1.5)(b) amended, (SB 17-294), ch. 264, p. 1408, � 86, effective May 25; IP(1), (1)(e)(I), (1.5)(d), and (13)(b) amended, (SB 17-244), ch. 344, p. 1815, � 1, effective August 9. L. 2020, 1st Ex. Sess.: (10) amended, (SB 20B-001), ch. 2, p. 15, � 6, effective December 7. L. 2025: IP(1), (1)(e)(I)(B), (2), (3), (4), (5), and (13) amended, (1)(f) and (1.1) added, and (1.5) and (14) repealed, (SB 25-285), ch. 296, p. 1511, � 2, effective August 6.

Editor's note: (1)  This section is similar to former � 25-4-1607 as it existed

prior to 1998.

(2)  Subsection (12) was enacted as subsection (3) in SB 98-194 and was

renumbered in the 1998 Colorado Revised Statutes for ease of location in the section as repealed and reenacted by SB 98-189.

(3)  Subsection (14), as enacted by HB 16-1401, provides that the fee

increases in subsections (1) and (1.5), as amended in and enacted by HB 16-1401, do not take effect until certain conditions are met and that the executive director of the department of public health and environment shall notify the revisor of statutes in writing when those conditions have been satisfied. The revisor of statutes received the notice specified in subsection (14)(c) on January 29, 2019.

(4)  Subsection (1.5)(b)(VI) provided for the repeal of subsection (1.5)(b)(VI),

effective January 1, 2017. (See L. 2016, p. 1543.)

(5)  Subsection (10)(b)(II) provided for the repeal of subsection (10)(b),

effective December 31, 2022. (See L. 2020, 1st Ex. Sess., p. 15.)

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in SB 20B-001, see section 1

of chapter 2, Session Laws of Colorado 2020, First Extraordinary Session.


C.R.S. § 25-4-1614

25-4-1614. Home kitchens - exemption - food inspection - short title - definitions - rules. (1) This section shall be known and may be cited as the Colorado Cottage Foods Act. The purposes of this section are to allow for the sale and consumption of homemade foods and to encourage the expansion of agricultural sales by farmers' markets, farms, and home-based producers and accessibility of these resources to informed end consumers by:

(a)  Facilitating the purchase and consumption of fresh and local agricultural

products;

(b)  Enhancing the agricultural economy; and


(c)  Providing Colorado citizens with unimpeded access to healthy food from

known sources.

(2) (a)  A producer may use his or her home kitchen or a commercial, private,

or public kitchen to produce foods for sale only if the producer sells the foods directly to informed end consumers.

(b) (I)  A producer is permitted under this section to sell only a limited range

of foods that have been produced, processed, or packaged that are nonpotentially hazardous and do not require refrigeration. These foods include pickled fruits and vegetables, spices, teas, dehydrated produce, nuts, seeds, honey, jams, jellies, preserves, fruit butter, flour, and baked goods, including candies, fruit empanadas, and tortillas, and other nonpotentially hazardous foods.

(II)  A person may sell whole eggs under this section; except that a person

may not sell more than two hundred fifty dozen whole eggs per month under this section. A person selling whole eggs must meet the requirements of section 35-21-105, C.R.S.

(c)  A producer must take a food safety course that includes basic food

handling training and is comparable to, or is a course given by, the Colorado state university extension service or a state, county, or district public health agency, and must maintain a status of good standing in accordance with the course requirements, including attending any additional classes if necessary.

(d)  The foods produced under this section must:


(I)  Be delivered directly from a producer to an informed end consumer;


(II)  Be sold only in Colorado; and


(III)  Not involve interstate commerce.


(e)  This section applies only to producers who earn net revenues of ten

thousand dollars or less per calendar year from the sale of each eligible food product produced in the producer's home kitchen or a commercial, private, or public kitchen.

(3) (a)  A food product sold under this section must have an affixed label that

includes at least:

(I)  Identification of the product;


(II)  The producer's name, the address at which the food was prepared, and

the producer's current telephone number or electronic mail address;

(III)  The date on which the food was produced;


(IV)  A complete list of ingredients; and


(V)  The following disclaimer: This product was produced in a home kitchen

that is not subject to state licensure or inspection and that may also process common food allergens such as tree nuts, peanuts, eggs, soy, wheat, milk, fish, and crustacean shellfish. This product is not intended for resale.

(b)  A food product sold under this section and not labeled in accordance with

paragraph (a) of this subsection (3) is misbranded and is subject to food sampling and inspection pursuant to subsection (4) of this section.

(c)  A producer operating under this section shall conspicuously display a

placard, sign, or card at the point of sale with the following disclaimer: This product was produced in a home kitchen that is not subject to state licensure or inspection. This product is not intended for resale.

(4)  A food product produced pursuant to this section is subject to food

sampling and inspection by the department or a county, district, or regional health agency pursuant to section 25-5-406 if it is determined that the food product is misbranded pursuant to subsection (3) of this section or if a consumer complaint has been received or if the product is suspected in an injury or food-borne illness outbreak.

(5)  A person who purchases a product made by a producer shall not resell

the product.

(6)  A person who sells foods pursuant to this act is encouraged to maintain

home bakery liability insurance or other adequate liability insurance.

(7)  Sections 25-4-1604 to 25-4-1613 do not apply to this section.


(8)  The department or a county, district, or regional health agency may

create a voluntary electronic registry of producers if it determines that a registry would be of value to producers and consumers.

(9)  As used in this section:


(a)  Home means a primary residence occupied by the producer producing

the food under this section.

(a.5)  Homemade means food that is prepared in a private home kitchen, or

a commercial, private, or public kitchen, when the kitchen is not licensed, inspected, or regulated.

(a.7)  Informed end consumer means a person who is the last person to

purchase any product, who does not resell the product, and who has been informed that the product is not licensed, regulated, or inspected.

(b)  Nonpotentially hazardous has the meaning set forth in section 25-4-1602 (12).


(c)  Producer means a person who prepares nonpotentially hazardous foods

in a home kitchen or similar venue for sale directly to consumers pursuant to this section and includes that person's designated representative. A producer may only be:

(I)  An individual who is a resident of Colorado; or


(II)  A limited liability company formed in Colorado, consisting of two or fewer

members, and of which all members are residents of Colorado.

(10)  Repealed.


Source: L. 2012: Entire section added, (SB 12-048), ch. 16, p. 42, � 5, effective

March 15. L. 2013: (2)(b), (2)(c), and (3)(a)(II) amended, (HB 13-1158), ch. 100, p. 319, � 3, effective April 4. L. 2015: (2)(b)(I) and (9)(b) amended and (3)(c) and (10) added, (HB 15-1102), ch. 313, p. 1277, � 1, effective August 5; (2)(e) and (9)(c) amended, (SB 15-085), ch. 150, p. 452, � 1, effective August 5. L. 2016: (1), (2), and IP(9)(c) amended, (9)(a.5) and (9)(a.7) added, and (10) repealed, (SB 16-058), ch. 158, p. 498, � 1, effective May 4.


C.R.S. § 25-5-1603

25-5-1603. Enforcement - deceptive trade practice. A retailer that, in the course of the retailer's business, violates section 25-5-1602 commits a deceptive trade practice under the Colorado Consumer Protection Act, article 1 of title 6.

Source: L. 2025: Entire part added, (HB 25-1161), ch. 438, p. 2525, � 1,

effective August 6.

ARTICLE 5.5

Dairy Products, Imitation Dairy Products,

and Frozen Desserts

Editor's note: Prior to the enactment of this article in 1985, substantive

provisions concerning dairy products and imitation dairy products were found in article 24 of title 35 and substantive provisions concerning frozen desserts were found in article 34 of title 35.

PART 1

DAIRY PRODUCTS

25-5.5-101.  Definitions. As used in this part 1, unless the context otherwise

requires:

(1)  Cheese means the fresh or matured product obtained by the draining,

after coagulation, of milk, cream, skimmed or partly skimmed milk, or a combination of some or all of these products, including any cheese that conforms to the provisions of the definitions and standards of identity for cheese and cheese products, a regulation of the food and drug administration, 21 CFR 133.3.

(2)  Cream means the liquid milk product which is high in fat and separated

from milk and which may have been adjusted by adding milk, concentrated milk, dry whole milk, or nonfat dry milk and which contains not less than eighteen percent milk fat.

(3)  Dairy farm means the place or premises on which one or more lactating

hooved animals are kept and from which a part or all of the milk produced thereon is delivered, sold, or offered for sale to a dairy plant for manufacturing purposes.

(4) (a)  Dairy plant means any place, premises, or establishment where milk

or dairy products are received or handled for processing or manufacturing and where they are prepared for distribution.

(b)  For the purposes of this subsection (4), dairy plant, when used in

connection with the requirements therefor or the licensing thereof, means any establishment that manufactures dairy products; except that any dairy plant that is located in an establishment licensed pursuant to part 16 of article 4 of this title is exempt from the licensing requirements of this article if such establishment sells or serves dairy products exclusively and directly to the final consumer of the product.

(5)  Dairy products means food products manufactured from milk or cream

or from any combination of milk and cream with other food ingredients intended for human consumption, including, but not limited to, butter, natural or processed cheese, dry whole milk, nonfat dry milk, dry buttermilk, dry whey, evaporated whole milk or skim milk, condensed whole milk, condensed skim milk, or ice cream or other frozen desserts specified in part 3 of this article. Dairy products does not include milk or milk products as defined in the grade A pasteurized milk ordinance, 1978 recommendations of the United States public health service, food and drug administration, superintendent of documents number HE 20.4002:M59-3.

(6)  Department means the department of public health and environment or

its authorized representative.

(7)  Goat milk means the lacteal secretion, practically free from colostrum,

which is obtained by the complete milking of healthy goats.

(8)  HTST method means the high temperature short-time method of

pasteurization.

(9)  Manufacturing milk means milk produced for processing and

manufacturing into dairy products for human consumption but not subject to grade A or comparable requirements.

(10)  Milk means the lacteal secretion, practically free from colostrum,

which is obtained by the complete milking of healthy cows, excluding that milk obtained less than eight days before and less than four days after calving or for such longer period as may be necessary to render the milk practically colostrum free, and which contains not less than eight and one-quarter percent nonfat milk solids and not less than three percent milk fat; except that, in those instances where the normal secretion of the cows is less than three percent milk fat, this product shall be accepted as milk for manufacturing purposes.

(11)  Milk sampler means a person licensed by the department who is

qualified and trained to sample or test milk or cream for the purpose of payment and includes a bulk milk hauler that collects milk from dairy farms.

(12)  Official methods means official methods of analysis of the association

of official analytical chemists, 13th edition, 1980, a publication of the association of official analytical chemists, as amended, supplemented, or republished.

(13)  Pasteurization means the process of heating every particle of milk or

milk product in properly designed and operated equipment to one of the temperatures provided in the following table and held continuously at or above that temperature for at least the corresponding specified time.

Temperature                 Time


*145 degrees F ( 63 degrees C)          30 minutes


*161 degrees F ( 72 degrees C)          15 seconds


  191 degrees F ( 89 degrees C)         1 second


  194 degrees F ( 90 degrees C)         0.5 second


  201 degrees F ( 94 degrees C)         0.1 second


  204 degrees F ( 96 degrees C)         0.05 second


  212 degrees F (100 degrees C)         0.01 second


*If the fat content of the milk product is ten percent or more or if it contains

added sweeteners, the specified temperature shall be increased by five degrees Fahrenheit (three degrees Celsius).

(14)  Pasteurized means treated pursuant to the pasteurization process

specified in subsection (13) of this section.

(15)  Person means any individual, firm, association, corporation, or

partnership doing business in this state, in whole or in part, and any officer, agent, servant, and employee thereof.

(16)  Producer means the person who exercises control over the production

of the milk delivered to a processing plant or receiving station and who receives payment for this product.

(17)  To sanitize means to treat a clean surface with any effective method or

substance acceptable to the department for the destruction of pathogens and other organisms as far as is practical without adversely affecting the equipment, the milk or milk product, or the health of consumers.

(18)  Standard methods means the standard methods for the examination of

dairy products, 13th edition, 1972, a publication of the American public health association, as amended, supplemented, or republished.

(19)  Test means the process of determining the milkfat content of milk and

milk products for the purpose of buying or selling milk or milk products. All tests shall be conducted and samples shall be collected in accordance with the standard methods specified in subsection (18) of this section or any other method approved by the department.

(20)  Transfer or receiving station means any place, premises, or

establishment where milk or milk products are transferred directly from one milk tank truck to another or where raw milk is received, collected, handled, stored, or cooled and prepared for further transporting. The term transfer or receiving station shall not include a dairy farm.

Source: L. 85: Entire article added, p. 887, � 1, effective April 5. L. 90: (4)(b)

amended, p. 1319, � 1, effective July 1. L. 94: (6) amended, p. 2779, � 490, effective July 1. L. 2009: (3) and (4)(b) amended and (20) added, (HB 09-1320), ch. 350, p. 1830, � 1, effective June 30.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration contained in the 1994 act

amending subsection (6), see section 1 of chapter 345, Session Laws of Colorado 1994.

25-5.5-102.  Butter defined - standards. (1) (a)  Butter is a food product

which is made exclusively from milk, from cream, or from both milk and cream, with or without common salt and with or without additional coloring matter, and which contains not less than eighty percent by weight of milk fat, with all tolerances having been allowed for.

(b)  Cream for butter-making shall be pasteurized at a temperature of not

less than one hundred sixty-five degrees Fahrenheit and held continuously in a vat at such temperature for not less than thirty minutes or pasteurized by the HTST method at a minimum temperature of not less than one hundred eighty-five degrees Fahrenheit for not less than fifteen seconds or pasteurized by any other equivalent temperature and holding time which will assure adequate pasteurization.

(c)  Whipped butter is butter that has been stirred or whipped to incorporate

air or inert gas until its volume has been increased up to a range of fifty percent to one hundred percent.

(2)  The standards for butter are as follows: The proteolytic count of not more

than one hundred per gram, the yeast and mold count of not more than twenty per gram, and the coliform count of not more than ten per gram.

Source: L. 85: Entire article added, p. 889, � 1, effective April 5. L. 2002: (1)(c)

amended, p. 18, � 2, effective August 7.

25-5.5-103.  Powers and duties. (1)  The department shall cause to be

enforced the provisions of this part 1 and all other state laws and regulations regarding the production, manufacture, and sale of dairy products. The department shall inspect or cause to be inspected any milk, butter, or cheese or any other dairy product which it suspects or has reason to believe is unsanitary, adulterated, or counterfeit and shall inspect or cause to be inspected any cow, building, dairy farm, dairy plant, vehicle, or premises used for the production, manufacture, sale, or transportation of any dairy product when it suspects or has reason to believe that such product is unsanitary, adulterated, or counterfeit. Unsanitary or adulterated dairy products shall be subject to condemnation by the department and, when condemned, must be so treated that it cannot be manufactured or renovated for human food.

(2)  For the purpose of enforcing this part 1, the department shall have free

access to any barn or stable where any cow is kept or milked or to any factory, building, dairy farm, dairy plant, premises, or place in which it has reason to believe that any dairy product or counterfeit dairy product is manufactured, handled, prepared, sold, or offered for sale and may enforce such measures as may be necessary to secure perfect cleanliness in and around the same, and of any utensil used therein, and to prevent the sale of any unsanitary, adulterated, or counterfeit dairy product.

(3)  For the purpose of enforcing this part 1, the department may open any

package or receptacle of any kind which contains, or which is supposed to contain, any dairy product or counterfeit dairy product and examine or analyze the contents thereof. Any such article or sample thereof may be seized or taken for the purpose of having it analyzed; but, if the person from whom it is taken so requests at the time of taking, the officer shall then, and in the presence of that person, securely seal two samples of such article, one of which shall be for analysis under the direction of the department and the other for delivery to the person from whom the sample or article was obtained.

Source: L. 85: Entire article added, p. 890, � 1, effective April 5.


25-5.5-104.  Unsanitary dairy products. (1)  The following types of dairy

products are declared to be unsanitary: Milk drawn within eight days before or four days after calving; milk drawn from cows that are kept in barns or stables which are not reasonably well-lighted and well-ventilated or that are kept in barns or stables that are filthy from an accumulation of animal feces and excreta or from any other cause; milk which is drawn from cows which are themselves filthy or in an unhealthy condition; milk kept or transported in dirty, rusty, or open seamed cans, tanks, or other containers; cream produced from any such milk, or milk, cream, butter, or any other dairy product that is stale or putrid, or milk, cream, butter, or any other dairy product which has been exposed to foul or noxious air or gases in barns occupied by animals or drawn or kept exposed in dirty, foul, or unclean places or under unclean conditions or where transmissible human disease exists; cream containing less than sixteen percent butterfat; cream produced by the use of a cream separator, which separator has not been thoroughly washed, cleansed, and sanitized after previous use in the separation of cream from milk; cream produced by the use of a separator placed or stationed in any unclean or filthy room or place or in any building containing a stable wherein cattle or other animals are kept, unless said cream separator is so separated and shielded by partition from the stable portion of such building as to be free from all foul or noxious air or gases which issue or may issue from such place or stable; cream which when delivered at the point of shipment is more than three days old during the months of May to October inclusive or more than four days old during the months of November to April inclusive; milk or cream to which has been added, in any quantity, any foreign substance or coloring matter, chemical or preservative, or butter or butterfat, whether for the purpose of increasing the quantity of milk or for preserving the condition of sweetness thereof or for any purpose whatever.

(2)  Nothing in this part 1 shall be construed to prohibit the sale of

homogenized cream made from butter and milk, if such product is labeled or stamped as imitation cream according to the requirements of the department, or the sale of standardized milk which otherwise meets with the requirements of this part 1.

(3)  No person shall sell or offer for sale, or furnish or deliver or have in his

possession or under his control with intent to sell or offer for sale, or furnish or deliver to any other person as food for man or to any creamery, cheese factory, milk-condensing factory, or milk or cream dealer any unsanitary milk, cream, or butter or any adulterated dairy product.

(4)  No person shall manufacture for sale any article of food for man from any

unsanitary milk or from any unsanitary cream.

Source: L. 85: Entire article added, p. 890, � 1, effective April 5.


25-5.5-105.  Unsanitary utensils, equipment, and premises - prohibited. It is

unlawful for any person using such premises, equipment, or utensils, or causing them to be used, to maintain them in an unsanitary condition.

Source: L. 85: Entire article added, p. 891, � 1, effective April 5.


25-5.5-106.  Containers of dairy products - prompt delivery - removal of

products. Any person who receives in cans, tanks, or other containers any milk, cream, or other dairy products intended as food for man which has been transported by any private or common carrier, when such cans, tanks, or containers are to be returned, shall cause the said cans, tanks, or other containers to be thoroughly washed, cleansed, and sanitized before return shipment. It is unlawful for any common or private carrier to neglect or fail to remove or ship from any transportation facility, on the day of its arrival there for shipment, any milk, cream, or other dairy products left at such facility for transportation unless a refrigerated facility is provided for holding such products. It is unlawful for any person, firm, or corporation using cans, tanks, or other containers in which milk or cream is shipped to allow the same to remain at a transportation facility longer than one day from the date of their arrival unless such product is maintained in a refrigerated facility at a temperature not exceeding forty-five degrees Fahrenheit.

Source: L. 85: Entire article added, p. 891, � 1, effective April 5.


25-5.5-107.  Testing and sampling of dairy products - unlawful acts -

licensing - dairy protection cash fund - created. (1) It is unlawful for any person engaged in buying, selling, testing, or handling, or engaged in determining the value of, milk, cream, or any other dairy product by the use of an approved test to give, by himself or his agent, any false reading of the test, or to manipulate the test in any way so as to give a higher or lower percent of butterfat than the milk, cream, or other dairy product actually contains, or to cause any inaccuracy in reading the percent of butterfat by securing from any quantity of the milk, cream, or other dairy product to be tested an inaccurate sample for the test. It is unlawful for any person to use any test tube, bottle, pipette, or instrument in connection with such test which is not perfectly clean; and any such unclean glassware is declared to be inaccurate.

(2)  It is unlawful for any person to sample or test milk, cream, or any other

dairy product to determine the value of such product when bought and sold or to instruct another person for such purpose without first having a license granted by the department, which license shall be conspicuously displayed in the person's place of business. Licenses shall be granted to those persons who have completed a course in milk and cream testing at any recognized college or dairy school or to those persons who have passed a satisfactory examination under the direction of the department. The license shall be subject to cancellation by the department at any time if it finds that the person holding the license is incompetent or guilty of violating this part 1.

(3)  Every person engaged in receiving, buying, selling, or otherwise handling

milk or cream for sale, shipment, manufacture, or distribution, except public transportation companies, is required to hold a license to be known as a dairy plant license for the operation of each receiving station, skimming station, concentrating station, milk plant condensary, creamery, cheese factory, ice-cream factory, or other dairy plant being so operated.

(4) (a) (I)  A temporary permit to operate the following dairy plants may be

issued by the department upon application and upon the payment of a yearly license fee in the amount specified in subparagraph (II) of this paragraph (a) for each condensary, cheese factory, ice-cream factory, or other place of business where dairy products are manufactured or put in containers for sale or distribution.

(II)  Except for a transfer or receiving station, which shall be charged the fee

set forth in subsection (4)(a)(II)(A) of this section, the fee for a license issued under this subsection (4) shall be determined and paid according to the annual average daily amount of milk received for manufacturing by the dairy plant, as follows:

Annual average daily Fee

amount of milk received

(A)  Under 1,000 pounds             $    390


(B)  1,000 to 19,999 pounds         $    780


(C)  20,000 to 449,999 pounds           $1,300


(D)  450,000 or more pounds         $2,080


(III)  Subject to the limitation in subsection (4)(a)(IV) of this section and in

addition to the fee required in subsection (4)(a)(II) of this section, a dairy plant that receives more than twenty thousand pounds of milk per day shall pay one cent for each one hundred pounds or fraction thereof of milk received.

(IV)  If the total amount of fees required in subsections (4)(a)(II) and (4)(a)(III)

of this section would require a dairy plant to pay more than one hundred fifty thousand dollars in a year, the department shall reduce the volume of production fee in subsection (4)(a)(III) of this section until the total amount the dairy plant is required to pay under subsections (4)(a)(II) and (4)(a)(III) of this section is one hundred fifty thousand dollars.

(b)  A temporary permit is valid until an inspection has been made by an agent

of the department; whereupon, if the applicant has complied with the requirements of the dairy laws, the department shall issue a license for a period of one year from the July 1 next preceding the actual date of issue.

(5)  The department has the power to issue necessary regulations for the

government of licensed dairy plants and licensed milk samplers covering such points as disposal of sewage, location with regard to living rooms and other possible sources of contamination, and other points not specifically mentioned in the dairy laws.

(6)  These regulations shall have the force and effect of law, and the

department has the power to cancel a license for a period not exceeding ninety days when it finds that the holder thereof has violated the law or regulations. Suit may be brought against the state to establish the reasonableness of a regulation, and, if the decision affirms the reasonableness of the regulation, it shall be enforced.

(7)  All moneys collected by the department for the license fees provided for

in this section shall be transmitted to the state treasurer, who shall credit the same to the dairy protection cash fund, referred to in this subsection (7) as the fund,which is hereby created in the state treasury. The general assembly shall annually appropriate the moneys in the fund to the department for the payment of expenses necessary to administer this section. Any unexpended and unencumbered moneys remaining in the fund at the end of any fiscal year shall not revert to the general fund or any other fund.

Source: L. 85: Entire article added, p. 892, � 1, effective April 5. L. 2009: (2),

(4)(a), and (7) amended, (HB 09-1320), ch. 350, p. 1831, � 2, effective June 30. L. 2023: (2) and (4)(a)(II) amended and (4)(a)(III) and (4)(a)(IV) added, (SB 23-240), ch. 109, p. 391, � 1, effective July 1.

25-5.5-108.  Condensed milk and cream. (1)  No person shall manufacture

for sale within this state or offer or expose for sale or have in his possession with intent to sell or exchange any sweetened condensed milk, unless the same contains not less than twenty-eight percent by weight of milk solids and not less than seven and five-tenths percent butterfat, or any unsweetened condensed milk, unless the same contains not less than seven and five-tenths percent butterfat. Nothing in this part 1 shall be construed to prohibit the handling, manufacture, or sale of bulk condensed or evaporated skim milk when properly tagged and labeled in accordance with rulings of the department.

(2)  No person shall manufacture for sale within this state or offer or expose

for sale, have in his possession with intent to sell, or sell or exchange for evaporated or condensed cream any substance except the product obtained by the evaporation of a portion of water from cream containing not less than eighteen percent by weight of butterfat. Nothing in this part 1 shall apply to goods manufactured within this state for sale and shipment outside of the state.

Source: L. 85: Entire article added, p. 893, � 1, effective April 5.


25-5.5-109.  Brands and marks - defacement. (1)  Any person engaged in the

transportation or manufacture of any dairy product or ice cream or in bottling milk and cream for sale and use may adopt a brand or mark of ownership to be stamped or marked on any can, bottle, or other receptacle used in the handling and transportation of any of said products and may file in the office of the secretary of state a description of the brand or mark so used by them and the use to be made of any such can, bottle, or other receptacle. The brand or mark so selected and adopted may consist of a name, design, or mark or some particular color of paint or enamel used upon the can, bottle, or other receptacle or any part thereof.

(2)  It is unlawful for any person to adopt or use any brand or mark which has

already been designed, appropriated, or obtained under the provisions of this section. It is unlawful for any person, other than the rightful owner thereof, to use any can, bottle, or other receptacle marked or branded for any purpose or for the transportation or handling of any other article or dairy product than the one designed or provided for by such brand or mark. It is unlawful for any person, other than the rightful owner thereof, to deface or remove any such brand or mark put upon any such can, bottle, or other receptacle.

(3)  To prevent the use of said cans, bottles, or other receptacles for any

purpose other than those provided for in this part 1 and to ensure the wholesomeness and high quality of the dairy products and the sanitary conditions of the receptacles in which the same are transported, it is the duty of the department to enforce the provisions of this section.

Source: L. 85: Entire article added, p. 893, � 1, effective April 5.


25-5.5-110.  Milk, cream, and cheese - standards. (1)  Whole milk sold or

offered for retail sale shall contain not less than three and one-fourth percent butterfat. Cream for the same use shall contain not less than eighteen percent butterfat.

(2)  Full cream cheese shall contain not less than fifty percent butterfat in

comparison with the total solids. Cheese containing less than the said amount of fat shall be branded skim cheese or part skim cheese, as the case may be.

Source: L. 85: Entire article added, p. 893, � 1, effective April 5.


25-5.5-111.  Treated milk to be labeled. It is unlawful for any milk or cream

to be sold or offered for sale which has been homogenized, viscolized, emulsified, or treated in any manner which will give it the appearance of containing more butterfat than it actually contains, unless it is so labeled as such.

Source: L. 85: Entire article added, p. 894, � 1, effective April 5.


25-5.5-112.  Weight ticket to be furnished. An itemized daily weight ticket

covering every shipment of milk or cream shall be furnished with each settlement to the producer or his agent.

Source: L. 85: Entire article added, p. 894, � 1, effective April 5.


25-5.5-113.  Sample taken upon arrival. At any plant where a bacterial test

is used as a basis of price-fixing, the sample for such test shall be taken at the dairy farm or immediately upon arrival of the milk at the receiving plant.

Source: L. 85: Entire article added, p. 894, � 1, effective April 5.


25-5.5-114.  Interference with officer - penalty. Any person who refuses to

allow the inspections provided for in this part 1 or in any way hinders or obstructs the proper officers from performing their duties under this part 1 commits a petty offense.

Source: L. 85: Entire article added, p. 894, � 1, effective April 5. L. 2021:

Entire section amended, (SB 21-271), ch. 462, p. 3237, � 461, effective March 1, 2022.

Cross references: For the penalty for a petty offense, see � 18-1.3-503.


25-5.5-115.  Analyses prima facie evidence. Reports of analyses and tests

signed by the department shall be accepted in all courts and places as prima facie evidence of the properties, constituency, or condition of the article analyzed.

Source: L. 85: Entire article added, p. 894, � 1, effective April 5.


25-5.5-116.  Penalty. Any person or any agent or servant thereof who

violates any of the provisions of this part 1, if the punishment for the violation is not elsewhere prescribed in this part 1, commits a petty offense.

Source: L. 85: Entire article added, p. 894, � 1, effective April 5. L. 2021:

Entire section amended, (SB 21-271), ch. 462, p. 3237, � 462, effective March 1, 2022.

Cross references: For the penalty for a petty offense, see � 18-1.3-503.


25-5.5-117.  Raw milk. (1)  The acquisition of raw milk from cows or goats by

a consumer for use or consumption by the consumer shall not constitute the sale of raw milk and shall not be prohibited if all of the following conditions are met:

(a)  The owner of a cow, goat, cow shares, or goat shares shall receive raw

milk directly from the farm or dairy where the cow, goat, or dairy herd is located and the farm or dairy is registered pursuant to subsection (2) of this section. A person who is the owner of a cow share or goat share in a cow, goat, or dairy herd may receive raw milk on behalf of another owner of the same cow, goat, or dairy herd. A person who is not an owner of a cow share or goat share in the same cow, goat, or dairy herd shall not receive raw milk on behalf of the owner of a cow share or goat share.

(b)  The milk is obtained pursuant to a cow share or a goat share. A cow share

or a goat share is an undivided interest in a cow, goat, or herd of cows or goats, created by a written contractual relationship between a consumer and a farmer that includes a legal bill of sale to the consumer for an interest in the cow, goat, or dairy herd and a boarding contract under which the consumer boards the cow, goat, or dairy herd in which the consumer has an interest with the farmer for care and milking, and under which the consumer is entitled to receive a share of milk from the cow, goat, or dairy herd.

(c)  A prominent warning statement that the milk is not pasteurized is

delivered to the consumer with the milk or is displayed on a label affixed to the milk container; and

(d)  Information describing the standards used by the farm or dairy with

respect to herd health, and in the production of milk from the herd, is provided to the consumer by the farmer together with results of tests performed on the cows or goats that produced the milk, tests performed on the milk, and an explanation of the tests and test results.

(2)  Registration of a farm or dairy as required by paragraph (a) of subsection

(1) of this section shall be accomplished by delivering to the Colorado department of public health and environment a written statement containing:

(a)  The name of the farmer, farm, or dairy;


(b)  A valid, current address of the farmer, farm, or dairy; and


(c)  A statement that raw milk is being produced at the farm or dairy.


(3)  Retail sales of raw, unpasteurized milk shall not be allowed. Resale of

raw milk obtained from a cow share or goat share is strictly prohibited. Raw milk that is not intended for pasteurization shall not be sold to, or offered for sale at, farmers' markets, educational institutions, health-care facilities, nursing homes, governmental organizations, or any food establishment.

(4)  No person who, as a consumer, obtains raw milk in accordance with this

section shall be entitled to sell or redistribute the milk.

(5)  No producer of raw milk shall publish any statement that implies

approval or endorsement by the Colorado department of public health and environment.

Source: L. 2005: Entire section added, p. 365, � 1, effective April 22.

PART 2

IMITATION DAIRY PRODUCTS

25-5.5-201.  Short title. This part 2 shall be known and may be cited as the

Colorado Imitation Dairy Products Act.

Source: L. 85: Entire article added, p. 894, � 1, effective April 5.


25-5.5-202.  Purpose. (1)  The purpose of this part 2 is to prevent fraud in

sales and to protect the public health by informing the public of the ingredients making up imitation dairy products.

(2)  Even though imitation dairy products are manufactured and sold on the

basis of reduced costs to the consumer and certain nutritional advantages of some or all of the ingredients, they should be sampled and inspected on the same basis as the product imitated for sanitary quality and composition.

Source: L. 85: Entire article added, p. 894, � 1, effective April 5.


25-5.5-203.  Definitions. As used in this part 2, unless the context otherwise

requires:

(1)  Department means the department of public health and environment or

its authorized representative.

(2) (a)  Imitation dairy product means any milk, cream, skimmed milk, or any

combination thereof, whether or not condensed, evaporated, concentrated, frozen, powdered, dried, or desiccated, or any food product made or manufactured therefrom to which is added, or which is blended or compounded with, any fat or oil other than milk fat so that the resulting product is in imitation or semblance of any dairy product, including but not limited to milk, cream, sour cream, butter cream, skimmed milk, ice cream, whipped or whipping cream, flavored milk or skim milk drink, dried or powdered milk, cheese, cream cheese, cottage cheese, creamed cottage cheese, ice-cream mix, sherbet or other frozen desserts, condensed milk, evaporated milk, or concentrated milk. Imitation dairy product also means any food product that does not contain milk or dairy products but which is made in imitation or semblance of any milk or dairy product defined in part 1 of this article and, on the basis of its appearance, flavor, and texture, closely resembles such product.

(b)  Imitation dairy product does not mean or include:


(I)  Any distinctive proprietary food compound not readily mistaken for a dairy

product, if such product is customarily used on the order or prescription of a physician, is prepared or designed for medicinal or special dietary use, and is prominently so labeled;

(II)  Any dairy product which is flavored with chocolate or cocoa, or the

vitamin content of which has been increased, or which is both so flavored and which contains such increased vitamin content, if the fats or oils other than milk fat contained in such product do not exceed the amount of cacao fat naturally present in the chocolate or cocoa used and the food oil, in no event in excess of one-hundredth of one percent of the weight of the finished product, is used as a carrier of such vitamins; or

(III)  Oleomargarine.


(3)  Person includes an individual, firm, partnership, association, trust,

estate, and corporation, any other business unit, device, arrangement, or organization, and any officer, agent, servant, and employee thereof.

Source: L. 85: Entire article added, p. 895, � 1, effective April 5. L. 94: (1)

amended, p. 2780, � 491, effective July 1.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration contained in the 1994 act

amending subsection (1), see section 1 of chapter 345, Session Laws of Colorado 1994.

25-5.5-204.  Imitation dairy products - labeling. (1)  It is unlawful for a

person to manufacture, sell, or exchange, to offer for sale or exchange, or to transport or possess any imitation dairy product unless the imitation dairy product is properly labeled, branded, or otherwise marked for identification. The department is authorized to evaluate and rule upon compliance with this requirement.

(2)  Ingredients shall be listed by the common or usual name in the order of

descending predominance. The declaration shall be presented on any appropriate information panel in adequate type size without obscuring design or vignettes and without crowding. The entire ingredient statement shall appear on a single panel of the label.

Source: L. 85: Entire article added, p. 895, � 1, effective April 5.


25-5.5-205.  Enforcement and power - rules. (1)  The department is

authorized to administer and supervise the enforcement of this part 2. To this end, the department shall:

(a)  Provide for and have complete power to make such periodic inspections

and investigations as may be deemed necessary to disclose violations of this part 2;

(b)  Receive and provide for the investigation of complaints of violations of

this part 2;

(c)  To carry out the terms and provisions of this part 2, have the power to

promulgate rules and regulations for the enforcement of this part 2, not inconsistent with or violative of the terms and provisions thereof, and to publish the same.

Source: L. 85: Entire article added, p. 896, � 1, effective April 5.


Cross references: For rule-making procedures, see article 4 of title 24.


25-5.5-206.  Enforcement by injunction. The provisions of this part 2 may be

enforced by injunction in any court having jurisdiction to grant injunctive relief at the suit and upon the petition of the department or any other person, and it shall not be requisite in such action for an injunction that the plaintiff plead, prove, or show pecuniary loss, damage, or injury or personal damage or injury.

Source: L. 85: Entire article added, p. 896, � 1, effective April 5.


25-5.5-207.  Subpoena of defendant. Any defendant, in an action brought

under the provisions of section 25-5.5-205, may be required to testify under a subpoena duly issued or in pursuance of the Colorado rules of civil procedure; and the books and records of any such defendant may be brought into court and introduced into evidence; but no information so obtained may be used against the defendant as the basis for a misdemeanor prosecution under the provisions of this part 2.

Source: L. 85: Entire article added, p. 896, � 1, effective April 5.


Cross references: For the procedure concerning subpoenas, see C.R.C.P. 45.


25-5.5-208.  Seizure of products. Imitation dairy products illegally held or

otherwise involved in a violation of this part 2 shall be subject to seizure and disposition in accordance with an appropriate order of court.

Source: L. 85: Entire article added, p. 896, � 1, effective April 5.


25-5.5-209.  Penalty. Any person who violates any of the provisions of this

part 2 or who directs or knowingly permits such violation or aids or assists therein commits a petty offense.

Source: L. 85: Entire article added, p. 896, � 1, effective April 5. L. 2021:

Entire section amended, (SB 21-271), ch. 462, p. 3237, � 463, effective March 1, 2022.

Cross references: For the penalty for a petty offense, see � 18-1.3-503.

PART 3

FROZEN DESSERTS

25-5.5-301.  Short title. This part 3 shall be known and may be cited as the

Colorado Frozen Desserts Act.

Source: L. 85: Entire article added, p. 896, � 1, effective April 5.


25-5.5-302.  Definitions. As used in this part 3, unless the context otherwise

requires:

(1)  Confectionery means candy, cakes, cookies, and glazed fruit.


(2)  Department means the department of public health and environment or

its authorized representative.

(3)  Mix means the pasteurized unfrozen combination of all ingredients of a

frozen dairy dessert with or without fruits, fruit juices, chocolate, cocoa, confectionery, nut meats, flavor, or harmless color.

Source: L. 85: Entire article added, p. 896, � 1, effective April 5. L. 94: (2)

amended, p. 2780, � 492, effective July 1.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration contained in the 1994 act

amending subsection (2), see section 1 of chapter 345, Session Laws of Colorado 1994.

25-5.5-303.  Ice cream - standards. (1)  Ice cream is a food which is prepared

by freezing or partially freezing, while stirring, a pasteurized mix composed of one or more of the optional dairy ingredients specified in subsection (2) of this section, which is sweetened with one or more of the optional sweetening ingredients specified in subsection (3) of this section, and which is flavored with one or more of the optional flavoring ingredients specified in subsection (4) of this section. One or more of the optional egg ingredients specified in subsection (5) of this section, one or more of the optional stabilizing ingredients specified in subsection (6) of this section, and one or more of the optional pH adjusting and protein stabilizing ingredients specified in subsection (7) of this section may be used, subject to the conditions set forth in subsections (5), (6), and (7) of this section. Harmless coloring may be added. The mix may be seasoned with salt and may be homogenized. Water may be added. The kind and quantity of optional dairy ingredients used and the content of milk fat and total milk solids shall be such that the weights of milk fat and total milk solids are not less than ten percent and twenty percent respectively of the weight of the finished ice cream; but, when one or more of the optional flavoring ingredients specified in paragraphs (d) to (k) of subsection (4) of this section are used, then the weights of milk fat and total milk solids shall not be less than ten percent and twenty percent respectively, except for such reduction in milk fat and in total milk solids as is due to the addition of one or more of the optional ingredients specified in paragraphs (d) to (k) of subsection (4) of this section, but in no case shall it contain less than eight percent of milk fat nor less than eighteen percent of total milk solids. Ice cream shall contain not less than one and six-tenths pounds of total food solids per gallon and shall weigh not less than four and one-half pounds per gallon.

(2)  The optional dairy ingredients referred to in subsection (1) of this section

are cream, dried cream, butter, butter oil, concentrated milk fat, milk, concentrated milk, evaporated milk, sweetened condensed milk, superheated condensed milk, dried milk, skim milk, concentrated (evaporated or condensed) skim milk, superheated condensed skim milk, sweetened condensed skim milk, sweetened condensed partly skimmed milk, nonfat dry milk solids, liquid or condensed or dried sweet cream buttermilk, or dried whey solids or any of such products from which all or a portion of the lactose has been removed by crystallization or the lactose has been converted to simple sugars by hydrolysis if such products are approved as suitable optional dairy ingredients by the department. Citric acid, ascorbic acid, lecithin, tocopherols, or other harmless optional ingredients, which are approved by the department for the purpose of preventing fat oxidation in any of such optional dairy ingredients, may be added in amounts not to exceed five-thousandths of one percent of the weight of the butterfat present in such dairy ingredients.

(3)  The optional sweetening ingredients referred to in subsection (1) of this

section are sugar (sucrose), sugar syrup, dextrose, invert sugar (paste or syrup), lactose, corn sugar, dried or liquid corn syrup, glucose syrup, maple syrup, maple sugar, honey, brown sugar, maltose syrup, malt syrup, dried malt syrup, dried maltose syrup, malt extracts in liquid or dried form, refiners' syrup, and molasses other than blackstrap.

(4)  The optional flavoring ingredients referred to in subsection (1) of this

section are:

(a)  Harmless natural food flavoring, including, but not limited to, ground

spice, ground vanilla beans, and infusion of coffee or tea;

(b)  Harmless artificial food flavoring;


(c)  Fruit juice, which may be fresh, frozen, canned, concentrated, or dried and

which may be sweetened and thickened with one or more of the optional stabilizing ingredients specified in subsection (6) of this section;

(d)  Chocolate;


(e)  Cocoa;


(f)  Fruit, including cocoanut, which may be fresh, frozen, canned,

concentrated, shredded, pureed, comminuted, or dried and which may be sweetened, thickened with stabilizer, and acidulated with citric, tartaric, malic, lactic, or ascorbic acid;

(g)  Nut meats;


(h)  Confectionery;


(i)  Malted milk;


(j)  Properly prepared and cooked cereal;


(k)  Any distilled alcoholic beverage, including a liqueur, or any wine or any

mixture of two or more thereof.

(5)  The optional egg ingredients referred to in subsection (1) of this section

are liquid eggs, frozen eggs, dried eggs, egg yolks, frozen yolks, and dried yolks; but the total weight of egg yolk solids in any of such ingredients used singly or used in any combination of two or more of such ingredients shall be less than the minimum prescribed in section 25-5.5-304 for French ice cream.

(6)  The optional stabilizing ingredients specified in subsection (1) of this

section are gelatin, algin, sodium carboxymethycellulose, extract of Irish moss, psyllium seed husk, agar-agar, gum acacia, gum karaya, locust bean gum, gum tragacanth, oat gum, guar seed gum, calcium sulfate, monoglycerides or diglycerides or both of fat forming fatty acids except lauric acid, or other harmless stabilizers or emulsifiers (surface active agents) approved by the department; but the total weight of the active material contained in the solids of any of such ingredients used singly or used in any combination of two or more of such ingredients shall not be more than one-half of one percent of the weight of the finished ice cream.

(7) (a)  The following optional harmless ingredients or combinations thereof

may be added to control viscosity, adjust protein stability, and adjust the pH of the combined mix ingredients:

(I)  Neutralizers which are approved by the department;


(II)  Sodium citrate;


(III)  Sodium phosphates.


(b)  The total of ingredients included in subparagraph (I) of paragraph (a) of

this subsection (7) shall not exceed one-tenth of one percent by weight of the finished mix; nor shall the weight of ingredients included in subparagraphs (II) and (III) of paragraph (a) of this subsection (7) exceed two-tenths of one percent by weight of the finished mix.

(8)  It is further provided that the percentage of developed lactic acid in the

mix prior to the addition of the optional ingredients listed in subsections (6) and (7) of this section shall not exceed three-thousandths of one percent by weight for each one percent of milk-solids-non-fat present in the mix.

Source: L. 85: Entire article added, p. 897, � 1, effective April 5.


25-5.5-304.  French ice cream and custards - standards. French ice cream,

frozen custard, and French custard ice cream shall conform to the definition and standard of identity prescribed for ice cream by section 25-5.5-303 if one or more of the optional egg ingredients permitted by section 25-5.5-303 are used in such quantity that the total weight of egg yolk solids therein is not less than one and four-tenths percent of the weight of the finished French ice cream, except when any of the optional flavoring ingredients specified in section 25-5.5-303 (4)(d) to (4)(k) is used, in which case the weight of egg yolk solids shall not be less than one and twelve-hundredths percent of the weight of the finished French ice cream.

Source: L. 85: Entire article added, p. 899, � 1, effective April 5.


25-5.5-305.  Ice milk - standards. Ice milk shall conform in all respects to

the definition and standard of identity for ice cream prescribed in section 25-5.5-303; except that it shall contain not less than two percent nor more than seven percent of milk fat, not less than eleven percent of total milk solids, and not less than one and three-tenths pounds of food solids per gallon. When ice milk is packaged in containers of greater than one-half gallon capacity, it shall not contain color or any of the optional flavoring ingredients specified in section 25-5.5-303 (4).

Source: L. 85: Entire article added, p. 899, � 1, effective April 5.


25-5.5-305.5.  Low-fat frozen dairy dessert - standards. Low-fat frozen

dairy dessert shall conform in all respects to the definition and standard of identity for ice cream prescribed in section 25-5.5-303; except that it shall contain not less than one and five-tenths percent nor more than one and nine-tenths percent of milk fat and not less than twelve percent total milk-solids-non-fat and except that it shall contain not less than one and three-tenths pounds of food solids per gallon.

Source: L. 86: Entire section added, p. 979, � 1, effective April 5.


25-5.5-306.  Sherbet - standards. Sherbet is the food prepared by freezing

or partially freezing, while stirring, a pasteurized mix composed of one or a combination of the optional dairy ingredients specified in section 25-5.5-303 (2), one or more of the optional sweetening ingredients specified in section 25-5.5-303 (3), fruit, fruit juice, or flavoring as provided in this section. It may contain one or more of the optional stabilizing ingredients specified in section 25-5.5-303 (6) or pectin if the weight of such stabilizer is not more than one-half of one percent of the weight of the finished sherbet. The kind and quantity of optional dairy ingredients used is such that the total milk solids content is not more than five percent by weight of the finished sherbet and the milk fat content is not more than two percent nor less than one percent by weight of the finished sherbet. It shall contain fruit or fruit juice, as described in section 25-5.5-303 (4)(c) and (4)(f), and may contain natural food flavoring. It may contain citric, tartaric, malic, lactic, or ascorbic acid. The acidity of the finished sherbet shall be not less than thirty-five hundredths of one percent of acid as determined by titrating with standard alkali and expressed as lactic acid. It may contain the optional egg ingredients specified in section 25-5.5-303 (5) in amounts not to exceed one-half of one percent of the weight of the finished sherbet. Harmless coloring may be added. The mix may be seasoned with salt and may be homogenized. It shall weigh not less than six pounds per gallon.

Source: L. 85: Entire article added, p. 899, � 1, effective April 5.


25-5.5-307.  Water ice - standards. Water ice conforms in all respects to the

definition and standard of identity for sherbet prescribed in section 25-5.5-306; except that the mix need not be pasteurized and, since it does not contain any of the optional dairy ingre


C.R.S. § 25-5-502

25-5-502. Definitions. As used in this part 5, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1)  Banned hazardous substance means:


(a) (I)  Any toy, or other article intended for use by children, which is a

hazardous substance, or which bears or contains a hazardous substance in such manner as to be susceptible of access by a child to whom such toy or other article is entrusted.

(II)  The department shall exempt by regulation articles, such as chemical

sets, which by reason of their functional purpose require the inclusion of the hazardous substance involved or necessarily present an electrical, mechanical, or thermal hazard, and which bear labeling giving adequate directions and warnings for safe use and are intended for use by children who have attained sufficient maturity, and may reasonably be expected, to read and heed such directions and warnings. Proceedings for the issuance, amendment, or repeal of exemption regulations shall be governed by the provisions of section 25-5-508.

(b)  Any hazardous substance intended, or packaged in a form suitable, for

use in the household which the department by regulation classifies as a banned hazardous substance on the basis of a finding that, notwithstanding such cautionary labeling as is or may be required under this article for that substance, the degree or nature of the hazard involved in the presence or use of such substance in households is such that the objective of the protection of the public health and safety can be adequately served only by keeping such substance, when so intended or packaged, out of the channels of commerce.

(2)  Combustible means any substance which has a flash point above eighty

degrees Fahrenheit to and including one hundred and fifty degrees, as determined by the Tagliabue open cup tester. This definition shall not apply to the flammability or combustibility of solids and of the contents of self-pressurized containers which shall be determined by methods generally applicable to such materials or containers and established by regulations issued by the department.

(3)  Commerce means any and all commerce within the state of Colorado,

and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, and includes the operation of any business or service establishment.

(4)  Corrosive substance means any substance which, in contact with living

tissue, will cause destruction of tissue by chemical action but shall not refer to action on inanimate surfaces.

(5)  Department means the department of public health and environment.


(6)  Electrical hazard means an article, the design or manufacture of which,

in normal use or when subjected to reasonably foreseeable damage or abuse, may cause personal injury or illness by electric shock.

(7)  Executive director means the executive director of the department of

public health and environment.

(8)  Extremely flammable substance is a substance which has a flash point

at or below twenty degrees Fahrenheit as determined by the Tagliabue open cup tester. This definition shall not apply to the flammability or combustibility of solids and of the contents of self-pressurized containers which shall be determined by methods generally applicable to such materials or containers and established by regulations issued by the department.

(9)  Flammable substance is a substance which has a flash point above

twenty degrees Fahrenheit to and including eighty degrees Fahrenheit as determined by the Tagliabue open cup tester. This definition shall not apply to the flammability or combustibility of solids and of the contents of self-pressurized containers which shall be determined by the methods generally applicable to such materials or containers and established by regulation issued by the department.

(10) (a)  Hazardous substance means any substance or mixture of

substances which:

(I)  Is toxic;


(II)  Is corrosive;


(III)  Is an irritant;


(IV)  Is a strong sensitizer;


(V)  Is flammable or combustible; or


(VI)  Generates pressure through decomposition, heat, or other means, if such

substance or mixture of substances may cause substantial personal injury or substantial illness during or as a proximate result of any customary or reasonably foreseeable handling or use, including reasonably foreseeable ingestion by children.

(b)  Hazardous substance also means:


(I)  Any substances which the department by regulation finds, pursuant to the

provisions of section 25-5-508, meet the requirements of paragraph (a) of this subsection (10);

(II)  Any radioactive substance, if, with respect to such substance as used in a

particular class of article or as packaged, the department determines by regulation that the substance is sufficiently hazardous to require labeling in accordance with this article in order to protect the public health;

(III)  Any toy or other article intended for use by children which the

department by regulation determines, in accordance with section 25-5-508, presents an electrical, mechanical, or thermal hazard.

(c)  The term hazardous substance shall not apply to an economic poison

subject to regulation by the federal government; to a substance regulated by the Pesticide Act; to food, drugs, and cosmetics subject to regulation by the federal government or the Colorado Food and Drug Act; or to anhydrous ammonia as an agricultural fertilizer as regulated by article 13 of title 35, C.R.S. Hazardous substance shall not include a substance intended for use as fuels when stored in containers and used in the heating, cooking, or refrigeration system of a house or any source material, special nuclear material, or byproduct material as defined in the federal Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and regulations issued pursuant thereto by the atomic energy commission.

(11) (a)  Highly toxic means any substance which falls within any of the

following categories:

(I)  Produces death within fourteen days in one-half or more than one-half of

a group of ten or more laboratory white rats each weighing between two hundred and three hundred grams, at a single dose of fifty milligrams or less per kilogram of body weight, when orally administered; or

(II)  Produces death within fourteen days in one-half or more than one-half of

a group of ten or more laboratory white rats each weighing between two hundred and three hundred grams when inhaled continuously for a period of one hour or less at an atmospheric concentration of two hundred parts per million by volume or less of gas or vapor or two milligrams per liter by volume or less of mist or dust, provided such concentration is likely to be encountered by man when the substance is used in any reasonably foreseeable manner; or

(III)  Produces death within fourteen days in one-half or more than one-half of

a group of ten or more rabbits tested in a dosage of two hundred milligrams or less per kilogram of body weight when administered by continuous contact with the bare skin for twenty-four hours or less.

(b)  If the department finds that available data on human experience with any

substance indicate results different from those obtained on animals in the above-named dosages or concentrations, the human data shall take precedence.

(12)  Irritant means any substance not corrosive within the meaning of

subsection (4) of this section which on immediate, prolonged, or repeated contact with normal living tissue will induce a local inflammatory reaction.

(13)  Label means a display of written, printed, or graphic matter upon the

immediate container (not including package liners) of any substance or, in the case of an article which is unpackaged or is not packaged in an immediate container intended or suitable for delivery to the ultimate consumer, a display of such matter directly upon the article involved or upon a tag or other suitable material affixed thereto. A requirement made by or under authority of this part 5 that any word, statement, or other information appear on the label shall not be considered to be complied with unless such word, statement, or other information also appears on the outside container or wrapper, if any there be, unless it is easily legible through the outside container or wrapper and on all accompanying literature where there are directions for use, written or otherwise.

(14)  Mechanical hazard means an article, the design or manufacture of

which, in normal use or when subjected to reasonably foreseeable damage or abuse, presents an unreasonable risk of personal injury or illness from fracture, fragmentation, or disassembly of the article; from propulsion of the article or any part or accessory thereof; from points or other protrusions, surfaces, edges, openings, or closures of the article; from moving parts of the article; from lack or insufficiency of controls to reduce or stop the motion of the article; as a result of self-adhering characteristics of the article; because the article, or any part or accessory thereof, may be aspirated or ingested; because of the instability of the article; or because of any other aspect of the article's design or manufacture.

(15)  Misbranded hazardous substance means a hazardous substance

(including a toy, or other article intended for use by children, which is a hazardous substance, or which bears or contains a hazardous substance in such manner as to be susceptible of access by a child to whom such toy or other article is entrusted) intended, or packaged in a form suitable, for use in the household or by children, which substance, except as otherwise provided by or pursuant to section 25-5-508, fails to bear a label:

(a)  Which states conspicuously:


(I)  The name and place of business of the manufacturer, packer, distributor,

or seller;

(II)  The common or usual name or the chemical name (if there be no common

or usual name) of the hazardous substance or of each component which contributes substantially to its hazard, unless the department by regulation permits or requires the use of a recognized generic name;

(III)  The signal word DANGER on substances which are extremely

flammable, corrosive, or highly toxic;

(IV)  The signal word WARNING or CAUTION on all other hazardous

substances;

(V)  An affirmative statement of the principal hazard or hazards, such as

Flammable, Combustible, Vapor Harmful, Causes Burns, Absorbed Through Skin, or similar wording descriptive of the hazard;

(VI)  Precautionary measures describing the action to be followed or avoided,

except when modified by regulation of the department pursuant to section 25-5-508;

(VII)  Instruction, when necessary or appropriate, for first-aid treatment;


(VIII)  The word poison for any hazardous substance which is highly toxic;


(IX)  Instructions for handling and storage of packages which require special

care in handling or storage; and

(X)  The statement Keep out of the reach of children or its practical

equivalent or, if the article is intended for use by children and is not a banned hazardous substance, adequate directions for the protection of children from the hazard.

(b)  On which any statement required under paragraph (a) of this subsection

(15) is located prominently and is in the English language in conspicuous and legible type in contrast by typography, layout, or color with other printed matter on the label.

(16)  Person means an individual, partnership, corporation, or association or

its legal representative or agent.

(17)  Radioactive substance means a substance which emits ionizing

radiation.

(18)  Strong sensitizer means a substance which will cause, on normal living

tissue, through an allergic or photodynamic process, a hypersensitivity which becomes evident on reapplication of the same substance and which is designated as such by the department. Before designating any substance as a strong sensitizer, the department, upon consideration of frequency of occurrence and severity of the reaction, shall find that the substance has significant potential for causing hypersensitivity.

(19)  Thermal hazard means an article, the design, or manufacture of which,

in normal use or when subjected to reasonably foreseeable damage or abuse, presents an unreasonable risk of personal injury or illness because of heat, as from heated parts, substances, or surfaces.

(20)  Toxic shall apply to any substance (other than a radioactive

substance) which has the capacity to produce personal injury or illness to man through ingestion, inhalation, or absorption through any body surface.

Source: L. 73: R&RE, p. 697, � 1. C.R.S. 1963: � 66-21-2. L. 94: (5) and (7)

amended, p. 2778, � 484, effective July 1.

Cross references: (1)  For the Pesticide Act, see article 9 of title 35; for the

Colorado Food and Drug Act, see part 4 of this article 5; for the federal Atomic Energy Act of 1954, see 42 U.S.C. � 2011 et seq.

(2)  For the legislative declaration contained in the 1994 act amending

subsections (5) and (7), see section 1 of chapter 345, Session Laws of Colorado 1994.


C.R.S. § 25-6-407

25-6-407. Enforcement. The venue to enforce an action pursuant to the provisions of this part 4 is in the Denver district court.

Source: L. 2023: Entire section added, (SB 23-188), ch. 68, p. 251, � 24,

effective April 14.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in SB 23-188, see section 1

of chapter 68, Session Laws of Colorado 2023.

ENVIRONMENTAL CONTROL

ARTICLE 6.5

Environmental Control

Law reviews: For article, Using Local Police Powers to Protect the

Environment, see 24 Colo. Law. 1063 (1995).

PART 1

PROVISIONS FOR RULES AND REGULATIONS CONCERNING ENVIRONMENTAL CONTROL

25-6.5-101.  Legislative declaration. (1)  The general assembly hereby finds

and determines that the protection of the natural environment of this state is important to the public health and welfare of the citizens of Colorado.

(2)  The general assembly further finds and determines that the

environmental laws of this state relating to air quality control in article 7 of this title, water quality control in article 8 of this title, hazardous waste in article 15 of this title, and solid waste in article 20 of title 30, C.R.S., may be highly technical, complex, and subject to varying interpretation.

(3)  The general assembly, therefore, declares that the provisions of this

article are enacted to enhance public notice and awareness of rules, regulations, and interpretations of the environmental laws of this state and to ensure public confidence in the fairness of the enforcement of any agency requirements.

Source: L. 94: Entire article added, p. 1363, � 1, effective July 1.


25-6.5-102.  Requirements for environmental rules - publication. (1)  All

agency policies and guidance, including any amendments or revisions thereto, relating to the implementation, administration, and enforcement of article 7, 8, 11, or 15 of this title, article 20.5 of title 8, C.R.S., or article 20 of title 30, C.R.S., except for policies relating to personnel or other internal administrative matters not directly related to enforceable requirements under such articles, shall be reduced to writing and published. Three copies shall be filed with the state librarian for the state publications depository and distribution center. Copies of each such policy or guidance issued under article 7, 8, 11, or 15 of this title, article 20.5 of title 8, C.R.S., or article 20 of title 30, C.R.S., shall be made available to the public upon request. Interpretive rules issued under article 15 of this title shall also be made available to the public upon request. Each affected agency shall maintain and make available to the public a current index of all such policies, guidance, and interpretive rules in effect. Copies of any policy, guidance, interpretive rule, or index shall be provided to the public at cost.

(2)  No policy or guidance referred to in subsection (1) of this section shall

have the force and effect of a rule unless it has been promulgated by the relevant commission pursuant to the provisions of the State Administrative Procedure Act, article 4 of title 24, C.R.S., and applicable provisions of article 7, 8, 11, or 15 of this title, article 20.5 of title 8, C.R.S., or article 20 of title 30, C.R.S., pertaining to rule-making procedures or authorizing the promulgation of rules, and made available to the public in accordance with section 24-4-103, C.R.S.

(3) (a)  Any policy or guidance, including any amendments or revisions

thereto, may be brought to the attention of the relevant division director and thereafter may be brought to the relevant commission for review. The review shall determine whether such policy or guidance is within the statutory authority of the relevant agency, is consistent with applicable statutes and any applicable regulations, including the provisions of subsection (1) of this section, and is appropriate for the relevant commission to undertake rule-making with respect to the subject matter of the policy or guidance and shall consider other questions within the scope of the relevant commission's authority related to such policy or guidance.

(b)  Following such review, the commission shall take action or, if appropriate,

refer the matter to the relevant division director to take action within a specified period of time in accordance with its determination.

(4)  Any obligation to submit payment of any monetary penalty arising from

an enforcement action that concerns a matter under review by the relevant commission shall be stayed until the relevant commission completes its review.

(5)  The commission review regarding the policy or guidance shall not

constitute an adjudication of any facts of a specific enforcement action.

(6)  Failure to request a review under this section shall not be considered in

any permit appeal or enforcement action.

(7)  As used in this section:


(a)  Relevant commission means the commission or agency responsible for

the promulgation of rules for the environmental program under which the guidance or policy is issued.

(b)  Relevant division director means the director of the division within the

department of public health and environment, responsible for the subject matter of the guidance or policy at issue.

Source: L. 94: Entire article added, p. 1364, � 1, effective July 1. L. 96: (1) and

(2) amended, p. 1471, � 20, effective June 1.

PART 2

POLLUTION CONTROL EQUIPMENT CERTIFICATION

25-6.5-201.  Definitions. As used in this part 2, unless the context otherwise

requires:

(1)  Division means the division of administration of the department of public

health and environment.

(2) (a)  Pollution control equipment means any personal property, including

equipment, machinery, devices, systems, buildings, or structures, that is installed, constructed, or used in or as a part of a facility that creates a product in a manner that generates less pollution by the utilization of an alternative manufacturing or generating technology.

(b)  Pollution control equipment includes:


(I)  Gas or wind turbines and associated compressors or equipment;


(II)  Solar, thermal, or photovoltaic equipment;


(III)  Equipment used as part of a system that uses geothermal energy for

water heating or space heating or cooling in a single building, for space heating for more than one building through a pipeline network, or for electricity generation; or

(IV)  Wastewater thermal energy equipment.


(3)  Wastewater thermal energy equipment means equipment used as part

of a system that uses thermal energy in wastewater, to heat or cool a space, or for any other useful thermal purpose that reduces greenhouse gas emissions from the combustion of gas in customer end uses.

Source: L. 2000: Entire part added, p. 1466, � 2, effective August 2. L. 2022:

(2) amended, (SB 22-118), ch. 335, p. 2370, � 3, effective August 10. L. 2023: (2) amended and (3) added, (SB 23-016), ch. 165, p. 733, � 4 effective August 7.

25-6.5-202.  Certification of pollution control equipment. (1)  Within twelve

months after the date of acquisition of an ownership or lease interest, a person owning or leasing property may file a request for certification of such property as pollution control equipment with the division on forms prescribed by the division.

(2)  At any time after the filing of a request for certification pursuant to

subsection (1) of this section and prior to a determination, the division may schedule a conference with the applicant to obtain further information relevant to the determination of eligibility for certification as pollution control equipment.

(3)  Within six months after the filing of a request pursuant to subsection (1)

of this section, the division shall determine the eligibility of such property as pollution control equipment and shall certify its determination to the applicant and the executive director of the department of revenue. The division may certify as pollution control equipment all of the property for which a request has been filed pursuant to subsection (1) of this section, specified portions of the property, or none of the property. In making its determination, the division shall consider any available and pertinent information.

(4)  If the division denies a request for certification in whole or in part, the

applicant may file with the division a written objection to the determination within thirty days after receipt of written notice of the determination. If a written objection is filed, the division shall grant the applicant a hearing in accordance with section 24-4-105, C.R.S., within thirty days after receipt of the written objection and shall make a final determination based on the hearing.

(5)  If the final determination of the division denies the request for

certification in whole or in part, the final determination shall be subject to judicial review in accordance with the provisions of section 24-4-106, C.R.S.

(6)  The division may assess against an applicant a fee sufficient to cover the

actual and direct cost incurred by the division in making a determination pursuant to this section, including, but not limited to, the actual and direct cost of any hearing or appeal related to the denial of certification if the denial is upheld. Any fee assessed by the division pursuant to this subsection (6) shall be credited to the pollution control equipment certification fund created in section 25-6.5-203.

Source: L. 2000: Entire part added, p. 1467, � 2, effective August 2.


25-6.5-203.  Pollution control equipment certification fund - creation -

purpose. (1) There is hereby established in the state treasury the pollution control equipment certification fund, which shall consist of all moneys collected by the division pursuant to section 25-6.5-202. All interest derived from the deposit and investment of moneys in the fund shall be credited to the fund. Any unexpended or unencumbered moneys in the fund at the end of any fiscal year shall remain in the fund and shall not be transferred to the general fund.

(2)  The moneys in the pollution control equipment certification fund shall be

subject to annual appropriation by the general assembly to the department of public health and environment to defray the costs incurred by the division in performing its obligations pursuant to section 25-6.5-202.

Source: L. 2000: Entire part added, p. 1467, � 2, effective August 2.

ARTICLE 6.6

Environmental Management System

Permit Program

25-6.6-101 to 25-6.6-106.  (Repealed)


Editor's note: (1)  This article was added in 2004. For amendments to this

article prior to its repeal in 2018, consult the 2017 Colorado Revised Statutes and the Colorado statutory research explanatory note beginning on page vii in the front of this volume.

(2)  For the amendments to � 25-6.6-106 in HB 18-1239 in effect from April 12,

2018, to July 1, 2018, see chapter 114, Session Laws of Colorado 2018. (L. 2018, p. 810.)

(3)  Section 25-6.6-106 provided for the repeal of this article, effective July 1,
  1. (See L. 2004, p. 479.)

ARTICLE 6.7

Environmental Leadership Act

25-6.7-101  to 25-6.7-110. (Repealed)


Editor's note: (1)  This article was added in 1998. For amendments to this

article prior to its repeal in 2003, consult the 2003 Colorado Revised Statutes and the Colorado statutory research explanatory note beginning on page vii in the front of this volume.

(2)  Section 25-6.7-110 (2) provided for the repeal of this article, effective

December 31, 2003. (See L. 98, p. 877.)

ARTICLE 7

Air Quality Control

Editor's note: This article was numbered as article 31 of chapter 66, C.R.S.
  1. The substantive provisions of this article were repealed and reenacted in 1979, resulting in the addition, relocation, and elimination of sections as well as subject matter. For amendments to this article prior to 1979, consult the Colorado statutory research explanatory note and the table itemizing the replacement volumes and supplements to the original volume of C.R.S. 1973 beginning on page vii in the front of this volume.

PART 1

AIR QUALITY CONTROL PROGRAM

Cross references: For the automobile inspection and readjustment program,

see part 3 of article 4 of title 42.

Law reviews: For article, A Practitioners Guide to the Colorado Air Quality

Control Commission, see 16 Colo. Law. 1405 (1987); for article, Colorado's New Clean Air Program, see 22 Colo. Law. 541 (1993); for article, Colorado's Clean Air Act Amendments Regulations, see 23 Colo. Law. 861 (1994).


C.R.S. § 25-7-103

25-7-103. Definitions. As used in this article 7, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1)  Administrator means the administrator of the federal environmental

protection agency.

(1.3)  Adverse environmental effect, as a term used in the context of

regulating hazardous air pollutants, means any significant and widespread adverse effect, which may reasonably be anticipated, to wildlife, aquatic life, or other natural resources, including adverse impacts on populations of endangered or threatened species or significant degradation of environmental quality over broad areas.

(1.5)  Air pollutant means any fume, smoke, particulate matter, vapor, or gas

or any combination thereof which is emitted into or otherwise enters the atmosphere, including, but not limited to, any physical, chemical, biological, radioactive (including source material, special nuclear material, and byproduct material) substance or matter, but air pollutant does not include water vapor or steam condensate or any other emission exempted by the commission consistent with the federal act. Such term includes any precursors to the formation of any air pollutant, to the extent the administrator of the United States environmental protection agency or the commission has identified such precursor or precursors for the particular purpose for which the term air pollutant is used.

(2)  Air pollution control authority means the division, or any person or

agency given authority by the division, or a local governmental unit duly authorized with respect to air pollution control.

(3)  Air pollution source means any source whatsoever at, from, or by

reason of which there is emitted or discharged into the atmosphere any air pollutant.

(4)  Allowable emissions means the emission rate calculated for a

stationary source using the maximum rated capacity of the source (unless the source is subject to enforceable permit conditions which limit the operating rate or hours of operation, or both) and the most stringent of the following:

(a)  The applicable standards promulgated pursuant to the federal act for

new source performance or hazardous air pollutants;

(b)  The applicable Colorado emission control regulation; or


(c)  The emission rate specified as a permit condition.


(5)  Ambient air means that portion of the atmosphere, external to the

sources, to which the general public has access.

(5.5)  Appliance means any device which contains and uses as a refrigerant

a class I or class II ozone depleting compound as defined by the administrator and which is used for household or commercial purposes, including any air conditioner, refrigerator, chiller, or freezer.

(5.7)  Approved motor vehicle refrigerant recycling equipment means any

equipment models certified by the administrator, or any independent standards testing organization approved by such administrator, to meet the standards established by the administrator which are applicable to equipment for the extraction of refrigerants from motor vehicle air conditioners. Equipment for such purpose purchased prior to the promulgation of regulations pursuant to section 25-7-105 (11)(c) shall be considered certified if it is substantially identical to equipment which is certified by the administrator.

(6)  Repealed.


(6.5)  CFC means any of the chlorofluorocarbon chemicals CFC-11, CFC-12,

CFC-112, CFC-113, CFC-114, CFC-115, or CFC-502.

(6.7)  Colorado generally available control technology or Colorado GACT

means standards imposed pursuant to section 25-7-109.3 (3) utilizing principles of sound engineering judgment in applying the criteria set forth in section 112 (d) of the federal act respecting the creation of standards or requirements utilizing generally available control technologies or management practices by area sources for the reduction of emissions of hazardous air pollutants considering a cost-benefit analysis, economics, the cost and availability of control technology, and the location, nature, and size of the source involved, and the actual or potential impacts on the public health, welfare, and the environment.

(6.8)  Colorado maximum achievable control technology or Colorado

MACT means standards imposed pursuant to section 25-7-109.3 (3) utilizing principles of sound engineering judgment in applying the criteria set forth in section 112 (d) of the federal act respecting the creation of standards or requirements which provide for the maximum degree of emissions reduction that has been demonstrated to be achievable for the control of hazardous air pollutants, considering a cost-benefit analysis, economics, the cost and availability of control technology, and the location, nature, and size of the source involved, and the actual or potential impacts on the public health, welfare, and the environment.

(7)  Commission means the air quality control commission created by

section 25-7-104.

(8)  Construction means fabrication, erection, installation, or modification of

an air pollution source.

(8.5)  Disproportionately impacted community has the meaning set forth in

section 24-4-109 (2)(b)(II).

(9)  Division means the division of administration of the department of

public health and environment.

(9.5)  Effects on public welfare means all language referring to effects on

public welfare, which includes, but is not limited to, effects on soils, water, crops, vegetation, manmade materials, animals, wildlife, weather, visibility, climate, damage to and deterioration of property, and hazards to transportation, as well as effects on economic values and on personal comfort and well-being, whether caused by transformation, conversion, or combination with other air pollutants.

(9.7)  Emergency event means a situation arising from a sudden and

reasonably unforeseen natural disaster or other unforeseen event, including the loss of utility service, that requires the use of emergency stationary engines to alleviate a threat to health, safety, and welfare pursuant to 40 CFR 60 or 63, as in effect on January 1, 2022. A threat to health, safety, and welfare includes national security threats.

(9.8)  Emergency stationary engine means an engine that is not mobile and

that is used to provide electric power to or mechanical work for critical infrastructure during an emergency event.

(10)  Emission means the discharge or release into the atmosphere of one or

more air pollutants.

(11)  Emission control regulation means and includes any standard

promulgated by regulation that is applicable to all air pollution sources within a specified area and that prohibits or establishes permissible limits for specific types of emissions in such area; any regulation that by its terms is applicable to a specified type of facility, process, or activity for the purpose of controlling the extent, degree, or nature of pollution emitted from such type of facility, process, or activity; any regulation adopted for the purpose of preventing or minimizing emission of any air pollutant in potentially dangerous quantities; and any regulation that adopts any design, equipment, work practice, or operational standard. Emission control regulations shall not include standards that describe maximum ambient air concentrations of specifically identified pollutants or that describe varying degrees of pollution of ambient air. Emission control regulations pertaining to hazardous air pollutants, as defined in subsection (13) of this section, and toxic air contaminants designated pursuant to section 25-7-109.5, shall be consistent with the emission standards promulgated under section 112 of the federal act or section 25-7-109.3 or 25-7-109.5 in reducing or preventing emissions and may include application of measures, processes, methods, systems, or techniques, including, but not limited to, measures that:

(a)  Reduce the volume of, or eliminate emissions of, such pollutants through

process changes, emissions limitations, control technologies, substitution of materials, or other modifications;

(b)  Enclose systems or processes to eliminate emissions;


(c)  Collect, capture, or treat such pollutants when released from a process,

stack, storage, or fugitive emissions point;

(d)  Are design, equipment, or work practice standards (including

requirements for operator training or certification); or

(e)  Are a combination of the provisions of paragraphs (a) to (d) of this

subsection (11).

(11.5)  Emission data means, with reference to any source of emission of any

substance into the air:

(a)  Information necessary to determine the identity, amount, frequency,

concentration, or other characteristics (to the extent related to air quality) of any emission which has been, or will be, emitted by the source (or of any pollutant resulting from any emission by the source), or any combination thereof;

(b)  Information necessary to determine the identity, amount, frequency,

concentration, or other characteristics (to the extent related to air quality) of the emission which, under an applicable standard or limitation, the source was authorized to emit (including, to the extent necessary for such purposes, a description of the manner or rate of operation of the source), or any combination thereof;

(c)  A general description of the location or nature, or both, of the source to

the extent necessary to identify the source and to distinguish it from other sources (including, to the extent necessary for such purposes, a description of the device, installation, or operation constituting the source).

(12)  Federal act means the federal Clean Air Act, 42 U.S.C. sec. 7401 et

seq., as amended.

(12.1)  Generally available control technology or GACT means standards

promulgated pursuant to section 112 of the federal act which provide for the use of generally available control technologies or management practices for the control of hazardous air pollutants for area sources, as defined in section 112 of the federal act, including equivalent emission limitations by permit pursuant to section 112 (j) of the federal act.

(13)  Hazardous air pollutant means an air pollutant which presents through

inhalation or other routes of exposure, a threat of adverse human health effects (including, but not limited to, substances which are known to be, or may reasonably be anticipated to be carcinogenic, mutagenic, teratogenic, neurotoxic, which cause reproductive dysfunction, or which are acutely or chronically toxic) or adverse environmental effects whether through ambient concentrations, bioaccumulation, deposition, or otherwise and which has been listed pursuant to section 112 of the federal act or section 25-7-109.3.

(14)  Indirect air pollution source means any facility, building, structure, or

installation, or any combination thereof, excluding dwellings, which can reasonably be expected to cause or induce substantial mobile source activity which results in emissions of air pollutants which might reasonably be expected to interfere with the attainment and maintenance of national ambient air standards.

(15)  Issue or issuance means the mailing, including by electronic mail, of

any order, permit, determination, or notice, other than notice by publication, or personal service on the person. The date of issuance of the order, permit, determination, or notice must be the date of the mailing or service or such later date as is stated in the order, permit, determination, or notice.

(16)  Local air pollution law means any law, ordinance, resolution, code, rule,

or regulation adopted by the governing body of any city, town, county, or city and county, pertaining to the prevention, control, and abatement of air pollution.

(16.5)  Maximum achievable control technology or MACT means emission

standards promulgated under section 112 of the federal act requiring the maximum degree of emissions reduction that has been demonstrated to be achievable for the control of hazardous air pollutants, including equivalent emission limitations by permit pursuant to section 112 (j) of the federal act.

(17)  Malfunction means any sudden and unavoidable failure of air pollution

control equipment or process equipment or unintended failure of a process to operate in a normal or usual manner. Failures that are primarily caused by poor maintenance, careless operation, or any other preventable upset condition or preventable equipment breakdown shall not be considered malfunctions.

(18)  Motor vehicle means any self-propelled vehicle which is designed

primarily for travel on the public highways and which is generally and commonly used to transport persons and property over the public highways.

(18.3)  Motor vehicle air conditioner means any air conditioner designed for

installation in a motor vehicle which uses as a refrigerant any class I or class II ozone depleting compound as defined by the administrator.

(18.4)  Owner or operator means any person who owns, leases, operates,

controls, or supervises a stationary source.

(18.5)  Ozone depleting compound means any substance on the list of class

I and class II ozone depleting compounds as defined by the administrator and as referenced in section 602 of the federal Clean Air Act Amendments of 1990.

(19)  Person means any individual, public or private corporation, partnership,

association, firm, trust, estate, the United States or the state or any department, institution, or agency thereof, any municipal corporation, county, city and county, or other political subdivision of the state, or any other legal entity whatsoever which is recognized by law as the subject of rights and duties.

(19.5)  Refrigeration system includes refrigerators, freezers, cold storage

warehouse refrigeration systems, and air conditioners, any of which hold more than one hundred pounds of refrigerant or more than one hundred pounds total if more than one refrigeration unit or system exists at the same location.

(20)  Shutdown means the cessation of operation of any air pollution source

for any purpose.

(21)  Start-up means the setting in operation of any air pollution source for

any purpose.

(22)  State implementation plan or SIP means a plan required by and

described in section 110 (a) or 169A of the federal act.

(22.5)  Statewide greenhouse gas pollution means the total net statewide

anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, hydrofluorocarbons, perfluorocarbons, nitrogen trifluoride, and sulfur hexafluoride, expressed as carbon dioxide equivalent calculated using a methodology and data on radiative forcing and atmospheric persistence deemed appropriate by the commission.

(23)  Stationary source means any building, structure, facility, or

installation which emits or may emit any air pollutant.

Source: L. 79: Entire article R&RE, p. 1018, � 1, effective June 20. L. 84: (6)

repealed, p. 768, � 1, effective July 1. L. 89: (6.5) and (19.5) added, p. 1156, � 2, effective January 1, 1990. L. 92: (1), (11), (12), (13), and (19) amended and (1.3), (1.5), (6.7), (6.8), (9.5), (11.5), (12.1), (16.5), and (18.4) added, p. 1166, � 5, effective July 1; (1) amended and (1.5), (5.5), (5.7), (18.3), and (18.5) added, p. 1291, � 1, effective July 1. L. 94: (9) amended, p. 2780, � 494, effective July 1. L. 2006: IP added, p. 1504, � 46, effective June 1. L. 2016: (18.5) amended, (SB 16-189), ch. 210, p. 770, � 62, effective June 6. L. 2019: IP amended and (22.5) added, (HB 19-1261), ch. 355, p. 3264, � 2, effective May 30. L. 2021: (8.5) added, (HB 21-1266), ch. 411, p. 2730, � 5, effective July 2. L. 2022: (9.7) and (9.8) added, (HB 22-1372), ch. 316, p. 2251, � 1, effective June 2; IP(11) and (11)(a) amended, (HB 22-1244), ch. 332, p. 2331, � 2, effective June 2; (12), (15), and (22) amended, (SB 22-193), ch. 300, p. 2156, � 4, effective June 2.

Editor's note: (1)  Amendments to subsection (1.5) by Senate Bill 92-105 and

House Bill 92-1178 were harmonized.

(2)  Subsection (18.4) was enacted as subsection (18.3) by Senate Bill 92-105,

Session Laws of Colorado 1992, chapter 179, section 5, but has been renumbered on revision for ease of location.

Cross references: (1)  For the legislative declaration contained in the 1994

act amending subsection (9), see section 1 of chapter 345, Session Laws of Colorado 1994.

(2)  For section 602 of the federal Clean Air Act Amendments of 1990, see

42 U.S.C. � 7671a.

(3)  For the short title (Environmental Justice Act) and the legislative

declaration in HB 21-1266, see sections 1 and 2 of chapter 411, Session Laws of Colorado 2021.

(4)  For the legislative declaration in HB 22-1244, see section 1 of chapter

332, Session Laws of Colorado 2022.


C.R.S. § 25-7-142

25-7-142. Energy benchmarking - data collection and access - utility requirements - task force - rules - reports - exemptions - definitions - legislative declaration. (1) Legislative declaration. The general assembly finds, determines, and declares that the regulation of building performance is a matter of statewide concern because:

(a)  As of 2020, buildings represented a significant source of greenhouse gas

pollution in the state of Colorado;

(b)  Energy consumption and greenhouse gas emissions associated with a

building produce impacts far beyond its walls and the boundaries of the local government within which the building is located, including costs to utility ratepayers for increased energy production, community health costs associated with air pollution, and broader societal costs of anthropogenic climate change;

(c)  Many building owners have made proactive efforts to reduce the energy

use and greenhouse gas emissions of their buildings, yet more remains to be done to help the state meet its greenhouse gas reduction goals;

(d)  Building tenants that pay energy bills often lack the ability to implement

building upgrades that could improve performance, reduce emissions, and reduce those costs;

(e)  The commission has both the statutory authority and obligation to require

a reduction of greenhouse gas emissions in the state in every sector including buildings;

(f) (I)  Benchmarking and building performance standards will support job

growth in Colorado. According to the United States Climate Alliance, before January 1, 2020, the fastest growing clean energy industries in Colorado included:

(A)  Traditional heating, ventilation, and air conditioning, totaling ten

thousand four hundred thirty-eight jobs; and

(B)  Energy Star and efficient lighting, totaling eleven thousand one hundred

fifty-six jobs.

(II)  Additionally, analysis conducted by Advanced Energy Economy identified

more than sixty thousand advanced energy jobs in Colorado, with more than fifty percent of those jobs in energy efficiency.

(g)  The state of Colorado provides many low- and no-cost options for

Colorado property owners to finance building performance improvements, including:

(I)  Property-assessed clean energy financing that the Colorado new energy

improvement district created in section 32-20-104 provides, whereby qualifying energy efficiency and renewable energy improvements are paid back via an assessment on annual property taxes; and

(II)  Performance contracting, whereby improvements are paid for by

contractually guaranteed savings from efficiency upgrades;

(h)  Many public utilities in the state also provide technical assistance and

financial incentives to help property owners implement building performance improvements; and

(i)  It is in the interest of the state to:


(I)  Establish a program to help Colorado citizens understand and track

energy use and greenhouse gas emissions from large buildings; and

(II)  Develop performance standards necessary to meet state greenhouse-gas-emission-reduction goals.


(1.5)  The general assembly further finds and declares that:


(a)  Energy consumption by Colorado's built environment, including large

commercial and residential properties, is a significant contributor to statewide greenhouse gas pollution;

(b)  Reducing the greenhouse gas emissions arising from energy

consumption by the built environment is necessary to achieve the 2050 net-zero greenhouse gas emission reduction goal set forth in section 25-7-102 (2)(g);

(c)  The commission satisfied the objectives set forth in subsections (8)(a)(II)

and (8)(c)(II) of this section by adopting benchmarking and performance standard rules in August 2023; and

(d)  In implementing the requirements of this section and the commission's

rules adopted pursuant to this section, the division should, consistent with section 25-7-122 (2), consider an owner's effort to comply with building performance standards when implementing enforcement and assessing penalties pursuant to section 25-7-122 and this section.

(2)  Definitions. As used in this section, unless the context otherwise

requires:

(a)  Aggregated data means electric or gas meter data from which any

unique identifier or other personal information has been removed and that a qualifying utility collects and aggregates in at least monthly intervals for an entire covered building.

(b)  Aggregation threshold means, for each qualifying utility, the minimum

number of customer accounts associated with a covered building for which the qualifying utility may provide the owner of the covered building with aggregated data upon request without requiring each customer's consent to have the customer's energy-use data accessed or shared.

(b.5) (I)  Agricultural building means a building or structure used to house

agricultural implements, hay, unprocessed grain, poultry, livestock, or other agricultural products or inputs primarily for the purpose of maintaining or operating an agricultural process.

(II)  Agricultural implements include agricultural equipment as described in

section 39-3-122.

(III)  Agricultural implements do not include implements that are primarily for

rent or sale.

(c)  Benchmark means to input benchmarking data into a benchmarking

tool to measure and assess the energy performance and greenhouse gas pollution for a covered building for the reporting year.

(d)  Except as the commission may modify by rule pursuant to subsection (7)

of this section, benchmarking data means the information related to a covered building that is input into or calculated by a benchmarking tool and includes, at a minimum:

(I)  A physical description of the covered building and descriptions of its

operational characteristics, including:

(A)  The name of the covered building, if any;


(B)  The address of the covered building;


(C)  The primary uses of the covered building;


(D)  The covered building's gross floor area; and


(E)  The years in which the covered building has been certified by Energy Star

and the most recent date of certification, if applicable; and

(II)  Data generated by the benchmarking tool, including:


(A)  The Energy Star score, if available;


(B)  Monthly energy use by fuel type;


(C)  Site and source energy-use intensity;


(D)  Weather-normalized site and source energy-use intensity;


(E)  Confirmation that data quality has been checked;


(F)  Annual maximum electricity demand, in kilowatts;


(G)  If available for reporting through the benchmarking tool, monthly peak

electricity demand; and

(H)  Greenhouse gas emissions, including total, indirect, and direct emissions.


(e)  Except as the commission may modify by rule pursuant to subsection (7)

of this section, benchmarking tool means the Energy Star Portfolio Manager® or a successor online resource used to track and assess the performance of certain properties relative to similar properties.

(f)  Biomedical research laboratory means a scientific laboratory used to

conduct research relating to both biology and medicine.

(g) (I)  Campus means a collection of two or more buildings that are owned

and operated by the same person and that have a shared purpose and function as a single property.

(II)  Campus includes two or more of the buildings that comprise the capitol

complex.

(h)  Colorado energy office or office means the Colorado energy office

created in section 24-38.5-101.

(i)  Correctional facility means:


(I)  A correctional facility, as defined in section 17-1-102 (1.7);


(II)  A private contract prison, as defined in section 17-1-102 (7.3);


(III)  A local jail, as defined in section 17-1-102 (7);


(IV)  A municipal jail, as authorized in section 31-15-401 (1)(j); and


(V)  A juvenile detention facility governed by part 15 of article 2.5 of title 19.


(j) (I)  Except as the commission may modify by rule pursuant to subsection

(7) of this section, covered building means a building comprising a gross floor area of fifty thousand square feet or more that is occupied by a single occupant or group of tenants.

(II)  Covered building does not include:


(A)  A storage facility, stand-alone parking garage, or airplane hangar that

lacks heating and cooling;

(B)  A building in which more than half of the gross floor area is used for

manufacturing or industrial purposes;

(C)  A single-family home, duplex, or triplex; or


(D)  An agricultural building.


(k)  Energy Star means the federal program authorized by 42 U.S.C. sec.

6294a, as amended, to help customers, businesses, and industry save money and protect the environment through the adoption of energy-efficient products and practices.

(l)  Energy Star score means the one-to-one-hundred numeric rating

generated by the Energy Star Portfolio Manager® as a measurement of a building's energy efficiency.

(m)  Energy-use intensity means a building's energy use, expressed as total

site energy use per square foot per year.

(n)  Financial hardship means that a property is experiencing at least one of

the following conditions:

(I)  The property has been included on a city's, county's, or city and county's

annual tax lien sale list within the previous two years;

(II)  The property is an asset subject to a court-appointed receiver that

controls the asset due to financial stress;

(III)  The property is owned by a financial institution as a result of a default by

a borrower;

(IV)  The property has been acquired by a deed in lieu of foreclosure;


(V)  The property is the subject of a senior mortgage subject to a notice of

default; or

(VI)  Due to the governor declaring a disaster emergency pursuant to section

24-33.5-704 (4), the property, in at least two of the previous five years, generated annual rental income or revenue that totals sixty percent or less of the five-year average immediately preceding the disaster emergency declaration.

(o)  Greenhouse gas has the meaning set forth in section 25-7-140 (6).


(p)  Gross floor area means the total building area, as measured from the

outside surface of each exterior wall of the building, including above-grade and below-grade space.

(q)  Local government means a statutory or home rule municipality, county,

or city and county.

(q.5)  Operator means an owner, tenant, or other individual or entity:


(I)  Occupying or named on the utility bill for a covered building; and


(II)  That has access to utility data for the covered building.


(r)  Owner means a person possessing title to a property or the person's

designated agent.

(s)  Performance standards means standards that the commission

establishes by rule pursuant to subsection (8)(c) or (8.5)(a) of this section and with which owners of covered buildings are required to comply.

(t)  Public building means a covered building owned by:


(I)  The state;


(II)  A local government;


(III)  A district or special district regulated under title 32;


(IV)  A state institution of higher education;


(V)  A private institution of higher education as defined in section 23-18-102

(9);

(VI)  A school district created pursuant to article 30 of title 22; and


(VII)  A charter school authorized pursuant to part 1 of article 30.5 of title 22.


(u)  Qualifying utility means:


(I)  An electric or gas utility with five thousand or more active commercial and

industrial service connections, accounts, or customers in the state, including:

(A)  An investor-owned electric or gas utility;


(B)  A cooperative electric association; or


(C)  A municipally owned electric or gas utility; or


(II)  A natural gas supplier with five or more active commercial or industrial

connections, accounts, or customers in the state.

(v)  State institution of higher education:


(I)  Has the meaning set forth in section 23-1-108 (7)(g)(II);


(II)  Includes the Auraria higher education center, governed pursuant to

article 70 of title 23; and

(III)  Does not include a biomedical research laboratory.


(w)  Tenant means a person that, pursuant to a rental or lease agreement,

occupies or holds possession of a building or part of a building or premises.

(x)  Unique identifier means a customer's contact information displayed on

a utility bill such as the customer's name, mailing address, telephone number, or email address.

(y)  Utility customer means the building owner or tenant listed on the

utility's records as the customer liable for payment of the utility service or additional charges assessed on the utility account.

(3) Benchmarking requirements on owners and operators. (a)

Notwithstanding the rules that the commission adopted before July 2025, beginning in 2026 for 2025 benchmarking data and for each subsequent year, the owner of a covered building shall submit a report of the benchmarking data for the previous calendar year to the office on or before November 1.

(b)  Notwithstanding subsection (3)(a) of this section, beginning in 2025 for

2024 benchmarking data and for each subsequent year, if an owner of a covered building demonstrates to the office that it lacks access to benchmarking data, the operator of the covered building shall, on or before November 1 of each year, submit to the office a report of the benchmarking data for the covered building for the previous calendar year.

(c)  Before providing a benchmarking report pursuant to subsection (3)(a) of

this section, an owner of a covered building or operator shall run any automated data checking function of the benchmarking tool and correct any errors discovered.

(d)  The following owners and operators may comply with this subsection (3)

collectively at the campus-wide level:

(I)  The owner or operator of multiple covered buildings that are part of a

master metered group of buildings without submetering;

(II)  The owner or operator of a correctional facility; and


(III)  The owner or operator of a public building that is a covered building.


(4)  Utility data requirements. (a)  On or before June 1, 2022, a qualifying

utility shall:

(I)  Establish an aggregation threshold that is four or fewer utility customer

accounts;

(II)  Publish its aggregation threshold on its public website; and


(III)  Upon request of an owner of a covered building, begin providing energy-use data to the owner.


(b)  Energy-use data that a qualifying utility provides an owner pursuant to

this subsection (4) must be:

(I)  Available on, or able to be requested through, an easily navigable web

portal or online request form using up-to-date standards for digital authentication, including single one-time passwords or multi-factor authentication;

(II)  Provided to the owner within:


(A)  Ninety days after receiving the owner's valid written or electronic

request if the request is received in 2022;

(B)  Thirty days after receiving the owner's valid written or electronic request

if the request is received in 2023 or later;

(III)  Directly uploaded to the owner's benchmarking tool account, delivered in

the spreadsheet template specified by the benchmarking tool, or delivered in another format approved by the office;

(IV)  Provided to the owner on at least an annual basis until the owner revokes

the request for energy-use data or sells the covered building;

(V)  Provided in accordance with this subsection (4), regardless of whether

the owner is named on the utility account for the covered building; and

(VI)  If the qualifying utility is an investor-owned utility, provided in

accordance with the public utilities commission's rules concerning customer data and personally identifying information.

(c)  For covered buildings that do not meet the qualifying utility's

aggregation threshold, and thus require utility customer consent to access or share energy-use data, the consent:

(I)  May be in written or electronic form;


(II)  May be provided in a lease agreement provision;


(III)  Is valid until the utility customer revokes it; and


(IV)  Is not required if a utility customer vacates the covered building before

explicitly denying the owner consent to access and share the utility customer's energy-use data.

(d)  To meet the requirements of this subsection (4), a qualifying utility that is

not an investor-owned utility may seek and use grant funding from the Colorado clean energy fund, a nonprofit corporation, or the energy fund created in section 24-38.5-102.4 (1)(a)(I).

(5)  Benchmarking waivers and extensions of time. (a)  An owner of a

covered building may seek a waiver from the benchmarking requirements set forth in subsection (3) of this section if the owner submits documentation to, and receives approval from, the office, which documentation establishes that the covered building has met one or more of the following conditions for the calendar year to be benchmarked:

(I)  The covered building was unoccupied for at least thirty consecutive days

of the year;

(II)  A demolition permit was issued for the entire covered building;


(III)  The covered building met one or more of the conditions for financial

hardship;

(IV)  The covered building does not meet a qualifying utility's aggregation

threshold, one or more of the utility customers refused to provide the owner with permission to access the utility customer's relevant energy-use data, the owner provides proof to the office that it requested permission from the utility customer or utility customers withholding consent at least thirty days before the benchmarking report was due, and the owner submits a plan to include an energy-use data sharing permission provision in the next lease renewal; or

(V)  The covered building has four or more utility customers, is not located

within a qualifying utility's service territory, and the owner is unable to get aggregated data from the utility that serves the covered building.

(b)  An owner of a covered building may request a time extension from the

office to submit a benchmarking report if the owner submits documentation to the office demonstrating that, despite the owner's good-faith effort, the owner was unable to complete the benchmarking report in a timely manner because of the failure or refusal of a qualifying utility or a utility customer to provide the necessary information or permission, as applicable.

(c)  The office shall notify the division of all approved waivers and extensions

of time, the approval of which is solely within the office's discretion.

(d)  Pursuant to subsection (7) of this section, the commission may, by rule,

modify the requirements for obtaining a waiver or extension of time pursuant to this subsection (5).

(6)  Requirements upon sale or lease of a covered building. (a)  At the time of

listing a covered building or a portion of a covered building for sale or lease, the owner of the covered building shall furnish an electronic copy of reported benchmarking data from the previous calendar year or from the most recent twelve-month period of continuous occupancy to the following:

(I)  Prospective buyers or lessees;


(II)  Any brokers, as defined in section 12-10-201 (6), who make inquiry about

the property; and

(III)  Major commercial real estate listing services on which the property is

listed.

(b)  Upon receipt of the benchmarking data, a commercial real estate listing

service that lists properties in the state shall include in the property's listing, at a minimum, the property's Energy Star score, if applicable, and the property's energy-use intensity.

(c)  If a covered building changes ownership, the former owner shall make

available to the new owner the energy-use data; utility customer consent documentation, if any; and any other information about the property that is necessary to benchmark the covered building. The former owner shall transfer to the new owner both the record representing the covered building within the benchmarking tool and the request to a qualified utility for aggregated data. The new owner may request and receive from a qualifying utility the aggregated data necessary to fulfill benchmarking reporting requirements.

(7)  Benchmarking rules. The commission may promulgate rules to

implement the benchmarking program set forth in this section. Additionally, the commission may, by rule, modify the following:

(a)  The provisions regarding waivers and extensions of time set forth in

subsection (5) of this section;

(b)  The definition of benchmarking data, but only if the modified definition

concerns data that:

(I)  Is capable of being recorded by the benchmarking tool; and


(II)  Includes the greenhouse gas emissions, the Energy Star score, if

applicable, and energy-use intensity;

(c)  The benchmarking tool that owners are required to use to benchmark;


(d)  Data verification requirements; and


(e)  After June 1, 2029, the minimum gross floor area included in the definition

of covered building.

(8)  Rules. (a) and (b)  Repealed.


(c) (I) and (II)  Repealed.


(III)  The commission shall not adopt rules to rescind or modify the

exemptions for owners of public buildings from payment of the annual fee, as set forth in section 24-38.5-112 (1)(e)(II); from payment of the building decarbonization fee, as set forth in section 24-38.5-125 (5)(b); or from payment of civil penalties, as set forth in section 25-7-122 (1)(i).

(IV)  The commission shall, as necessary, adopt rules to modify or continue

the performance standards until 2050 in order to achieve or exceed greenhouse gas emission reduction targets set forth in section 25-7-102 (2)(g).

(d) to (f)  Repealed.


(8.5) 2040 performance standard targets - division to propose standards -

commission to adopt rules - task force - membership - repeal. (a) (I) To help achieve or exceed greenhouse gas emission reduction targets pursuant to subsection (8)(c)(IV) of this section, the commission shall adopt, by rule, 2040 performance standards in accordance with section 25-7-102 (2)(g).

(II)  On or before June 1, 2029, the division, after consultation with the office,

shall consider recommendations from the task force created pursuant to subsection (8.5)(c) of this section and shall propose 2040 performance standards to the commission for consideration in the rules adopted pursuant to subsection (8.5)(a)(I) of this section.

(b)  The division, in proposing 2040 performance standards, and the

commission, in adopting 2040 performance standards, shall consider whether targets that are included in the 2040 performance standards to reduce emissions from covered buildings are consistent with meeting the economy-wide emission reduction goals set forth in section 25-7-102 (2)(g), taking into consideration:

(I)  The capital planning periods for covered buildings;


(II)  The feasibility of an owner planning and implementing a building upgrade

project ahead of the compliance date for the 2040 performance standards that the commission sets by rule pursuant to subsection (8.5)(a)(I) of this section; and

(III)  That all rules that the commission adopts must be technologically

feasible and economically reasonable pursuant to the requirements set forth in section 25-7-102 (1).

(c) (I)  On or before July 1, 2027, the director of the office shall appoint and

convene a task force. The task force shall review the benchmarking data submitted for calendar years 2021 through 2026 and, on or before July 1, 2028, develop and provide recommendations to the division regarding the 2040 performance standards.

(II)  As part of the recommendations developed pursuant to subsection

(8.5)(c)(I) of this section, the task force shall consider:

(A)  The economy-wide emission reduction goals set forth in section 25-7-102

(2)(g);

(B)  The capital planning periods for covered buildings and the feasibility of

an owner planning and implementing a building upgrade project ahead of the compliance date;

(C)  Whether the building performance program should allow a covered

building owner to meet performance targets through the implementation of energy efficiency improvements or other eligible measures;

(D)  Improvements that materially advance compliance with the performance

standards and avoid premature replacement of equipment that remains within its useful service life;

(E)  The establishment of individualized compliance pathways, including the

ability of the office to enter into agreements with covered building owners to define alternative compliance metrics and schedules that are consistent with operational necessity and that avoid unnecessary financial burdens; and

(F)  Elements from prior rules regarding building performance standards,

which rules may require revision. The task force shall make recommendations regarding any rule revisions that it believes are necessary.

(d)  The task force consists of the following members, all of whom, except

the representatives of the office, the public utilities commission, and the division, are voting members:

(I)  The director of the office or the director's designee;


(II)  The director of the division or the director's designee;


(III)  The director of the public utilities commission or the director's designee;


(IV)  One member who is an owner of commercial covered buildings or who

represents owners of commercial covered buildings;

(V)  One member who is an owner of a multifamily residential covered

building or who represents owners of multifamily residential covered buildings;

(VI)  One member who represents an affordable housing organization;


(VII)  One member who has direct experience in, or is a member of an

organization representing workers in, mechanical, HVAC, or electrical work at the commercial or multifamily building level;

(VIII)  One member who represents architects;


(IX)  One member who represents professional engineers and who has

experience working on systems for buildings;

(X)  One member who has extensive experience as a building operating

engineer;

(XI)  One member who represents an electric utility, a gas utility, or a

combined electric and gas utility;

(XII)  One member who is from an environmental conservation or

environmental justice group with experience in energy efficiency or the built environment;

(XIII)  One member who is from a local government that has enacted or

adopted a benchmarking or building energy performance ordinance or resolution;

(XIV)  Three members who have relevant building performance expertise, as

determined by the director of the office;

(XV)  One member representing hospitals or other health-care facilities; and


(XVI)  One member who is a representative of a mixed-use commercial office.


(e)  An individual applying to serve on the task force must submit a

recommendation from a member of the group that the individual seeks to represent on the task force or, if a trade organization exists that represents the group, a recommendation from the trade organization.

(f)  In making appointments to the task force, the director of the office shall

strive to ensure varied geographic representation.

(g)  The task force shall conduct a comprehensive economic analysis of its

recommendations for the 2040 performance standards prior to providing the recommendations to the division.

(8.6)  Notwithstanding any rules that the commission adopts pursuant to this

section before July 1, 2025:

(a) (I)  An owner of a covered building that meets its performance standards

using the standard percentage reduction building performance pathway, as established by rule of the commission, may use 2019 benchmarking data as an alternate baseline if the owner submits complete and accurate 2019 benchmarking data to the office no later than November 1, 2027;

(II)  An owner of a covered building located within the jurisdiction of a local

government that has adopted and implemented a building performance standards program or other similar program intended to reduce greenhouse gas emissions from covered buildings is deemed in compliance with this section and rules adopted by the commission pursuant to this section by complying with the requirements of the local program if:

(A)  The owner of the covered building maintains compliance with the local

program and certifies its affirmative compliance status by submitting an affidavit, which affidavit attests that the covered building meets the requirements of the local program, in annual benchmarking reports submitted to the office; and

(B)  The office has determined that the greenhouse gas emission reductions

from covered buildings complying with the local program are reasonably similar to the greenhouse gas emission reductions that would have been achieved through compliance with performance standards established under this section;

(III)  A local jurisdiction that has adopted and implemented a building

performance standards program may issue a certification or report to the office confirming which covered buildings are in compliance with the program; and

(IV)  Decisions made by the office regarding equivalence pursuant to

subsection (8.6)(a)(II)(B) of this section are subject to judicial review pursuant to section 24-4-106.

(b) (I)  Notwithstanding subsection (8.6)(a) of this section and any rules

adopted by the commission before July 1, 2025, an owner may either comply with the 2026 performance standards or track its progress toward compliance by submitting benchmarking reports in accordance with subsections (3) and (8.6)(b)(II) of this section.

(II)  Beginning with the 2025 benchmarking reports submitted in 2026, and

each year thereafter, a covered building owner or operator shall, as part of its benchmarking reports submitted to the office:

(A)  Respond to any standard progress-related questions included in the

benchmarking form to help assess whether the building is on a path toward future compliance;

(B)  Indicate whether technical assistance or guidance from the office would

be helpful; and

(C)  Provide any additional nonproprietary information requested by the office

that is relevant to understanding implementation trends or common barriers to compliance.

(III)  The reports required under subsection (8.6)(b)(II) of this section must

include only answers to the questions that are minimally necessary to assess the covered building owner's progress toward the performance standard targets.

(IV)  Any rules the commission adopted before July 1, 2025, that impose

additional compliance obligations upon a covered building owner that fails to timely meet a building performance standard do not apply until 2031 for the 2030 building performance standards.

(V)  The office shall prioritize any grant money that is made available for

owners of covered buildings:

(A)  That comply with or establish plans to go beyond the 2026 performance

standards; or

(B)  That comply with the 2030 performance standard early or establish plans

to go beyond the 2030 performance standards.

(VI)  Nothing in this subsection (8.6)(b) precludes or modifies the division's

authority to enforce against an owner of a covered building for noncompliance with 2030 performance standards or performance standards set for subsequent years.

(8.7)  Notwithstanding the requirements of subsection (8)(a)(II) of this section

or rules adopted pursuant to that subsection, subsection (8.6) of this section is necessary for covered buildings to effectively implement the performance standards. The commission is not required to revise rules that were adopted pursuant to this section before July 1, 2025.

(8.8) (a)  Energy use that a covered building owner demonstrates is

attributable to electric vehicle charging shall not be included in a covered building's total energy usage for purposes of compliance with building performance standards.

(b)  A covered building owner may, after consultation with the office, request

documentation demonstrating that:

(I)  The covered building is in current compliance with the commission's rules

adopted in accordance with this section; and

(II)  The covered building is on a path toward meeting upcoming compliance

obligations, based on the performance standards, conditions, and building-specific plans that are in effect at the time of the covered building owner's request.

(c)  Consistent with rules adopted by the commission, the office shall develop

guidance concerning individualized target and compliance guidelines for covered building owners that demonstrate a significant increase in energy use due to the expansion of a data center or telecommunications operation. A covered building owner's individualized energy efficiency target can reflect increased electricity consumption over time from a data center or telecommunications operation if all cost-effective energy efficiency and electrification measures have been performed. Consistent with rules adopted by the commission regarding timelines and adjustments for building performance standard targets, individualized targets and compliance timelines may be adjusted multiple times based on the evolving growth of energy consumption by the covered building.

(9)  Saving clause. This section does not restrict:


(a)  The ability of a qualifying utility to provide incentives or other energy

efficiency program services for covered buildings;

(b)  The ability of an investor-owned utility to take credit, as deemed

appropriate by the public utilities commission, for energy or greenhouse gas emission savings achieved for covered buildings;

(c)  The ability of a qualified utility to set an aggregation threshold that is

less than four; or

(d)  A local government from adopting or implementing an ordinance or

resolution that imposes more stringent benchmarking or performance standard requirements.

(10)  Agricultural buildings exempted from benchmarking requirements. (a)

An owner of an agricultural building may submit for an affirmative exemption from any requirement to report benchmarking data.

(b)  An owner of an agricultural building may submit for an exemption to

remain valid until there is a change in ownership or a change that renders the building no longer an agricultural building.

(c)  For the duration of any exemption, an owner of an agricultural building

shall certify, upon request, the exemption status of any building for which an exemption has been granted.

Source: L. 2021: Entire section added, (HB 21-1286), ch. 326, p. 2070, � 1,

effective September 7. L. 2022: (2)(i)(V) amended, (SB 22-212), ch. 421, p. 2980, � 61, effective August 10. L. 2023: IP(8)(c)(I) and IP(8)(c)(II) amended, (SB 23-016), ch. 165, p. 734, � 6, effective August 7. L. 2025: (1.5), (2)(q.5), (8.5), (8.6), (8.7), and (8.8) added and (2)(s), (3), (8)(c)(III), and (8)(f) amended, (HB 25-1269), ch. 216, p. 978, � 3, effective May 20; (2)(b.5), (2)(j)(II)(D) and (10) added and (2)(j)(II)(B) and (2)(j)(II)(C) amended, (SB 25-039), ch. 37, p. 182, � 1, effective August 6.

Editor's note: (1)  Subsection (8)(f) was amended in HB 25-1269, effective

May 20, 2025. For the amendments in HB 25-1269 in effect from May 20, 2025, to July 1, 2025, see chapter 216, Session Laws of Colorado 2025. (L. 2025, p. 978.)

(2)  Subsection (8)(f) provided for the repeal of subsections (8)(a), (8)(b),

(8)(c)(I), (8)(c)(II), (8)(d), (8)(e), and (8)(f), effective July 1, 2025. (See L. 2025, p. 978.)

(3)  Section 10 of chapter 216 (HB 25-1269), Session Laws of Colorado 2025,

provides that the act changing this section applies to conduct occurring on or after May 20, 2025.


C.R.S. § 25-7-1501

25-7-1501. Legislative declaration. (1) The general assembly declares that it is in the interest of the state to reduce and prevent air pollution from certain new heating and water heating appliances in order to:

(a)  Protect the air that Coloradans breathe by reducing unhealthy levels of

smog and ozone, which have hit record highs in Colorado in recent years and have disproportionately impacted low-income areas;

(b)  Minimize health risks associated with air pollution, including respiratory

ailments such as asthma and cardiovascular illnesses, which are linked to exposure to fine particulate matter and nitrogen dioxide;

(c)  Assist Colorado counties in achieving attainment of federal ozone

national ambient air quality standards;

(d)  Improve the clarity of scenic views for purposes of facilitating enjoyment

of Colorado's bountiful natural resources and maintain its reputation for high-quality outdoor recreation;

(e)  Mitigate the effects of climate change;


(f)  Contribute to the state's economy by building a trained and competitive

workforce to install and maintain newly purchased appliances; and

(g)  Ensure that the benefits of clean and healthy air are distributed to all

parts of the state.

Source: L. 2023: Entire part added, (HB 23-1161), ch. 285, p. 1711, � 9,

effective August 7.


C.R.S. § 25-7-1502

25-7-1502. Definitions. As used in this part 15, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1)  BTU means British thermal unit, which is a scientific unit of

measurement equal to the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of one pound of water one degree Fahrenheit at approximately sixty degrees Fahrenheit.

(2)  Energy Star program has the meaning set forth in section 6-7.5-102

(24).

(3)  Executive director means the executive director of the department of

public health and environment or the executive director's designee.

(4)  Fan-type central furnace means a self-contained space heater that

provides for circulation of heated air at pressures other than atmospheric through ducts more than ten inches in length.

(5) (a)  Heat input means the heat released by the combustion of fuels and

is based on the gross energy content of the combustible fuel, also known as the higher heating value of fuel.

(b)  Heat input does not include the enthalpy of incoming combustion air.


(6)  Heat output means the enthalpy of the working fluid output of a water

heater.

(7)  Manufactured home means a prefabricated structure on a permanently

attached chassis, which structure satisfies the federal manufactured home construction safety standard, as defined in section 24-32-3302 (13).

(8)  NOx means the sum of nitric oxide and nitrogen dioxide.


(9)  Rated heat input capacity means the heat input capacity specified on

the nameplate of a water heater. If a water heater has been altered or modified such that its maximum heat input is different from the heat input capacity specified on the nameplate, the new maximum heat input is the water heater's rated heat input capacity.

(10)  Recreational vehicle means a motor home, travel trailer, truck camper,

or camping trailer, with or without motive power, that is designed for human occupancy and for recreational, emergency, or other use.

(11)  Water heater means a device that heats water by combustion of fuel or

through the use of electricity to a thermostatically controlled temperature not exceeding two hundred ten degrees Fahrenheit or ninety-nine degrees Celsius, for use external to the device, at a pressure not exceeding one hundred sixty pounds per square inch gauge.

Source: L. 2023: Entire part added, (HB 23-1161), ch. 285, p. 1712, � 9,

effective August 7.


C.R.S. § 25-7-1503

25-7-1503. Scope and applicability. (1) Except as described in subsection (2) of this section and as modified by rules promulgated by the executive director or the commission pursuant to section 25-7-1506, this part 15 applies to the following new products:

(a)  Water heaters with a rated heat input capacity of two million BTUs per

hour or less; and

(b)  Fan-type central furnaces that:


(I)  Require either single-phase or three-phase electric supply;


(II)  Are used for comfort heating; and


(III)  Have a rated heat input capacity of less than one hundred seventy-five

thousand BTUs per hour and, in the case of combination heating and cooling units, a cooling rate of less than sixty-five thousand BTUs per hour.

(2)  This part 15 does not apply to:


(a)  Products held in inventory in Colorado on the effective date of the

applicable standard;

(b)  Products that were installed in manufactured homes at the time of

construction;

(c)  Products designed expressly for installation and use in recreational

vehicles; or

(d)  Products that do not burn fossil fuels.


Source: L. 2023: Entire part added, (HB 23-1161), ch. 285, p. 1713, � 9,

effective August 7.


C.R.S. § 25-7-1506

25-7-1506. Rules - analysis. (1) Notwithstanding any provision of this part 15, the executive director may promulgate rules updating any emission standard, definition, or test method established in this part 15 in order to maintain or improve consistency with other comparable standards in other states so long as the updated version results in air quality that is equal to or better than air quality achieved using the prior standard.

(2)  The executive director may promulgate rules as necessary to ensure the

proper implementation and enforcement of this part 15.

(3)  On or before January 1, 2030, the executive director shall conduct an

analysis to determine whether statewide greenhouse gas emissions from water heaters and fan-type central furnaces are declining in comparison to emission levels in 2023 in a manner that comports with the statewide greenhouse gas reduction goals set forth in section 25-7-102 (2)(g). Unless the analysis determines that the emissions trajectory is consistent with achieving the statewide greenhouse gas reduction goals, the executive director shall propose to the commission rules to bring the emission levels in line with the reduction goals. The executive director shall ensure that such rules:

(a)  Take into account any emission standards that are in effect or under

development in other jurisdictions or at the federal level for new water heaters and fan-type central furnaces;

(b)  Take into account input from major manufacturers of water heaters, fan-type central furnaces, and other relevant equipment;


(c)  Consider whether emissions standards for additional types of residential

and commercial heating and water heating equipment are appropriate and necessary to meet the greenhouse gas emission reduction targets described in section 25-7-102 (2)(g);

(d)  Are achievable with available technology; and


(e)  Do not place an undue cost burden on consumers.


Source: L. 2023: Entire part added, (HB 23-1161), ch. 285, p. 1715, � 9,

effective August 7.


C.R.S. § 25-7-1601

25-7-1601. Legislative declaration. (1) The general assembly finds and determines that:

(a)  Rising temperatures are increasing the demand for air conditioners;


(b)  Common types of air conditioners can also provide winter heating if they

are configured as heat pumps, which are a more environmentally friendly option than other types of heating, ventilation, and air conditioning systems;

(c)  The Inflation Reduction Act of 2022, the state, and utilities are opening

up opportunities to make this technology less expensive than cooling-only systems; and

(d)  Colorado should be prepared to take advantage of new opportunities to

the maximum extent to create a more affordable and environmentally friendly housing market and heating, ventilation, and air conditioning industry.

(2)  The general assembly, therefore, determines and declares that it is in the

public interest for the health and environment of the state to require that the Colorado energy office conduct a study of the technical viability, economic conditions, and workforce readiness of standards for configuring new residential air conditioners as heat pumps.

Source: L. 2024: Entire part added, (SB 24-214), ch. 191, p. 1097, � 13,

effective May 17.


C.R.S. § 25-7-1602

25-7-1602. Definitions. As used in this part 16, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1)  Air conditioner means an electrically powered mechanical device that

uses the refrigeration cycle to cool an interior habitable space.

(2)  Applicable air conditioner means an air conditioner that is:


(a)  New;


(b)  Powered by a single-phase current;


(c)  Designed and intended for residential use;


(d)  Designed and intended for permanent installation; and


(e)  Not designed or intended to be window mounted.


(3)  Heat pump means an electrically powered mechanical device that uses

the refrigeration cycle to transfer thermal energy from one location to another.

(4)  HVAC means a heating, ventilation, and air conditioning system.


(5)  Office means the Colorado energy office created in section 24-38.5-101

(1).

(6)  Residential means one- and two-family dwellings and townhouses, as

defined in the most recent edition of the International Residential Code.

Source: L. 2024: Entire part added, (SB 24-214), ch. 191, p. 1098, � 13,

effective May 17.


C.R.S. § 25-7-1604

25-7-1604. Repeal of part. This part 16 is repealed, effective July 1, 2030.

Source: L. 2024: Entire part added, (SB 24-214), ch. 191, p. 1100, � 13,

effective May 17.

ARTICLE 7.5

Clean Motor Vehicle Fleet Support

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in SB 21-260, see section 1

of chapter 250, Session Laws of Colorado 2021.

25-7.5-101.  Legislative declaration. (1)  The general assembly hereby finds

and declares that:

(a)  An increasing number of fleet motor vehicles are on the road to meet

increasing demands for retail deliveries and rides arranged through transportation network companies;

(b)  These fleet vehicles are some of the most polluting vehicles on the road,

which has resulted in additional and increasing air and greenhouse gas pollution and related adverse environmental and health impacts across the state;

(c)  The adverse environmental and health impacts of increased emissions

from fleet motor vehicles used to make retail deliveries and provide rides arranged through transportation network companies can be mitigated and offset by supporting the widespread adoption of electric motor vehicles for use in motor vehicle fleets;

(d)  Instead of reducing the impacts of retail deliveries and rides arranged

through transportation network companies by limiting retail delivery and transportation network company ride activity through regulation, it is more appropriate to continue to allow persons who receive retail deliveries and benefit from the convenience afforded by unfettered retail deliveries and to allow transportation network companies that arrange prearranged rides to continue to provide that service without undue restrictions and instead impose a small fee on each retail delivery and ride and use fee revenue to fund necessary mitigation activities; and

(e)  It is necessary, appropriate, and in the best interest of the state and all

Coloradans to incentivize and support the use of electric motor vehicles and, to the extent temporarily necessitated by the limitations of current electric motor vehicle technology and availability for certain fleet uses, compressed natural gas motor vehicles that are fueled by recovered methane and that produce fewer emissions than gasoline or diesel powered motor vehicles, by businesses and governmental entities that use fleets of motor vehicles, including fleets composed of personal motor vehicles owned by individual contractors who provide prearranged rides for transportation network companies or make retail deliveries, and to enable the state to achieve its stated electric motor vehicle adoption goals because increased usage of electric motor vehicles in motor vehicle fleets:

(I)  Generally reduces emissions of air pollutants, including ozone precursors,

particulate matter pollutants, other hazardous air pollutants, and greenhouse gases, that contribute to adverse environmental effects such as climate change and adverse human health effects, including but not limited to asthma, reduced lung capacity, increased susceptibility to respiratory illnesses, chronic bronchitis, heart disease, and lung cancer, and helps the state meet its statewide greenhouse gas pollution reduction targets established in section 25-7-102 (2)(g), comply with air quality attainment standards, and reduce adverse environmental and health impacts across the state and in communities, including but not limited to disproportionately impacted communities;

(II)  Specifically reduces higher localized emissions of such air pollutants in

communities, including but not limited to disproportionately impacted communities, where:

(A)  Fleet yards, warehouses, distribution centers, refineries, fuel depots,

waste facilities, and major interstate highways are located;

(B)  Usage of fleet motor vehicles is concentrated; and


(C)  Residents experience increased risks of air-pollution-related health

impacts such as asthma, reduced lung capacity, increased susceptibility to respiratory illnesses, heart disease, and lung cancer; and

(III)  By reducing fuel and maintenance costs, helps businesses and

governmental entities operate more efficiently over time, allowing the cost savings to be reinvested in business growth or used for beneficial public purposes.

(2)  The general assembly further finds and declares that:


(a)  To incentivize, support, and accelerate the adoption of electric motor

vehicles in motor vehicle fleets in the state and thereby minimize and mitigate the environmental and health impacts of the transportation system and reap the environmental, health, and business and governmental operational efficiency benefits that result from motor vehicle fleet electrification, it is necessary, appropriate, and in the best interest of the state to create a clean fleet enterprise to help businesses and governmental entities that own or operate fleets of motor vehicles use more electric motor vehicles, and, to the extent temporarily necessitated by the limitations of current electric motor vehicle technology for certain fleet uses, more compressed natural gas motor vehicles that are fueled by recovered methane, in their motor vehicle fleets;

(b)  The enterprise provides business services, including remediation services,

when, in exchange for the payment of fees, it:

(I)  Provides financing through grant programs, rebate programs, revolving

loan funds, or any other strategies that the board finds effective;

(II)  Helps owners and operators of motor vehicle fleets reduce the up-front

and total costs of using more electric motor vehicles, and, to the extent temporarily necessitated by the limitations of current electric motor vehicle technology for certain fleet uses, more compressed natural gas motor vehicles that are fueled by recovered methane, in their fleets;

(III)  Supports companion services such as testing, inspection, and

readjustment services;

(IV)  Provides outreach, education, or training to support the successful

application and performance of entities receiving funds;

(V)  Supports the development of a clean transportation workforce that can

support businesses as they transition to using more electric motor vehicles in their fleets;

(VI)  Assesses and supports the implementation of cleaner and more efficient

commercial vehicle technology to support motor vehicle fleet electrification;

(VII)  Researches and develops strategies, business plans, and guidance to

support the consistent application of grants and other enterprise business services, including remediation services;

(VIII)  Contributes to the implementation of the comprehensive regulatory

scheme required for the planning, funding, development, construction, maintenance, and supervision of a sustainable transportation system; and

(IX)  Provides additional remediation services to offset impacts caused by fee

payers as may be provided by law, including but not limited to:

(A)  Incentivizing the use of clean mobile equipment;


(B)  Providing planning services to support communities, including but not

limited to disproportionately impacted communities; and

(C)  Providing scrappage services;


(c)  By providing remediation services as authorized by this section, the

enterprise engages in an activity conducted in the pursuit of a benefit, gain, or livelihood and therefore operates as a business;

(d)  By providing remediation services as authorized by this section, the

enterprise provides a benefit to fee payers when it remediates the impacts they cause and therefore operates as a business in accordance with the determination of the Colorado supreme court in Colorado Union of Taxpayers Foundation v. City of Aspen, 2018 CO 36;

(e)  Consistent with the determination of the Colorado supreme court in

Nicholl v. E-470 Public Highway Authority, 896 P.2d 859 (Colo. 1995), that the power to impose taxes is inconsistent with enterprise status under section 20 of article X of the state constitution, it is the conclusion of the general assembly that the revenue collected by the enterprise is generated by fees, not taxes, because the fees imposed by the enterprise as authorized by section 25-7.5-103 (7) and (8) are:

(I)  Imposed for the specific purpose of allowing the enterprise to defray the

costs of providing the remediation services specified in this section, including mitigating impacts to air quality and greenhouse gas emissions caused by the activities on which the fee is assessed, and contributes to the implementation of the comprehensive regulatory scheme required for the planning, funding, development, construction, maintenance, and supervision of a sustainable transportation system; and

(II)  Collected at rates that are reasonably calculated based on the impacts

caused by fee payers and the cost of remediating those impacts; and

(f)  So long as the enterprise qualifies as an enterprise for purposes of

section 20 of article X of the state constitution, the revenue from the fees collected by the enterprise is not state fiscal year spending, as defined in section 24-77-102 (17), or state revenues, as defined in section 24-77-103.6 (6)(c), and does not count against either the state fiscal year spending limit imposed by section 20 of article X of the state constitution or the excess state revenues cap, as defined in section 24-77-103.6 (6)(b)(I)(D).

Source: L. 2021: Entire article added, (SB 21-260), ch. 250, p. 1387, � 11,

effective June 17.

25-7.5-102.  Definitions. As used in this article 7.5, unless the context

otherwise requires:

(1)  Battery electric motor vehicle means a motor vehicle that is powered

exclusively by a rechargeable battery pack that can be recharged by being plugged into an external source of electricity and that has no secondary source of propulsion.

(2)  Board means the governing board of the enterprise.


(3)  Car share ride means a prearranged ride for which the rider agrees, at

the time the rider requests the ride through a digital network, to be transported with another rider who has separately requested a prearranged ride regardless of whether or not another rider is actually transported with the rider.

(4)  Commission means the air quality control commission created in

section 25-7-104.

(5)  Compressed natural gas motor vehicle means a vehicle that is powered

by an engine fueled by compressed natural gas.

(6)  Department means the department of public health and environment

created in section 24-1-119 (1).

(7)  Disproportionately impacted community has the meaning set forth in

section 24-4-109 (2)(b)(II).

(8)  Electric motor vehicle means a battery electric motor vehicle, a

hydrogen fuel cell motor vehicle, or a plug-in hybrid electric motor vehicle.

(9)  Enterprise means the clean fleet enterprise created in section 25-7.5-103 (1)(a)(I).


(10)  Fund means the clean fleet enterprise fund created in section 25-7.5-103 (5).


(11)  Heavy-duty motor vehicle means a motor vehicle that has a gross

vehicle weight rating, as defined in section 42-2-402 (6), of greater than twenty-six thousand pounds.

(12)  Hydrogen fuel cell motor vehicle means a motor vehicle that is

powered by electricity produced from a fuel cell that uses hydrogen gas as fuel.

(13)  Inflation means the average annual percentage change in the United

States department of labor, bureau of labor statistics, consumer price index for Denver-Aurora-Lakewood for all items and all urban consumers, or its applicable predecessor or successor index, for the five years ending on the last December 31 before a state fiscal year for which an inflation adjustment to be made to the clean fleet per ride fee imposed by section 25-7.5-103 (7) or the clean fleet retail delivery fee imposed by section 25-7.5-103 (8) begins.

(14)  Medium-duty motor vehicle means a motor vehicle that has a gross

vehicle weight rating, as defined in section 42-2-402 (6), of more than ten thousand pounds and not more than twenty-six thousand pounds.

(15)  Motor vehicle has the meaning set forth in section 42-1-102 (58). The

term does not include a personal delivery device.

(16)  Motor vehicle fleet means a group of motor vehicles that is owned or

operated:

(a)  By a governmental entity for a public purpose including but not limited to

public school transportation or law enforcement; or

(b)  By a business entity for a business if:


(I)  The group of motor vehicles is composed primarily of heavy-duty motor

vehicles, medium-duty motor vehicles, or refrigerated trailer units; or

(II)  The group of motor vehicles is owned or operated by a company that

rents motor vehicles in the fleet to transportation network company drivers for use in providing transportation network company services or is owned and operated directly, or indirectly through independent contractors who own or lease individual motor vehicles in the group, by a transportation network company or by a retailer for the purpose of making retail deliveries.

(17)  Personal delivery device means an autonomously operated robot that

is:

(a)  Designed and manufactured for the purpose of transporting tangible

personal property primarily on sidewalks, crosswalks, and other public rights-of-way that are typically used by pedestrians;

(b)  Weighs no more than five hundred fifty pounds, excluding any tangible

personal property being transported; and

(c)  Operates at speeds of less than ten miles per hour when on sidewalks,

crosswalks, and other public rights-of-way that are typically used by pedestrians.

(18)  Plug-in hybrid electric motor vehicle means a motor vehicle that is

powered by both a rechargeable battery pack that can be recharged by being plugged into an external source of electricity and a secondary source of propulsion such as an internal combustion engine.

(19)  Prearranged ride has the same meaning as set forth in section 40-10.1-602 (2).


(20)  Recovered methane means any of the following if the air pollution

control division determines them to provide a net reduction in greenhouse gas emissions:

(a)  Biomethane;


(b)  Methane derived from:


(I)  Municipal solid waste;


(II)  Biomass pyrolysis or enzymatic biomass; or


(III)  Wastewater treatment; and


(c)  Coal mine methane, as defined in section 40-2-124 (1)(a)(II).


(21)  Retail delivery has the same meaning as set forth in section 43-4-218

(2)(e).

(22)  Retailer has the same meaning as set forth in section 39-26-102 (8).


(23)  Repealed.


(24)  Rider has the same meaning as set forth in section 40-10.1-602 (5).


(25)  Tangible personal property has the same meaning as set forth in

section 39-26-102 (15).

(26)  Transportation network company has the same meaning as set forth in

section 40-10.1-602 (3).

(27)  Transportation network company driver has the same meaning as set

forth in section 40-10.1-602 (4).

(28)  Transportation network company services has the same meaning as

set forth in section 40-10.1-602 (6).

(29)  Zero emissions motor vehicle means a battery electric motor vehicle

or a hydrogen fuel cell motor vehicle.

Source: L. 2021: Entire article added, (SB 21-260), ch. 250, p. 1390, � 11,

effective June 17. L. 2023: (7) amended, (HB 23-1233), ch. 245, p. 1332, � 18, effective May 23; (21) amended and (23) repealed, (SB 23-143), ch. 153, p. 651, � 4, July 1.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in HB 23-1233, see section 1

of chapter 245, Session Laws of Colorado 2023.

25-7.5-103.  Clean fleet enterprise - creation - board - powers and duties -

fees - fund. (1) (a) The clean fleet enterprise is hereby created in the department. The enterprise is and operates as a government-owned business within the department in order to execute its business purpose as specified in subsection (3) of this section by exercising the powers and performing the duties set forth in this section.

(b)  The enterprise is a type 1 entity, as defined in section 24-1-105, and

exercises its powers and performs its duties and functions under the department.

(2) (a)  The governing board of the enterprise consists of nine members as

follows:

(I)  The governor shall appoint six members with the advice and consent of

the senate for terms of the length specified in subsection (2)(b) of this section. One member shall represent a disproportionately impacted community, one member shall have expertise in air pollution reduction, one member shall have expertise in transportation, one member shall have expertise in motor vehicle fleet electrification, one member shall have expertise in business or supply chain management, and one member shall represent a business that owns or operates a motor vehicle fleet. The governor shall make reasonable efforts, to the extent such applications have been submitted for consideration for the board, to consider members that reflect the state's geographic diversity when making appointments and shall make initial appointments no later than October 1, 2021.

(II)  The executive director of the department or the executive director's

designee;

(III)  The director of the Colorado energy office or the director's designee; and


(IV)  The executive director of the department of transportation or the

executive director's designee.

(b)  Members of the board appointed by the governor serve for terms of four

years; except that four of the members initially appointed shall serve for initial terms of three years. A member who is appointed to fill a vacancy on the board shall serve the remainder of the unexpired term of the former member. The other board members serve for as long as they hold their positions or are designated to serve.

(c)  Members of the board serve without compensation but must be

reimbursed from money in the fund for actual and necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their duties pursuant to this article 7.5.

(3)  The business purpose of the enterprise is to incentivize and support the

use of electric motor vehicles, including motor vehicles that originally were powered exclusively by internal combustion engines but have been converted into electric motor vehicles, and, to the extent temporarily necessitated by the limitations of current electric motor vehicle technology for certain fleet uses, compressed natural gas motor vehicles that are fueled by recovered methane, by businesses and governmental entities that own or operate fleets of motor vehicles, including fleets composed of personal motor vehicles owned or leased by individual contractors who provide prearranged rides for transportation network companies or deliver goods for a third-party delivery service. To allow the enterprise to accomplish this purpose and fully exercise its powers and duties through the board, the enterprise may:

(a)  Impose a clean fleet per ride fee and a clean fleet retail delivery fee as

authorized by subsections (7) and (8) of this section;

(b)  Issue grants, loans, and rebates as authorized by subsection (9) of this

section; and

(c)  Issue revenue bonds payable from the revenue and other available money

of the enterprise.

(4)  The enterprise constitutes an enterprise for purposes of section 20 of

article X of the state constitution so long as it retains the authority to issue revenue bonds and receives less than ten percent of its total annual revenue in grants from all Colorado state and local governments combined. So long as it constitutes an enterprise pursuant to this subsection (4), the enterprise is not subject to section 20 of article X of the state constitution.

(5) (a)  The clean fleet enterprise fund is hereby created in the state treasury.

The fund consists of clean fleet per ride fee revenue and clean fleet retail delivery fee revenue credited to the fund pursuant to subsections (7) and (8) of this section, any monetary gifts, grants, donations, or other payments received by the enterprise, any federal money that may be credited to the fund, and any other money that the general assembly may appropriate or transfer to the fund. The state treasurer shall credit all interest and income derived from the deposit and investment of money in the fund to the fund. Money in the fund is continuously appropriated to the enterprise for the purposes set forth in this article 7.5 and to pay the enterprise's reasonable and necessary operating expenses, including the repayment of any loan received pursuant to subsection (5)(b) of this section.

(b)  The department may transfer money from any legally available source to

the enterprise for the purpose of defraying expenses incurred by the enterprise before it receives fee revenue or revenue bond proceeds. The enterprise may accept and expend any money so transferred, and, notwithstanding any state fiscal rule or generally accepted accounting principle that could otherwise be interpreted to require a contrary conclusion, such a transfer is a loan from the department to the enterprise that is required to be repaid and is not a grant for purposes of section 20 (2)(d) of article X of the state constitution or as defined in section 24-77-102 (7). All money transferred as a loan to the enterprise shall be credited to the clean fleet enterprise initial expenses fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury, and loan liabilities that are recorded in the clean fleet enterprise initial expenses fund but that are not required to be paid in the current fiscal year shall not be considered when calculating sufficient statutory fund balance for purposes of section 24-75-109. The state treasurer shall credit all interest and income derived from the deposit and investment of money in the clean fleet enterprise initial expenses fund to the fund. The clean fleet enterprise initial expenses fund is continuously appropriated to the enterprise for the purpose of defraying expenses incurred by the enterprise before it receives fee revenue or revenue bond proceeds. As the enterprise receives sufficient revenue in excess of expenses, the enterprise shall reimburse the department for the principal amount of any loan made by the department plus interest at a rate set by the department. Upon receipt of such reimbursement, the department shall remit to the state treasurer for crediting to the general fund the amount needed to fully repay the amount of any general fund money appropriated to the department for the purpose of funding the loan made pursuant to this subsection (5)(b) plus the interest included in the reimbursement.

(6)  In addition to any other powers and duties specified in this section, the

board has the following general powers and duties:

(a)  To adopt bylaws for the regulation of its affairs and the conduct of its

business;

(b)  To acquire, hold title to, and dispose of real and personal property;


(c)  In consultation with the executive director of the department, or the

executive director's designee, to employ and supervise individuals, professional consultants, and contractors as are necessary in its judgment to carry out its business purpose;

(d)  To contract with any public or private entity, including state agencies,

consultants, and the attorney general's office, for professional and technical assistance, office space, and administrative services, advice, and other services related to the conduct of the affairs of the enterprise. The enterprise is encouraged to issue grants on a competitive basis based on written criteria established by the enterprise in advance of any deadlines for the submission of grant applications. The board shall generally avoid using sole-source contracts.

(e)  To seek, accept, and expend gifts, grants, donations, or other payments

from private or public sources for the purposes of this article 7.5 so long as the total amount of all grants from Colorado state and local governments received in any state fiscal year is less than ten percent of the enterprise's total annual revenue for the state fiscal year. The enterprise shall transmit any money received through gifts, grants, donations, or other payments to the state treasurer, who shall credit the money to the fund.

(f)  To provide services as set forth in subsection (9) of this section;


(g)  To publish the processes by which the enterprise accepts applications,

the criteria for evaluating applications, and a list of grantees or program participants pursuant to subsection (9) of this section;

(h)  To promulgate rules for the sole purpose of setting the amounts of the

clean fleet per ride fee and the clean fleet retail delivery fee at or below the maximum amounts authorized in this section; and

(i)  To have and exercise all rights and powers necessary or incidental to or

implied from the specific powers and duties granted by this section.

(7) (a)  In furtherance of its business purpose, beginning in state fiscal year

2022-23, the enterprise shall impose a clean fleet per ride fee to be paid by a transportation network company for each prearranged ride requested and accepted through the company's digital network. For the purpose of minimizing compliance costs for transportation network companies and administrative costs for the state, the department of revenue shall collect the clean fleet per ride fee on behalf of the enterprise, and a transportation network company shall pay the fee to the department of revenue as required by section 40-10.1-607.5 (2). The enterprise shall ensure that during the first ten state fiscal years of fee collections, expenditures that support transportation network company operations equal or exceed cumulative clean fleet per ride fee revenue.

(b)  For prearranged rides requested and accepted during state fiscal year

2022-23, the enterprise shall impose the clean fleet per ride fee in a maximum amount of:

(I)  Three and three-quarters cents for each prearranged ride that is a car

share ride or for which the driver transports the rider in a zero emissions motor vehicle; and

(II)  Seven and one-half cents for every other prearranged ride.


(c) (I)  Except as otherwise provided in subsection (7)(c)(II) of this section, for

prearranged rides requested and accepted during state fiscal year 2023-24 or during any subsequent state fiscal year, the enterprise shall impose the clean fleet per ride fee in a maximum amount that is the applicable maximum amount for the prior state fiscal year adjusted for inflation. The enterprise shall notify the department of revenue of the amount of the clean fleet per ride fee to be collected for rides requested and accepted during each state fiscal year no later than March 15 of the calendar year in which the state fiscal year begins and the department of revenue shall publish the amount no later than April 15 of the calendar year in which the state fiscal year begins.

(II)  The enterprise is authorized to adjust the amount of the clean fleet per

ride fee for prearranged rides requested and accepted during a state fiscal year only if the rate of inflation is positive and cumulative inflation from the time of the last adjustment in the amount of the fee, when applied to the sum of the current clean fleet per ride fee and the current air pollution mitigation per ride fee imposed as required by section 43-4-1303 (7) and rounded to the nearest whole cent, will result in an increase of at least one whole cent in the total amount of the clean fleet per ride fee and the air pollution mitigation per ride fee paid by a person who requests and accepts a prearranged ride. The amount of cumulative inflation to be applied to the sum of the current clean fleet per ride fee and the current air pollution mitigation per ride fee and rounded to the nearest whole cent is the lesser of actual cumulative inflation or five percent.

(d)  As required by section 40-10.1-607.5 (3)(a), the department of revenue

shall transmit all net clean fleet per ride fee revenue collected to the state treasurer, who shall credit the revenue to the fund.

(8) (a)  In furtherance of its business purpose, beginning in state fiscal year

2022-23, the enterprise shall impose, and the department of revenue shall collect on behalf of the enterprise, a clean fleet retail delivery fee on each retail delivery. Each retailer who makes a retail delivery shall either collect and remit or elect to pay the clean fleet retail delivery fee in the manner prescribed by the department in accordance with section 43-4-218 (6). For the purpose of minimizing compliance costs for retailers and administrative costs for the state, the department of revenue shall collect and administer the clean fleet retail delivery fee on behalf of the enterprise in the same manner in which it collects and administers the retail delivery fee imposed by section 43-4-218 (3).

(b)  For retail deliveries of tangible personal property purchased during state

fiscal year 2022-23, the enterprise shall impose the clean fleet retail delivery fee in a maximum amount of five and three-tenths cents.

(c) (I)  Except as otherwise provided in subsection (8)(c)(II) of this section, for

retail deliveries of tangible personal property purchased during state fiscal year 2023-24 or during any subsequent state fiscal year, the enterprise shall impose the clean fleet retail delivery fee in a maximum amount that is the maximum amount for the prior state fiscal year adjusted for inflation. The enterprise shall notify the department of revenue of the amount of the clean fleet retail delivery fee to be collected for retail deliveries of tangible personal property purchased during each state fiscal year no later than March 15 of the calendar year in which the state fiscal year begins, and the department of revenue shall publish the amount no later than April15 of the calendar year in which the state fiscal year begins.

(II)  The enterprise is authorized to adjust the amount of the clean fleet retail

delivery fee for retail deliveries of tangible personal property purchased during a state fiscal year only if the department of revenue adjusts the amount of the retail delivery fee imposed by section 43-4-218 (3) for retail deliveries of tangible personal property purchased during the state fiscal year.

(9) (a)  In furtherance of its business purpose, and subject to the

requirements set forth in this subsection (9), the enterprise is authorized to incentivize, support, and accelerate the adoption of electric motor vehicles in motor vehicle fleets.

(b)  The enterprise may provide funding or financing through grant programs,

rebate programs, revolving loan funds, or such other strategies as the board finds effective:

(I)  To help public and private owners and operators of motor vehicle fleets

finance electric motor vehicle acquisitions to reduce the up-front costs of acquiring electric motor vehicles, through December 31, 2026, to help public and private owners and operators of motor vehicle fleets finance acquisitions of compressed natural gas motor vehicles that are trucks if at least ninety percent of the fuel for the trucks will be recovered methane, and, on and after January 1, 2027, for so long as the enterprise determines that electric motor vehicles are not yet practically available or do not meet the operational requirements such as cargo carrying capacity and driving range for specific categories of trucks, to help public and private owners and operators of motor vehicle fleets finance acquisitions of compressed natural gas motor vehicles that are trucks if at least ninety percent of the fuel for the trucks will be recovered methane;

(II)  To assess and implement cleaner mobile source technology to support

electrification of motor vehicles and electric motor vehicle fleets;

(III)  To coordinate engagement with public entities and owners and operators

of motor vehicle fleets to develop strategies for electrifying motor vehicle fleets and other not yet electrified freight transportation and retail delivery operations that can be electrified;

(IV)  To research and assess innovative and emerging motor vehicle emission

strategies for motor vehicles and engines and modernize and improve current testing, inspection, and readjustment services offered by the department;

(V)  To provide training and development of a clean transportation workforce

to support the adoption of electric motor vehicles for use in motor vehicle fleets;

(VI)  To research and develop strategies, business plans, and guidance to

support the consistent application of grants and other enterprise business services, including remediation services;

(VII)  To provide outreach, education, or training to support the successful

application and performance by entities receiving funds;

(VIII)  To provide or support the delivery of companion services such as fleet

motor vehicle testing, inspection, and readjustment services;

(IX)  To reduce health disparities in disproportionately impacted communities

resulting from increased exposure to motor vehicle fleet emissions;

(X)  To help companies that maintain motor vehicle fleets and rent motor

vehicles in the fleets to transportation network company drivers for use in providing transportation network company services purchase or lease electric motor vehicles for that use;

(XI)  To help transportation network companies provide incentives for

transportation network company drivers to provide prearranged rides in electric motor vehicles; and

(XII)  To provide additional remediation services to fee payers as may be

provided by law, including but not limited to incentivizing the use of clean mobile equipment, provide planning services to support communities, including but not limited to disproportionately impacted communities, or provide scrappage services.

(10)  The enterprise shall contract with the air pollution control division of the

department to develop proposed rules for the consideration of the commission that will support the enterprise's business services, including remediation services, in a manner that maintains compliance with the federal and state statutes, rules, and regulations governing air quality. The division shall collaborate with the Colorado energy office and the department of transportation when developing the rules.

(11) (a)  To ensure transparency and accountability, the enterprise shall:


(I)  No later than June 1, 2022, publish and post on its website a ten-year plan

that details how the enterprise will execute its business purpose during state fiscal years 2022-23 through 2031-32 and estimates the amount of funding needed to implement the plan. No later than January 1, 2032, the enterprise shall publish and post on its website a new ten-year plan for state fiscal years 2032-33 through 2041-42.

(II)  Create, maintain, and regularly update on its website a public

accountability dashboard that provides, at a minimum, accessible and transparent summary information regarding the implementation of its ten-year plan, the funding status and progress toward completion of each project that it wholly or partly funds, and its per project and total funding and expenditures;

(III)  Engage regularly regarding its projects and activities with the public,

specifically reaching out to and seeking input from communities, including but not limited to disproportionately impacted communities, and interest groups that are likely to be interested in the projects and activities; and

(IV)  Prepare an annual report regarding its activities and funding and present

the report to the transportation commission created in section 43-1-106 (1) and to the transportation and local government and energy and environment committees of the house of representatives and the transportation and energy committee of the senate, or any successor committees. The enterprise shall also post the annual report on its website. Notwithstanding the requirement in section 24-1-136 (11)(a)(I), the requirement to submit the report required in this subsection (11)(a)(IV) to the specified legislative committees continues indefinitely.

(b)  The enterprise is subject to the open meetings provisions of the

Colorado Sunshine Act of 1972, contained in part 4 of article 6 of title 24, and the Colorado Open Records Act, part 2 of article 72 of title 24.

(c)  For purposes of the Colorado Open Records Act, part 2 of article 72 of

title 24, and except as may otherwise be provided by federal law or regulation or state law, the records of the enterprise are public records, as defined in section 24-72-202 (6), regardless of whether the enterprise receives less than ten percent of its total annual revenue in grants, as defined in section 24-77-102 (7), from all Colorado state and local governments combined.

(d)  The enterprise is a public entity for purposes of part 2 of article 57 of title

11.

Source: L. 2021: Entire article added, (SB 21-260), ch. 250, p. 1393, � 11,

effective June 17. L. 2022: (1)(b) amended, (SB 22-162), ch. 469, p. 3369, � 51, effective August 10. L. 2023: (8)(a) amended, (SB 23-143), ch. 153, p. 651, � 5, effective July 1.

Cross references: For the short title (the Debbie Haskins 'Administrative

Organization Act of 1968' Modernization Act) in SB 22-162, see section 1 of chapter 469, Session Laws of Colorado 2022.

ARTICLE 8

Water Quality Control

Editor's note: This article was numbered as article 28 of chapter 66, C.R.S.
  1. The substantive provisions of this article were repealed and reenacted in 1981, resulting in the addition, relocation, and elimination of sections as well as subject matter. For amendments to this article prior to 1981, consult the Colorado statutory research explanatory note and the table itemizing the replacement volumes and supplements to the original volume of C.R.S. 1973 beginning on page vii in the front of this volume.

    Law reviews: For article, Plans and Studies: The Recent Quest for Utopia in the Utilization of Colorado's Water Resources, see 55 U. Colo. L. Rev. 391 (1984); for article, Assault on the Citadel, Part 1: Water Quality Laws and the Exercise of Water Rights, see 17 Colo. Law. 1305 (1988); for article, Assault on the Citadel, Part 2: Dams, Diversions and Water Quality Regulations, see 17 Colo. Law. 2003 (1988); for article, Nutrient Standards for Lakes and Reservoirs: Where Water Quality Law and Water Rights Law Intersect, see 53 Colo. Law. 38 (Jan.-Feb. 2024).

PART 1

GENERAL PROVISIONS

Law reviews: For article, The Water Quality Act of 1987, see 16 Colo. Law.

826 (1987); for article, Water Law Requirements Affecting Environmental Compliance and Remediation Activities, see 22 Colo. Law. 299 (1993); for article, Water Rights and Water Quality: Recent Developments, see 23 Colo. Law. 2343 (1994); for article, Availability of the Colorado UST Fund to Property Owners and Mortgagees, see 23 Colo. Law. 873 (1994).


C.R.S. § 26-2-1104

26-2-1104. Repeal. This part 11 is repealed, effective July 1, 2030.

Source: L. 2013: Entire part added, (HB 13-1004), ch. 357, p. 2103, � 1,

effective July 1. L. 2016: Entire section amended, (HB 16-1290), ch. 191, p. 678, � 2, effective August 10. L. 2018: Entire section amended, (HB 18-1334), ch. 190, p. 1271, � 2, effective August 8. L. 2023: Entire section amended, (SB 23-226), ch. 91, p. 344, � 3, effective August 7.

ARTICLE 3

Protective Services

26-3-101 to 26-3-114. (Repealed)


Source: L. 91: Entire article repealed, p. 1784, � 16, effective July 1.


Editor's note: This article was numbered as article 6 of chapter 119 in C.R.S.
  1. For amendments to this article prior to its repeal in 1991, consult the Colorado statutory research explanatory note and the table itemizing the replacement volumes and supplements to the original volume of C.R.S. 1973 beginning on page vii in the front of this volume.

ARTICLE 3.1

Protective Services for Adults

at Risk of Mistreatment or Self-neglect

Editor's note: This article was added in 1983. This article was repealed and

reenacted in 1991, resulting in the addition, relocation, and elimination of sections as well as subject matter. For amendments to this article prior to 1991, consult the Colorado statutory research explanatory note and the table itemizing the replacement volumes and supplements to the original volume of C.R.S. 1973 beginning on page vii in the front of this volume. Former C.R.S. section numbers are shown in editor's notes following the relocated sections.

PART 1

PROTECTIVE SERVICES FOR AT-RISK ADULTS

26-3.1-101.  Definitions. As used in this article 3.1, unless the context

otherwise requires:

(1)  Abuse means any of the following acts or omissions committed against

an at-risk adult:

(a)  The nonaccidental infliction of physical pain or injury, as demonstrated

by, but not limited to, substantial or multiple skin bruising, bleeding, malnutrition, dehydration, burns, bone fractures, poisoning, subdural hematoma, soft tissue swelling, or suffocation;

(b)  Confinement or restraint that is unreasonable under generally accepted

caretaking standards; or

(c)  Unlawful sexual behavior as defined in section 16-22-102 (9).


(1.5)  At-risk adult means an individual eighteen years of age or older who is

susceptible to mistreatment or self-neglect because the individual is unable to perform or obtain services necessary for his or her health, safety, or welfare, or lacks sufficient understanding or capacity to make or communicate responsible decisions concerning his or her person or affairs.

(1.7)  CAPS means the Colorado adult protective services data system that

includes records of reports of mistreatment of at-risk adults.

(1.8)  CAPS check means a check of the Colorado adult protective services

data system pursuant to section 26-3.1-111.

(2)  Caretaker means a person who:


(a)  Is responsible for the care of an at-risk adult as a result of a legal

relationship; or

(b)  Has assumed responsibility for the care of an at-risk adult; or


(c)  Is paid to provide care, services, or oversight of services to an at-risk

adult.

(2.3) (a)  Caretaker neglect means neglect that occurs when adequate food,

clothing, shelter, psychological care, physical care, medical care, habilitation, supervision, or other treatment necessary for the health or safety of the at-risk adult is not secured for an at-risk adult or is not provided by a caretaker in a timely manner and with the degree of care that a reasonable person in the same situation would exercise, or a caretaker knowingly uses harassment, undue influence, or intimidation to create a hostile or fearful environment for an at-risk adult.

(b)  Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (a) of this subsection (2.3),

the withholding, withdrawing, or refusing of any medication, any medical procedure or device, or any treatment, including but not limited to resuscitation, cardiac pacing, mechanical ventilation, dialysis, artificial nutrition and hydration, any medication or medical procedure or device, in accordance with any valid medical directive or order, or as described in a palliative plan of care, is not deemed caretaker neglect.

(c)  As used in this subsection (2.3), medical directive or order includes a

medical durable power of attorney, a declaration as to medical treatment executed pursuant to section 15-18-104, C.R.S., a medical order for scope of treatment form executed pursuant to article 18.7 of title 15, C.R.S., and a CPR directive executed pursuant to article 18.6 of title 15, C.R.S.

(2.5)  Clergy member means a priest; rabbi; duly ordained, commissioned, or

licensed minister of a church; member of a religious order; or recognized leader of any religious body.

(3)  County department means a county or district department of human or

social services.

(3.5)  Direct care means services and supports, including case management

services, protective services, physical care, mental health services, or any other service necessary for the at-risk adult's health, safety, or welfare.

(4)  Exploitation means an act or omission that:


(a)  Uses deception, harassment, intimidation, or undue influence to

permanently or temporarily deprive an at-risk adult of the use, benefit, or possession of any thing of value; or

(b)  Employs the services of a third party for the profit or advantage of the

person or another person to the detriment of the at-risk adult; or

(c)  Forces, compels, coerces, or entices an at-risk adult to perform services

for the profit or advantage of the person or another person against the will of the at-risk adult; or

(d)  Misuses the property of an at-risk adult in a manner that adversely

affects the at-risk adult's ability to receive health care or health-care benefits or to pay bills for basic needs or obligations.

(5)  Financial institution means a state or federal bank, savings bank,

savings and loan association or company, building and loan association, trust company, or credit union.

(5.5)  Harmful act means an act committed against an at-risk adult by a

person with a relationship to the at-risk adult when such act is not defined as abuse, caretaker neglect, or exploitation but causes harm to the health, safety, or welfare of an at-risk adult.

(6)  Least restrictive intervention means acquiring or providing services,

including protective services, for the shortest duration and to the minimum extent necessary to remedy or prevent situations of actual mistreatment or self-neglect.

(7)  Mistreatment means:


(a)  Abuse;


(b)  Caretaker neglect;


(c)  Exploitation; or


(d)  A harmful act.


(e)  Repealed.


(8)  Repealed.


(9)  Protective services means services provided by the state or political

subdivisions or agencies thereof in order to prevent the mistreatment or self-neglect of an at-risk adult. Such services include, but are not limited to: Providing casework services and arranging for, coordinating, delivering, where appropriate, and monitoring services, including medical care for physical or mental health needs; protection from mistreatment and self-neglect; assistance with application for public benefits; referral to community service providers; and initiation of probate proceedings.

(10)  Self-neglect means an act or failure to act whereby an at-risk adult

substantially endangers his or her health, safety, welfare, or life by not seeking or obtaining services necessary to meet his or her essential human needs. Choice of lifestyle or living arrangements shall not, by itself, be evidence of self-neglect. Refusal of medical treatment, medications, devices, or procedures by an adult or on behalf of an adult by a duly authorized surrogate medical decision maker or in accordance with a valid medical directive or order, or as described in a palliative plan of care, shall not be deemed self-neglect. Refusal of food and water in the context of a life-limiting illness shall not, by itself, be evidence of self-neglect. As used in this subsection (10), medical directive or order includes, but is not limited to, a medical durable power of attorney, a declaration as to medical treatment executed pursuant to section 15-18-104, C.R.S., a medical orders for scope of treatment form executed pursuant to article 18.7 of title 15, C.R.S., and a CPR directive executed pursuant to article 18.6 of title 15, C.R.S.

(11)  Undue influence means the use of influence to take advantage of an at-risk adult's vulnerable state of mind, neediness, pain, or emotional distress.


Source: L. 91: Entire article R&RE, p. 1772, � 1, effective July 1. L. 2000: (4)(c)

amended, p. 1155, � 2, effective January 1, 2001. L. 2012: Entire part amended, (SB 12-078), ch. 226, p. 991, � 1, effective May 29. L. 2013: (2.3) and (2.5) added and (5) and (7)(b) amended, (SB 13-111), ch. 233, p. 1122, � 5, effective May 16. L. 2016: (1), (2), (2.3), (3), (4), and (7) amended and (1.5) and (11) added, (HB 16-1394), ch. 172, p. 555, � 9, effective July 1. L. 2017: IP amended and (1.7), (1.8), and (3.5) added, (HB 17-1284), ch. 272, p. 1496, � 1, effective May 31. L. 2020: (1)(c), (2)(a), IP(4), (4)(a), (4)(b), (6), (7)(c), (7)(d), and (9) amended, (5.5) added, and (7)(e) and (8) repealed, (HB 20-1302), ch. 265, p. 1268, � 1, effective September 14.

Editor's note: This section is similar to former � 26-3.1-101 as it existed prior

to 1991.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in the 2013 act adding

subsections (2.3) and (2.5) and amending subsections (5) and (7)(b), see section 1 of chapter 233, Session Laws of Colorado 2013.

26-3.1-102.  Reporting requirements. (1) (a)  A person specified in subsection

(1)(b) of this section who observes the mistreatment or self-neglect of an at-risk adult or who has reasonable cause to believe that an at-risk adult has been mistreated or is self-neglecting or is at imminent risk of mistreatment or self-neglect is urged to report such fact to a county department not more than twenty-four hours after making the observation or discovery.

(a.5)  As required by section 18-6.5-108, C.R.S., certain persons specified in

paragraph (b) of this subsection (1) who observe the mistreatment, as defined in section 18-6.5-102 (10.5), C.R.S., of an at-risk elder, as defined in section 18-6.5-102 (3), C.R.S., or an at-risk adult with IDD, as defined in section 18-6.5-102 (2.5), C.R.S., or who have reasonable cause to believe that an at-risk elder or an at-risk adult with IDD has been mistreated or is at imminent risk of mistreatment shall report such fact to a law enforcement agency not more than twenty-four hours after making the observation or discovery.

(b)  The following persons, whether paid or unpaid, are urged to report as

described in subsection (1)(a) of this section:

(I)  Any person providing health-care or health-care-related services

including general medical, surgical, or nursing services; medical, surgical, or nursing speciality services; dental services; vision services; pharmacy services; chiropractic services; or physical, occupational, musical, or other therapies;

(II)  Hospital and long-term care facility personnel engaged in the admission,

care, or treatment of patients;

(III)  First responders, including emergency medical service providers, fire

protection personnel, law enforcement officers, and persons employed by, contracting with, or volunteering with any law enforcement agency, including victim advocates;

(IV)  Code enforcement officers;


(V)  Medical examiners and coroners;


(VI)  Veterinarians;


(VII)  Psychologists, addiction counselors, professional counselors, marriage

and family therapists, and unlicensed psychotherapists, as those persons are defined in article 245 of title 12;

(VIII)  Social workers, as defined in part 4 of article 245 of title 12;


(IX)  Staff of case management agencies, as defined in section 25.5-6-1702;


(X)  Staff, consultants, or independent contractors of service agencies, as

defined in section 25.5-10-202 (34), C.R.S.;

(XI)  Staff or consultants for a licensed or unlicensed, certified or uncertified,

care facility, agency, home, or governing board, including but not limited to long-term care facilities, home care agencies, or home health providers;

(XII)  Caretakers, staff members, employees of, or consultants for, a home

care placement agency, as defined in section 25-27.5-102 (5), C.R.S.;

(XIII)  Persons performing case management or assistant services for at-risk

adults;

(XIV)  Staff of county departments of human or social services;


(XV)  Staff of the state departments of human services, public health and

environment, or health care policy and financing;

(XVI)  Staff of senior congregate centers or senior research or outreach

organizations;

(XVII)  Staff, and staff of contracted providers, of area agencies on aging,

except the long-term care ombudsmen;

(XVIII)  Employees, contractors, and volunteers operating specialized

transportation services for at-risk adults;

(XIX)  Landlords and staff of housing and housing authority agencies for at-risk adults;


(XX)  Court-appointed guardians and conservators;


(XXI)  Personnel at schools serving persons in preschool through twelfth

grade;

(XXII)  Clergy members; except that the reporting requirement described in

paragraph (a) of this subsection (1) does not apply to a person who acquires reasonable cause to believe that an at-risk adult has been mistreated or has been exploited or is at imminent risk of mistreatment or exploitation during a communication about which the person may not be examined as a witness pursuant to section 13-90-107 (1)(c), C.R.S., unless the person also acquires such reasonable cause from a source other than such a communication; and

(XXIII)  Persons working in financial services industries, including banks,

savings and loan associations, credit unions, and other lending or financial institutions; accountants; mortgage brokers; life insurance agents; and financial planners.

(c)  In addition to those persons urged by this subsection (1) to report known

or suspected mistreatment or self-neglect of an at-risk adult and circumstances or conditions that might reasonably result in mistreatment or self-neglect, any other person may report such known or suspected mistreatment or self-neglect and circumstances or conditions that might reasonably result in mistreatment or self-neglect of an at-risk adult to the local law enforcement agency or the county department. Upon receipt of such report, the receiving agency shall prepare a written report within twenty-four hours.

(2)  Pursuant to subsection (1) of this section, the report must include:


(a)  The name and address of the at-risk adult;


(b)  The name and address of the at-risk adult's caretaker, if any;


(c)  The age, if known, of the at-risk adult;


(d)  The nature and extent of the at-risk adult's injury, if any;


(e)  The nature and extent of the condition that will reasonably result in

mistreatment or self-neglect; and

(f)  Any other pertinent information.


(3)  A copy of the written report prepared by the county department in

accordance with subsections (1) and (2) of this section that includes an allegation of mistreatment must be forwarded within twenty-four hours after receipt of the report to a local law enforcement agency. A written report prepared by a local law enforcement agency must be forwarded within one business day of the receipt of the report to the county department.

(4)  A person, including a person specified in subsection (1) of this section,

shall not knowingly make a false report of mistreatment or self-neglect to a county department or local law enforcement agency. Any person who willfully violates the provisions of this subsection (4) commits a class 2 misdemeanor and shall be punished as provided in section 18-1.3-501, and shall be liable for damages proximately caused thereby.

(5)  Any person, except a perpetrator, complicitor, or coconspirator, who

makes a report pursuant to this section shall be immune from any civil or criminal liability on account of such report, testimony, or participation in making such report, so long as such action was taken in good faith and not in reckless disregard of the truth or in violation of subsection (4) of this section.

(6)  A person shall not take any discriminatory, disciplinary, or retaliatory

action against any person who, in good faith, makes a report or fails to make a report of suspected mistreatment or self-neglect of an at-risk adult.

(7) (a)  Except as provided in subsection (7)(b) of this section, reports of the

mistreatment or self-neglect of an at-risk adult, including the name and address of any at-risk adult, member of said adult's family, or informant, or any other identifying information contained in such reports and subsequent cases resulting from the reports, is confidential and is not public information.

(b)  Disclosure of a report of the mistreatment or self-neglect of an at-risk

adult and information relating to an investigation of such a report and subsequent cases resulting from the report is permitted only when authorized by a court for good cause. A court order is not required, and such disclosure is not prohibited, when:

(I)  A criminal investigation into an allegation of mistreatment is being

conducted, when a review of death by a coroner is being conducted when the death is suspected to be related to mistreatment, or when a criminal complaint, information, or indictment is filed and the report and case information is relevant to the investigation, death review, complaint, or indictment;

(II)  There is a death of a suspected at-risk adult from mistreatment or self-neglect and a law enforcement agency files a formal charge or a grand jury issues

an indictment in connection with the death;

(III)  The disclosure is necessary for the coordination of multiple agencies'

joint investigation of a report or for the provision of protective services to an at-risk adult;

(IV)  The disclosure is necessary for purposes of an audit of a county

department of human or social services pursuant to section 26-1-114.5;

(V)  The disclosure is made for purposes of the appeals process relating to a

substantiated case of mistreatment of an at-risk adult pursuant to section 26-3.1-108 (2). The provisions of this subsection (7)(b)(V) are in addition to and not in lieu of other federal and state laws concerning protected or confidential information.

(VI)  The disclosure is made by the state department to an employer, or to a

person or entity conducting employee screening on behalf of the employer, as part of a CAPS check pursuant to section 26-3.1-111 or by a county department pursuant to section 26-3.1-107.

(VII)  The disclosure is made to the at-risk adult who is the subject of the

report, or if the at-risk adult is otherwise incompetent at the time of the request, to the guardian or guardian ad litem for the at-risk adult who is the subject of the report. The information disclosed pursuant to this subsection (7)(b)(VII) must not be disclosed until after the investigation is complete and must not include any identifying information related to the reporting party or any other appropriate persons. If the guardian is the substantiated perpetrator in a case of mistreatment of an at-risk adult, the disclosure must not be made without authorization by a court for good cause unless the disclosure is being made for the purposes of the guardian's appeal process described in subsection (7)(b)(V) of this section. If the court authorizes the release of information to a substantiated perpetrator, any protected or confidential information pursuant to federal or state law must not be disclosed.

(VIII)  The disclosure is made to a county department that assesses or

provides protective services for children, when the information is necessary to adequately assess for safety and risk or to provide protective services for a child. The information disclosed pursuant to this subsection (7)(b)(VIII) is limited to information regarding prior or current referrals, assessments, investigations, or case information related to an at-risk adult or an alleged perpetrator. A county department that assesses or provides protective services for at-risk adults is similarly permitted to access information from a county department that assesses or provides protective services for children pursuant to section 19-1-307 (2)(x). The provisions of this subsection (7)(b)(VIII) are in addition to and not in lieu of other federal and state laws concerning protected or confidential information.

(IX)  The disclosure is made to an employer required to request a CAPS check

pursuant to section 26-3.1-111 or to the state department agency that oversees the employer when the information is necessary to ensure the safety of other at-risk adults under the care of the employer. The information must be the minimum information necessary to ensure the safety of other at-risk adults under the care of the employer or oversight of the state department agency.

(X)  The disclosure is made pursuant to section 26-3.1-111 (12) to a health

oversight agency, as defined in 42 CFR 164.501, within the department of regulatory agencies or a regulator, as defined in section 12-20-102 (14), within such a health oversight agency; and

(XI)  The disclosure is made to the court pursuant to section 26-3.1-111 (3)(b)

and (8.5)(b).

(c)  Any person who violates any provision of this subsection (7) commits a

civil infraction.

Source: L. 91: Entire article R&RE, p. 1774, � 1, effective July 1. L. 2004: (4)

amended, p. 275, � 1, effective July 1. L. 2012: Entire part amended, (SB 12-078), ch. 226, p. 994, � 1, effective May 29. L. 2013: (1)(a) and (1)(b) amended and (1)(a.5) added, (SB 13-111), ch. 233, p. 1123, � 6, effective May 16. L. 2014: (3) amended, (SB 14-098), ch. 103, p. 387, � 3, effective April 7. L. 2015: (7)(b)(II) and (7)(b)(III) amended and (7)(b)(IV) added, (HB 15-1370), ch. 324, p. 1326, � 5, effective June 5; (1)(a.5) amended, (SB 15-109), ch. 278, p. 1142, � 4, effective July 1, 2016. L. 2016: (1)(a), (1)(a.5), (1)(b), (1)(c), IP(2), (2)(e), (4), (6), (7)(a), IP(7)(b), and (7)(b)(II) amended, (HB 16-1394), ch. 172, p. 557, � 10, effective July 1. L. 2017: (7)(b) amended, (HB 17-1284), ch. 272, p. 1496, � 2, effective May 31. L. 2019: (7)(b)(III) and (7)(b)(V) amended and (7)(b)(VII) and (7)(b)(VIII) added, (HB 19-1063), ch. 46, p. 156, � 2, effective August 2; (7)(b)(VII) amended, (HB 19-1307), ch. 393, p. 3503, � 1, effective August 2; IP(1)(b), (1)(b)(VII), and (1)(b)(VIII) amended, (HB 19-1172), ch. 136, p. 1712, effective October 1. L. 2020: (1)(b)(VII) amended, (HB 20-1206), ch. 304, p. 1551, � 67, effective July 14; (1)(a), (1)(c), (3), (7)(a), IP(7)(b), and (7)(b)(I) amended and (7)(b)(IX) added, (HB 20-1302), ch. 265, p. 1269, � 2, effective September 14. L. 2021: (7)(b)(X) and (7)(b)(XI) added, (HB 21-1123), ch. 106, p. 423, � 1, effective September 7; (4) and (7)(c) amended, (SB 21-271), ch. 462, p. 3244, � 488, effective March 1, 2022; (1)(b)(IX) amended, (HB 21-1187), ch. 83, p. 346, � 51, effective July 1, 2024. L. 2023: (7)(b)(VII) amended, (SB 23-040), ch. 13, p. 39, � 2, effective January 1, 2024.

Editor's note:   This section is similar to former � 26-3.1-104 as it existed prior

to 1991.

Cross references: (1)  For the legislative declaration in the 2013 act

amending subsections (1)(a) and (1)(b) and adding subsection (1)(a.5), see section 1 of chapter 233, Session Laws of Colorado 2013.

(2)  For the legislative declaration in HB 15-1370, see section 1 of chapter

324, Session Laws of Colorado 2015.

26-3.1-103.  Evaluations - investigations - training - exception for counties

participating in alternative response program - rules. (1) The county department receiving a report of mistreatment or self-neglect of an at-risk adult shall immediately assess the reported level of risk. The immediate concern of the evaluation is the protection of the at-risk adult. The decision regarding the level of risk must, at a minimum, include a determination of a response time frame and whether the report meets the criteria for an investigation of the allegations, as set forth in state department rule. If a county department determines that an investigation is required, the county department is responsible for ensuring an investigation is conducted and arranging for the subsequent provision of protective services to be conducted by persons trained to conduct investigations and provide protective services.

(1.3) (a)  Pursuant to state department rule, each employer as defined by

section 26-3.1-111 (7) shall provide, upon request of the county department, access to conduct an investigation into an allegation of mistreatment. Access must include the ability to request interviews with relevant persons and to obtain documents and other evidence and have access to:

(I)  Patients who are the subject of the investigation into mistreatment of an

at-risk adult and patients who are relevant to an investigation into an allegation of mistreatment of an at-risk adult;

(II)  Personnel, including paid employees, contractors, volunteers, and interns,

who are relevant to the investigation;

(III)  Clients or residents who are the subject of the investigation into

mistreatment of an at-risk adult and clients or residents who are relevant to an investigation into an allegation of mistreatment of an at-risk adult;

(IV)  Individual patient, resident, client, or consumer records, including

disclosure of health records or incident and investigative reports, care and behavioral plans, staff schedules and time sheets, and photos and other technological evidence; and

(V)  The professional license number issued by the division of professions and

occupations in the department of regulatory agencies for a current or former employee who holds a health-care provider or health-care occupation license and who, as a result of the investigation, is substantiated in a case of mistreatment of an at-risk adult during the employee's professional duties.

(b)  The county department and its employees shall comply with applicable

federal laws related to the privacy of information when requesting or obtaining documents pursuant to this subsection (1.3).

(c)  County department staff conducting an investigation pursuant to this

section have the right to enter the premises of any employer as defined by section 26-3.1-111 (7) as necessary to complete a thorough investigation. County department staff shall identify themselves and the purpose of the investigation to the person in charge of the entity at the time of entry.

(d)  Attorneys at law providing legal assistance to individuals pursuant to a

contract with an area agency on aging, the staff of such attorneys at law, and the long-term care ombudsman are exempt from the requirements of this section.

(1.4)  Upon request of the county department, any person who holds a health-care provider or health-care occupation license issued by the division of professions

and occupations in the department of regulatory agencies and, as a result of the investigation, is substantiated in a case of mistreatment of an at-risk adult while performing the person's professional duties shall provide the person's professional license number to the county department.

(1.5)  The state department shall provide training to all current county

department adult protective services caseworkers and supervisors no later than July 1, 2018, and to new county department adult protective services caseworkers and supervisors hired after July 1, 2018, to achieve consistency in the performance of the following duties:

(a)  Investigating reports of suspected mistreatment or self-neglect of at-risk

adults and making findings concerning cases and alleged perpetrators;

(b)  Notifying a person who has been substantiated in a case of mistreatment

of an at-risk adult of the finding and of the person's right to appeal the finding to the state department;

(c)  Assessing the client's strengths and needs and developing a plan for the

provision of protective services;

(d)  Determining the appropriateness of case closure;


(e)  Entering accurate and complete documentation of the report and

subsequent casework into CAPS; and

(f)  Maintaining confidentiality in accordance with state law.


(2)  Each county department, law enforcement agency, district attorney's

office, and other agency responsible under federal law or the laws of this state to investigate mistreatment or self-neglect of at-risk adults shall develop and implement cooperative agreements to coordinate the investigative duties of such agencies. The focus of such agreements is to ensure the best protection for at-risk adults. The agreements must provide for special requests by one agency for assistance from another agency and for joint investigations. The agreements must further provide that each agency maintain the confidentiality of the information exchanged pursuant to such joint investigations.

(3)  Each county or contiguous group of counties in the state in which a

minimum number of reports of mistreatment or self-neglect of at-risk adults are annually filed shall establish an at-risk adult protection team. The state board shall promulgate rules to specify the minimum number of reports that will require the establishment of an adult at-risk protection team. The at-risk adult protection team shall review the processes used to report and investigate mistreatment or self-neglect of at-risk adults, review the provision of protective services for such adults, facilitate interagency cooperation, and provide community education on the mistreatment and self-neglect of at-risk adults. The director of each county department shall create or coordinate a protection team for the respective county in accordance with rules adopted by the state board of human services. The state board rules shall govern the establishment, composition, and duties of the team and must be consistent with this subsection (3).

(4)  Repealed.


Source: L. 91: Entire article R&RE, p. 1776, � 1, effective July 1. L. 94: (3)

amended, p. 2704, � 265, effective July 1. L. 2007: (3) amended, p. 1014, � 1, effective May 22. L. 2012: Entire part amended, (SB 12-078), ch. 226, p. 996, � 1, effective May 29. L. 2013: (4) repealed, (SB 13-111), ch. 233, p. 1127, � 15, effective May 16. L. 2016: (1), (2), and (3) amended, (HB 16-1394), ch. 172, p. 560, � 11, effective July 1. L. 2017: (1.5) added, (HB 17-1284), ch. 272, p. 1497, � 3, effective May 31. L. 2020: (1) amended and (1.3) added, (HB 20-1302), ch. 265, p. 1270, � 3, effective September 14. L. 2021: (1) amended, (SB 21-118), ch. 253, p. 1489, � 1, effective June 17; (1.3)(a)(III) and (1.3)(a)(IV) amended and (1.3)(a)(V) and (1.4) added, (HB 21-1123), ch. 106, p. 423, � 2, effective September 7.

Editor's note: Subsections (1), (2), and (3) were enacted as subsections (1)(a),

(1)(b), and (1)(c), respectively, by Senate Bill 91-84, Session Laws of Colorado 1991, chapter 288, section 1, but have been renumbered on revision for ease of location.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration contained in the 1994 act

amending this section, see section 1 of chapter 345, Session Laws of Colorado 1994. For the legislative declaration in the 2013 act repealing subsection (4), see section 1 of chapter 233, Session Laws of Colorado 2013.

26-3.1-103.3.  Alternative response pilot program for the provision of

protective services for at-risk adults - creation - report - rules - repeal. (1) On or after January 1, 2022, the alternative response pilot program for the provision of protective services for at-risk adults, referred to in this section as the pilot, is created in the state department. The pilot allows a county department that is participating in the pilot, pursuant to this section and rules promulgated by the state department, to address, through a separate process from that set forth in section 26-3.1-103, any report, related to an at-risk adult, of mistreatment or self-neglect that was initially assessed by the county department to be low risk, as defined by rule.

(2)  The state department shall select a maximum of fifteen county

departments to participate in the pilot. The state department is strongly encouraged to include county departments from throughout the state, including a diverse mix of urban, suburban, frontier, and rural.

(3) (a)  If a participating county department receives a report, related to an

at-risk adult, of mistreatment or self-neglect, that was initially assessed by the county department to be low risk, as defined by rule of the state department, the participating county will not make a finding concerning the alleged mistreatment or self-neglect of the at-risk adult, nor is it required to complete unannounced initial in-person interviews.

(b)  If, upon further investigation, the participating county department

determines that the risk level to the at-risk adult is, in fact, more than low risk, or when the participating county department cannot fully assess, through the pilot process, the health, safety, and welfare of the at-risk adult or other at-risk adults, the participating county department shall follow the procedures set forth in section 26-3.1-103.

(4)  The state department shall provide initial training and ongoing technical

assistance to the participating county departments upon implementation of the pilot. The state department shall administer the pilot in accordance with the requirements of this section and any rules promulgated pursuant to this section.

(5)  The state department shall promulgate rules for the implementation of

this section. The rules must include, at a minimum, a description of the risk levels and the parameters around unannounced in-person interviews.

(6)  The state department is authorized to seek, accept, and expend gifts,

grants, or donations from private or public sources for the purposes of this section.

(7) (a)  The state department shall contract with a third-party evaluator to

evaluate the pilot's success or failure, including a consideration of the pilot's effectiveness in achieving outcomes over a two-year period.

(b)  As necessary to conduct the evaluation and complete the reports

required pursuant to this subsection (7), each participating county department shall submit to the state department a report concerning the participating county department's administration and utilization of the pilot. The report must include relevant data from the participating county as required by the state department to evaluate the pilot and to prepare its report to the general assembly pursuant to subsection (7)(c) of this section.

(c)  In January 2025 and January 2026, the state department shall report on

the implementation and effect of the pilot to the health and human services committee of the senate and the public and behavioral health and human services committee of the house of representatives, or any successor committees, as part of its State Measurement for Accountable, Responsive, and Transparent (SMART) Government Act presentation required by section 2-7-203. The report must include, at a minimum:

(I)  A description of any specific problems that the state department or any

participating county department encountered during the administration of the pilot, along with recommendations that the state department has for legislation to address such problems; and

(II)  A recommendation by the state department regarding whether the

general assembly should repeal the pilot, continue the pilot for a specified time period, or establish the pilot statewide on a permanent basis.

(8)  This section is repealed, effective July 1, 2027.


Source: L. 2021: Entire section added, (SB 21-118), ch. 253, p. 1489, � 2,

effective June 17.

26-3.1-104.  Provision of protective services for at-risk adults - consent -

nonconsent - least restrictive intervention. (1) If a county director or his or her designee determines that an at-risk adult is being mistreated or self-neglected, or is at risk thereof, and the at-risk adult consents to protective services, the county director or designee shall immediately provide or arrange for the provision of protective services, which services shall be provided in accordance with the provisions of 28 CFR part 35, subpart B.

(2)  If a county director or his or her designee determines that an at-risk adult

is being or has been mistreated or self-neglected, or is at risk thereof, and if the at-risk adult appears to lack capacity to make decisions and does not consent to the receipt of protective services, the county director is urged, if no other appropriate person is able or willing, to petition the court, pursuant to part 3 of article 14 of title 15, C.R.S., for an order authorizing the provision of specific protective services and for the appointment of a guardian, for an order authorizing the appointment of a conservator pursuant to part 4 of article 14 of title 15, C.R.S., or for a court order providing for any combination of these actions.

(3)  Any protective services provided pursuant to this section shall include

only those services constituting the least restrictive intervention.

Source: L. 91: Entire article R&RE, p. 1777, � 1, effective July 1. L. 2012: Entire

part amended, (SB 12-078), ch. 226, p. 997, � 1, effective May 29. L. 2016: (1) and (2) amended, (HB 16-1394), ch. 172, p. 561, � 12, effective July 1.

Editor's note: This section is similar to former �� 26-3.1-102 and 26-3.1-103 as

they existed prior to 1991.

26-3.1-105.  Prior consent form. (Repealed)


Source: L. 91: Entire article R&RE, p. 1777, � 1, effective July 1. L. 2012: Entire

part amended, (SB 12-078), ch. 226, p. 997, � 1, effective May 29. L. 2013: Entire section repealed, (SB 13-111), ch. 233, p. 1128, � 16, effective May 16.

Editor's note: This section was similar to former � 26-3.1-206 as it existed

prior to 2012.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in the 2013 act repealing

this section, see section 1 of chapter 233, Session Laws of Colorado 2013.

26-3.1-106.  Training. The general assembly strongly encourages training

that focuses on detecting circumstances or conditions that might reasonably result in mistreatment or self-neglect of an at-risk adult for those persons who are urged by section 26-3.1-102 (1) to report known or suspected mistreatment or self-neglect of an at-risk adult.

Source: L. 91: Entire article R&RE, p. 1777, � 1, effective July 1. L. 2012: Entire

part amended, (SB 12-078), ch. 226, p. 997, � 1, effective May 29. L. 2016: Entire section amended, (HB 16-1394), ch. 172, p. 562, � 13, effective July 1.

Editor's note: This section is similar to former � 26-3.1-207 as it existed prior

to 2012.

26-3.1-107.  Background check - adult protective services data system

check. (1) Each county department shall require each protective services employee hired on or after May 29, 2012, to complete a fingerprint-based criminal history record check utilizing the records of the Colorado bureau of investigation and the federal bureau of investigation. The employee shall pay the cost of the fingerprint-based criminal history record check unless the county department chooses to pay the cost. Upon completion of the fingerprint-based criminal history record check, the Colorado bureau of investigation shall forward the results to the county department. The county department shall require a name-based judicial record check, as defined in section 22-2-119.3 (6)(d), for an applicant or an employee when the results of a fingerprint-based criminal history record check performed pursuant to this section reveal a record of arrest without a disposition.

(2)  For each adult protective services employee hired on or after January 1,

2019, each county department shall conduct a CAPS check to determine if the person is substantiated in a case of mistreatment of an at-risk adult. The county department shall conduct the CAPS check pursuant to state department rules.

Source: L. 2012: Entire part amended, (SB 12-078), ch. 226, p. 998, � 1,

effective May 29. L. 2017: Entire section amended, (HB 17-1284), ch. 272, p. 1498, � 4, effective May 31. L. 2019: (1) amended, (HB 19-1166), ch. 125, p. 554, � 42, effective April 18. L. 2022: (1) amended, (HB 22-1270), ch. 114, p. 529, � 45, effective April 21.

26-3.1-108.  Notice of report - appeals - rules. (1)  The state department shall

promulgate appropriate rules for the implementation of this article 3.1.

(2)  In addition to rules promulgated pursuant to subsection (1) of this section,

the state department shall promulgate rules to establish a process at the state level by which a person who is substantiated in a case of mistreatment of an at-risk adult may appeal the finding to the state department. At a minimum, the rules promulgated pursuant to this subsection (2) must address the following:

(a)  The process by which a person who is substantiated in a case of

mistreatment of an at-risk adult receives adequate and timely written notice from the county department of that finding and of his or her right to appeal the finding to the state department;

(b)  The effective date of the notification of finding and appeal process;


(c)  A requirement for and procedures to facilitate the expungement of and

prevention of the release of any information contained in CAPS records for purposes of a CAPS check related to a person who is substantiated in a case of mistreatment of an at-risk adult that existed prior to July 1, 2018; except that the state department and county departments may maintain such information in CAPS to assist in future risk and safety assessments.

(d)  The timeline and process for appealing the finding of a substantiated

case of mistreatment of an at-risk adult;

(e)  Designation of the entity other than the county department with the

authority to accept and respond to an appeal by a person substantiated in a case of mistreatment of an at-risk adult at each stage of the appellate process;

(f)  The legal standards involved in the appellate process and a designation of

the party who bears the burden of establishing that each standard is met;

(g)  The confidentiality requirements of the appeals process; and


(h)  The process to share information about an appeal, including the appeal

outcome with a health oversight agency, as defined in 42 CFR 164.501, within the department of regulatory agencies or a regulator, as defined in section 12-20-102 (14), within such a health oversight agency, if the health oversight agency or its regulator requests information about an appeal for the purpose of a regulatory investigation conducted pursuant to section 12-20-401. Appeal information shared pursuant to this subsection (2)(h) is confidential and must be used only for the regulatory investigation.

(3)  Repealed.


Source: L. 2012: Entire part amended, (SB 12-078), ch. 226, p. 998, � 1,

effective May 29. L. 2017: Entire section amended, (HB 17-1284), ch. 272, p. 1498, � 5, effective May 31. L. 2020: IP(2) and (2)(c) amended and (3) repealed, (HB 20-1302), ch. 265, p. 1271, � 4, effective September 14. L. 2021: (2)(f) and (2)(g) amended and (2)(h) added, (HB 21-1123), ch. 106, p. 424, � 3, effective September 7.

Editor's note: This section is similar to former � 26-3.1-105 as it existed prior

to 2012.

26-3.1-109.  Limitation. Nothing in this article 3.1 means that a person is

mistreated or self-neglecting or in need of emergency or protective services for the sole reason that he or she is being furnished or relies upon treatment by spiritual means through prayer alone in accordance with the tenets and practices of that person's recognized church or religious denomination, nor does anything in this article 3.1 authorize, permit, or require any medical care or treatment in contravention of the stated or implied objection of such a person.

Source: L. 2012: Entire part amended, (SB 12-078), ch. 226, p. 998, � 1,

effective May 29. L. 2020: Entire section amended, (HB 20-1302), ch. 265, p. 1272, � 5, effective September 14.

Editor's note: This section is similar to former � 26-3.1-106 as it existed prior

to 2012.

26-3.1-110.  Report concerning the implementation of mandatory reporting

of elder abuse and exploitation - repeal. (Repealed)

Source: L. 2013: Entire section added, (SB 13-111), ch. 233, p. 1125, � 7,

effective May 16.

Editor's note: Subsection (3) provided for the repeal of this section, effective

January 1, 2017. (See L. 2013, p. 1125.)

26-3.1-111.  Access to CAPS - employment checks - conservatorship and

guardianship checks - confidentiality - fees - rules - legislative declaration - definitions. (1) The general assembly finds and declares that individuals receiving care and services from persons employed in programs or facilities described in subsection (7) of this section or from persons appointed to be a conservator or guardian of an at-risk adult are vulnerable to mistreatment, including abuse, neglect, and exploitation. It is the intent of the general assembly to minimize the potential for employment of, or appointment as conservators or guardians, persons with a history of mistreatment of at-risk adults in positions that would allow those persons unsupervised access to these adults. As a result, the general assembly finds it necessary to strengthen protections for vulnerable adults by requiring certain employers and the courts to request a CAPS check by the state department to determine if a person who will provide direct care to an at-risk adult or who may be appointed as a conservator or guardian for an at-risk adult has been substantiated in a case of mistreatment of an at-risk adult. The general assembly also finds that it is necessary to require that certain employers cooperate with, and provide access to, county departments during county investigations of mistreatment of at-risk adults pursuant to section 26-3.1-103 (1.3).

(2)  As used in this section, unless the context otherwise requires:


(a)  Employee means a person, other than a volunteer, who is employed by

or contracted with an employer, and includes a prospective employee.

(b)  Employer means a person, facility, entity, or agency described in

subsection (7) of this section and includes a prospective employer. Employer also includes a person hiring someone to provide consumer-directed attendant support services pursuant to article 10 of title 25.5, if the person requests a CAPS check.

(c)  Staffing agency means an individual or organization, including any

partnership, limited liability partnership, limited liability company, limited liability limited partnership, association, trust, joint stock company, insurance company, or corporation, whether domestic or foreign, engaged in the business of providing and assigning workers to placements with employers described in subsection (7) of this section. Staffing agency includes, but is not limited to, supplemental health-care staffing agencies defined in section 8-4-125 (1)(e).

(3) (a)  Employer CAPS checks. The state department shall establish and

implement a state-level program for employers to obtain a CAPS check to determine if a person who will provide direct care to an at-risk adult is substantiated in a case of mistreatment of an at-risk adult. The state department's program must be operational for an employer CAPS check on and after January 1, 2019.

(b)  Conservatorship and guardianship CAPS checks. Beginning January 1,

2022, the state department shall provide the courts the results of a CAPS check, upon the court's request and using forms approved by the state department, to determine if a person who may be appointed as a conservator or guardian of an at-risk adult is substantiated in a case of mistreatment of an at-risk adult. This subsection (3)(b) does not apply to office of public guardianship employees required to undergo a CAPS check pursuant to section 13-94-105 and subsection (7)(j) of this section, or adult protective services employees required to undergo a CAPS check pursuant to section 26-3.1-107 (2).

(4)  The state department shall not release information relating to any person

during a CAPS check unless the person is substantiated in a case of mistreatment of an at-risk adult.

(5)  The state department shall promulgate rules for the implementation of

this section, which rules must include the following:

(a)  The employer process for requesting a CAPS check for an employee who

has an active application for employment for a position in which the person will provide direct care to an at-risk


C.R.S. § 26-2-129

26-2-129. Funeral - final disposition expenses - death reimbursement - definitions - rules. (1) The general assembly hereby finds and declares that, subject to available appropriations, the purposes of this section are the following:

(a)  To provide appropriate and equitable reimbursement of funeral,

cremation, burial, or natural reduction expenses or any combination of expenses associated with the final disposition of any deceased public assistance or medical assistance recipient;

(b)  To consider the religious and cultural preferences of the decedent and

the decedent's family;

(c)  To assure that final disposition of a decedent is provided with dignity;


(d)  To ensure that reimbursement of a provider of funeral or final disposition

services is appropriately disbursed by the county department;

(e)  To provide that public funds are made available for reimbursement

pursuant to this section only after it has been determined that there are insufficient resources from the estate of the decedent or the decedent's legally responsible family members to cover the funeral or final disposition expenses;

(f)  To allow family members and friends of a decedent to contribute toward

the charges of funeral or final disposition expenses to the extent the contributions do not exceed the specified maximum combined charges for the expenses.

(2)  As used in this section, unless the context otherwise requires:


(a)  Contributions means any monetary payment or donation made directly

to the service provider or providers by a nonresponsible person to defray the expenses of a deceased public assistance or medical assistance recipient's funeral or final disposition.

(b)  Death reimbursement means the payment made by the county

department to the provider of funeral or final disposition services when adequate resources are not available from legally responsible persons or from the personal resources or income of the decedent or from contributions to cover the charges for funeral or final disposition expenses of a deceased public assistance or medical assistance recipient.

(c)  Decedent means a deceased recipient of public assistance or medical

assistance who was receiving benefits at the time of death.

(d)  Final resting place means a space, either below or above the surface of

the ground, for the interment or entombment of the remains of human bodies.

(e)  Legally responsible person means a person who:


(I)  Is the decedent's spouse or the decedent's parent if the decedent is an

unemancipated minor who is under the age of eighteen; and

(II)  Bears legal responsibility for the charges associated with the decedent's

funeral or final disposition expenses.

(f)  Maximum combined charges means the total of all charges from all

providers but in an amount not to exceed two thousand five hundred dollars.

(f.5)  Medical assistance means a payment on behalf of eligible recipients

who are enrolled in the Colorado medical assistance program established in articles 4, 5, and 6 of title 25.5, which is funded through Title XIX of the federal Social Security Act, 42 U.S.C. sec. 1396u-1.

(g)  Mortuary science practitioner means one engaged in, or holding himself

or herself out as being engaged in or conducting, embalming or final disposition of dead human bodies.

(h)  Nonresponsible person means one of the following who makes a

contribution to the charges for a funeral or final disposition or any combination of these charges:

(I)  A relative of the decedent who is not a legally responsible person; or


(II)  Any other person or party.


(i)  Public assistance means payments to eligible recipients of the programs

for old age pensions created in article XXIV of the state constitution, except for the old age pension health and medical care program described in section 25.5-2-101; the Colorado works program created in part 7 of this article 2; the aid to the needy disabled program created in section 26-2-119; the program for aid to the blind created in section 26-2-120; and the home care allowance program created in section 26-2-122.3.

(3)  Subject to available appropriations, a death reimbursement covering

reasonable funeral expenses or reasonable final disposition expenses or any combination of these expenses shall be paid by the county department for a decedent if the estate of the deceased is insufficient to pay the reasonable expenses and if the persons legally responsible for the support of the deceased are unable to pay the reasonable expenses. The county department shall be reimbursed eighty percent of the amount of the death reimbursement paid for recipients of aid to the needy disabled and assistance under the Colorado works program pursuant to part 7 of this article 2 and shall be reimbursed one hundred percent of the amount of the death reimbursement for recipients of old age pensions. If the state department determines that the level of appropriation is insufficient to meet the demand for death reimbursements, the state department shall reduce the amount of the death reimbursement level to meet the amount appropriated by the general assembly for death reimbursements. In the event that a reduction is made, the county department has no additional responsibility beyond the reimbursement level as defined in the state department's rules.

(4)  The total amount of a death reimbursement paid by the county

department or state department pursuant to this section must not exceed one thousand five hundred dollars and the combined charge of a funeral or final disposition or any combination of these expenses must not exceed two thousand five hundred dollars. Contributions from nonresponsible persons may be made without jeopardizing payment under this section and shall be counted as an offset to the maximum combined charges of the providers. If the combined charges from the providers exceed two thousand five hundred dollars, no death reimbursement shall be paid by the state or county department. Providers may seek contributions from nonresponsible persons only to the extent that money is available from such parties.

(5)  A legally responsible person shall be required to participate financially

towards the charges for final disposition through a contribution to the maximum death reimbursement if his or her resources are above the federal supplemental security income resource limits. A legally responsible person shall not be required to participate if he or she has fewer resources than the supplemental security income resource limits or if participation would result in fewer resources than the supplemental security income resource limits. Any financial participation from a legally responsible person shall be deducted from the maximum death reimbursement in the same manner as the personal resources of the decedent and shall not include the survivor's home or other excluded resources as provided for in the state department's rules. Any financial participation by a legally responsible person in excess of the legally required amount shall be used to reduce the amount of the maximum death reimbursement. Social security lump-sum death benefits payable to a legally responsible person shall not be an automatic deduction from the maximum death reimbursement. For purposes of this section, resources means:

(a)  Those assets or income that are accessible and available to the legally

responsible person;

(b)  Disbursement of funds from any insurance policy of the decedent to a

legally responsible person or nonresponsible person who is named as a beneficiary or a joint beneficiary of the decedent's policy. Nothing in this paragraph (b) shall grant authority to the county department to attach a lien against such funds or otherwise obtain or access these funds for payment of the final disposition of the decedent.

(6)  In calculating the amount of the death reimbursement, any personal

resources or income of the decedent is counted as a deduction from the maximum allowable death reimbursement. For purposes of this section, personal resources or income of the decedent includes the following:

(a)  Any preneed contract for merchandise or services to be provided or

performed in connection with the decedent's final disposition;

(b)  Any other resources or income accessible and available in the name of

the decedent, including jointly owned resources or income but only to the extent of the decedent's share of such jointly owned resources or income;

(c)  Any death benefit in which reimbursement is directly paid to a provider of

funeral or final disposition services for the decedent.

(7) (a)  Ownership by a public assistance or medical assistance recipient of a

final resting place, or the purchase thereof during the time the recipient is receiving that assistance, shall not disqualify the recipient from receiving that assistance, nor shall such ownership be deemed cause for any reduction in the amount of the recipient's assistance.

(b)  Any portion of the purchase price of a final resting place owned by the

decedent in excess of two thousand dollars shall be counted as a personal resource of the decedent in calculating the amount of a death reimbursement pursuant to this section.

(c)  A final resting place previously acquired by someone other than the

decedent and donated for final disposition of that decedent shall not be counted as a personal resource of the decedent or a legally responsible person in calculating the amount of a death reimbursement pursuant to this section.

(8)  A statement of agreement between the providers that shall be on a form

prescribed by the state department that sets forth the charges and the amounts of any payments or contributions shall be completed prior to any disbursement of funds by the county. The agreement shall assure that the charges of all providers have been equitably addressed and shall ascertain that the maximum combined charges do not exceed two thousand five hundred dollars and that the combined contributions from all sources do not exceed two thousand five hundred dollars. All payments from a decedent's estate, payments from legally responsible persons, and contributions from nonresponsible persons shall be paid directly to the provider of services. After the provision of all services, the providers shall bill the county department directly for reimbursement for appropriate costs that have not been covered by the resources from or contributions made by the decedent's estate, legally responsible persons, or nonresponsible persons. The county department shall reimburse the appropriate providers directly, based upon the statement of agreement.

(9) (a)  Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, the

disposition of a deceased public assistance or medical assistance recipient must be in accordance with subsection (9)(a)(I) or (9)(a)(II) of this section, as follows:

(I)  A public assistance or medical assistance recipient may express, in

writing and in accordance with a procedure established by the state department, a preference to be buried, cremated, or naturally reduced, or any combination of these practices. The expression shall be honored by the county department within the limits of costs and reimbursements specified in this section.

(II)  The disposition of a public assistance or medical assistance recipient who

has not expressed a preference shall be determined respectively by the recipient's spouse, adult children, parents, or siblings. Upon the death of a recipient, the county department shall use reasonable effort to contact such an authorized person to determine the disposition of the deceased recipient. If the effort does not result in contact with an authorized relative within twenty-four hours, the county shall immediately have the deceased recipient's body refrigerated or embalmed. If the effort does not result in contact with and decision by an authorized relative within seven days of the recipient's death, the county department shall determine whether to bury, cremate, or naturally reduce the deceased recipient on the basis of which option is less costly.

(b)  The disposition of any public assistance or medical assistance recipient in

accordance with this subsection (9) shall be in a timely and dignified manner.

(c)  A mortuary science practitioner or any operator of any cemetery who has

contracted for cremation services pursuant to this subsection (9) may dispose of the remains of any public assistance or medical assistance recipient cremated pursuant to this section that are not claimed within one hundred twenty days from the date of cremation. For the purposes of this paragraph (c), disposal of remains shall include, but need not be limited to, placing such remains in a cemetery, scattering grounds, or columbarium.

(10)  The state department shall:


(a)  Adopt rules and regulations necessary for the implementation of this

section; and

(b)  (Deleted by amendment, L. 96, p. 1114, � 1, effective August 7, 1996.)


(c)  Annually review reimbursement levels to determine whether the levels

are adequate to purchase funeral, cremation, burial, or natural reduction services for deceased public assistance or medical assistance recipients.

(11)  Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, any person

who, in good faith, disposes of a deceased recipient or the remains of a deceased recipient in accordance with this section shall be immune from any civil or criminal liability.

Source: L. 73: R&RE, p. 1193, � 2. C.R.S. 1963: � 119-3-29. L. 75: Entire

section amended, p. 886, � 3, effective July 1. L. 83: (4) amended, p. 1121, � 1, effective June 10. L. 86: (2) and (4) amended, p. 991, � 1, effective April 21. L. 90: (1) and (3) amended, (2) R&RE, and (5) to (7) added, pp. 1365, 1366, �� 1, 2, effective July 1. L. 93: (5)(a)(I) and IP(6) amended, p. 1148, � 89, effective July 1, 1994. L. 96: Entire section amended, p. 1114, � 1, effective August 7. L. 2003: (2)(g) amended, p. 1924, � 4, effective July 1. L. 2010: (3) amended, (HB 10-1043), ch. 92, p. 316, � 11, effective April 15. L. 2021: IP(2) and (2)(c) amended and (2)(f.5) and (2)(i) added, (HB 21-1277), ch. 259, p. 1520, � 1, effective June 18; (1)(a), (1)(d), (1)(e), (1)(f), (2)(a), (2)(b), (2)(e)(II), IP(2)(h), (3), (4), IP(6), (6)(c), (9)(a), and (10)(c) amended, (SB 21-006), ch. 123, p. 498, � 28, effective September 7.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration contained in the 1993 act

amending this section, see section 1 of chapter 230, Session Laws of Colorado 1993.


C.R.S. § 26-2-145

26-2-145. Community food assistance provider grant program - creation - grants - definitions - repeal. (1) As used in this section, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a)  Colorado agricultural products means all fruits, vegetables, grains,

meats, and dairy products grown or raised in Colorado and minimally processed products or value-added processed products that meet the standards for the Colorado proud designation established by the state department of agriculture.

(b) (I)  Eligible entity means either a food bank or food pantry.


(II)  Eligible entity includes a faith-based organization.


(c)  Food bank means a nonprofit charitable organization that is exempt

from federal income taxation pursuant to the federal Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended, whose primary purpose is to procure food from retailers, manufacturers, farmers and agricultural producers, individual donors, grocery stores, restaurants, and government channels and to store, transport, and distribute the procured food to other nonprofit charitable hunger relief organizations, including food pantries and hunger relief partner agencies in a defined geographic service area.

(d)  Food pantry means a nonprofit charitable organization that is exempt

from federal income taxation pursuant to the federal Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended, whose primary purpose is to distribute food at no cost directly to individuals in need in the food pantry's local community and that typically receives most or all of its food from a partner food bank, including nonprofit partner agencies such as soup kitchens and homeless shelters.

(e)  Grant program means the community assistance provider grant

program created in subsection (2) of this section.

(2)  There is created in the state department the community food assistance

provider grant program. The purpose of the grant program is to aid eligible entities in the procurement and distribution of nutritious foods that meet the needs of the eligible entity's clientele.

(3) (a)  The state department may contract with a third-party vendor to solicit,

vet, award, and monitor grants. The selection of any vendor pursuant to this subsection (3)(a) is exempt from the requirements of the Procurement Code, articles 101 to 112 of title 24.

(b)  The state department is authorized to use up to five percent of the total

funds appropriated to the grant program for the direct and indirect costs of administering and monitoring the grant program.

(4) (a)  The state department or a third-party vendor shall award one or more

grants to eligible entities as soon as practicable after July 1, 2024, using money appropriated to the grant program. In awarding grants, the state department shall, at a minimum, consider:

(I)  Providing money to a wide array of eligible entities of different types and

sizes;

(II)  Ensuring that money goes directly to eligible entities that operate in a

variety of regions throughout the state;

(III)  The ability of each eligible entity to responsibly distribute the grant

money in a timely manner;

(IV)  The eligible entity's willingness to administer a client-needs survey as a

vehicle for collecting input on the efficacy of its grant award; and

(V)  The ability of the eligible entity to solicit and accept feedback from the

state department to inform implementation of the grant program in the future.

(b)  Grant awards, including those to joint applicants, must be at least two

thousand five hundred dollars.

(c) (I)  To the extent practicable, food purchased by a grant recipient using

grant money may be either:

(A)  A Colorado agricultural product; or


(B)  An agricultural product that holds cultural significance for Indigenous

people, or for other cultures or subcultural groups, including the ways in which those agricultural products are produced.

(II)  A grant recipient may use up to ten percent of the grant award to cover

the direct expenses associated with the distribution of food, including:

(A)  Transportation;


(B)  Food delivery;


(C)  Staff costs;


(D)  Refrigeration; and


(E)  Storage.


(III)  A grant recipient shall not resell or apply other associated fees to the

distribution of products purchased with money made available through a grant.

(5)  Beginning in state fiscal year 2024-25, and each state fiscal year

thereafter, the state department shall include as part of its SMART Act hearing required by section 2-7-203 a report that includes, at a minimum:

(a)  The total number of eligible entities that applied for grants pursuant to

this section;

(b)  The total number of eligible entities that received a grant pursuant to this

section;

(c)  The total amount of money awarded to each eligible entity that received a

grant pursuant to this section;

(d)  The geographic locations of the eligible entities that received a grant

pursuant to this section; and

(e)  The estimated amount of food purchased and distributed to clientele for

each eligible entity that received a grant pursuant to this section.

(6)  This section is repealed, effective September 1, 2029.


Source: L. 2024: Entire section added, (HB 24-1407), ch. 81, p. 271, � 1,

effective July 1.

PART 2

COLORADO SUPPLEMENTAL SECURITY INCOME ACT


C.R.S. § 26-2-307

26-2-307. Fuel assistance payments - eligibility for federal standard utility allowance - supplemental utility assistance fund established - definitions - repeal. (1) (a) On and after July 1, 2024, the state department shall implement a program to make fuel assistance payments by crediting the fuel assistance payments to recipients' electronic benefits transfer service accounts. If a recipient already receives cash assistance from another state public assistance program, then the fuel assistance payment may be issued through the same payment mechanism as the other cash assistance that the recipient receives.

(b) (I)  The state department shall make the fuel assistance payments to

eligible households that receive SNAP benefits but that do not receive assistance under LEAP in order to qualify those households for the standard utility allowance to maximize their SNAP benefits.

(II)  To help the state department maximize the number of households that

are receiving both the SNAP and LEAP benefits and facilitate the identification of those households that receive SNAP benefits and qualify for the fuel assistance payments, the state department shall develop a database connection between the LEAP eligibility system and the Colorado benefits management system.

(III)  Repealed.


(III.5) (A)  For the 2022-23 state fiscal year, the general assembly shall

appropriate two million dollars from the economic recovery and relief cash fund created in section 24-75-228 to the state department for the purposes of implementing this section.

(B)  The use of money appropriated pursuant to this subsection (1)(b)(III.5)

must conform with the allowable purposes set forth in the federal American Rescue Plan Act of 2021, Pub.L. 117-2, as amended. The state department shall spend or obligate such appropriation in accordance with section 24-75-226 (4)(d).

(C)  This subsection (1)(b)(III.5) is repealed, effective September 1, 2027.


(IV)  Repealed.


(V)  On or before April 1, 2024, and on or before April 1 of each year

thereafter, the state department shall submit a budget to the organization and the commission to include the state department's administrative costs to implement the program, including the cost to issue payments to recipients' electronic benefits transfer cards for payments made pursuant to subsection (1)(a) of this section, and the projected number of eligible households that the state department identifies as receiving SNAP benefits but that are not receiving assistance under LEAP, including an estimated number of new SNAP cases that the state department will approve during the upcoming federal fiscal year. Based on the budget that the state department submits, the organization shall:

(A)  Calculate the amount of money from the energy assistance system

benefit charge collected pursuant to section 40-8.7-104 (2.5) that it allocates as part of its budget prepared pursuant to section 40-8.7-108 (3) for use by the state department to make fuel assistance payments and to implement the program;

(B)  Transmit the money to the state department on or before July 1, 2024,

and on or before July 1 of each year thereafter.

(c) to (e)  Repealed.


(f)  On or before October 1, 2022, the state department shall submit a budget

to the organization and the commission to cover the state department's administrative costs to set up the program. Based on the budget that the state department submits, the organization shall:

(I)  Calculate the amount of money from the energy assistance system

benefit charge collected pursuant to section 40-8.7-104 (2.5) that it allocates as part of its budget prepared pursuant to section 40-8.7-108 (3) for use by the state department to set up the program; and

(II)  Transmit the money to the state department on or before March 1, 2023.


(2) (a)  The supplemental utility assistance fund, referred to in this subsection

(2) as the fund, is hereby created in the state treasury. The fund consists of money credited to the fund pursuant to section 40-8.7-108 (2)(b) and any other money that the general assembly may appropriate or transfer to the fund.

(b)  The state treasurer shall credit all interest and income derived from the

deposit and investment of money in the fund to the fund.

(c)  Money in the fund is continuously appropriated to the state department

for use in accordance with subsection (1) of this section.

(3)  As used in this section, unless the context otherwise requires:


(a)  Commission means the legislative commission on low-income energy

and water assistance created in section 40-8.5-103.5 (1).

(b)  Electronic benefits transfer service or EBT means the service that the

state department implements pursuant to section 26-2-104 (2) to administer the delivery of public assistance payments and food stamps to recipients.

(c)  Fuel assistance payment means an annual payment that, when made to

an eligible household identified pursuant to subsection (1) of this section, makes that household eligible to receive the standard utility allowance.

(d)  LEAP means the low-income energy assistance program specified in

section 26-2-122.5.

(e)  Organization has the meaning set forth in section 40-8.7-103 (4).


(f)  Outside funds means:


(I)  Federal funds; or


(II)  Gifts, grants, or donations from public or private sources.


(g)  Program means the fuel assistance payment program implemented

under subsection (1)(a) of this section.

(h)  SNAP means the supplemental nutrition assistance program

established pursuant to this part 3.

(i)  Standard utility allowance means the heating and cooling standard

utility allowance authorized in the federal supplemental nutrition assistance program regulations promulgated by the food and nutrition service in the United States department of agriculture.

Source: L. 2021: Entire section added, (HB 21-1105), ch. 488, p. 3492, � 1,

effective September 7. L. 2022: IP(1)(f) and (1)(f)(II) amended, (HB 22-1018), ch. 109, p. 497, � 1, effective April 21; (1)(a), IP(1)(b), IP(1)(b)(V), (1)(b)(V)(B), and IP(1)(d) amended, (1)(b)(III), (1)(b)(IV), (1)(c), and (1)(e) repealed, and (1)(b)(III.5) and (1)(d.1) added, (HB 22-1380), ch. 375, p. 2663, � 3, effective June 3. L. 2024: (1)(b)(III.5)(B) amended, (HB 24-1466), ch. 429, p. 2943, � 31, effective June 5; (1)(a) amended, (HB 24-1407), ch. 81, p. 274, � 5, effective July 1; (1)(b) amended, (HB 24-1450), ch. 490, p. 3421, � 66, effective August 7.

Editor's note: (1)  Subsection (1)(d.1) provided for the repeal of subsection

(1)(d) and (1)(d.1), effective September 1, 2022. (See L. 2022, p. 2663.)

(2)  Amendments to subsection (1)(b)(III.5)(B) by HB 24-1450 and HB 24-1466

were harmonized.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in HB 22-1380, see section 1

of chapter 375, Session Laws of Colorado 2022. For the legislative declaration in HB 24-1466, see section 1 of chapter 429, Session Laws of Colorado 2024.


C.R.S. § 26-6-903

26-6-903. Definitions. As used in this part 9, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1)  Affiliate of a licensee means:


(a)  A person or entity that owns more than five percent of the ownership

interest in the business operated by the licensee or the applicant for a license; or

(b)  A person who is directly responsible for the care and welfare of children

served; or

(c)  An executive, officer, member of the governing board, or employee of a

licensee; or

(d)  A relative of a licensee, which relative provides care to children at the

licensee's facility or agency or is otherwise involved in the management or operations of the licensee's facility or agency.

(2)  Application means a declaration of intent to obtain or continue a license

or certificate for a residential or day treatment child care facility or child placement agency.

(3)  Certificate means a legal document granting permission to operate a

foster care home or a kinship foster care home.

(4)  Certification means the process by which a county department of

human or social services, a child placement agency, or a federally recognized tribe pursuant to applicable federal law approves the operation of a foster care home or a kinship foster care home.

(5)  Child care center means a facility, by whatever name known, that is

maintained for twenty-four-hour care for five or more children, unless otherwise specified in this subsection (5), who are not related to the owner, operator, or manager of the facility, whether the facility is operated with or without compensation for such care and with or without stated educational purposes. The term includes, but is not limited to, facilities commonly known as residential child care facilities, day treatment facilities, specialized group facilities, secure residential treatment centers, and respite child care facilities.

(6)  Child placement agency or agency means a corporation, partnership,

association, firm, agency, institution, or person unrelated to the child being placed, who places, facilitates placement for a fee, or arranges for placement for care of a child under eighteen years of age with a family, person, or institution. A child placement agency may place, facilitate placement, or arrange for the placement of a child for the purpose of adoption, foster care, treatment foster care, or therapeutic foster care. The natural parents or guardian of a child who place the child for care with a facility licensed as a family child care home or child care center, as defined in section 26.5-5-303, are not a child placement agency.

(7)  Cradle care home means a facility that is certified by a child placement

agency for the care of a child, or children in the case of multiple-birth siblings, who is twelve months of age or younger, in a place of residence for the purpose of providing twenty-four-hour family care for six months or less in anticipation of a voluntary relinquishment of the child or children, pursuant to article 5 of title 19, or while a county prepares an expedited permanency plan for an infant in its custody.

(8) (a) (I)  Day treatment center means a facility that:


(A)  Except as provided in subsection (8)(a)(II) of this section, provides less

than twenty-four-hour care for groups of five or more children who are three years of age or older, but less than twenty-one years of age; and

(B)  Provides a structured program of various types of psycho-social and

behavioral treatment to prevent or reduce the need for placement of the child out of the home or community.

(II)  Nothing in this subsection (8) prohibits a day treatment center from

allowing a person who reaches twenty-one years of age after the commencement of an academic year from attending an educational program at the day treatment center through the end of the semester in which the twenty-first birthday occurs or until the person completes the educational program, whichever comes first.

(b)  Day treatment center does not include special education programs

operated by a public or private school system or programs that are licensed by the department of early childhood for less than twenty-four-hour care of children, such as a child care center.

(9)  Department or state department means the state department of

human services.

(10)  Foster care home means a home that is certified by a county

department or a child placement agency pursuant to section 26-6-910, or a federally recognized tribe pursuant to applicable federal law, for child care in a place of residence of a family or person for the purpose of providing twenty-four-hour family foster care for a child or youth less than twenty-one years of age. A foster care home may include foster care for a child or youth who is unrelated to the head of the home. The term includes a foster care home that receives a child for regular twenty-four-hour care and a home that receives a child or youth from a state-operated institution for child care or from a child placement agency. Foster care home also includes those homes licensed by the department pursuant to section 26-6-905 that receive neither money from the counties nor children or youth placed by the counties.

(11)  Governing body means the individual, partnership, corporation, or

association in which the ultimate authority and legal responsibility is vested for the administration and operation of a residential or day treatment child care facility or a child placement agency.

(12)  Guardian means a person who is entrusted by law with the care of a

child under eighteen years of age.

(13)  Homeless youth shelter means a facility that, in addition to other

services it may provide, provides services and mass temporary shelter for a period of three days or more to youths who are at least eleven years of age or older and who otherwise are homeless youth as that term is defined in section 26-5.7-102 (2).

(14)  ICON means the computerized database of court records known as the

integrated Colorado online network used by the state judicial department.

(15)  Kin means a relative of the child, a person ascribed by the family as

having a family-like relationship with the child, or a person that has a prior significant relationship with the child. These relationships take into account cultural values and continuity of significant relationships with the child.

(16)  Kinship foster care home means a kinship foster care home that has

been certified pursuant to section 26-6-910 to care for a relative or kin only. A kinship foster care home provides twenty-four-hour foster care for a child or youth who is a relative or kin, who is less than twenty-one years of age, and who is eligible for the same foster care reimbursement, assistance, and other supports as foster care homes pursuant to section 26-6-904.5. Kinship foster care home does not include non-certified kinship care as that term is defined in subsection (21.5) of this section.

(17)  License means a legal document issued pursuant to this part 9

granting permission to operate a residential or day treatment child care facility or child placement agency. A license may be in the form of a provisional, probationary, permanent, or time-limited license.

(18)  Licensee means the entity or individual to which a license is issued and

that has the legal capacity to enter into an agreement or contract, assume obligations, incur and pay debts, sue and be sued in its own right, and be held responsible for its actions. A licensee may be a governing body.

(19)  Licensing means, except as otherwise provided in subsection (10) of

this section, the process by which the department approves a facility or agency for the purpose of conducting business as a residential or day treatment child care facility or child placement agency.

(20)  Medical foster care means a program of foster care that provides

home-based care for medically fragile children and youth who would otherwise be confined to a hospital or institutional setting and includes, but is not limited to:

(a)  Infants impacted by prenatal drug and alcohol abuse;


(b)  Children with developmental disabilities that require ongoing medical

intervention;

(c)  Children and youth diagnosed with acquired immune deficiency syndrome

or human immunodeficiency virus;

(d)  Children with a failure to thrive or other nutritional disorders; and


(e)  Children dependent on technology such as respirators, tracheotomy

tubes, or ventilators to survive.

(21) (a)  Negative licensing action means a final agency action resulting in

the denial of an application, the imposition of fines, or the suspension or revocation of a license issued pursuant to this part 9 or the demotion of such a license to a probationary license.

(b)  As used in this subsection (21), final agency action means the

determination made by the department, after the opportunity for a hearing, to deny, suspend, revoke, or demote to probationary status a license issued pursuant to this part 9 or an agreement between the department and the licensee concerning the demotion of such a license to a probationary license.

(21.5)  Non-certified kinship care means kinship care that is provided to a

child or youth who is less than twenty-one years of age by a relative or kin who has a significant relationship with the child or youth and who has either chosen not to pursue the certification process or who has not met the certification requirements for a kinship foster care home as set forth in this part 9.

(22)  Out-of-home placement provider consortium means a group of service

providers that are formally organized and managed to achieve the goals of the county, group of counties, or mental health agency contracting for additional services other than treatment-related or child maintenance services.

(23)  Person means a corporation, partnership, association, firm, agency,

institution, or individual.

(24)  Place of residence means the place or abode where a person actually

lives and provides child care.

(25)  Qualified individual means a trained professional or licensed clinician,

as defined in the federal Family First Prevention Services Act. A qualified individual must be approved to serve as a qualified individual according to the state plan. A qualified individual must not be an interested party or participant in the juvenile court proceeding and must be free of any personal or business relationship that would cause a conflict of interest in evaluating the child, juvenile, or youth or making recommendations concerning the child's, juvenile's, or youth's placement and therapeutic needs according to the federal Title IV-E state plan or any waiver in accordance with 42 U.S.C. sec. 675a.

(26)  Qualified residential treatment program means a licensed and

accredited program that has a trauma-informed treatment model that is designed to address the child's or youth's needs, including clinical needs, as appropriate, of children and youth with serious emotional or behavioral disorders or disturbances in accordance with the federal Family First Prevention Services Act, 42 U.S.C. 672 (k)(4), and is able to implement the treatment identified for the child or youth by the assessment of the child or youth required in section 19-1-115 (4)(e)(I).

(27)  Related means any of the following relationships by blood, marriage,

or adoption: Parent, grandparent, brother, sister, stepparent, stepbrother, stepsister, uncle, aunt, niece, nephew, or cousin.

(28)  Relative means any of the following relationships by blood, marriage,

or adoption: Parent, grandparent, son, daughter, grandson, granddaughter, brother, sister, stepparent, stepbrother, stepsister, stepson, stepdaughter, uncle, aunt, niece, nephew, or cousin.

(29)  Residential child care facility means a facility licensed by the state

department pursuant to this part 9 to provide twenty-four-hour group care and treatment for five or more children operated under private, public, or nonprofit sponsorship. Residential child care facility includes community-based residential child care facilities; qualified residential treatment programs, as defined in section 26-5.4-102 (2); shelter facilities; and psychiatric residential treatment facilities as defined in section 25.5-4-103 (19.5). A residential child care facility may be eligible for designation by the executive director of the state department pursuant to article 65 of title 27. A child who is admitted to a residential child care facility must be:

(a)  Five years of age or older but less than eighteen years of age; or


(b)  Less than twenty-one years of age and placed by court order or voluntary

placement; or

(c)  Accompanied by a parent if less than five years of age.


(30)  Residential or day treatment child care facility or facility means a

residential child care facility, including a qualified residential treatment program, psychiatric residential treatment program, shelter care program, and homeless youth program; specialized group facility, including a group home and group center; day treatment center; secure residential treatment center; respite child care center; or homeless youth shelter, including a host family home.

(31)  Respite child care center means a facility for the purpose of providing

temporary twenty-four-hour group care for three or more children or youth who are placed in certified foster care homes or approved noncertified kinship care homes, and children or youth with open cases through a regional accountable entity. A respite child care center is not a treatment facility, but rather its primary purpose is providing recreational activities, peer engagement, and skill development to the children and youth in its care. A respite child care center serves children and youth from five years of age to twenty-one years of age. A respite child care center may offer care for only part of a day. For purposes of this subsection (31), respite child care means an alternate form of care to enable caregivers to be temporarily relieved of caregiving responsibilities.

(32)  Secure residential treatment center means a facility operated under

private ownership that is licensed by the department pursuant to this part 9 to provide twenty-four-hour group care and treatment in a secure setting for five or more children or persons up to the age of twenty-one years over whom the juvenile court retains jurisdiction pursuant to section 19-2.5-103 (6) who are committed by a court, pursuant to an adjudication of delinquency or pursuant to a determination of guilt of a delinquent act or having been convicted as an adult and sentenced for an act that would be a crime if committed in Colorado, or in the committing jurisdiction, to be placed in a secure facility. Secure residential treatment center does not include a state-owned psychiatric residential treatment facility as defined in subsection (34.5) of this section.

(33)  Sibling means one or more individuals having one or both parents in

common.

(34) (a)  Specialized group facility means a facility sponsored and

supervised by a county department or a licensed child placement agency for the purpose of providing twenty-four-hour care for three or more children, but fewer than twelve children, whose special needs can best be met through the medium of a small group. A child who is admitted to a specialized group facility must be:

(I)  At least seven years of age or older but less than eighteen years of age;


(II)  Less than twenty-one years of age and placed by court order or voluntary

placement; or

(III)  Accompanied by a parent or legal guardian if less than seven years of

age.

(b)  Specialized group facility includes specialized group homes and

specialized group centers.

(34.5)  State-owned psychiatric residential treatment facility means a

psychiatric residential treatment facility, as defined in section 25.5-4-103, that is operated on state-owned property and may have a secure perimeter fence.

(35)  Therapeutic foster care means a program of foster care that

incorporates treatment for the special physical, psychological, or emotional needs of a child placed with specially trained foster parents, but does not include medical foster care.

(36)  Treatment foster care means a clinically effective alternative to a

residential treatment facility that combines the treatment technologies typically associated with more restrictive settings with a nurturing and individualized family environment.

Source: L. 2022: Entire part added, (HB 22-1295), ch. 123, p. 784, � 17,

effective July 1. L. 2024: (4), (10), and (16) amended and (21.5) added, (SB 24-008), ch. 289, p. 1933, � 7, effective September 1. L. 2025: (32) amended and (34.5) added, (HB 25-1172), ch. 155, p. 628, � 4, effective August 6.


C.R.S. § 29-3-103

29-3-103. Definitions. As used in this article 3, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1)  Bonds or revenue bonds means bonds, notes, or other securities

evidencing an obligation and issued under this article by a county or municipality.

(2)  County means any county within this state.


(3)  Finance or financing means the issuing of bonds by a county or

municipality and the use of substantially all of the proceeds therefrom pursuant to a financing agreement with the user to pay (or to reimburse the user or its designee) for the costs of the acquisition or construction of a project, whether these costs are incurred by the county, the municipality, the user, or a designee of the user. Title to or in the project may at all times remain in the user, and, in such case, the bonds of the county or municipality may be secured by mortgage or other lien upon the project or upon any other property of the user, or both, granted by the owner or by a pledge of one or more notes, debentures, bonds, or other secured or unsecured debt obligations of the user, as the governing body deems advisable, but no county or municipality shall be authorized hereby to pledge any of its property or to otherwise secure the payment of any bonds with its property; except that the county or municipality may pledge the property of the project or revenues therefrom.

(4)  Financing agreement includes a lease, sublease, installment purchase

agreement, rental agreement, option to purchase, or any other agreement, or any combination thereof, entered into in connection with the financing or refinancing of a project pursuant to this article.

(5)  Mortgage means a deed of trust or any other security device for both

real and personal property.

(6)  Municipality means any city, including without limitation any city or city

and county operating under a home rule or special legislative charter, or town within this state.

(7)  Ordinance means an ordinance of a city, town, or city and county.


(8)  Pollution means any form of environmental pollution, including but not

limited to water pollution, air pollution, pollution caused by solid waste disposal, thermal pollution, radiation contamination, or noise pollution.

(9)  Pollution control facilities means any land, building, or other

improvement and all real or personal property, and any undivided or other interest in any of the foregoing, including without limitation structures, equipment, pipes, pumps, dams, reservoirs, improvements, or other facilities useful for the purpose of reducing, abating, preventing, controlling, or eliminating pollution caused or produced by the operation of any manufacturing, industrial, or commercial enterprise or any utility plant or useful for the purpose of removing or treating any substance in processed material, which material would cause pollution if used without such removal or treatment.

(10)  Project means any land, building, or other improvement and all real or

personal properties, and any undivided or other interest in any of the foregoing, except inventories and raw materials, whether or not in existence, suitable or used for or in connection with any of the following:

(a)  Manufacturing, industrial, commercial, agricultural, or business

enterprises (including, without limitation, enterprises engaged in storing, warehousing, distributing, selling, or transporting any products of agriculture, industry, commerce, manufacturing, or business), or any utility plant;

(b)  Hospital, health-care, or nursing-home facilities (including, without

limitation, clinics and out-patient facilities and facilities for the training of hospital, health-care, or nursing-home personnel);

(c)  Pollution control facilities;


(d)  Residential facilities for low- and middle-income families or persons

intended for use as the sole place of residence by the owners or intended occupants. Low- and middle-income persons and families means persons and families determined by a county or municipality (which determination shall be conclusive) to lack the financial ability to pay prices or rentals sufficient to induce private enterprise in such county or municipality to build a sufficient supply of adequate, safe, and sanitary dwellings without the special assistance afforded by this article.

(e)  Sewage or solid waste disposal facilities;


(f)  Facilities for the furnishing and storage of water;


(g)  Facilities for the furnishing of energy or gas;


(h)  Sports and recreational facilities available for use by members of the

general public either as participants or spectators and functionally related and subordinate residential housing facilities, including residential facilities, without regard to the limitations contained in paragraph (d) of this subsection (10), for employees of the persons or entities owning or operating such sports and recreational facilities and facilities located in proximity to and in connection with sports and recreational facilities providing treatment, therapy, or recreational opportunities for persons with mental and physical disabilities and families of such persons;

(i)  Convention or trade show facilities;


(j)  Airports, facilities for the loading or unloading of unprocessed agricultural

products or raw materials, mass commuting facilities, railroad facilities, parking facilities, or storage or training facilities directly related to any of the foregoing;

(k)  Research, product-testing, and administrative facilities;


(l)  Facilities for private and not-for-profit institutions of higher education;

and

(m)  Capital improvements to existing single-family residential, multi-family

residential, commercial, or industrial structures, to retrofit such structures for significant energy savings or installation of solar or other alternative electrical energy-producing improvements to serve that structure or other structures on contiguous property under common ownership or installation of a system that uses geothermal energy for water heating or space heating or cooling in a single structure.

(10.5)  Refinance or refinancing means the issuing of bonds by a county or

municipality and the use of all or substantially all of the proceeds therefrom pursuant to a financing agreement with the user to liquidate any obligations previously incurred to finance or aid in financing of a project specified in paragraphs (b) to (l) of subsection (10) of this section which would constitute such a project had it been originally undertaken and financed by a county or municipality pursuant to this article. Title to or in the project may remain at all times in the user, and in such case, the bonds of the county or municipality may be secured by mortgage or other lien upon the project granted by the owner or by a pledge of one or more notes, debentures, bonds, or other secured or unsecured debt obligations of the user, as the governing body deems advisable.

(11)  Resolution means a resolution of a county.


(12)  State means the state of Colorado.


(13)  User means one or more persons who enter into a financing agreement

with any county or municipality relating to a project; except that the user need not be the person actually occupying, operating, or maintaining the project.

(14)  Utility plant means any facility used for or in connection with the

generation, production, transmission, or distribution of electricity; the production, manufacture, storage, or distribution of gas; the transportation or conveyance of gas, oil, or other fluid substance by pipeline; or the diverting, developing, pumping, impounding, distributing, or furnishing of water.

Source: L. 67: p. 671, � 2. C.R.S. 1963: � 36-24-2. L. 73: p. 475, � 2. L. 74: (8)

amended, p. 229, �1, effective February 7; (10) and (11) amended, p. 408, � 23, effective April 11. L. 75: (3), (10), and (13) amended, p. 967, �� 2, 3, effective July 14. L. 77: (4), (10)(j), and (10)(k) amended and (10.5) added, p. 1409, �� 2, 3, effective June 20. L. 81: (10)(h) amended, p. 1409, � 1, effective May 27. L. 93: (10)(h) amended, p. 1669, � 83, effective July 1. L. 2003: IP(10), (10)(f), and (10)(l) amended, p. 726, � 2, effective July 1. L. 2008: (10)(k) and (10)(l) amended and (10)(m) added, p. 1293, � 4, effective May 27. L. 2009: (10)(m) amended, (SB 09-051), ch. 157, p. 677, � 9, effective September 1. L. 2022: IP and (10)(m) amended, (SB 22-118), ch. 335, p. 2370, � 4, effective August 10.

Cross references: In 2009, subsection (10)(m) was amended by the

Renewable Energy Financing Act of 2009. For the short title and the legislative declaration, see sections 1 and 2 of chapter 157, Session Laws of Colorado 2009.


C.R.S. § 29-35-301

29-35-301. Legislative declaration. (1) The general assembly finds, determines, and declares that:

(a)  There is an extraterritorial impact when local governments enact land use

decisions that require a minimum amount of parking spaces;

(b)  Residential developments frequently have more parking than is utilized,

which adds to housing costs and encourages additional vehicle ownership and vehicle miles traveled. According to the regional transportation district study titled Residential Parking in Station Areas: A Study of Metro Denver, unsubsidized housing developments near regional transportation district stations provide forty percent more parking than residents utilize at peak times, and income-restricted housing developments provide fifty percent more parking than is used.

(c)  The 2021 study Parking & Affordable Housing of parking utilization at

affordable housing developments along the front range found that half of parking spaces built on average go unused, and that requirements can be up to five times the need especially for buildings serving lower area median incomes;

(d)  Local government land use decisions that require a minimum amount of

parking spaces beyond what is necessary to meet market demand increase vehicle miles traveled and associated greenhouse gas emissions. According to a University of California Institute of Transportation Studies article titled What Do Residential Lotteries Show Us About Transportation Choices?, higher amounts of free parking provided in residential developments cause higher rates of vehicle ownership, higher rates of vehicle miles traveled, and less frequent transit use.

(e)  According to the study Effects of Parking Provision on Automobile Use

in U.S. Cities: Inferring Causality in the journal Transportation Research Record, an increase in parking provisions from one-tenth to one-half parking space per person is associated with an increase in automobile mode share of roughly thirty percent;

(f)  According to the article Households with Constrained Off-Street Parking

Drive Fewer Miles in the journal Transportation, vehicle ownership rates are fourteen percent higher for households with more than one available parking space per unit compared to those with one or fewer, and for every additional vehicle per household, the household travels on average seventeen more miles of total vehicle miles traveled per day;

(g)  Coloradans drive more miles per person than they used to, which puts

stress on transportation infrastructure and increasing household costs. Since 1981, per capita vehicle miles traveled in Colorado have risen by over twenty percent according to data from the federal highway administration.

(h)  Increased vehicle ownership and the resulting vehicle miles traveled

impact neighboring jurisdictions by increasing congestion, roadway infrastructure maintenance costs, air pollution, noise, and greenhouse gas emissions;

(i)  Given the close proximity and interconnected nature of jurisdictions within

Colorado's metropolitan regions, many residents travel frequently between jurisdictions for work, shopping, recreation, and other trips;

(j)  In Colorado's major cities, a significant share of employees commute to

jobs in the city but live elsewhere, including seventy percent of employees in Denver, forty-five percent in Colorado Springs, sixty percent in Fort Collins, fifty percent in Pueblo, and sixty-five percent in Grand Junction, according to 2021 data from the federal census;

(k)  Excessive parking requirements limit compact, walkable development by

mandating additional space between uses, which then necessitates driving to reach most destinations;

(l)  Lower density development has lowered revenue and increased capital

and maintenance costs compared to more compact development. National studies, such as the article Relationships between Density and per Capita Municipal Spending in the United States, published in Urban Science, have found that lower density communities have higher government capital and maintenance costs for water, sewer, and transportation infrastructure and lower property and sales tax revenue. These increased costs are often borne by both state and local governments.

(m)  Vehicle traffic, which increases when land use patterns are more

dispersed, contributes twenty percent of nitrogen oxide emissions, a key ozone precursor, according to the executive summary of the Moderate Area Ozone state implementation plan for the 2015 Ozone National Ambient Air Quality Standards by the Regional Air Quality Council;

(n)  The United States environmental protection agency has classified the

Denver metro area and the north front range area as being in severe nonattainment for ozone and ground level ozone, which has serious impacts on human health, particularly for vulnerable populations;

(o)  According to the greenhouse gas pollution reduction roadmap, published

by the Colorado energy office and dated January 14, 2021, the transportation sector is the single largest source of greenhouse gas pollution in Colorado;

(p)  Nearly sixty percent of the greenhouse gas emissions from the

transportation sector come from light-duty vehicles, the majority of cars and trucks that Coloradans drive every day;

(q)  Section 43-1-128 (3) directs the department of transportation to establish

greenhouse gas reduction targets, guidelines, and procedures for state and regional transportation plans, and the resulting greenhouse gas planning rule and associated mitigation policy directives include a list of greenhouse gas mitigation measures to achieve those targets, including the elimination of minimum parking requirements and other parking management strategies;

(r)  Local government land use decisions that require a minimum amount of

parking spaces increase the cost of new residential projects, which increases housing costs. According to the regional transportation district study titled Residential Parking in Station Areas: A Study of Metro Denver, structured parking spaces in the Denver metropolitan area cost twenty-five thousand dollars each to build in 2020 and use space that would otherwise be used for revenue generating residential units, decreasing the profitability of residential development. As a result, parking requirements that necessitate the construction of structured parking spaces may discourage developers from building new residential projects, or, if they do move forward with projects, force them to recoup the costs of building excessive parking by increasing housing prices.

(s)  Off-street surface parking costs up to ten thousand dollars per space,

and each space requires up to two and one-half times its square footage to accommodate. As a result, off-street surface parking requirements also may discourage developers from building new residential projects, or, if they do move forward with projects, force them to build fewer units than they otherwise could and recoup the excessive cost by increasing home prices and rents. An analysis conducted by the Parking Reform Network found that an off-street parking space can add between two hundred and five hundred dollars per month in rent. Whether these costs are necessary varies from one building project to the next, and those variables are not accounted for in mandated parking minimums.

(t)  Minimum parking requirements put small businesses at a disadvantage

relative to large corporations. Large corporations have more capital at their disposal to fulfill costly parking requirements and are less reliant on foot traffic, human-scale visibility, and a sense of place to attract customers.

(u)  Impervious surfaces such as those built for vehicle parking create an

urban heat island effect, contributing to rising temperatures, increasing energy costs for air conditioning, and worsening ground level air quality. Excessive land coverage of this kind makes stormwater management difficult and expensive, and contributes to flash flooding and erosion, causing interjurisdictional conflicts and legal disputes.

(2)  Therefore, the general assembly declares that the required minimum

amount of parking spaces for a real property is a matter of mixed statewide and local concern.

Source: L. 2024: Entire article added (see the editor's note following the part

3 heading), (HB 24-1304), ch. 159, p. 731, � 1, effective August 7.


C.R.S. § 29-35-401

29-35-401. Legislative declaration. (1) (a) The general assembly hereby finds, determines, and declares that:

(I)  Accessory dwelling units offer a way to provide compact, relatively

affordable housing in established neighborhoods with minimal impacts to infrastructure and to supply new housing opportunities without added dispersed low-density housing;

(II)  Accessory dwelling units generate rental income to help homeowners

cover mortgage payments or other costs, which can be important for a variety of residents, such as older homeowners on fixed incomes and low- and moderate-income homeowners;

(III)  Accessory dwelling units provide families with options for

intergenerational living arrangements that enable child or elder care and aging in place, and a 2021 survey by the AARP found that approximately seventy-five percent of people fifty years of age or older want to stay in their homes or communities for as long as they can. According to a 2018 study by the Center for American Progress, fifty-one percent of Coloradans live in a child care desert-a community where there are no child care providers or so few options that there are more than three times as many children as there are licensed child care slots. These child care deserts are situated within rural, suburban, and urban communities and are a major reason for working parents to leave the workforce.

(IV)  Accessory dwelling units are often occupied at low to no rent by family

members, and if they are rented privately, their rents are relatively affordable because of their small size;

(V)  As Colorado's population ages and typical household size continues to

decrease, accessory dwelling units offer more compact housing options that align with the state's changing demographics, and Coloradans over sixty-five years of age are the fastest-growing age cohort in Colorado according to the state demography office;

(VI)  Accessory dwelling units enable seniors to downsize, move into

accessible units, or live with family or a caregiver while remaining in their communities. A 2018 AARP survey found that sixty-seven percent of adults would consider living in an accessory dwelling unit to be close to someone but still have a separate space. Most seniors do not live in homes that are accessible, even though disability is prevalent among the senior population and increases with age. Less than four percent of existing housing units in the United States are estimated to be livable for people with moderate mobility difficulties, according to Housing for an Aging Population in the journal Housing Policy Debate.

(VII)  Relative to dispersed, low-density development, compact infill

development, including accessory dwelling unit development, reduces water use, greenhouse gas emissions, infrastructure costs, and household energy and transportation costs;

(VIII)  Accessory dwelling units use significantly less energy for heating and

cooling than single-unit detached dwellings because of their smaller size, which reduces household energy costs and greenhouse gas emissions. Accessory dwelling units can reduce lifetime carbon dioxide emissions by forty percent compared to medium-sized single-family homes, according to a report from the Oregon department of environmental quality. Reducing emissions from the housing sector is critical for meeting the state's greenhouse gas emissions targets established in section 25-7-102. According to The Carbon Footprint of Household Energy Use in the United States in the Proceedings of the National Academy of Sciences, reducing floor space per capita is a critical strategy to reaching mid-century climate goals.

(IX)  Compact infill development reduces water demand and infrastructure

costs by using less piping, which reduces water loss; includes less landscaped space per unit; and makes better use of existing infrastructure.

(X)  Accessory dwelling units reduce government capital and maintenance

costs for infrastructure since accessory dwelling units are built in existing neighborhoods and have a relatively small impact on existing infrastructure. National studies such as Relationships between Density and per Capita Municipal Spending in the United States, published in Urban Science, have found that lower density communities have higher government capital and maintenance costs for water, sewer, and transportation infrastructure and lower property and sales tax revenue. These increased costs are often borne by both state and local governments.

(XI)  A number of local land use laws prohibit homeowners from building an

accessory dwelling unit, or apply regulations to accessory dwelling units that significantly limit their construction;

(XII)  A number of municipalities have removed barriers to accessory dwelling

unit construction such as parking requirements, owner occupancy requirements, and restrictive size and design limitations, which has resulted in accessory dwelling unit permits increasing to ten to twenty percent of total new housing permits and an overall increase in the total housing supply. Since California implemented various reforms to encourage accessory dwelling unit construction, including requiring cities to allow accessory dwelling units as a use by right, preventing the imposition of parking requirements, and preventing owner occupancy requirements, accessory dwelling unit construction has increased significantly in California. Following reforms to California's accessory dwelling unit law in 2016, accessory dwelling unit development has increased rapidly from around one thousand accessory dwelling units permitted in 2016 to over twenty-four thousand in 2022, or about twenty percent of new housing permits statewide, according to data from the California Department of Housing and Community Development and analysis by the Bipartisan Policy Center.

(XIII)  Housing supply impacts housing affordability, and housing prices are

typically higher when housing supply is restricted by local land use regulations in a metropolitan region, according to the National Bureau of Economic Research in working papers such as Regulation and Housing Supply, The Impact of Zoning on Housing Affordability, and The Impact of Local Residential Land Use Restrictions on Land Values Across and Within Single Family Housing Markets;

(XIV)  Increasing housing supply moderates price increases and improves

housing affordability across all incomes, according to studies such as The Economic Implications of Housing Supply in the Journal of Economic Perspectives and Supply Skepticism: Housing Supply and Affordability in the journal Housing Policy Debate;

(XV)  Academic research such as The Impact of Building Restrictions on

Housing Affordability in the Federal Reserve Bank of New York Economic Policy Review has identified zoning and other land use controls as a primary driver of rising housing costs in the most expensive housing markets;

(XVI)  Accessory dwelling units offer affordable and attainable options to live

in high-opportunity neighborhoods, which can help improve equity outcomes regionally and statewide. An analysis of accessory dwelling unit permitting in California found that accessory dwelling units are typically permitted on parcels with relatively good access to jobs compared to surrounding areas, according to Where Will Accessory Dwelling Units Sprout Up When a State Lets Them Grow? Evidence From California in Cityscape: A Journal of Policy Development and Research.

(XVII)  Local government regulation of accessory dwelling units varies

significantly within regions and statewide in Colorado in terms of where they are allowed, the dimensional and design restrictions applied, and other requirements. This inconsistency inhibits the development of a robust market of accessory dwelling unit developers, modular accessory dwelling unit designs, and associated cost reductions. Colorado is similar to most states in this regard, and, according to Zoning By a Thousand Cuts in the Pepperdine Law Review, which analyzed accessory dwelling unit regulations across Connecticut, The high degree of regulatory variation thwarts the development of prototype designs or prefabricated [accessory dwelling units] that could satisfy different rules across jurisdictions.

(XVIII)  More permissive regulation by local governments of accessory

dwelling units provides a reasonable chance for homeowners to construct or convert an accessory dwelling unit and thereby increase housing supply, stabilize housing costs, and contribute to affordable and equitable home ownership to adequately meet the housing needs of a growing Colorado population.

(b)  Therefore, the general assembly declares that increasing the housing

supply through the construction or conversion of accessory dwelling units is a matter of mixed statewide and local concern.

Source: L. 2024: Entire article added (see the editor's note following the part

4 heading), (HB 24-1152), ch. 167, p. 816, � 1, effective May 13.


C.R.S. § 29-4-702

29-4-702. Legislative declaration. (1) The general assembly finds and declares that there is a shortage in Colorado of decent, safe, and sanitary housing which is within the financial capabilities of low- and moderate-income families. In order to alleviate the high cost of construction loans and home mortgage interest costs for such families, the general assembly believes that it is essential that additional public moneys be made available, through the issuance of revenue bonds, to assist both private enterprise and governmental entities in meeting critical housing needs. The general assembly also finds and declares that the compelling need within the state for such assistance can best be met by the establishment of a quasi-governmental and corporate entity vested with the powers and duties specified in this part 7.

(2)  The general assembly further finds and declares that many housing

facilities occupied by low- and moderate-income families use excessive and unnecessary amounts of energy for heating and other home uses due to inadequate insulation or to the absence of other design features or materials which reduce total home energy requirements; that high costs impair the ability of such families to afford decent, safe, and sanitary housing facilities; that many such facilities do not conform to building, housing maintenance, fire, health, or other state, county, or municipal codes or standards applicable to housing; that many such facilities are located in, and by their condition contribute to, deteriorating neighborhoods; that many such facilities are inadequate for the number of persons occupying them; that many such facilities cannot be repaired or improved within the financial capabilities of the low- or moderate-income owners or occupants; and that existing private and public means of enterprise and investment cannot provide financing or assistance on terms and conditions within the means of many such low- or moderate-income families. These conditions are adverse to the safety, health, and welfare of the citizens of this state and are contrary to the public policies of promoting the conservation of scarce energy resources, of minimizing the impact of higher costs on the ability of low- and moderate-income families to afford decent, safe, and sanitary housing facilities, and of preventing and eliminating blight in urban and rural areas. The general assembly therefore further finds and declares that it is a valid public purpose to preserve and promote the safety, health, and welfare of the citizens of this state by the exercise of the powers specified in this part 7.

(3)  The general assembly further finds and declares that there exists in this

state a need to promote sound economic development, to maintain employment, and to encourage job opportunities in areas of unemployment and underemployment by assisting in the provision of facilities for business enterprises, including profit and nonprofit enterprises and particularly enterprises of small and moderate size, by assisting in the provision of capital to such business enterprises, and by otherwise supporting such business enterprises. The general assembly therefore finds and declares that it is a valid public purpose to preserve and promote the safety, health, and welfare of this state and its inhabitants by the exercise of the powers specified in this part 7 to finance the acquisition, construction, reconstruction, rehabilitation, improvement, and equipping of facilities for business enterprises, including profit and nonprofit enterprises and particularly enterprises of small and moderate size, by private persons and political subdivisions of this state, to finance loans to and to make equity investments in such business enterprises for capital purposes, and to otherwise support such business enterprises.

(4)  The general assembly further finds and declares that the purpose of this

part 7 is to create the Colorado strategic seed fund to meet the special needs of entrepreneurs and small business operators in Colorado who would not otherwise be able to obtain funding for the development of ideas into viable and marketable products and services which would enhance the economic growth and development of Colorado, that this fund will be used to establish operating seed funds for investment in small businesses, and that this investment will, in turn, lead to further growth, diversification, and improvement of the Colorado economy.

(5)  The general assembly further finds and declares:


(a)  That there exists a need to leverage private sector investment in new and

innovative products, in entrepreneurial activity, and in economic development finance and that, therefore, state assistance for development finance should reflect a leveraging investment strategy; and

(b)  That the lending and investment of moneys to develop and improve the

economy of the state requires specialized and unique knowledge, skill, and experience.

(6)  The general assembly further finds and declares that the investment

strategy of the managers of the operating seed funds should be:

(a)  To invest in companies in the earliest stages of their development;


(b)  To invest in companies which have exceptional merit and which will be

located within the state of Colorado;

(c)  To invest in companies in which the founding entrepreneurs have made

significant individual investments;

(d)  To invest in companies whose success will result in the creation of jobs in

Colorado;

(e)  To invest in companies which will attract other sources of venture capital

for long-term development;

(f)  To invest in attractive growth companies which are coupled with the

state's business incubators;

(g)  To assist companies with direct and ongoing business consultation to

establish a viable management structure and strategic plan;

(h)  To provide an opportunity for subsequent financing for follow-up

operations of successful companies;

(i)  To limit the amount invested by a manager in investments outside of

Colorado to not more than fifty percent of the capital of an operating seed fund.

Source: L. 73: p. 805, � 1. C.R.S. 1963: � 69-11-1. L. 76: Entire section

amended, p. 688, � 1, effective April 19. L. 77: (2) amended, p. 1412, � 1, effective June 19. L. 82: (3) added, p. 461, � 1, effective April 23. L. 87: (3) amended, p. 1190, � 2, effective May 20. L. 88: (4) to (6) added, p. 1101, � 1, effective May 29.

Editor's note: This section was originally numbered as � 29-4-701 in C.R.S.

1973 but was renumbered on revision in the 1977 replacement volume for ease of location.


C.R.S. § 30-10-623

30-10-623. Department of corrections - reimbursement for expenses of coroner. The department of corrections, from appropriations made by the general assembly, shall reimburse a county for reasonable and necessary costs incurred by the county coroner related to investigations or complete autopsies performed on persons in the custody of the department of corrections. Costs may include transportation, refrigeration, and body bags. The county shall certify these costs to the department, and, upon the approval of the executive director of the department or the executive director's designee, the department shall pay the costs.

Source: L. 2016: Entire section added, (HB 16-1406), ch. 150, p. 448, � 1,

effective July 1.


C.R.S. § 30-11-104

30-11-104. County buildings - acquisition of land or buildings by eminent domain authorized. (1) (a) Each county, at its own expense, shall provide a suitable courthouse, a sufficient jail, and other necessary county buildings and keep them in repair.

(b)  For any penal institution that begins operations on or after August 30,

1999, that is operated by or under contract with a county, the county may establish standards relating to space requirements, furnishing requirements, required special use areas or special management housing, and environmental condition requirements, including but not limited to standards pertaining to light, ventilation, temperature, and noise level. If a county does not adopt standards pursuant to this paragraph (b), the penal institution operated by or under contract with the county shall be subject to the standards adopted by the department of public health and environment pursuant to section 25-1.5-101 (1)(i), C.R.S. In establishing such standards, the county is strongly encouraged to consult with national associations that specialize in policies relating to correctional institutions.

(2)  Each county has the power to acquire, by eminent domain, land or

buildings, or both, for the provision of court and district attorney facilities, jails, and other necessary facilities specifically related thereto. Any acquisitions by eminent domain shall be made in the manner authorized for cities and towns as set forth in article 6 of title 38, C.R.S.

Source: G.L. � 431. G.S. � 524. R.S. 08: � 1180. C.L. � 8661. CSA: C. 45, � 4.

CRS 53: � 36-1-4. C.R.S. 1963: � 36-1-4. L. 87: Entire section amended, p. 1203, � 1, effective July 1. L. 2000: (1) amended, p. 803, � 2, effective May 24. L. 2003: (1)(b) amended, p. 714, � 56, effective July 1.


C.R.S. § 30-20-401

30-20-401. Definitions. As used in this part 4, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1)  Board means the board of county commissioners.


(2)  Consumer means any public or private user of water facilities or

sewerage facilities, or both.

(3)  Joint system or joint water and sewer system means water facilities

and sewerage facilities combined, operated, and maintained as a single public utility and income-producing project.

(4)  Sewerage facilities means any one or more of the various devices used

in the collection, treatment, or disposition of sewage or industrial wastes of a liquid nature, or storm, flood, or surface drainage waters, including all inlets, collection, drainage, or disposal lines, intercepting sewers, joint storm and sanitary sewers, sewage disposal plants, and outfall sewers; all pumping, power, and other equipment and appurtenances; all extensions, improvements, remodeling, additions, and alterations thereof; and any and all rights or interest in such sewerage facilities.

(5)  System means sewerage facilities or water facilities or water and

sewerage facilities combined.

(6)  Water facilities means any one or more devices used in the collection,

treatment, or distribution of water for domestic and other legal uses, including systems of raw and clear water and distribution storage reservoirs, deep and shallow wells, pumping, ventilating, and gaging stations, inlets, tunnels, flumes, conduits, canals, collection, transmission, and distribution lines, infiltration galleries, hydrants, meters, and filtration and treatment plants and works; all pumping, power, and other equipment and appurtenances; all extensions, improvements, remodeling, additions, and alterations thereof; and any and all rights or interests in such water facilities.

Source: L. 71: p. 354, � 1. C.R.S. 1963: � 36-29-1.


Cross references: For definitions applicable to this part 4, see � 30-26-301

(2)(d).


C.R.S. § 30-20-602

30-20-602. Definitions. As used in this part 6, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1)  Assessment unit means an area within a district which is separately

defined for determining assessments payable pursuant to this part 6.

(1.5)  Board means:


(a)  The board of county commissioners of a county or city and county.


(b)  Repealed.


(1.7) and (1.8)  Repealed.


(2)  District means the geographical division of the county or counties

within which any local improvements are made or proposed, when so declared by resolution of the board. There may be noncontiguous parts or sections within the same county included in one district; except that, in a district in which a sales tax is levied, a noncontiguous part or section may only be included if the owners of any property within such part or section petitioned to be included in the district. No district shall include territory that is included in an undissolved district that was formed for the same type of improvement. Notwithstanding any other provision of this part 6 and except in the case of a district formed prior to December 31, 2002, by a city that has been authorized to become a city and county pursuant to an amendment to the state constitution that has been approved by the registered electors of the state of Colorado, no district in which a sales tax is levied pursuant to section 30-20-604.5 shall be formed that includes territory within a municipality, and any such district shall be as compact as possible. Except as provided in section 30-20-603 (11.5)(b)(I), no district that crosses county boundaries may be formed by intergovernmental agreement or otherwise.

(2.5)  Drainage facility means any land and improvements thereon, if any,

used for the conveyance of water runoff.

(2.7) (a)  Elector of the district means a person who, at the designated time

or event, is registered to vote in accordance with the Uniform Election Code of 1992, articles 1 to 13 of title 1, C.R.S., and:

(I)  Who is a resident of the district or the area to be included in the district; or


(II)  Who or whose spouse or civil union partner owns taxable real or personal

property within the district or the area to be included in the district whether or not said person resides within the district.

(b)  Where the owner of taxable real or personal property specified in

subparagraph (II) of paragraph (a) of this subsection (2.7) is not a natural person, an elector of the district shall include a natural person designated by such owner to vote for such person. Such designation shall be in writing and filed with the county clerk and recorder. Only one such person may be designated by an owner.

(2.8)  Energy efficiency improvement means an installation or modification

that is designed to reduce energy consumption in residential or commercial buildings and includes, but is not limited to, the following:

(a)  Insulation in walls, roofs, floors, and foundations and in heating and

cooling distribution systems;

(b)  Storm windows and doors, multiglazed windows and doors, heat-absorbing or heat-reflective glazed and coated window and door systems,

additional glazing, reductions in glass area, and other window and door system modifications that reduce energy consumption;

(c)  Automatic energy control systems;


(d)  Heating, ventilating, or air conditioning and distribution system

modifications or replacements in buildings or central plants;

(e)  Caulking and weatherstripping;


(f)  Replacement or modification of lighting fixtures to increase the energy

efficiency of the system without increasing the overall illumination of a residential or commercial building unless such increase in illumination is necessary to conform to the applicable building code for the proposed lighting system;

(g)  Energy recovery systems;


(h)  Daylighting systems; and


(i)  Any other modification, installation, or remodeling approved as a utility

cost-savings measure by the board.

(2.9)  Informational products and materials means any marketing or

advertising device used to promote the general development of business within a district, but does not include any marketing or advertising device used to promote a single store or company.

(3)  Owner means the person holding record fee title to real property;

except that a person obligated to pay general taxes under a contract to purchase real property shall be considered the owner thereof for the purposes of this part 6, and in such case any other person holding record fee title to such property shall not be considered the owner thereof.

(4)  Property means all land, whether platted or unplatted, regardless of

improvements thereon and regardless of lot or land lines. Lots may be designated in accordance with any recorded map or plat thereof and unplatted lands by any definite description.

(4.3)  Qualified community location means:


(a)  If the affected local electric utility is not an investor-owned utility, an off-site location of a renewable energy improvement that:


(I)  Is wholly owned, through either an undivided or a fractional interest, by

the owner or owners of the residential or commercial building or buildings that are directly benefited by the renewable energy improvement;

(II)  Provides energy as a direct credit on the owner's utility bill; and


(III)  Is an encumbrance on the property specifically benefited;


(b)  If the affected local electric utility is an investor-owned utility, a

community solar garden, as that term is defined in section 40-2-127 (2), or a community geothermal garden, as that term is defined in section 40-2-127.5 (2).

(4.5)  Registered elector means an elector, as defined in section 1-1-104 (12),

C.R.S., who has complied with the registration provisions of the Uniform Election Code of 1992, articles 1 to 13 of title 1, C.R.S., and who resides within or is eligible to vote in the county.

(4.7) (a)  Renewable energy improvement means a fixture, product, system,

device, or interacting group of devices that produces energy from renewable resources, including photovoltaic systems, solar thermal systems, small wind systems, biomass systems, hydroelectric systems, or geothermal systems, as may be included in the approval of the district by the board, and that either:

(I)  Is installed behind the meter of a residential or commercial building; or


(II)  Directly benefits a residential or commercial building through a qualified

community location.

(b)  No renewable energy improvement shall be authorized that interferes

with a right held by a public utility under a certificate issued by the public utilities commission under article 5 of title 40, C.R.S. Nothing in this part 6 limits the right of a public utility, subject to article 3 or 3.5 of title 40, C.R.S., or section 40-9.5-106, C.R.S., to assess fees for the use of its facilities, or modifies or expands the net metering limitations established in sections 40-2-124 (7) and 40-9.5-118, C.R.S. Primary jurisdiction to hear any disputes concerning whether a renewable energy improvement interferes with such a right shall lie:

(I)  In the case of a regulated utility, with the public utilities commission; and


(II)  In the case of a municipally owned utility, with the governing body of such

municipality.

(c)  Renewable energy improvement includes an improvement to the

efficiency of a traditional energy fixture.

(5)  Street means any road or other public thoroughfare.


(6)  Unincorporated area means any territory within a county which is not

within the boundaries of any municipality.

Source: L. 73: p. 483, � 1. C.R.S. 1963: � 36-30-2. L. 83: (1.5) added, p. 1235, �

2, effective June 3. L. 86: (1), (1.5), and (2) R&RE and (2.5) added, p. 1058, �� 25, 26, effective April 17. L. 87: (2) amended, p. 1210, � 2, effective May 7. L. 99: (2.7) and (4.5) added, p. 515, � 12, effective April 30. L. 2000: (1.5) and (2) amended and (1.7) and (1.8) added, p. 1989, � 2, effective August 2. L. 2002: (2.9) added, p. 335, � 1, effective April 19; (2.7) amended, p. 268, � 6, effective August 7. L. 2008: (2.8) and (4.7) added, p. 1295, � 9, effective May 27. L. 2010: (2) and (4.7) amended and (4.3) added, (SB 10-100), ch. 207, p. 899, � 1, effective May 5. L. 2012: (4.7)(c) added, (HB 12-1315), ch. 224, p. 975, � 37, effective July 1. L. 2013: (2) amended, (HB 13-1036), ch. 182, p. 669, � 1, effective August 7. L. 2014: (2.7)(a) amended, (HB 14-1164), ch. 2, p. 58, � 9, effective February 18. L. 2022: (4.3)(b) amended, (SB 22-118), ch. 335, p. 2379, � 13, effective August 10. L. 2023: (4.3)(b) amended, (HB 23-1301), ch. 303, p. 1839, � 71, effective August 7.

Editor's note: Subsection (1.5)(b)(II) provided for the repeal of subsection

(1.5)(b), effective December 31, 2002. (See L. 2000, p. 1989.) Subsection (1.7)(b) provided for the repeal of subsection (1.7), effective December 31, 2002. (See L. 2000, p. 1989.) Subsection (1.8)(b) provided for the repeal of subsection (1.8), effective December 31, 2002. (See L. 2000, p. 1989.)

Cross references: (1)  For definitions applicable to this part 6, see � 30-26-301 (2)(d).


(2)  For the legislative declaration in HB 14-1164, see section 1 of chapter 2,

Session Laws of Colorado 2014.


C.R.S. § 30-28-106

30-28-106. Master plan - definitions. (1) It is the duty of a county planning commission to make and adopt a master plan for the physical development of the unincorporated territory of the county, subject to the approval of the county commission having jurisdiction thereof. When a county planning commission decides to adopt a master plan, the commission shall conduct public hearings, after notice of such public hearings has been published in a newspaper of general circulation in the county in a manner sufficient to notify the public of the time, place, and nature of the public hearing, prior to final adoption of a master plan in order to encourage public participation in and awareness of the development of such plan and shall accept and consider oral and written public comments throughout the process of developing the plan.

(2) (a)  It is the duty of a regional planning commission to make and adopt a

regional plan for the physical development of the territory within the boundaries of the region, but no such plan shall be effective within the boundaries of any incorporated municipality within the region unless such plan is adopted by the governing body of the municipality for the development of its territorial limits and under the terms of paragraph (b) of this subsection (2). When a regional planning commission decides to adopt a master plan, the commission shall conduct public hearings, after notice of such public hearings has been published in a newspaper of general circulation in the region in a manner sufficient to notify the public of the time, place, and nature of the public hearing, prior to final adoption of a master plan in order to encourage public participation in and awareness of the development of such plan and shall accept and consider oral and written public comments throughout the process of developing the plan.

(b)  Any plan adopted by a regional planning commission shall not be deemed

an official advisory plan of any municipality or county unless adopted by the planning commission of such municipality or county.

(3) (a)  The master plan of a county or region, with the accompanying maps,

plats, charts, and descriptive and explanatory matter, must show the county or regional planning commission's recommendations for the development of the territory covered by the master plan. The master plan of a county or region is an advisory document to guide land development decisions; however, the master plan or any part thereof may be made binding by inclusion in the county's or region's adopted subdivision, zoning, platting, planned unit development, or other similar land development regulations after satisfying notice, due process, and hearing requirements for legislative or quasi-judicial processes, as appropriate.

(a.3) (I)  The county or regional planning commission shall follow the

procedures in section 24-32-3209. For purposes of this section, any special district that supplies water to the area covered by the master plan is a neighboring jurisdiction as defined in section 24-32-3209 (1)(h).

(II)  In adopting or amending a master plan, the county or regional planning

commission shall consider the following, where applicable or appropriate, and any other information deemed relevant by the county or regional planning commission:

(A)  The applicable housing needs assessments published pursuant to

sections 24-32-3702 (1)(b), 24-32-3703, and 24-32-3704;

(B)  The statewide strategic growth report created pursuant to section 24-32-3707;


(C)  The natural land and agricultural opportunities report published pursuant

to section 24-32-3708; and

(D)  The Colorado water plan adopted pursuant to section 37-60-106.3.


(a.5)  The master plan must include:


(I)  A narrative description of the procedure used for the development and

adoption of the master plan, including a summary of any objections to the master plan made by neighboring jurisdictions as defined in section 24-32-3209 (1)(h) and a description of the resolution or outcome of the objections;

(II) (A)  A water supply element developed in consultation with entities that

supply water for use within the county or region to ensure coordination on water supply and facility planning. Nothing in this section requires the public disclosure of confidential information related to water supply or facilities.

(B)  The water supply element must estimate a range of water supplies and

facilities needed to support the potential public and private development described in the master plan, and include water conservation policies, to be determined by the county or local governments within a region, which may include goals specified in the Colorado water plan adopted pursuant to section 37-60-106.3 and policies to implement water conservation and other Colorado water plan goals as a condition of development approval, for subdivisions, planned unit developments, special use permits, and zoning changes.

(C)  A county or region with a master plan that includes a water supply

element shall ensure that its master plan includes water conservation policies at the first amending of the master plan, but not later than July 1, 2025.

(D)  Nothing in this subsection (3)(a.5)(II) supersedes, abrogates, or otherwise

impairs the allocation of water pursuant to the state constitution or any other provision of law, the right to beneficially use water pursuant to decrees, contracts, or other water use agreements, or the operation, maintenance, repair, replacement, or use of any water facility.

(E)  The department of local affairs may hire and employ one full-time

employee to provide educational resources and assistance to a county or region that includes water conservation policies in the water supply elements of master plans as required by this subsection (3)(a.5)(II).

(III)  A strategic growth element that integrates elements of the master plan

to discourage sprawl and promote the development or redevelopment of vacant and underutilized parcels in urban areas to address the demonstrated housing needs of the county or region and mitigate the need for extension of infrastructure and public services to develop natural and agricultural lands for residential uses. The strategic growth element must include:

(A)  A description of existing and potential policies and tools to promote

strategic growth and prevent sprawl;

(B)  An analysis of vacant and underutilized sites that identifies vacant,

partially vacant, and underutilized land near existing or planned transit or job centers that could be used for infill development, redevelopment, and new development of housing; assesses the general feasibility of the development or redevelopment of such sites for residential use based on existing and needed infrastructure, transportation capacity, access to public transit, and public facilities and services to serve such sites; describes the public benefits of the development or redevelopment of such sites to the county or region as an alternative to the development of previously undeveloped natural or agricultural land; and, in a manner that is consistent with the master plan, designates such sites for which development or redevelopment is deemed to be generally feasible for future uses that include residential uses in a manner that addresses the demonstrated housing needs of the county or region at all income levels; and

(C)  An analysis of undeveloped sites that identifies previously undeveloped

parcels that are not adjacent to developed land, including existing natural and agricultural land, under consideration for future development, and, for a county or region in a metropolitan planning organization established under the Federal Transit Act of 1998, 49 U.S.C. sec. 5301 et seq., as amended, land outside of census urban areas as defined by the United States bureau of the census; assesses the general feasibility of the development of such sites for residential use based on existing and needed infrastructure, transportation capacity, access to public transit, and public facilities and services to serve such sites; and describes the long-term fiscal impact to the county or region of the construction, ownership, maintenance, and replacement of infrastructure and public facilities and the provision of public services to serve development of such sites;

(IV)  The most recent housing action plan or plans adopted by the county or

municipalities within the region pursuant to section 24-32-3705; and

(V)  For a master plan by a regional planning commission, the most recent

version of the master plan required by section 31-12-105 (1)(e) by each municipality that is part of the regional planning commission and a description of how each jurisdiction will integrate that plan into the master plan.

(a.7) (I)  A county or region with a master plan shall ensure that its master

plan includes a water supply element and a strategic growth element as required by subsection (3)(a.5) of this section at the first amending of the master plan that occurs on or after January 1, 2026, but not later than December 31, 2026. The master plan of a county or region adopted or amended after December 31, 2026, must include a water supply element and strategic growth element as required by subsection (3)(a.5) of this section. The county or region must update the water supply element and strategic growth element no less frequently than every five years.

(II)  A county or region with a master plan is not required to include a

strategic growth element, if the county or region has not received funding to include the strategic growth element pursuant to section 24-32-3710 and either:

(A)  Has a population of twenty thousand or less in the county's

unincorporated territory and has experienced negative population change in the most recent decennial census; or

(B)  Has a population of five thousand or less in the county's unincorporated

territory.

(a.9)  The master plan may include, where applicable or appropriate:


(I)  The general location, character, and extent of existing, proposed, or

projected streets or roads, rights-of-way, viaducts, bridges, waterways, waterfronts, parkways, highways, mass transit routes and corridors, and any transportation plan prepared by any metropolitan planning organization that covers all or a portion of the county or region and that the county or region has received notification of or, if the county or region is not located in an area covered by a metropolitan planning organization, any transportation plan prepared by the department of transportation that the county or region has received notification of and that applies to the county or region;

(II)  The general location of public places or facilities, including public

schools; culturally, historically, or archaeologically significant buildings, sites, and objects; playgrounds, forests, reservations, squares, parks, airports, aviation fields, military installations; and other public ways, grounds, open spaces, trails, and designated federal, state, and local wildlife areas. For purposes of this section, military installation has the same meaning as specified in section 29-20-105.6 (2)(b).

(III)  The general location and extent of public utilities, terminals, capital

facilities, and transfer facilities, whether publicly or privately owned, for water, light, power, sanitation, transportation, communication, heat, and other purposes and any proposed or projected needs for capital facilities and utilities, including the priorities, anticipated costs, and funding proposals for such facilities and utilities;

(IV)  The acceptance, widening, removal, extension, relocation, narrowing,

vacation, abandonment, modification, or change of use of any of the public ways, rights-of-way, including the coordination of such rights-of-way with the rights-of-way of other counties, regions, or municipalities, grounds, open spaces, buildings, properties, utilities, or terminals referred to in subsections (3)(a.5)(II)(C), (3)(a.9)(I), (3)(a.9)(II), and (3)(a.9)(III) of this section;

(V)  Methods for assuring access to appropriate conditions for solar, wind, or

other alternative energy sources, including geothermal energy used for water heating or space heating or cooling in a single building, for space heating for more than one building through a pipeline network, or for electricity generation;

(VI)  The general character, location, and extent of community centers,

townsites, housing developments, whether public or private; the existing, proposed, or projected location of residential neighborhoods and sufficient land for future housing development for the existing and projected economic and other needs of all current and anticipated residents of the county or region; and urban conservation or redevelopment areas. If a county or region has entered into a regional planning agreement, the agreement may be incorporated by reference into the master plan.

(VII)  The general location and extent of forests, agricultural areas, flood

control areas, and open development areas for purposes of conservation, food and water supply, sanitary and drainage facilities, flood control, or the protection of urban development;

(VIII)  A land classification and utilization program;


(IX)  Projections of population change and housing needs to accommodate

the projected population for specified increments of time. The county or region may base these projections upon data from the department of local affairs and upon the county's or region's local objectives.

(X)  The location of areas containing steep slopes, geological hazards,

endangered or threatened species, wetlands, floodplains, floodways, and flood risk zones, highly erodible land or unstable soils, and wildfire hazards. For purposes of determining the location of such areas, the planning commission should consider the following sources for guidance:

(A)  The Colorado geological survey for defining and mapping geological

hazards;

(B)  The United States fish and wildlife service of the United States

department of the interior and the parks and wildlife commission created in section 33-9-101 for locating areas inhabited by endangered or threatened species;

(C)  The United States army corps of engineers and the United States fish and

wildlife service national wetlands inventory for defining and mapping wetlands;

(D)  The federal emergency management agency for defining and mapping

floodplains, floodways, and flood risk zones;

(E)  The natural resources conservation service of the United States

department of agriculture for defining and mapping unstable soils and highly erodible land; and

(F)  The Colorado state forest service for locating wildfire hazard areas.


(b)  Any master plan of a county or region which includes mass transportation

shall be coordinated with that of any adjacent county, region, or other political subdivision, as the case may be, to eliminate conflicts or inconsistencies and to assure the compatibility of such plans and their implementation pursuant to this section and sections 30-11-101, 30-25-202, and 30-26-301.

(c)  The master plan of a county or region shall also include a master plan for

the extraction of commercial mineral deposits pursuant to section 34-1-304, C.R.S.

(d)  The master plan of a county or region may also include plans for the

development of drainage basins in all or portions of the county or region. When county subdivision regulations require the payment of drainage fees, as provided in section 30-28-133 (11), the master plan shall include the plan for the development of drainage basins.

(e)  In creating the master plan of a county or region, the county or regional

planning commission may take into consideration the availability of affordable housing within the county or region. Counties are encouraged to examine any regulatory impediments to the development of affordable housing.

(f)  (Deleted by amendment, L. 2007, p. 612, � 1, effective August 3, 2007.)


(g)  The master plan of a county or region may include designated utility

corridors to facilitate the provision of utilities to all developments in the county or region.

(4) (a)  Each county that has not already adopted a master plan and that

meets one of the following descriptions shall adopt a master plan within two years after January 8, 2002:

(I)  Each county or city and county that has a population equal to or greater

than ten thousand and the population of which has demonstrated an increase of either:

(A)  Ten percent or more during the calendar years 1994 to 1999; or


(B)  Ten percent or more during any five-year period ending in 2000 or any

subsequent year;

(II)  Each county or city and county that has a population of one hundred

thousand or more.

(b)  To the extent the county does not meet a description specified in

subparagraph (I) or (II) of paragraph (a) of this subsection (4), the counties of Clear Creek, Gilpin, Morgan, and Pitkin shall adopt a master plan within two years after January 8, 2002.

(c)  The department of local affairs shall annually determine, based on the

population statistics maintained by said department, whether a county is subject to the requirements of this subsection (4), and shall notify any county that is newly identified as being subject to said requirements. Any such county shall have two years following receipt of notification from the department to adopt a master plan.

(d)  Once a county is identified as being subject to the requirements of this

subsection (4), the county shall at all times thereafter remain subject to the requirements of this subsection (4), regardless of whether it continues to meet any of the descriptions in paragraph (a) of this subsection (4).

(5)  A master plan adopted in accordance with the requirements of

subsection (4) of this section shall contain a recreational and tourism uses element pursuant to which the county shall indicate how it intends to provide for the recreational and tourism needs of residents of the county and visitors to the county through delineated areas dedicated to, without limitation, hiking, mountain biking, rock climbing, skiing, cross country skiing, rafting, fishing, boating, hunting, shooting, or any other form of sports or other recreational activity, as applicable, and commercial facilities supporting such uses.

(6)  The master plan of any county adopted or amended in accordance with

the requirements of this section on and after August 8, 2005, shall satisfy the requirements of section 29-20-105.6, C.R.S., as applicable.

(7)  Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, no master plan

originally adopted or amended in accordance with the requirements of this section shall conflict with a master plan for the extraction of commercial mineral deposits adopted by the county pursuant to section 34-1-304, C.R.S.

(8)  A county or regional planning commission shall submit the master plan

and any separately approved water supply element and strategic growth element to the division of local government in the department of local affairs. The division of local government shall review master plans and may provide comments to the commission.

(9) (a)  As used in this subsection (9):


(I)  Equestrian has the meaning set forth in section 31-23-206 (9)(a)(I).


(II)  Equestrian zone means an area that a county determines is suburban or

urban and contains:

(A)  An equestrian fairground, public equestrian riding arena, public

equestrian center, or public riding trail;

(B)  An equestrian-centric residential neighborhood where equestrians

regularly ride and that was zoned in such a manner as to allow housing privately owned equines but is now being developed for primarily residential use or that is zoned in such a manner as to allow housing privately owned equines;

(C)  A keystone property; or


(D)  Roads or trails that equestrians use and that are related to an area

described in subsections (9)(a)(II)(A) to (9)(a)(II)(C) of this section.

(III)  Keystone property means a property that has at least one of the

following equestrian facilities:

(A)  Boarding facilities that provide housing for equines, training for

equestrians, or equine service and education programs;

(B)  Equine stables that facilitate animal welfare rescue programs or equine

therapy programs;

(C)  Breeding facilities for equines; or


(D)  Nonpublic equestrian venues that provide services to the equestrian

community.

(IV)  Suburban or urban means the population and traffic density are

sufficient to cause significant and regular interactions between equestrians and motor vehicles or other residents.

(b)  A county planning commission may identify and show on the master plan

the location of and character of existing or proposed equestrian infrastructure, venues, and equestrian zones.

(c)  A county may organize public events to educate the public about

equestrian use of recreational trails and roads and the duties of users of trails and roads with regard to equestrian users. A county may partner with local horse advocacy groups to educate the public about these matters or to hold the public events.

Source: L. 39: p. 296, � 5. CSA: C. 45A, � 5. CRS 53: � 106-2-5. L. 59: p. 618, �
  1. C.R.S. 1963: � 106-2-5. L. 66: p. 41, � 4. L. 73: pp. 467, 1054, �� 4, 17. L. 79: (3)(a) amended, p. 1159, � 1, effective May 25. L. 83: (3)(d) added, p. 1236, � 4, effective April 23. L. 97: (3)(e) to (3)(g) added, p. 414, � 1, effective April 24. L. 2000: (1), (2)(a), and (3)(a) amended, p. 869, � 1, effective August 2. L. 2001, 2nd Ex. Sess.: (4) and (5) added, p. 21, � 1, effective January 8, 2002. L. 2002: (5) amended, p. 1036, � 83, effective June 1. L. 2005: (6) added, p. 223, � 2, effective August 8. L. 2007: IP(3)(a) and (3)(f) amended and (7) added, p. 612, � 1, effective August 3. L. 2010: (3)(a)(II) and (6) amended, (HB 10-1205), ch. 242, p. 1078, � 2, effective August 11. L. 2012: IP(3)(a) and (3)(a)(XI)(B) amended, (HB 12-1317), ch. 248, p. 1205, � 12, effective June
  2. L. 2020: IP(3)(a) and (3)(a)(IV) amended, (HB 20-1095), ch. 82, p. 331, � 1, effective September 14. L. 2022: (3)(a)(VI) amended, (SB 22-118), ch. 335, p. 2371, � 5, effective August 10. L. 2024: (1) amended, (3)(a) R&RE, and (3)(a.3), (3)(a.5), (3)(a.7), (3)(a.9), and (8) added, (SB 24-174), ch. 290, p. 1964, � 2, effective May 30. L. 2025: (9) added, (SB 25-149), ch. 266, p. 1374, � 4, effective August 6.

    Editor's note: Section 11 of chapter 266 (SB 25-149), Session Laws of Colorado 2025, provides that the act changing this section applies to offenses committed on or after August 6, 2025.

    Cross references: For the legislative declaration in SB 25-149, see section 1 of chapter 266, Session Laws of Colorado 2025.


C.R.S. § 30-28-113

30-28-113. Regulation of size and use - districts - definitions - repeal. (1) (a) Except as otherwise provided in section 34-1-305, C.R.S., when the county planning commission of any county makes, adopts, and certifies to the board of county commissioners plans for zoning the unincorporated territory within any county, or any part thereof, including both the full text of a zoning resolution and the maps, after public hearing thereon, the board of county commissioners, by resolution, may regulate, in any portions of such county that lie outside of cities and towns:

(I)  The location, height, bulk, and size of buildings and other structures;


(II)  The percentage of lots that may be occupied;


(III)  The size of yards, courts, and other open spaces;


(IV)  The uses of buildings and structures for trade, industry, residence,

recreation, public activities, or other purposes;

(V)  Access to sunlight for solar energy devices; and


(VI)  The uses of land for trade, industry, residence, recreation, or other

purposes and for flood control.

(b) (I)  In order to accomplish such regulation, the board of county

commissioners:

(A)  May divide the territory of the county that lies outside of cities and towns

into districts or zones of such number, shape, or area as it may determine, and, within such districts or any of them, may regulate the erection, construction, reconstruction, alteration, and uses of buildings and structures and the uses of land; and

(B)  May require and provide for the issuance of building permits as a

condition precedent to the right to erect, construct, reconstruct, or alter any building or structure within any district covered by such zoning resolution.

(II) (A)  Except as otherwise provided in this section, the aggregate of all

charges or other related or associated fees a county shall impose or assess to install an active solar energy system or geothermal energy system shall not exceed the lesser of the county's actual costs in issuing the permit or five hundred dollars for a residential application or one thousand dollars for a nonresidential application if the device or system produces fewer than two megawatts of direct current electricity or an equivalent-sized thermal energy system, or that exceed the county's actual costs in issuing the permit if the device or system produces at least two megawatts of direct current electricity or an equivalent-sized thermal energy system. A county may increase its fees or other charges as authorized by this subsection (1)(b)(II) by no more than five percent on an annual basis until the five hundred dollar limitation specified in this subsection (1)(b)(II) is achieved. The county shall clearly and individually identify all fees and taxes assessed on an application subject to this subsection (1)(b)(II) on the invoice. The general assembly hereby finds that there is a statewide need for certainty regarding the fees that can be assessed for permitting such devices or systems, and therefore declares that this subsection (1)(b)(II) is a matter of statewide concern. This subsection (1)(b)(II) is repealed, effective December 31, 2029.

(B)  In the case of a nonresidential application, on an individual installation

basis only, if the county incurs actual costs for issuing the permit that are greater than one thousand dollars, the county is entitled to recovery of its actual costs for issuing the permit by submitting in writing and disclosing to the applicant for the particular permit proof of the county's actual costs.

(C)  As used in this subsection (1)(b)(II), active solar energy system means a

single system that contains electric generation, a thermal device, or is an energy storage system as defined in section 40-2-202 (2), and geothermal energy system means a system that uses geothermal energy for water heating or space heating or cooling in a single building, for space heating for more than one building through a pipeline network, or for electricity generation.

(2)  The county planning commission may make and certify a single plan for

the entire unincorporated portion of the county or separate and successive plans for those parts which it deems to be urbanized or suitable for urban development and those parts which, by reason of distance from existing urban communities or for other causes, it deems suitable for nonurban development. Any resolution adopted by the board of county commissioners may cover and include the unincorporated territory covered and included in any such single plan or in any of such separate and successive plans. No resolution covering more or less than the territory covered by any such certified plan shall be adopted or put into effect until and unless it is first submitted to the county planning commission which certified the plan to the board of county commissioners and is approved by said commission or, if disapproved, receives the favorable vote of not less than a majority of the entire membership of such board. All such regulations shall be uniform for each class or kind of building or structure throughout any district, but the regulations in any one district may differ from those in other districts.

Source: L. 39: p. 300, � 12. CSA: C. 45A, � 12. CRS 53: � 106-2-12. C.R.S.

1963: � 106-2-12. L. 66: p. 43, � 6. L. 73: p. 1054, � 18. L. 79: (1) amended, p. 1160, � 4, effective January 1, 1980. L. 2008: (1) amended, p. 892, � 1, effective May 20. L. 2011: (1)(b)(II) amended, (HB 11-1199), ch. 311, p. 1518, � 2, effective June 10. L. 2017: (1)(b)(II) amended, (SB 17-179), ch. 170, p. 621, � 2, effective August 9. L. 2021: (1)(b)(II) amended, (HB 21-1284), ch. 327, p. 2090, � 3, effective September 7. L. 2022: (1)(b)(II)(A) and (1)(b)(II)(C) amended, (SB 22-118), ch. 335, p. 2371, � 6, effective August 10.

Cross references: (1)  In 2011, subsection (1)(b)(II) was amended by the Fair

Permit Act. For the short title, see section 1 of chapter 311, Session Laws of Colorado 2011.

(2)  For the legislative declaration in HB 21-1284, see section 1 of chapter

327, Session Laws of Colorado 2021.


C.R.S. § 30-28-120

30-28-120. Existing structures - county property. (1) The lawful use of a building or structure or the lawful use of any land, as existing and lawful at the time of the adoption of a zoning resolution or, in the case of an amendment of a resolution, at the time of such amendment, may be continued, although such use does not conform with the provisions of such resolution or amendment, and such use may be extended throughout the same building if no structural alteration of such building is proposed or made for the purpose of such extension. The addition of a solar energy device or a device used as part of a system that uses geothermal energy for water heating or space heating or cooling to such building shall not necessarily be considered a structural alteration. The board of county commissioners may provide in any zoning resolution for the restoration, reconstruction, extension, or substitution of nonconforming uses upon such terms and conditions as may be set forth in the zoning resolution.

(2)  If any county acquires title to any property by reason of tax delinquency

and such property is not redeemed as provided by law, the future use of such property shall be in conformity with the then provisions of the zoning resolution of the county, or with any amendment of such resolution, equally applicable to other like properties within the district in which the property acquired by the county is located.

Source: L. 39: p. 306, � 19. CSA: C. 45A, � 19. CRS 53: � 106-2-19. C.R.S.

1963: � 106-2-19. L. 79: (1) amended, p. 1162, � 8, effective May 25. L. 2003: (1) amended, p. 2667, � 3, effective June 6. L. 2022: (1) amended, (SB 22-118), ch. 335, p. 2372, � 7, effective August 10.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration contained in the 2003 act

amending subsection (1), see section 1 of chapter 420, Session Laws of Colorado 2003.


C.R.S. § 30-28-211

30-28-211. Energy efficient building codes - legislative declaration - definitions. (1) The general assembly hereby finds and declares that there is statewide interest in requiring an effective energy efficient building code for the following reasons:

(a)  Excessive energy consumption creates effects beyond the boundaries of

the local government within which the energy is consumed because the production of power occurs in centralized locations.

(b)  Air pollutant emissions from energy consumption affect the health of the

citizens throughout Colorado.

(c)  The strain on the grid from peak electric power demands is not confined

to jurisdictional boundaries.

(d)  There is statewide interest in the reliability of the electrical grid and an

adequate supply of heating oil and natural gas.

(e)  Controlling energy costs for residents and businesses furthers a

statewide interest in a strong economy and reducing the total cost of housing in Colorado.

(f)  More recent energy codes are more effective at ensuring building

durability and structural integrity and protecting public health and safety through better:

(I)  Moisture management to prevent mold, mildew, and rot;


(II)  Airflow management; and


(III)  Protection during severe weather.


(g)  More recent energy codes incorporate newer building technologies,

techniques, and materials and offer more options for builders.

(h)  Businesses and residents in low-income communities and rural areas of

the state deserve at least the same durability, health and safety, and energy cost savings from energy efficient buildings as those in wealthier, urban, and suburban areas of the state.

(i)  Highly energy efficient homes and buildings can reduce energy use and

help consumers save money on energy bills.

(j)  Highly energy efficient and low-carbon new homes and buildings are

critical for meeting the greenhouse gas pollution reduction targets established in section 25-7-102 (2)(g).

(2)  As used in this section, unless the context otherwise requires:


(a)  Building code means regulations related to energy performance,

electrical systems, mechanical systems, plumbing systems, or other elements of residential or commercial buildings.

(a.5)  Colorado plumbing code has the meaning set forth in section 12-155-103 (1.4).


(a.8)  Elevator and escalator code means the rules adopted in accordance

with section 9-5.5-112.

(b)  Energy code means a subset of building codes related to the total

energy performance and carbon emissions of residential and commercial buildings.

(b.5)  International energy conservation code means the energy code

published by the international code council or a successor organization.

(b.8)  National electrical code has the meaning set forth in section 12-115-103 (8).


(c)  Office means the Colorado energy office created in section 24-38.5-101,

C.R.S.

(3)  Every board of county commissioners that has adopted and enforced one

or more building codes, or that adopts and enforces one or more building codes after July 1, 2022, shall adopt and enforce an energy code that applies to the construction of, and major renovations and additions to, all commercial and residential buildings as required by the energy code in the county to which the building code applies.

(3.5) (a)  A board of county commissioners that has adopted and enforced

one or more building codes, and that updates one or more building codes on or after July 1, 2023, and before July 1, 2026, shall adopt and enforce an energy code that achieves equivalent or better energy performance than the 2021 international energy conservation code and the model electric ready and solar ready code language developed for adoption by the energy code board pursuant to section 24-38.5-401 (5) at the same time other building codes are updated.

(b)  A board of county commissioners that has adopted and enforced one or

more building codes, and that updates one or more building codes on or after July 1, 2026, shall adopt and begin enforcing an energy code that achieves equivalent or better energy and carbon emissions performance than the model low energy and carbon code developed for adoption by the energy code board pursuant to section 24-38.5-401 (6) at the same time other building codes are updated.

(c) (I)  Notwithstanding subsections (3.5)(a) and (3.5)(b) of this section, a

board of county commissioners representing a rural county is required to adopt and enforce an energy code that achieves equivalent or better energy performance than one of the last three most recent editions of the international energy conservation code rather than either an energy code that achieves equivalent or better energy performance than the 2021 international energy conservation code and the model electric ready and solar ready code language identified for adoption by the energy code board pursuant to section 24-38.5-401 (5) or an energy code that achieves equivalent or better energy and carbon emissions performance than the model low energy and carbon code identified for adoption by the energy code board pursuant to section 24-38.5-401 (6) if, while the grant program established pursuant to section 24-38.5-403 is accepting applications, the board of county commissioners applies for and is not awarded a grant that significantly assists in energy code adoption and enforcement training.

(II)  As used in this subsection (3.5)(c), a rural county means a county with a

population of less than thirty thousand people, as determined pursuant to the most recently published population estimates from the state demographer appointed by the executive director of the department of local affairs.

(d)  When adopting or updating a building code prior to July 1, 2023, a board

of county commissioners shall adopt and enforce an energy code that achieves equivalent or better energy performance than one of the three most recent editions of the international energy conservation code.

(e)  Notwithstanding the timing requirement of subsection (3.5)(a) of this

section, a board of county commissioners may comply with subsection (3.5)(a) of this section when the board adopts one or more building codes other than the national electrical code, the elevator and escalator code, and the Colorado plumbing code or by June 30, 2026, whichever is earlier, if:

(I)  The board of county commissioners adopts or updates:


(A)  The national electrical code by reference when adopted or updated by

the state electrical board;

(B)  The elevator and escalator code by reference when adopted or updated

by the director of the division of oil and public safety within the department of labor and employment; or

(C)  The Colorado plumbing code by reference when adopted or updated by

the state plumbing board; and

(II)  The adoption or update of the national electrical code, the elevator and

escalator code, or the Colorado plumbing code occurs on a timing cycle different from the scheduled adoption or update of one or more building codes other than the national electrical code, the elevator and escalator code, or the Colorado plumbing code.

(f)  Notwithstanding the timing requirement of subsection (3.5)(b) of this

section, a board of county commissioners may comply with subsection (3.5)(b) of this section when the board adopts one or more building codes other than the national electrical code, the elevator and escalator code, and the Colorado plumbing code or by June 30, 2030, whichever is earlier, if:

(I)  The board of county commissioners adopts or updates:


(A)  The national electrical code by reference when adopted or updated by

the state electrical board;

(B)  The elevator and escalator code by reference when adopted or updated

by the director of the division of oil and public safety within the department of labor and employment; or

(C)  The Colorado plumbing code by reference when adopted or updated by

the state plumbing board; and

(II)  The adoption or update of the national electrical code, the elevator and

escalator code, or the Colorado plumbing code occurs on a timing cycle different from the scheduled adoption or update of one or more building codes other than the national electrical code, the elevator and escalator code, or the Colorado plumbing code.

(g)  Notwithstanding the requirements set forth in subsections (3.5)(a) and

(3.5)(b) of this section, a board of county commissioners is not required to adopt and enforce an energy code that meets the requirements of subsections (3.5)(a) and (3.5)(b) of this section solely as a result of adopting the wildfire resiliency code.

(4)  Repealed.


(5)  The following buildings are exempt from subsections (3) and (3.5) of this

section:

(a)  Any building that is otherwise exempt from the provisions of the building

code adopted by the board of county commissioners of the county in which the building is located and buildings that do not contain a conditioned space;

(b)  Any building that does not use either electricity or fossil fuels for comfort

heating. A building will be presumed to be heated by electricity even in the absence of equipment used for electric comfort heating if the building is provided with electrical service in excess of one hundred amps, unless the code enforcement official of the county determines that the electrical service is necessary for a purpose other than for providing electric comfort heating.

(c)  Historic buildings that are listed on the national register of historic places

or Colorado state register of historic properties and buildings that have been designated as historically significant or that have been deemed eligible for designation by a local governing body that is authorized to make such designations; and

(d)  Any building that is exempt pursuant to the energy code.


(6)  Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, the board of county

commissioners of a county that is required to adopt or update an energy code may make any amendments to the energy code that the board deems appropriate for local conditions, so long as the amendments do not decrease the effectiveness or energy efficiency of the energy code.

(7) (a)  The office shall ensure that information explaining the requirements

of the energy code and describing acceptable methods of compliance is available to builders, designers, engineers, and architects.

(b)  The office shall provide boards of county commissioners with technical

assistance concerning the implementation and enforcement of the energy code.

(8)  Nothing in this section restricts the ability of an investor-owned utility

with approval from the public utilities commission to:

(a)  Provide incentives or other energy efficiency program services to help the

board of county commissioners of any county or builders comply with the requirements of this section; or

(b)  Earn shareholder incentives and claim credits towards its regulatory

requirements for energy or greenhouse gas emission savings achieved as a result of incentives provided by the utility to help the board of county commissioners of any county or builders comply with the requirements of this section.

(9)  A utility not subject to regulation by the public utilities commission may

provide incentives or other energy efficiency program services as they so choose to assist the board of county commissioners of any county or any builders in complying with the requirements of this section.

(10) (a)  A utility may count mass-based emissions reductions associated with

the requirements of this section towards compliance with its requirements under section 25-7-105 (1)(e)(X.7) or (1)(e)(X.8), section 40-3.2-108 (3)(b), or any similar greenhouse gas emissions reduction program or set of requirements.

(b)  A utility subject to regulation by the public utilities commission shall not

count energy savings or greenhouse gas emissions reductions achieved through the requirements of this section for the purpose of calculating a shareholder incentive established pursuant to sections 40-3.2-103 (2)(d) and 40-3.2-104 (5) if the utility has not provided a financial investment for code adoption as documented in a plan approved by the commission.

Source: L. 2007: Entire section added, p. 695, � 2, effective July 1. L. 2008:

(2)(b) and (2)(c) amended, p. 72, � 10, effective March 18. L. 2012: (2)(b) and (2)(c) amended, (HB 12-1315), ch. 224, p. 974, � 36, effective July 1. L. 2019: (1)(e), (2)(b), (3), IP(5), and (6) amended and (1)(f), (1)(g), and (1)(h) added, (HB 19-1260), ch. 357, p. 3284, � 2, effective August 2. L. 2022: (1)(i), (1)(j), (2)(b.5), (3.5), (8), (9), and (10) added, (2)(b), (3), and IP(5) amended, and (4) repealed, (HB 22-1362), ch. 301, p. 2183, � 7, effective June 2. L. 2023: (2)(a.5), (2)(a.8), (2)(b.8), (3.5)(e), and (3.5)(f) added, (HB 23-1233), ch. 245, p. 1324, � 10, effective May 23. L. 2025: (3.5)(g) added, (HB 25-1269), ch. 216, p. 978, � 1, effective May 20; (2)(a.5) amended, (HB 25-1306), ch. 204, p. 926, � 4, effective August 6.

Editor's note: Section 10 of chapter 216 (HB 25-1269), Session Laws of

Colorado 2025, provides that the act changing this section applies to conduct occurring on or after May 20, 2025.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in HB 23-1233, see section 1

of chapter 245, Session Laws of Colorado 2023.


C.R.S. § 31-15-302

31-15-302. Financial powers - legislative declaration. (1) The governing bodies in municipalities shall have the following general powers in relation to the finances of the municipality:

(a)  To control the finances and property of the corporation;


(b)  To appropriate money for municipal purposes only and provide for

payment of debts and expenses of the municipality;

(c)  To levy and collect taxes for general and special purposes on real and

personal property;

(d) (I)  To contract indebtedness on behalf of the municipality and upon the

credit thereof by borrowing money or issuing the bonds of the municipality for any public purpose of the municipality, including but not limited to the following purposes: Supplying water, gas, heating and cooling, and electricity; purchasing land; and purchasing, constructing, extending, and improving public streets, buildings, facilities, and equipment; and for the purpose of supplying a temporary deficiency in the revenue for defraying the current expenses of the municipality.

(II)  The total amount of indebtedness for all such purposes shall not at any

time exceed three percent of the actual value, as determined by the assessor, of the taxable property in the municipality except such debt as may be incurred in supplying water. No loan for any purpose shall be made except by ordinance, which shall be irrepealable until the indebtedness provided for is fully paid or discharged, specifying the purposes to which the funds to be raised shall be applied and providing for the levying of a tax which, together with such other revenue, assets, or funds as may be pledged, is sufficient to pay the annual interest and extinguish the principal of said debt within the time limited for the debt to run, which, except such debt as may be incurred in supplying water, shall not be more than thirty years, and further providing that said tax, when collected, shall only be applied for the purposes specified in said ordinance until the indebtedness is paid and discharged. No debt shall be created, except in supplying water, unless the question of incurring the same is submitted, at a regular or special election of the municipality, to the registered electors thereof as defined by the Colorado Municipal Election Code of 1965 and a majority of the registered electors voting upon the question vote in favor of creating such debt.

(III)  No statutory provisions of any other law limiting or fixing tax rates shall

limit the provisions of this paragraph (d).

(IV)  Bonds issued under this paragraph (d) may mature serially during a

period of not more than thirty years from the date thereof, in which event the amounts of such annual maturities shall be fixed by the governing body; except that bonds issued to supply water may mature over a longer period. If the governing body so determines, said bonds may be redeemable prior to maturity with or without payment of a premium, not exceeding three percent of the principal thereof. In any event said bonds shall be subject to call commencing not later than fifteen years after the date thereof. The right to redeem all or part of said bonds prior to their maturity and the order of any such redemption shall be reserved in the ordinance authorizing the issuance of bonds and shall be set forth on the face of said bonds.

(V)  The ordinance or resolution submitting the question of contracting an

indebtedness shall contain a statement of the maximum net effective interest rate at which said indebtedness may be incurred.

(VI) (A)  The governing body of any municipality, having received approval at

an election to issue bonds and having determined that the limitations of the original election question are too restrictive to permit the advantageous sale of the bonds so authorized, may submit at another regular or special election the question of issuing the bonds or any portion thereof at a higher maximum net effective interest rate than the maximum interest rate or maximum net effective interest rate approved at the original election; the question of issuing the bonds or any portion thereof to mature over a longer period of time than the maximum period of maturity approved at the original election; or both such questions.

(B)  An election held pursuant to this subparagraph (VI) shall be held in

substantially the same manner as an election to authorize bonds initially except as may be required for the submission of the limited question permitted under this subparagraph (VI).

(C)  At an election held pursuant to this subparagraph (VI), if the changes

submitted are not approved, such result shall not impair the authority of the governing body at a later time to issue the bonds originally approved within the limitations established at the first election.

(e)  To prescribe, by general ordinance, the manner in which the charge on

the respective owners of lots or lands, and on the lots or lands, shall be assessed and determined for the purposes so authorized by law. Such charge, when assessed, shall be payable by the owners at the time of the assessment, personally, and also shall be a lien upon the respective lots or parcels of land from the time of the assessment. Such charge may be collected and such lien enforced by a proceeding at law or in equity, either in the name of such municipality or of any person to whom it has directed payment be made. In any such proceedings, where pleadings are required, it shall be sufficient to declare generally for work and labor done and materials furnished on the particular street, alley, or highway or for water rent or gas used. Proceedings may be instituted against all the owners, or any of them, to enforce the lien against all the lots or land, or each lot or parcel, or any number of them embraced in any one assessment; but the judgment or decree shall be entered separately for the amount properly chargeable to each. Any proceedings may be severed in the discretion of the court for the purpose of trial, review, or appeal.

(f) (I)  For the purpose of providing and accumulating funds for the

construction, acquisition, or improvement of public buildings, water facilities, sewer facilities, heating and cooling works, or other public works or to supplement bond issues for the same purpose, the governing body of each municipality is authorized to create, by resolution, a public works fund, setting forth in such resolution the description and location of the buildings, water facilities, sewer facilities, heating and cooling works, or other public works to be constructed, acquired, or improved; the estimated cost of the same; the annual tax levy required; and the number of years such a levy should be made; and the time of a public hearing. In lieu of an ad valorem levy, the governing body of the municipality may provide for other taxes or revenues authorized by law which will produce equivalent funds.

(II)  If the amount needed does not require a tax levy in excess of two mills,

the governing body is authorized, after a public hearing, to make such a levy without putting the proposition to a vote of the qualified electors. If a special levy in excess of two mills for any one fiscal year is required, the governing body, by resolution, in their discretion may submit to the registered electors of such municipality the question of making such a special levy. The special election may be held on the same day as any other special or general election.

(III)  In submitting the question to said electors, a ballot shall be printed

giving the description and location of the public buildings, water facilities, sewer facilities, or other public works to be constructed, acquired, or improved; the estimated maximum amount to be expended for each single purpose; and the maximum mill levy, if any, required for each specified year. Each project shall be printed separately on the ballot.

(IV)  The money derived from the special levy authorized shall be credited by

the treasurer of the respective municipality to a special fund to be known as the public works fund. Such funds may be accumulated and held over for expenditure in subsequent years, but they shall be used only for the public works authorized. The governing body may change the purpose for which the fund may be expended after holding a public hearing. When the public works have been constructed, acquired, or improved and paid for, any unexpended balance in the public works fund shall be transferred to the general fund of the municipality.

(g)  To deposit any moneys of general or special funds in any depository

authorized in section 24-75-603, C.R.S. For the purpose of making such deposits, the governing body of a municipality may appoint, by written resolution, one or more persons to act as custodians of the moneys of the municipality. Such persons shall give surety bonds in such amounts and form and for such purposes as the governing body requires.

(h)  To enter into installment purchase contracts or shared-savings contracts

or otherwise incur indebtedness under section 29-12.5-103, C.R.S., to finance energy conservation and energy saving measures and enter into contracts for an analysis and recommendations pertaining to such measures under section 29-12.5-102, C.R.S.;

(i) (I)  For a municipality that has a population of twenty thousand or fewer

residents, to enter into contracts with a health-care provider, who is licensed in this state, to provide health-care services to such municipality. Such health-care providers shall be known as community contracted health-care providers.

(II)  The general assembly hereby finds, determines, and declares that access

to health-care services in rural areas is an increasing problem in Colorado. Some rural Coloradans do not have access to a primary care provider in their town and are forced to travel. It is the intent of the general assembly to ease the strain on rural Coloradans' health-care needs by allowing a municipality with twenty thousand or fewer residents to contract with a health-care provider to provide health-care services to rural areas.

(III)  (Deleted by amendment, L. 2008, p. 212, � 1, effective March 26, 2008.)


(j)  To establish and administer an incentive program to directly incentivize

improvement in an area of specific local concern related to the use of real property in the municipality in accordance with section 31-20-101.7.

Source: L. 75: Entire title R&RE, p. 1106, � 1, effective July 1. L. 79: (1)(g)

added, p. 1618, � 20, effective June 8. L. 81: (1)(d)(I) and (1)(f)(I) amended, p. 1454, � 2, effective May 27. L. 91: (1)(h) added, p. 733, � 6, effective May 1. L. 2001: (1)(i) added, p. 1164, � 13, effective June 5. L. 2007: (1)(i)(III) amended, p. 2046, � 85, effective June 1. L. 2008: (1)(i) amended, p. 212, � 1, effective March 26. L. 2024: (1)(j) added, (SB 24-002), ch. 25, p. 74, � 4, effective August 7.

Editor's note: The provisions of this section are similar to provisions of

several former sections as they existed prior to 1975. For a detailed comparison, see the comparative tables located in the back of the index.

Cross references: (1)  For the Colorado Municipal Election Code of 1965,

see article 10 of this title.

(2)  For the legislative declaration contained in the 2001 act enacting

subsection (1)(i), see section 1 of chapter 300, Session Laws of Colorado 2001. For the legislative declaration in SB 24-002, see section 1 of chapter 25, Session Laws of Colorado 2024.

PART 4

POLICE REGULATIONS


C.R.S. § 31-15-602

31-15-602. Energy efficient building codes - legislative declaration - definitions - repeal. (1) The general assembly hereby finds and declares that there is statewide interest in requiring an effective energy efficient building code for the following reasons:

(a)  Excessive energy consumption creates effects beyond the boundaries of

the local government within which the energy is consumed because the production of power occurs in centralized locations.

(b)  Air pollutant emissions from energy consumption affects the health of

the citizens throughout Colorado.

(c)  The strain on the grid from peak electric power demands is not confined

to jurisdictional boundaries.

(d)  There is statewide interest in the reliability of the electrical grid and an

adequate supply of heating oil and natural gas.

(e)  Controlling energy costs for residents and businesses furthers a

statewide interest in a strong economy and reducing the cost of housing in Colorado.

(f)  More recent energy codes are more effective at ensuring building

durability and structural integrity and protecting public health and safety through better:

(I)  Moisture management to prevent mold, mildew, and rot;


(II)  Airflow management; and


(III)  Protection during severe weather.


(g)  More recent energy codes incorporate newer building technologies,

techniques, and materials and offer more options for builders.

(h)  Businesses and residents in low-income communities and rural areas of

the state deserve at least the same durability, health and safety, and energy cost savings from energy efficient buildings as those in wealthier, urban, and suburban areas of the state.

(i)  Highly energy efficient homes and buildings can reduce energy use and

help consumers save money on energy bills.

(j)  Highly energy efficient and low carbon new homes and buildings are

critical for meeting the greenhouse gas pollution reduction targets established in section 25-7-102 (2)(g).

(2)  As used in this section, unless the context otherwise requires:


(a)  Building code means regulations related to energy performance,

electrical systems, mechanical systems, plumbing systems, or other elements of residential or commercial buildings.

(a.5)  Colorado plumbing code has the meaning set forth in section 12-155-103 (1.4).


(a.8)  Elevator and escalator code means the rules adopted in accordance

with section 9-5.5-112.

(b)  Energy code means a subset of building codes related to the total

energy performance and carbon emissions of residential and commercial buildings.

(b.5)  International energy conservation code means the energy code

published by the international code council or a successor organization.

(b.8)  National electrical code has the meaning set forth in section 12-115-103 (8).


(c)  Office means the Colorado energy office created in section 24-38.5-101,

C.R.S.

(3)  The governing body of any municipality that has adopted and enforced

one or more building codes, or that adopts and enforces one or more building codes after July 1, 2022, shall adopt and enforce an energy code that applies to the construction of, and major renovations and additions to, all commercial and residential buildings as required by the energy code in the municipality to which the building code applies.

(3.5) (a)  The governing body of a municipality that has adopted and enforced

one or more building codes, and that updates one or more building codes on or after July 1, 2023, and before July 1, 2026, shall adopt and enforce an energy code that achieves equivalent or better energy performance than the 2021 international energy conservation code and the model electric ready and solar ready code language developed for adoption by the energy code board pursuant to section 24-38.5-401 (5) at the same time other building codes are updated.

(b)  The governing body of a municipality that has adopted and enforced one

or more building codes, and that updates one or more building codes on or after July 1, 2026, shall adopt and begin enforcing an energy code that achieves equivalent or better energy and carbon emissions performance than the model low energy and carbon code language developed for adoption by the energy code board pursuant to section 24-38.5-401 (6) at the same time other building codes are updated.

(c)  When adopting or updating a building code prior to July 1, 2023, the

governing body of a municipality shall adopt and enforce an energy code that achieves equivalent or better energy performance than one of the three most recent editions of the international energy conservation code.

(d)  Notwithstanding the timing requirement of subsection (3.5)(a) of this

section, a governing body of a municipality may comply with subsection (3.5)(a) of this section when the body adopts one or more building codes other than the national electrical code, the elevator and escalator code, and the Colorado plumbing code, or by June 30, 2026, whichever is earlier, if:

(I)  The governing body of the municipality adopts or updates:


(A)  The national electrical code by reference when adopted or updated by

the state electrical board;

(B)  The elevator and escalator code by reference when adopted or updated

by the director of the division of oil and public safety within the department of labor and employment; or

(C)  The Colorado plumbing code by reference when adopted or updated by

the state plumbing board; and

(II)  The adoption or update of the national electrical code, the elevator and

escalator code, or the Colorado plumbing code occurs on a timing cycle different from the scheduled adoption or update of one or more building codes other than the national electrical code, the elevator and escalator code, or the Colorado plumbing code.

(e)  Notwithstanding the timing requirement of subsection (3.5)(b) of this

section, a governing body of a municipality may comply with subsection (3.5)(b) of this section when the body adopts one or more building codes other than the national electrical code, the elevator and escalator code, and the Colorado plumbing code, or by June 30, 2030, whichever is earlier, if:

(I)  The governing body of a municipality adopts or updates:


(A)  The national electrical code by reference when adopted or updated by

the state electrical board;

(B)  The elevator and escalator code by reference when adopted or updated

by the director of the division of oil and public safety within the department of labor and employment; or

(C)  The Colorado plumbing code by reference when adopted or updated by

the state plumbing board; and

(II)  The adoption or update of the national electrical code, the elevator and

escalator code, or the Colorado plumbing code occurs on a timing cycle different from the scheduled adoption or update of one or more building codes other than the national electrical code, the elevator and escalator code, or the Colorado plumbing code.

(f)  Notwithstanding the requirements set forth in subsections (3.5)(a) and

(3.5)(b) of this section, a governing body of a municipality is not required to adopt and enforce an energy code that meets the requirements of subsections (3.5)(a) and (3.5)(b) of this section solely as a result of adopting the wildfire resiliency code.

(4) (a)  Repealed.


(b) (I) (A)  Except as otherwise provided in this section, the aggregate of all

charges or other related or associated fees a municipality shall impose or assess to install an active solar electric or solar thermal device or system or a geothermal energy system shall not exceed the lesser of the municipality's actual costs in issuing the permit or five hundred dollars for a residential application or one thousand dollars for a nonresidential application if the device or system produces fewer than two megawatts of direct current electricity or an equivalent-sized thermal energy system, or that exceed the municipality's actual costs in issuing the permit if the device or system produces at least two megawatts of direct current electricity or an equivalent-sized thermal energy system. A municipality may increase its fees or other charges as authorized by this subsection (4)(b)(I) by no more than five percent on an annual basis until the five hundred dollar limitation specified in this subsection (4)(b)(I) is achieved. The municipality shall clearly and individually identify all fees and taxes assessed on an application subject to this subsection (4)(b)(I) on the invoice. The general assembly hereby finds that there is a statewide need for certainty regarding the fees that can be assessed for permitting such devices or systems, and therefore declares that this subsection (4)(b) is a matter of statewide concern.

(B)  In the case of a nonresidential application, on an individual installation

basis only, if the municipality incurs actual costs for issuing the permit that are greater than one thousand dollars, the municipality is entitled to recovery of its actual costs for issuing the permit by submitting in writing and disclosing to the applicant for the particular permit proof of the municipality's actual costs.

(C)  As used in this subsection (4)(b)(I), active solar energy system means a

single system that contains electric generation, a thermal device, or is an energy storage system as defined in section 40-2-202 (2), and geothermal energy system means a system that uses geothermal energy for water heating or space heating or cooling in a single building, for space heating for more than one building through a pipeline network, or for electricity generation.

(II)  This subsection (4)(b) is repealed, effective December 31, 2029.


(5)  The following buildings are exempt from subsections (3), (3.5), and (4) of

this section:

(a)  Any building that is otherwise exempt from the provisions of the building

code adopted by the governing body of the municipality in which the building is located and buildings that do not contain a conditioned space;

(b)  Any building that does not use either electricity or fossil fuels for comfort

heating. A building will be presumed to be heated by electricity even in the absence of equipment used for electric comfort heating if the building is provided with electrical service in excess of one hundred amps, unless the code enforcement official of the municipality determines that the electrical service is necessary for a purpose other than for providing electric comfort heating.

(c)  Historic buildings that are listed on the national register of historic places

or Colorado state register of historic properties and buildings that have been designated as historically significant or that have been deemed eligible for designation by a local governing body that is authorized to make such designations; and

(d)  Any building that is exempt pursuant to the energy code.


(6)  Notwithstanding any other provisions of this section, the governing body

of any municipality that is required to adopt an energy code may make any amendments to the energy code that the governing body deems appropriate for local conditions, so long as the amendments do not decrease the effectiveness of the energy code.

(7) (a)  The office shall ensure that information explaining the requirements

of the energy code and describing acceptable methods of compliance is available to builders, designers, engineers, and architects.

(b)  The office shall provide the governing body of any municipality with

technical assistance concerning the implementation and enforcement of the energy code.

(8)  Nothing in this section restricts the ability of an investor-owned utility

with approval from the public utilities commission to:

(a)  Provide incentives or other energy efficiency program services to help the

governing body of any municipality or builders comply with the requirements of this section; or

(b)  Earn shareholder incentives and claim credits towards its regulatory

requirements for energy or greenhouse gas emission savings achieved as a result of incentives provided by the utility to help the governing body of any municipality or builders comply with the requirements of this section.

(9)  A utility not subject to regulation by the public utilities commission may

provide incentives or other energy efficiency program services as they so choose to assist the governing body of any municipality or any builders in complying with the requirements of this section.

(10) (a)  A utility may count mass-based emissions reductions associated with

the requirements of this section towards compliance with its requirements under section 25-7-105 (1)(e)(X.7) or (1)(e)(X.8), section 40-3.2-108 (3)(b), or any similar greenhouse gas emissions reduction program or set of requirements.

(b)  A utility subject to regulation by the public utilities commission shall not

count energy savings or greenhouse gas emissions reductions achieved through the requirements of this section for the purpose of calculating a shareholder incentive established pursuant to sections 40-3.2-103 (2)(d) and 40-3.2-104 (5) if the utility has not provided a financial investment for code adoption as documented in a plan approved by the commission.

Source: L. 2007: Entire section added, p. 697, � 3, effective July 1. L. 2008:

(2)(b) and (2)(c) amended, p. 72, � 11, effective March 18; (4) amended, p. 893, � 2, effective May 20. L. 2011: (4)(b) amended, (HB 11-1199), ch. 311, p. 1519, � 3, effective June 10. L. 2012: (2)(b) and (2)(c) amended, (HB 12-1315), ch. 224, p. 975, � 38, effective July 1. L. 2017: (4)(b) amended, (SB 17-179), ch. 170, p. 622, � 3, effective August 9. L. 2019: (1)(f), (1)(g), and (1)(h) added and (2)(b), (3), and IP(5) amended, (HB 19-1260), ch. 357, p. 3286, � 4, effective August 2. L. 2021: (4)(b) amended, (HB 21-1284), ch. 327, p. 2091, � 4, effective September 7. L. 2022: (1)(i), (1)(j), (2)(b.5), (3.5), (8), (9), and (10) added, (2)(b), (3), and IP(5) amended, and (4)(a) repealed, (HB 22-1362), ch. 301, p. 2186, � 8, effective June 2; (4)(b)(I)(A) and (4)(b)(I)(C) amended, (SB 22-118), ch. 335, p. 2372, � 8, effective August 10. L. 2023: (2)(a.5), (2)(a.8), (2)(b.8), (3.5)(d), and (3.5)(e) added, (HB 23-1233), ch. 245, p. 1326, � 11, effective May 23. L. 2025: (3.5)(f) added, (HB25-1269), ch. 216, p. 978, � 2, effective May 20. (2)(a.5) amended, (HB 25-1306), ch. 204, p. 926, � 5, effective August 6.

Editor's note: Section 10 of chapter 216 (HB 25-1269), Session Laws of

Colorado 2025, provides that the act changing this section applies to conduct occurring on or after May 20, 2025.

Cross references: (1)  In 2011, subsection (4)(b) was amended by the Fair

Permit Act. For the short title, see section 1 of chapter 311, Session Laws of Colorado 2011.

(2)  For the legislative declaration in HB 21-1284, see section 1 of chapter

327, Session Laws of Colorado 2021.

(3)  For the legislative declaration in HB 23-1233, see section 1 of chapter

245, Session Laws of Colorado 2023.


C.R.S. § 31-15-707

31-15-707. Municipal utilities. (1) The governing body of each municipality has the power:

(a) (I)  To acquire waterworks, gasworks, and gas distribution systems for the

distribution of gas of any kind or electric light and power works and distribution systems, or heating and cooling works and distribution systems for the distribution of heat and cooling obtained from geothermal resources, solar or wind energy, hydroelectric or renewable biomass resources, including waste and cogenerated heat, and all appurtenances necessary to any of said works or systems or to authorize the erection, ownership, operation, and maintenance of such works and systems by others. No such works or systems, except waterworks, shall be acquired or erected by a municipality until the question of acquiring or erecting the same is submitted at a regular or special election and approved in the manner provided for authorization of bonded indebtedness by section 31-15-302 (1)(d) and in accordance with the requirements of law, including requirements of law relating to the acquisition and financing of public utilities by municipalities. The question of acquiring or erecting a waterworks need not be so submitted and approved at an election.

(II)  All such works or systems authorized by any municipality to be erected

by others or the franchise of which is extended or renewed shall be authorized, extended, or renewed upon the express condition that such municipality has the right and power to purchase or condemn any such works or systems at their fair market value at the time of purchasing or condemning such works or systems, excluding all value of the franchise or right-of-way through the streets and also excluding any value by virtue of any contract for hydrant or private rental or otherwise entered into with the municipality in excess of the fair market value of the works or systems. If, after an election conducted in the manner prescribed in section 31-15-302 (1)(d), the municipality is authorized to acquire any of said works or systems after granting a franchise therefor to any person, the municipality shall purchase or condemn such works or systems within the municipal limits then utilized in serving the inhabitants of such municipality at their fair market value. Nothing in this subparagraph (II) shall require such municipality to purchase or condemn all or any part of such works or systems which is obsolete or which has outworn its usefulness.

(III)  If the municipality elects to purchase such works or systems and if the

parties in interest cannot agree on the purchase price, they shall enter into a written agreement to arbitrate the matter and to abide by the award of the arbitrators, in which event each party shall choose an arbitrator to determine their fair market value. If the two arbitrators cannot agree on the fair market value, they shall choose a third disinterested arbitrator, and the award of any two arbitrators shall be final and binding upon the parties.

(IV)  Nothing in this paragraph (a) shall authorize the condemnation or

purchase of any such works or systems within twenty years after the granting of any franchise therefor, except at periods of ten or fifteen years thereafter, without the consent of the owner of the franchise.

(b)  To construct or authorize the construction of such waterworks without

their limits and, for the purpose of maintaining and protecting the same from injury and the water from pollution, their jurisdiction shall extend over the territory occupied by such works and all reservoirs, streams, trenches, pipes, and drains used in and necessary for the construction, maintenance, and operation of the same and over the stream or source from which the water is taken for five miles above the point from which it is taken and to enact all ordinances and regulations necessary to carry the power conferred in this paragraph (b) into effect;

(c)  To make such grant to inure for a term of not more than twenty-five years

when the right to build and operate such water, gas, heating and cooling, or electric light works is granted to a person by said municipality and to authorize such person to charge and collect from each person supplied by them with water, gas, heat, cooling, or electric light such water, gas, heat, cooling, or electric light rent as may be agreed upon between the person building said works and said municipality; and to enter into a contract with the person constructing said works to supply said municipality with water for fire purposes and for such other purposes as may be necessary for the health and safety thereof and also with gas, heat, cooling, and electric light and to pay therefor such sums as may be agreed upon between said contracting parties;

(d)  To assess from time to time, when constructing such water, gas, heating

and cooling, or electric light works and in such manner as it deems equitable, upon each tenement or other place supplied with water, gas, heat, cooling, or electric light, such water, gas, heat, cooling, or electric light rent as may be agreed upon by the governing body. Gas, heat, cooling, and electric light shall be charged for according to use. At the regular time for levying taxes in each year, said municipality is empowered to levy and cause to be collected, in addition to the other taxes authorized to be levied, a special tax on taxable property in said municipality. Such tax, with the water, gas, heat, cooling, or electric light rents hereby authorized, shall be sufficient to pay the expenses of running, repairing, and operating such works. If the right to build, maintain, and operate such works is granted to a person by a municipality and the municipality contracts with said person for the supplying of water, gas, heat, cooling, or electric light for any purpose, such municipality shall levy each year and cause to be collected a special tax, as provided for in this paragraph (d), sufficient to pay off such water, gas, heat, cooling, or electric light rents so agreed to be paid to said person constructing said works. The tax shall not exceed the sum of three mills on the dollar for any one year.

(e)  To condemn and appropriate so much private property as is necessary for

the construction and operation of water, gas, heating and cooling, or electric light works in such manner as may be prescribed by law; and to condemn and appropriate any water, gas, heating and cooling, or electric light works not owned by such municipality in such manner as may be prescribed by law for the condemnation of real estate.

Source: L. 75: Entire title R&RE, p. 1115, � 1, effective July 1. L. 77: (1)(a)(I)

amended, p. 1462, � 1, effective May 16. L. 81: (1)(a)(I) and (1)(c) to (1)(e) amended, p. 1455, � 3, effective May 27.

Editor's note: This section is similar to former � 31-12-101 as it existed prior to

1975.


C.R.S. § 31-15-711.5

31-15-711.5. Municipal jails - sanitary standards. Any municipality that chooses to establish and operate a jail, as authorized in section 31-15-401 (1)(j), that begins operations on or after August 30, 1999, may establish sanitary standards for such jail relating to space requirements, furnishing requirements, required special use areas or special management housing, and environmental condition requirements, including but not limited to standards pertaining to light, ventilation, temperature, and noise level. If a municipality does not adopt standards pursuant to this section, the jail operated by or under contract with the municipality shall be subject to the standards adopted by the department of public health and environment pursuant to section 25-1.5-101 (1)(i), C.R.S. In establishing such standards, the municipality is strongly encouraged to consult with national associations that specialize in policies relating to correctional institutions.

Source: L. 2000: Entire section added, p. 803, � 3, effective May 24. L. 2003:

Entire section amended, p. 715, � 57, effective July 1.


C.R.S. § 31-23-206

31-23-206. Master plan - definitions. (1) It is the duty of the commission to make and adopt a master plan for the physical development of the municipality, including any areas outside its boundaries, subject to the approval of the governmental body having jurisdiction thereof, that in the commission's judgment bear relation to the planning of the municipality. The master plan of a municipality is an advisory document to guide land development decisions; however, the master plan or any part thereof may be made binding by inclusion in the municipality's adopted subdivision, zoning, platting, planned unit development, or other similar land development regulations after satisfying notice, due process, and hearing requirements for legislative or quasi-judicial processes as appropriate. The master plan, with the accompanying maps, plats, charts, and descriptive matter, must show the commission's recommendations for the development of the municipality and outlying areas.

(1.3) (a)  When a commission decides to adopt a master plan, the commission

shall conduct public hearings, after notice of such public hearings has been published in a newspaper of general circulation in the municipality in a manner sufficient to notify the public of the time, place, and nature of the public hearing, prior to final adoption of a master plan in order to encourage public participation in and awareness of the development of the master plan and shall accept and consider oral and written public comments throughout the process of developing the master plan.

(b)  The commission shall follow the procedures in section 24-32-3209. For

purposes of this section, any special district that supplies water to the area covered by the master plan is a neighboring jurisdiction as defined in section 24-32-3209 (1)(h).

(c)  For any master plan adopted after January 1, 2026, the commission shall

consider the following, where applicable or appropriate, and any other information deemed relevant by the commission:

(I)  The applicable housing needs assessments published pursuant to section

24-32-3702 (1)(b), 24-32-3703, or 24-32-3704;

(II)  The statewide strategic growth report created pursuant to section 24-32-3707;


(III)  The natural land and agricultural opportunities report published

pursuant to section 24-32-3708; and

(IV)  The Colorado water plan adopted pursuant to section 37-60-106.3.


(1.5)  The master plan must include:


(a)  A narrative description of the procedure used for the development and

adoption of the master plan, including a summary of any objections to the master plan made by neighboring jurisdictions pursuant to section 24-32-3209 and a description of the resolution or outcome of the objections;

(b)  The most recent version of the master plan required by section 31-12-105

(1)(e) or a similar master plan for areas of potential growth within three miles of the municipality's existing boundaries and a description of how the municipality intends to integrate that plan into the master plan;

(c) (I)  A water supply element developed in consultation with entities that

supply water for use within the municipality to ensure coordination on water supply and facility planning. Nothing in this section requires the public disclosure of confidential information related to water supply or facilities.

(II)  The water supply element must:


(A)  Estimate a range of water supplies and facilities needed to support the

potential public and private development described in the master plan; and

(B)  Include water conservation policies, to be determined by the municipality,

which may include goals specified in the Colorado water plan adopted pursuant to section 37-60-106.3 and policies to implement water conservation and other Colorado water plan goals as a condition of development approval, including subdivisions, planned unit developments, special use permits, and zoning changes.

(III)  A municipality with a master plan that includes a water supply element

shall ensure that its master plan includes water conservation policies at the first amending of the master plan, but not later than July 1, 2025;

(IV)  Nothing in this subsection (1.5)(c) supersedes, abrogates, or otherwise

impairs the allocation of water pursuant to the state constitution or any other provision of law, the right to beneficially use water pursuant to decrees, contracts, or other water use agreements, or the operation, maintenance, repair, replacement, or use of any water facility; and

(V)  The department of local affairs may hire and employ one full-time

employee to provide educational resources and assistance to municipalities that include water conservation policies in the water supply elements of master plans as required by this subsection (1.5)(c).

(d)  A strategic growth element that integrates elements of the master plan

to discourage sprawl and promote the development or redevelopment of vacant and underutilized parcels in urban areas to address the municipality's demonstrated housing needs and mitigate the need for extension of infrastructure and public services to develop natural and agricultural lands for residential uses. The strategic growth element must include:

(I)  A description of existing and potential policies and tools to promote

strategic growth and prevent sprawl;

(II)  An analysis of vacant and underutilized sites that:


(A)  Identifies vacant, partially vacant, and underutilized land near existing or

planned transit or job centers that could be used for infill development, redevelopment, and new development of housing;

(B)  Assesses the general feasibility of the development or redevelopment of

such sites for residential use based on existing and needed infrastructure, transportation capacity, access to public transit, and public facilities and services to serve such sites;

(C)  Describes the public benefits of the development or redevelopment of

such sites to the municipality as an alternative to the development of previously undeveloped natural or agricultural land; and

(D)  In a manner that is consistent with the master plan, designates such sites

for which development or redevelopment is deemed to be generally feasible for future uses that include residential uses in a manner that addresses the municipality's demonstrated housing needs at all income levels; and

(III)  An analysis of undeveloped sites that:


(A)  Identifies previously undeveloped parcels that are not adjacent to

developed land, including existing natural and agricultural land, under consideration for future development, and, for a municipality in a metropolitan planning organization established under the Federal Transit Act of 1998, 49 U.S.C. sec. 5301 et seq., as amended, land outside of census urban areas as defined by the United States bureau of the census;

(B)  Assesses the general feasibility of the development of such sites for

residential use based on existing and needed infrastructure, transportation capacity, access to public transit, and public facilities and services to serve such sites; and

(C)  Describes the long-term fiscal impact to the municipality of the

construction, ownership, maintenance, and replacement of infrastructure and public facilities and the provision of public services to serve development of such sites; and

(e)  The most recent housing action plan adopted by the municipality

pursuant to section 24-32-3705.

(1.7) (a)  A municipality with a master plan shall ensure that its master plan

includes a water supply element and strategic growth element as required by subsection (1.5) of this section at the first amending of the master plan that occurs on or after January 1, 2026, but not later than December 31, 2026. The master plan of a municipality adopted or amended after December 31, 2026, must include a water supply element and strategic growth element as required by subsection (1.5) of this section. A municipality shall update the water supply element and strategic growth element as required by subsection (1.5) of this section no less frequently than every five years.

(b)  A municipality with a master plan is not required to include a strategic

growth element if the municipality has not received funding to include the strategic growth element pursuant to section 24-32-3710 and either:

(I)  Has a population of twenty thousand or less and has experienced negative

population change in the most recent decennial census; or

(II)  Has a population of two thousand or less.


(1.9)  The master plan may include, where applicable or appropriate:


(a)  The general location, character, and extent of existing, proposed, or

projected streets, roads, rights-of-way, bridges, waterways, waterfronts, parkways, highways, mass transit routes and corridors, and any transportation plan prepared by any metropolitan planning organization that covers all or a portion of the municipality and that the municipality has received notification of or, if the municipality is not located in an area covered by a metropolitan planning organization, any transportation plan prepared by the department of transportation that the municipality has received notification of and that covers all or a portion of the municipality;

(b)  The general location of public places or facilities, including public

schools, culturally, historically, or archaeologically significant buildings, sites, and objects, playgrounds, squares, parks, airports, aviation fields, military installations, and other public ways, grounds, open spaces, trails, and designated federal, state, and local wildlife areas. For purposes of this section, military installation has the same meaning as specified in section 29-20-105.6 (2)(b).

(c)  The general location and extent of public utilities terminals, capital

facilities, and transfer facilities, whether publicly or privately owned or operated, for water, light, sanitation, transportation, communication, power, and other purposes and any proposed or projected needs for capital facilities and utilities, including the priorities, anticipated costs, and funding proposals for such facilities and utilities;

(d)  The acceptance, removal, relocation, widening, narrowing, vacating,

abandonment, modification, change of use, or extension of any of the public ways, rights-of-way, including the coordination of such rights-of-way with the rights-of-way of other municipalities, counties, or regions, grounds, open spaces, buildings, property, utility, or terminals referred to in subsections (1.5)(c), (1.7)(a), and (1.7)(b) of this section;

(e)  A zoning plan for the control of the height, area, bulk, location, and use of

buildings and premises. Such a zoning plan may protect and assure access to appropriate conditions for solar, wind, or other alternative energy sources, including geothermal energy used for water heating or space heating or cooling in a single building, for space heating for more than one building through a pipeline network, or for electricity generation; however, regulations and restrictions of the height, number of stories, size of buildings and other structures, and the height and location of trees and other vegetation shall not apply to existing buildings, structures, trees, or vegetation except for new growth on such vegetation;

(f)  The general character, location, and extent of community centers,

housing developments, whether public or private; the existing, proposed, or projected location of residential neighborhoods and sufficient land for future housing development for the existing and projected economic and other needs of all current and anticipated residents of the municipality; and redevelopment areas. If a municipality has entered into a regional planning agreement, the agreement may be incorporated by reference into the master plan.

(g)  A plan for the extraction of commercial mineral deposits pursuant to

section 34-1-304;

(h)  A plan for the location and placement of public utilities that facilitates

the provision of such utilities to all existing, proposed, or projected developments in the municipality;

(i)  Projections of population change and housing needs to accommodate the

projected population for specified increments of time. The municipality may base these projections upon data from the department of local affairs and upon the municipality's local objectives;

(j)  The areas containing steep slopes, geological hazards, endangered or

threatened species, wetlands, floodplains, floodways, and flood risk zones, highly erodible land or unstable soils, and wildfire hazards. For purposes of determining the location of such areas, the commission should consider the following sources for guidance:

(I)  The Colorado geological survey for defining and mapping geological

hazards;

(II)  The United States fish and wildlife service of the United States

department of the interior and the parks and wildlife commission created in section 33-9-101 for locating areas inhabited by endangered or threatened species;

(III)  The Unites States army corps of engineers and the United States fish

and wildlife service national wetlands inventory for defining and mapping wetlands;

(IV)  The federal emergency management agency for defining and mapping

floodplains, floodways, and flood risk zones;

(V)  The natural resources conservation service of the United States

department of agriculture for defining and mapping unstable soils and highly erodible land; and

(VI)  The Colorado state forest service for locating wildfire hazard areas.


(2)  As the work of making the whole master plan progresses, the commission

may from time to time adopt and publish a part thereof. Any such part shall cover one or more major sections or divisions of the municipality or one or more of the foregoing or other functional matters to be included in the plan. The commission may amend, extend, or add to the plan from time to time.

(3)  (Deleted by amendment, L. 2007, p. 613, � 2, effective August 3, 2007.)


(4) (a)  Each municipality that has a population of two thousand persons or

more and that is wholly or partially located in a county that is subject to the requirements of section 30-28-106 (4), C.R.S., shall adopt a master plan within two years after January 8, 2002.

(b)  The department of local affairs shall annually determine, based on the

population statistics maintained by said department, whether a municipality is subject to the requirements of this subsection (4), and shall notify any municipality that is newly identified as being subject to said requirements. Any such municipality shall have two years following receipt of notification from the department to adopt a master plan.

(c)  Once a municipality is identified as being subject to the requirements of

this subsection (4), the municipality shall at all times thereafter remain subject to the requirements of this subsection (4), regardless of whether it continues to meet the criteria specified in paragraph (a) of this subsection (4).

(5)  A master plan adopted in accordance with the requirements of

subsection (4) of this section shall contain a recreational and tourism uses element pursuant to which the municipality shall indicate how it intends to provide for the recreational and tourism needs of residents of the municipality and visitors to the municipality through delineated areas dedicated to, without limitation, hiking, mountain biking, rock climbing, skiing, cross country skiing, rafting, fishing, boating, hunting, and shooting, or any other form of sports or other recreational activity, as applicable, and commercial facilities supporting such uses.

(6)  The master plan of any municipality adopted or amended in accordance

with the requirements of this section on and after August 8, 2005, shall satisfy the requirements of section 29-20-105.6, C.R.S., as applicable.

(7)  Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, no master plan

originally adopted or amended in accordance with the requirements of this section shall conflict with a master plan for the extraction of commercial mineral deposits adopted by the municipality pursuant to section 34-1-304, C.R.S.

(8)  The commission shall submit the master plan and any separately

approved water supply element and strategic growth element to the division of local government in the department of local affairs. The division of local government shall review master plans and may provide comments to the commission.

(9) (a)  As used in this subsection (9):


(I) (A)  Equestrian means an individual who is riding a horse, leading a horse,

or riding in a vehicle drawn by a horse.

(B)  Equestrian includes the horse being ridden, being led, or drawing a

vehicle, as each are described in subsection (9)(a)(I)(A) of this section.

(II)  Equestrian zone means an area that a municipality determines is

suburban or urban and contains:

(A)  An equestrian fairground, public equestrian riding arena, public

equestrian center, or public riding trail;

(B)  An equestrian-centric residential neighborhood where equestrians

regularly ride and that was zoned in such a manner as to allow housing privately owned equines but is now being developed for primarily residential use or that is zoned in such a manner as to allow housing privately owned equines;

(C)  A keystone property; or


(D)  Roads or trails that equestrians use and that are related to an area

described in subsections (9)(a)(II)(A) to (9)(a)(II)(C) of this section.

(III)  Keystone property means a property that has at least one of the

following equestrian facilities:

(A)  Boarding facilities that provide housing for equines, training for

equestrians, or equine service and education programs;

(B)  Equine stables that facilitate animal welfare rescue programs or equine

therapy programs;

(C)  Breeding facilities for equines; or


(D)  Nonpublic equestrian venues that provide services to the equestrian

community.

(IV)  Suburban or urban means the population and traffic density are

sufficient to cause significant and regular interactions between equestrians and motor vehicles or other residents.

(b)  A municipality with a master plan may identify and show on the master

plan the location of and character of existing or proposed equestrian infrastructure, venues, and equestrian zones.

(c)  A municipality may organize public events to educate the public about

equestrian use of recreational trails and roads and the duties of users of trails and roads with regard to equestrian users. A municipality may partner with local horse advocacy groups to educate the public about these matters or to hold the public events.

Source: L. 75: Entire title R&RE, p. 1147, � 1, effective July 1. L. 79: (1)(d)

amended, p. 1162, � 10, effective January 1, 1980. L. 97: (3) added, p. 414, � 2, effective April 24. L. 2000: (1) amended, p. 874, � 2, effective August 2. L. 2001, 2nd Ex. Sess.: (4) and (5) added, p. 22, � 2, effective January 8, 2002. L. 2002: (5) amended, p. 1036, � 84, effective June 1. L. 2005: (6) added, p. 223, � 3, effective August 8. L. 2007: IP(1) and (3) amended and (7) added, p. 613, � 2, effective August 3. L. 2010: (1)(b) and (6) amended, (HB 10-1205), ch. 242, p. 1078, � 3, effective August 11. L. 2012: IP(1) and (1)(k)(II) amended, (HB 12-1317), ch. 248, p. 1206, � 13, effective June 4. L. 2020: IP(1) and (1)(d) amended, (HB 20-1095), ch. 82, p. 332, � 2, effective September 14. L. 2022: (1)(f) amended, (SB 22-118), ch. 335, p. 2373, � 9, effective August 10. L. 2024: (1) R&RE and (1.3), (1.5), (1.7), (1.9), and (8) added, (SB 24-174), ch. 290, p. 1969, � 3, effective May 30. L. 2025: (9) added, (SB 25-149), ch. 266, p. 1376, � 8, effective August 6.

Editor's note: (1)  This section is similar to former � 31-23-106 as it existed

prior to 1975.

(2)  Section 11(2) of chapter 266 (SB 25-149), Session Laws of Colorado 2025,

provides that the act changing this section applies to offenses committed on or after August 6, 2025.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in SB 25-149, see section 1

of chapter 266, Session Laws of Colorado 2025.


C.R.S. § 31-25-103

31-25-103. Definitions. As used in this part 1, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1)  Agricultural land means any one parcel of land or any two or more

contiguous parcels of land that, regardless of the uses for which the land has been zoned, has been classified by the county assessor as agricultural land for purposes of the levying and collection of property tax pursuant to sections 39-1-102 (1.6)(a) and 39-1-103 (5)(a), C.R.S., at any time during the five-year period prior to the date of adoption of an urban renewal plan or any modification of such a plan.

(2)  Blighted area means an area that, in its present condition and use and,

by reason of the presence of at least four of the following factors, substantially impairs or arrests the sound growth of the municipality, retards the provision of housing accommodations, or constitutes an economic or social liability, and is a menace to the public health, safety, morals, or welfare:

(a)  Slum, deteriorated, or deteriorating structures;


(b)  Predominance of defective or inadequate street layout;


(c)  Faulty lot layout in relation to size, adequacy, accessibility, or usefulness;


(d)  Unsanitary or unsafe conditions;


(e)  Deterioration of site or other improvements;


(f)  Unusual topography or inadequate public improvements or utilities;


(g)  Defective or unusual conditions of title rendering the title nonmarketable;


(h)  The existence of conditions that endanger life or property by fire or other

causes;

(i)  Buildings that are unsafe or unhealthy for persons to live or work in

because of building code violations, dilapidation, deterioration, defective design, physical construction, or faulty or inadequate facilities;

(j)  Environmental contamination of buildings or property;


(k)  (Deleted by amendment, L. 2004, p. 1745, � 3, effective June 4, 2004.)


(k.5)  The existence of health, safety, or welfare factors requiring high levels

of municipal services or substantial physical underutilization or vacancy of sites, buildings, or other improvements; or

(l)  If there is no objection by the property owner or owners and the tenant or

tenants of such owner or owners, if any, to the inclusion of such property in an urban renewal area, blighted area also means an area that, in its present condition and use and, by reason of the presence of any one of the factors specified in paragraphs (a) to (k.5) of this subsection (2), substantially impairs or arrests the sound growth of the municipality, retards the provision of housing accommodations, or constitutes an economic or social liability, and is a menace to the public health, safety, morals, or welfare. For purposes of this paragraph (l), the fact that an owner of an interest in such property does not object to the inclusion of such property in the urban renewal area does not mean that the owner has waived any rights of such owner in connection with laws governing condemnation.

(3)  Bonds means any bonds (including refunding bonds), notes, interim

certificates or receipts, temporary bonds, certificates of indebtedness, debentures, or other obligations.

(3.1)  Brownfield site means real property, the development, expansion,

redevelopment, or reuse of which will be complicated by the presence of a substantial amount of one or more hazardous substances, pollutants, or contaminants, as designated by the United States environmental protection agency.

(3.3)  Business concern has the same meaning as business as set forth in

section 24-56-102 (1), C.R.S.

(3.5)  Displaced person has the same meaning as set forth in section 24-56-102 (2), C.R.S., and for purposes of this part 1 shall also include any individual,

family, or business concern displaced by the acquisition by eminent domain of real property by an authority.

(3.7)  Governing body means the governing body of the municipality within

which an authority has been established in accordance with the requirements of this part 1.

(4)  Obligee means any bondholder, agent, or trustee for any bondholder, or

any lessor demising to an authority property used in connection with an urban renewal project of the authority, or any assignee of such lessor's interest or any part thereof, and the federal government when it is a party to any contract or agreement with the authority.

(5)  Public body means the state of Colorado or any municipality, quasi-municipal corporation, board, commission, authority, or other political subdivision or

public corporate body of the state.

(6)  Real property means lands, lands under water, structures, and any and

all easements, franchises, incorporeal hereditaments, and every estate and right therein, legal and equitable, including terms for years and liens by way of judgment, mortgage, or otherwise.

(7)  Slum area means an area in which there is a predominance of buildings

or improvements, whether residential or nonresidential, and which, by reason of dilapidation, deterioration, age or obsolescence, inadequate provision for ventilation, light, air, sanitation, or open spaces, high density of population and overcrowding, or the existence of conditions which endanger life or property by fire or other causes, or any combination of such factors, is conducive to ill health, transmission of disease, infant mortality, juvenile delinquency, or crime and is detrimental to the public health, safety, morals, or welfare.

(7.5)  Urban-level development means an area in which there is a

predominance of either permanent structures or above-ground or at-grade infrastructure.

(8)  Urban renewal area means a slum area, or a blighted area, or a

combination thereof which the local governing body designates as appropriate for an urban renewal project.

(8.5)  Urban renewal authority or authority means a corporate body

organized pursuant to the provisions of this part 1 for the purposes, with the powers, and subject to the restrictions set forth in this part 1.

(9)  Urban renewal plan means a plan, as it exists from time to time, for an

urban renewal project, which plan conforms to a general or master plan for the physical development of the municipality as a whole and which is sufficiently complete to indicate such land acquisition, demolition and removal of structures, redevelopment, improvements, and rehabilitation as may be proposed to be carried out in the urban renewal area, zoning and planning changes, if any, land uses, maximum densities, building requirements, and the plan's relationship to definite local objectives respecting appropriate land uses, improved traffic, public transportation, public utilities, recreational and community facilities, and other public improvements.

(10)  Urban renewal project means undertakings and activities for the

elimination and for the prevention of the development or spread of slums and blight and may involve slum clearance and redevelopment, or rehabilitation, or conservation, or any combination or part thereof, in accordance with an urban renewal plan. Such undertakings and activities may include:

(a)  Acquisition of a slum area or a blighted area or portion thereof;


(b)  Demolition and removal of buildings and improvements;


(c)  Installation, construction, or reconstruction of streets, utilities, parks,

playgrounds, and other improvements necessary for carrying out the objectives of this part 1 in accordance with the urban renewal plan;

(d)  Disposition of any property acquired or held by the authority as a part of

its undertaking of the urban renewal project for the urban renewal areas (including sale, initial leasing, or temporary retention by the authority itself) at the fair value of such property for uses in accordance with the urban renewal plan;

(e)  Carrying out plans for a program through voluntary action and the

regulatory process for the repair, alteration, and rehabilitation of buildings or other improvements in accordance with the urban renewal plan; and

(f)  Acquisition of any other property where necessary to eliminate

unhealthful, unsanitary, or unsafe conditions, lessen density, eliminate obsolete or other uses detrimental to the public welfare, or otherwise remove or prevent the spread of blight or deterioration or to provide land for needed public facilities.

Source: L. 75: Entire title R&RE, p. 1159, � 1, effective July 1. L. 99: (2)

amended, p. 529, � 1, effective May 3. L. 2004: (2)(f), (2)(h), (2)(j), (2)(k), and (2)(l) amended and (2)(k.5), (3.3), (3.5), and (3.7) added, p. 1745, �� 3, 2, effective June 4. L. 2005: IP(10) amended, p. 1264, � 3, effective June 3. L. 2010: (1) amended and (3.1), (7.5), and (8.5) added, (HB 10-1107), ch. 89, p. 298, � 2, effective June 1.

Editor's note: This section is similar to former � 31-25-103 as it existed prior

to 1975.


C.R.S. § 31-25-501

31-25-501. Definitions. As used in this part 5, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1)  Assessment unit means an area within a district which is separately

defined for determining assessments payable pursuant to this part 5.

(1.5)  District means the geographical division of the municipality and, in

accordance with the provisions of this part 5, the county in which such municipality is situated, or any other municipality within such county, within which any local improvement may be made or, when so declared by the governing body, may include the entire municipal area. One or more noncontiguous parts or sections of property may be included in one district.

(1.7) (a)  Elector of the district means a person who, at the designated time

or event, is registered to vote in the general election in this state and:

(I)  Who is a resident of the district or the area to be included in the district; or


(II)  Who or whose spouse or civil union partner owns taxable real or personal

property within the district or the area to be included in the district whether or not said person resides within the district.

(b)  Where the owner of taxable real or personal property specified in

subparagraph (II) of paragraph (a) this subsection (1.7) is not a natural person, an elector of the district shall include a natural person designated by such owner to vote for such person. Such designation shall be in writing and filed with the clerk of the municipality. Only one such person may be designated by an owner.

(1.9)  Energy efficiency improvement means an installation or modification

that is designed to reduce energy consumption in residential or commercial buildings and includes, but is not limited to, the following:

(a)  Insulation in walls, roofs, floors, and foundations and in heating and

cooling distribution systems;

(b)  Storm windows and doors, multiglazed windows and doors, heat-absorbing or heat-reflective glazed and coated window and door systems,

additional glazing, reductions in glass area, and other window and door system modifications that reduce energy consumption;

(c)  Automatic energy control systems;


(d)  Heating, ventilating, or air conditioning and distribution system

modifications or replacements in buildings or central plants;

(e)  Caulking and weatherstripping;


(f)  Replacement or modification of lighting fixtures to increase the energy

efficiency of the system without increasing the overall illumination of a residential or commercial building unless such increase in illumination is necessary to conform to the applicable building code for the proposed lighting system;

(g)  Energy recovery systems;


(h)  Daylighting systems; and


(i)  Any other modification, installation, or remodeling approved as a utility

cost-savings measure by the governing body; except that no renewable energy improvement shall be authorized that interferes with a right held by a public utility under a certificate issued by the public utilities commission under article 5 of title 40, C.R.S. The public utilities commission shall have primary jurisdiction to adjudicate disputes as to whether a renewable energy improvement interferes with such a right.

(2)  Owner, in reference to petitions, means only persons in whom the

record fee title is vested, although subject to lien or encumbrance.

(3)  Property means all land, whether platted or unplatted, regardless of

improvements thereon and regardless of lot or land lines. The term also includes the franchise of any railroad whose tracks lie, either lengthwise or crosswise, within any street improved under this part 5. Lots may be designated in accordance with any recorded map or plat thereof, unplatted lands by any definite description thereof, and franchises by the name of the corporation owning the same.

(3.5)  Qualified community location means:


(a)  If the affected local electric utility is not an investor-owned utility, an off-site location of a renewable energy improvement that:


(I)  Is wholly owned, through either an undivided or a fractional interest, by

the owner or owners of the residential or commercial building or buildings that are directly benefited by the renewable energy improvement;

(II)  Provides energy as a direct credit on the owner's utility bill; and


(III)  Is an encumbrance on the property specifically benefited.


(b)  If the affected local electric utility is an investor-owned utility, a

community solar garden as that term is defined in section 40-2-127 (2), or a community geothermal garden as that term is defined in section 40-2-127.5 (2).

(4) (a)  Renewable energy improvement means a fixture, product, system,

device, or interacting group of devices that produces energy from renewable resources, including photovoltaic systems, solar thermal systems, small wind systems, biomass systems, hydroelectric systems, or geothermal systems, as may be authorized by the governing body, and that either:

(I)  Is installed behind the meter of a residential or commercial building; or


(II)  Directly benefits a residential or commercial building through a qualified

community location.

(b)  No renewable energy improvement shall be authorized that interferes

with a right held by a public utility under a certificate issued by the public utilities commission under article 5 of title 40, C.R.S. Nothing in this part 5 limits the right of a public utility, subject to article 3 or 3.5 of title 40, C.R.S., or section 40-9.5-106, C.R.S., to assess fees for the use of its facilities, or modifies or expands the net metering limitations established in section 40-9.5-118, C.R.S. The public utilities commission has primary jurisdiction to adjudicate disputes as to whether a renewable energy improvement interferes with such a right.

Source: L. 75: Entire title R&RE, p. 1190, � 1, effective July 1. L. 86: (1) R&RE

and (1.5) added, p. 1047, �� 2, 3, effective July 1. L. 90: (1.5) amended, p. 1472, � 5, effective July 1. L. 99: (1.7) added, p. 518, � 16, effective April 30. L. 2002: (1.7) amended, p. 272, � 12, effective August 7. L. 2008: (1.9) and (4) added, p. 1300, � 22, effective May 27. L. 2010: (3.5) added and (4) amended, (SB 10-100), ch. 207, p. 903, � 7, effective May 5. L. 2016: (1.7)(a) amended, (SB 16-142), ch. 173, p. 592, � 78, effective May 18. L. 2022: (3.5)(b) amended, (SB 22-118), ch. 335, p. 2379, � 14, effective August 10. L. 2023: (3.5)(b) amended, (HB 23-1301), ch. 303, p. 1840, � 73, effective August 7.

Editor's note: This section is similar to former � 31-25-501 as it existed prior

to 1975.


C.R.S. § 31-32-105

31-32-105. Cities or towns may erect utilities. Nothing in this part 1 shall be construed as in any way modifying or restricting the right of cities or towns to purchase or erect electric light works, heating and cooling works and distribution systems for the distribution of heat and cooling obtained from geothermal resources, solar or wind energy, hydroelectric or renewable biomass resources, including waste and cogenerated heat, or gasworks in the manner provided for by law.

Source: L. 75: Entire title R&RE, p. 1244, � 1, effective July 1. L. 81: Entire

section amended, p. 1457, � 5, effective May 27.

Editor's note: This section is similar to former � 31-32-105 as it existed prior

to 1975.

PART 2

PUBLIC UTILITIES - ACQUISITION - METHOD


C.R.S. § 31-35-401

31-35-401. Definitions. As used in this part 4, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1)  Consumer means any public or private user of water facilities or

sewerage facilities or both.

(2)  Governing body means the body which is in charge of the municipality's

water or sanitation facilities, whether or not the same is a governing body as defined in part 1 of article 1 of this title.

(3)  Joint system or joint water and sewer system means water facilities

and sewerage facilities combined, operated, and maintained as a single public utility and income-producing project.

(4)  Municipality means a municipality as defined in part 1 of article 1 of this

title and includes any quasi-municipal corporation formed principally to acquire, operate, and maintain water facilities or sewerage facilities or both.

(5)  Net effective interest rate of a proposed issue of bonds means the net

interest cost of said issue divided by the sum of the products derived by multiplying the principal amount of such issue maturing on each maturity date by the number of years from the date of said proposed bonds to their respective maturities. Net interest cost of a proposed issue of bonds means the total amount of interest to accrue on said bonds from their date of issuance to their respective maturities plus the amount of any discount below par or less the amount of any premium above par at which said bonds are being or have been sold. In all cases the net effective interest rate and net interest cost shall be computed without regard to any option of redemption prior to the designated maturity dates of the bonds.

(6)  Sewerage facilities means any one or more of the various devices used

in the collection, treatment, or disposition of sewage or industrial wastes of a liquid nature or storm, flood, or surface drainage waters, including all inlets; collection, drainage, or disposal lines; intercepting sewers; joint storm and sanitary sewers; sewage disposal plants; outfall sewers; all pumping, power, and other equipment and appurtenances; all extensions, improvements, remodeling, additions, and alterations thereof; and any and all rights or interests in such sewerage facilities.

(7)  Water facilities means any one or more works and improvements used

in and as a part of the collection, treatment, or distribution of water for the beneficial uses and purposes for which the water has been or may be appropriated, including, but not limited to, uses for domestic, municipal, irrigation, power, and industrial purposes and including construction, operation, and maintenance of a system of raw and clear water and distribution storage reservoirs, deep and shallow wells, pumping, ventilating, and gauging stations, inlets, tunnels, flumes, conduits, canals, collection, transmission, and distribution lines, infiltration galleries, hydrants, meters, filtration and treatment plants and works, power plants, all pumping, power, and other equipment and appurtenances, all extensions, improvements, remodeling, additions, and alterations thereof, and any and all rights or interests in such works and improvements; but, no municipality shall construct or acquire facilities for the sale of electric energy or power, except hydroelectric energy or power for sale at wholesale only, without complying with the provisions of section 31-15-707.

Source: L. 75: Entire title R&RE, p. 1250, � 1, effective July 1. L. 81: (7)

amended, p. 1540, � 1, effective May 18.

Editor's note: The provisions of this section are similar to provisions of

several former sections as they existed prior to 1975. For a detailed comparison, see the comparative tables located in the back of the index.


C.R.S. § 32-1-1002

32-1-1002. Fire protection districts - additional powers and duties - definitions - vegetative fuel removal - rules. (1) In addition to the powers specified in section 32-1-1001, the board of any fire protection district has the following powers for and on behalf of the district:

(a)  To acquire, dispose of, or encumber fire stations, fire protection and fire

fighting equipment, and any interest therein, including leases and easements;

(b)  To have and exercise the power of eminent domain and dominant eminent

domain and, in the manner provided by article 1 of title 38, C.R.S., to take any property necessary to the exercise of the powers granted, both within and without the special district;

(c)  To undertake and to operate as a part of the duties of the fire protection

district an ambulance service, an emergency medical service, a rescue unit, and a diving and grappling service;

(d)  To adopt and enforce fire codes, as the board deems necessary, but no

such code shall apply within any municipality or the unincorporated portion of any county unless the governing body of the municipality or county, as the case may be, adopts a resolution stating that the code or specific portions thereof shall be applicable within the fire protection district's boundaries; except that nothing in this subsection (1)(d) shall be construed to affect any fire codes existing on June 30, 1981, that have been adopted by the governing body of a municipality or county. Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, no fire protection district shall prohibit the sale of permissible fireworks, as defined in section 24-33.5-2001 (11), within its jurisdiction.

(d.5) (I)  To impose an impact fee on the construction of new buildings,

structures, facilities, or improvements, including oil or gas wells and related equipment, on previously improved or on unimproved real property within the district's jurisdictional boundaries pursuant to a schedule that is:

(A)  Legislatively adopted;


(B)  Generally applicable to a broad class of property; and


(C)  Intended to defray the projected impacts on capital facilities caused by

the proposed construction.

(II)  A district shall quantify the reasonable impacts of proposed construction

on existing capital facilities and establish the impact fee at a level no greater than necessary to defray such impacts directly related to the proposed construction. An impact fee shall not be imposed to remedy any deficiency in capital facilities that exists without regard to the proposed construction.

(III)  Any schedule of impact fees adopted by a district pursuant to this

subsection (1)(d.5) must include provisions to ensure that no individual landowner is required to provide any site specific dedication or improvement to meet the same need for capital facilities for which the impact fee is imposed.

(IV)  No later than sixty calendar days before adopting an impact fee

schedule pursuant to this subsection (1)(d.5), a district shall notify the clerk of every municipality or county that includes territory that is wholly or partly located within the district's jurisdictional boundaries and that may be impacted by the proposed impact fee schedule of the district's intent to adopt the schedule and provide a reasonable opportunity for the municipality or county to submit written comments regarding the schedule of impact fees to the board of the district.

(V)  An impact fee imposed pursuant to this subsection (1)(d.5) must be

collected and accounted for in the same manner as a land development charge is required to be collected and accounted for pursuant to part 8 of article 1 of title 29.

(VI)  An impact fee shall not be imposed on any construction of new buildings,

structures, facilities, or improvements, including oil or gas wells and related equipment, on previously improved or on unimproved real property within the district's jurisdictional boundaries, for which an individual or entity has submitted a completed application for a development permit to an approving local government prior to the adoption of a schedule of impact fees by the district pursuant to this subsection (1)(d.5). A district shall not collect an impact fee before the issuance of a building permit by the approving local government. The approving local government shall notify the district of the issuance of a building permit for the construction of new buildings, structures, facilities, or improvements, including oil or gas wells and related equipment, on previously improved or on unimproved real property within the district's jurisdictional boundaries at the time of issuance.

(VII)  Any person or entity that owns or has an interest in land that is or

becomes subject to a schedule of impact fees imposed by a district pursuant to this subsection (1)(d.5) shall, by receiving a building permit from the approving local government, have standing to file an action for declaratory judgment to determine whether the impact fee schedule complies with the provisions of this subsection (1)(d.5). A person or entity with standing who believes that a district has improperly applied an impact fee schedule pursuant to this subsection (1)(d.5) to the construction of any new buildings, structures, facilities, or improvements, including oil or gas well and related equipment, on previously improved or on unimproved real property within the district's jurisdictional boundaries may pay the fee imposed and proceed with construction without prejudice to the person or entity's right to challenge the impact fee imposed under rule 106 of the Colorado rules of civil procedure. If the court determines that the district has either imposed an impact fee on construction that is not subject to the adopted schedule of impact fees or improperly calculated the impact fee amount, it may enter judgment in favor of the person or entity for the amount of any impact fee wrongfully collected with interest thereon from the date of collection.

(VIII)  As used in this subsection (1)(d.5):


(A)  Capital facility means any improvement or facility that is directly

related to any service that a district is authorized to provide, has an estimated useful life of five years or longer, and is required by the bylaws, rules, or regulations of a district, as adopted by the board of the district.

(B)  Local government has the same meaning as set forth in section 29-20-103 (1.5).


(IX)  Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, a fire protection district

may waive an impact fee or other similar development charge on the development of low- or moderate-income housing or affordable employee housing as defined by the fire protection district.

(e)  In addition to all other fees and charges allowed by this article 1, to fix

and from time to time increase or decrease fees and charges as follows, and the board may pledge such revenue for the payment of any indebtedness of the district:

(I)  For ambulance or emergency medical services and extrication, rescue, or

safety services provided in furtherance of ambulance or emergency medical services. Extrication, rescue, or safety services includes but is not limited to any:

(A)  Services provided prior to the arrival of an ambulance;


(B)  Rescue or extrication of trapped or injured parties at the scene of a motor

vehicle accident; and

(C)  Lane safety or blocking provided by district equipment.


(II)  For requested or mandated inspections if a fire code is in existence on

June 30, 1981, as specified in paragraph (d) of this subsection (1) or has been adopted thereafter pursuant to said paragraph (d);

(III)  For requested inspections if a fire code has been adopted by the board of

the fire protection district, whether or not the code has been adopted by a municipality or county pursuant to paragraph (d) of this subsection (1);

(f)  In areas of the special district where the county or municipality has

rejected the adoption of a fire code submitted by the fire protection district, to compel the owners of premises, whenever necessary for the protection of public safety, to install fire escapes, fire installations, fireproofing, automatic or other fire alarm apparatus, fire extinguishing equipment, and other safety devices. This paragraph (f) shall not apply when a valid ordinance providing for fire safety standards, pursuant to section 30-15-401.5, C.R.S., is in effect.

(g)  To create and maintain a paid firefighters' pension fund, under the

provisions of parts 2 and 4 of article 30.5 of title 31, C.R.S., subject to the provisions of article 31 of said title, and a volunteer firefighter pension fund under part 11 of article 30 of title 31, C.R.S.;

(h)  To establish, in its discretion, a system of civil service in the fire

protection district to cover its paid employees who are directly employed by the fire protection district as full-time paid firefighters in accordance with the provisions of subsection (2) of this section;

(i) (I)  A fire protection district may establish, in its discretion, a program to

require the removal of vegetative fuel from privately owned real property within the boundaries of the district, and a fire protection district that establishes a program shall adopt policies consistent with the 2024 International Wildland-urban Interface Code, a subsequent code established by the International Code Council, or the standards and codes adopted or issued by the Colorado wildfire resiliency code board. A fire protection district shall coordinate with all applicable local entities as defined in section 37-99-102 (9) when developing a vegetative fuel mitigation program and shall comply with the requirements of section 37-99-103.

(II)  A fire protection district that establishes a program pursuant to section

(1)(i)(I) of this section may assess a fine against an owner or occupier of privately owned real property containing vegetative fuel only in accordance with this subsection (1)(i)(II). An incident covers all vegetative fuel on a property. For each incident of vegetative fuel on a property, a fire protection district must provide to an owner and occupier of the privately owned real property written notice of the requirement to remove vegetative fuel from a property and the amount of a potential fine, and information on possible funding or grant programs to assist owners or occupiers about effective vegetative fuel mitigation, including the Colorado wildfire resilient homes grant, the forest restoration and wildfire risk mitigation grant program, or any other local or state program about effective vegetative fuel mitigation. At least fourteen days after providing a first notice, if the vegetative fuel has not been removed, a district may provide a second written notice to the owner and occupier containing the same information. At least fourteen days after providing a second notice, if the vegetative fuel has not been removed, a district may assess a fine against the owner or occupier by providing written notice of the fine to the owner and occupier by certified mail. The amount of a fine must be approximately equal to the cost of removal of the vegetative fuel on the property and must not exceed two hundred dollars per property per incident. An owner or occupier is not subject to more than one fine for the same incident. The sum of all fines assessed against a single property must not exceed one thousand two hundred dollars. A fine is waived if the owner or occupier removes or causes the removal of the vegetative fuel within fourteen days of receiving notice of an assessment of a fine. A fire protection district may not access any privately owned real property pursuant to this subsection (1)(i)(II) without the written permission of the owner or occupier of the property. An owner or occupier is not liable to a fire protection district for damages to fire protection district personnel or equipment occurring on the privately owned real property while fire protection district personnel or equipment are present on the property to carry out the purposes of this section. A fire protection district may not use a drone to discover vegetative fuel on a property or to administer or enforce this subsection (1)(i).

(III)  A fire protection district that establishes a program pursuant to

subsection (1)(i)(I) of this section must use the money collected from a fine assessed pursuant to this section only to remove vegetative fuel on private real property within the district's jurisdiction. A fire protection district must prioritize use of the money to assist a low-income owner or occupier, a senior owner or occupier, or an owner or occupier with a disability to remove vegetative fuel from the owner or occupier's property.

(IV)  A fire protection district that establishes a program pursuant to

subsection (1)(i)(I) of this section shall establish a process for a person that owns or occupies property that is subject to a fine imposed by the fire protection district pursuant to subsection (1)(i)(II) of this section to file an objection to the fine with the district's board. A district's board may waive the fine in all or in part, in its discretion, if it determines that:

(A)  The fine was not assessed in compliance with subsection (1)(i)(II) of this

section;

(B)  The owner or occupier filing an objection is financially unable to pay all or

a portion of the fine;

(C)  An owner or occupier against which a fine was assessed has removed or

caused the removal of the vegetative fuel after the assessment of the fine; or

(D)  A waiver is appropriate under the circumstances.


(V)  A fire protection district that establishes a program pursuant to

subsection (1)(i)(I) of this section may cause a delinquent charge made or levied to be certified to the treasurer of the county and be collected and paid over by the treasurer of the county in the same manner as taxes are authorized to be by title 31.

(VI)  A fire protection district that establishes a program pursuant to

subsection (1)(i)(I) of this section shall adopt rules and policies after a public hearing, public notice, and the allowance of public comment to implement this subsection (1)(i) and shall post the adopted rules and policies on the district's website, on social media operated by the district, and in a local newspaper of general circulation. A program established pursuant to subsection (1)(i)(I) of this section may only be effective thirty days or more after posting of the adopted rules and policies on the district's website. As part of the adopted rules and policies, a fire protection district shall designate an individual to oversee and manage the program.

(VII)  A fire protection district may waive a fine for delays due to weather or

upon a petition for a time extension from an owner or occupier if an owner or occupier has undertaken good faith efforts to remove the vegetative fuel, at the discretion of the fire protection district. Good faith efforts include documentation from an arborist or licensed professional landscape architect that states when the arborist or licensed professional landscape architect will be able to mitigate the vegetative fuel on a property and the cost of the mitigation. A fire protection district shall grant a time extension to mitigate or pay a fine assessed against the owner or occupier of the property for:

(A)  No longer than three months if the cost to mitigate exceeds one

thousand dollars and is less than two thousand five hundred dollars;

(B)  No longer than six months if the cost to mitigate equals or exceeds two

thousand five hundred dollars and is less than five thousand dollars;

(C)  No longer than nine months if the cost to mitigate equals or exceeds five

thousand dollars and is less than ten thousand dollars; or

(D)  No longer than one year if the cost to mitigate equals or exceeds ten

thousand dollars.

(2) (a)  A fire protection district's civil service system shall not cover

employees of a fire department that renders fire protection service to the fire protection district under contract. The question of establishing a system of civil service shall be submitted at any regular special district election or special election of the fire protection district and shall not become effective unless approved as required for authorization of indebtedness. In establishing a system of civil service, the board may provide for the exclusion of supervisory and administrative personnel from the system. The board shall appropriate such funds as are necessary for the regular special district election or special election from the general funds of the fire protection district, and the election shall be held and conducted as provided in articles 1 to 13.5 of title 1, C.R.S.

(b) (I) (A)  Except as provided in sub-subparagraph (B) of this subparagraph

(I), the board of any fire protection district establishing a system of civil service for its paid employees may appoint three electors residing in the district to serve as a civil service committee, referred to in this subsection (2) as the committee. Of those initially appointed, one member of the committee shall be appointed for a term of two years, one for four years, and one for six years; thereafter, each member shall be appointed for a term of six years.

(B)  When two or more fire protection districts having established civil service

systems consolidate into a single consolidated district pursuant to section 32-1-602, the civil service committee of each of the consolidating districts shall dissolve, and the board of directors of the consolidated district shall appoint at least three but no more than nine members to serve on the civil service committee of the consolidated district. Of those initially appointed, three of the members of the civil service committee of the consolidated district shall serve staggered terms pursuant to sub-subparagraph (A) of this subparagraph (I), and the board shall appoint any other member for a term of six years. Thereafter, each member shall be appointed for a term of six years.

(C)  Any member may be appointed to succeed himself or herself. No paid

firefighter employed by the fire protection district may be a member of the committee. The members of the committee shall serve without compensation but shall be reimbursed for actual and necessary expenses incurred in the discharge of their duties.

(D)  The board of directors of any fire protection district consolidated prior to

July 1, 1996, may expand, by appointment, the membership of its established civil service committee to no more than nine members pursuant to sub-subparagraph (B) of this subparagraph (I). The board shall appoint such members for a term of six years.

(II)  The committee shall elect from among its members a president. The

secretary of the board shall serve as the secretary of the committee but shall have no vote on the committee. The secretary shall keep a record of the minutes of all proceedings of the committee in a bound book separate and apart from the records of the board. The secretary is the only member of the board who may be a member of the committee.

(III)  Any member of the committee may be discharged by the board for

cause, but only after affording the member the right to a public hearing at which the member may be represented by counsel. Vacancies in office on the committee shall be filled according to the provisions of section 1-12-207, C.R.S.

(IV)  The attorney for the board shall act as legal advisor to the committee,

but at all hearings before the committee involving a firefighter, such firefighter may be represented by counsel.

(c)  The committee shall:


(I)  Establish standards for employment and termination of employment,

including minimum conditions of employment for applicants for appointment and promotion, which shall assure that such applicants shall be of good moral character and physically, mentally, and emotionally capable of performing arduous duties, eighteen years of age or older, graduates of a high school or the equivalent thereof, citizens of the United States, and residents of the state of Colorado. In establishing standards concerning a person's character, the committee shall be governed by the provisions of section 24-5-101, C.R.S.

(II)  Recruit applicants for employment; formulate and hold competitive

examinations, or cause the same to be done, in order to determine the relative qualifications of persons seeking employment in any class or position as a firefighter; and formulate and hold promotional examinations for firefighters within the fire department of the fire protection district, or cause the same to be done;

(III)  Certify to the board, as a result of such examinations, lists of qualified

applicants for the various classes of positions who successfully completed such examinations;

(IV)  Determine that any examination held pursuant to subparagraph (II) or (III)

of this paragraph (c) is practical and consists only of subjects which will fairly determine the capacity of persons examined to perform duties of the position sought, including, but not limited to, tests of physical fitness and manual skill;

(V)  When a vacant position is to be filled, certify to the board, upon written

request of the board, the names of the three persons highest on the eligible list for that position or the applicable classification; but if less than three persons are on such list, then all the names shall be certified to the board. If there are no such lists, the committee shall authorize provisional or temporary appointment lists for such position or applicable classification.

(d)  The committee, from time to time, may make, amend, and repeal bylaws

and rules and regulations necessary to administer the provisions of this subsection (2).

(e)  Disciplinary action against any firefighter may be instituted by the chief

of the fire protection district, and a hearing thereon, after reasonable notice, shall be afforded to the firefighter concerned, at which hearing the firefighter may be represented by counsel of his or her choice at his or her expense. Such hearings shall be conducted in the same manner, insofar as possible, as provided in section 24-4-105, C.R.S. Any firefighter aggrieved by the decision of the board may obtain review thereof by appeal to the committee, and on such review the firefighter may be represented by counsel of his or her choice at his or her expense.

(f)  The committee shall hear all complaints involving alleged injustice,

wrongful discharge, and other violations of the rules and regulations of the committee and shall hear all appeals from decisions of the board on disciplinary actions pursuant to paragraph (e) of this subsection (2). All such hearings shall be conducted in the same manner, insofar as possible, as provided in section 24-4-105, C.R.S. The decision of the committee shall be final and shall not be set aside except by the committee or by a court of competent jurisdiction. Judicial review of any decision of the committee may be had in the same manner as prescribed in section 24-4-106, C.R.S.

(g)  The board, if requested by the committee, may contract with any

municipal or state agency for the purpose of conducting examinations for original appointment or for promotion, or for any other purpose in connection with the selection or administration of personnel.

(h)  The firefighters of any fire protection district in good standing at the time

of the establishment of said civil service system shall continue in their employment and rank, shall be automatically included in the civil service system, and shall be promoted or discharged in accordance with the provisions of the civil service rules and regulations; except that the office of fire chief shall be excluded from such civil service system. The board shall make provision for tenure of the fire chief, and the committee shall implement the same by appropriate rules and regulations.

(i)  Any fire protection district which has established a system of civil service

for its paid employees pursuant to this section shall not terminate the system unless the question of termination is submitted at an election. The election shall be conducted pursuant to articles 1 to 13.5 of title 1, C.R.S.

(j)  The board shall appropriate annually, by resolution, to the committee

sufficient funds to administer the provisions of this subsection (2).

(k)  If any county assumes countywide responsibility for fire protection or any

board of county commissioners becomes the board of a fire protection district and adopts a countywide merit, civil service, or career service system, any civil service system established under the provision of this subsection (2) shall be dissolved and merged with such countywide system, including all employees' benefits, rights, liabilities, and duties accrued or incurred under this subsection (2), and the same shall be continued following such merger.

(3) (a)  The chief of the fire department in each fire protection district in the

state of Colorado, by virtue of the office held by the chief, shall have authority over the supervision of all fires within the district; except that responsibility for coordinating fire suppression efforts in case of any prairie, forest, or wildland fire that exceeds the capabilities of the district to control or extinguish shall be transferred to the county sheriff in accordance with section 30-10-513, subject to the duties and obligations imposed by this subsection (3) and subject to the provisions of any relevant plans or agreements. The chief is vested with the other express authority contained in this subsection (3), including commanding the fire department of such district.

(b)  The chief of the fire department in each fire protection district shall:


(I)  Enforce all laws of this state and ordinances and resolutions of the

appropriate political subdivisions relating to the prevention of fires and the suppression of arson;

(II) (A)  Inspect, or cause to be inspected by members or officers of his

department, as often as he shall deem necessary, all buildings, premises, and public places, except the interior of any private dwelling, for the purpose of ascertaining and causing to be corrected any condition liable to cause fire or for the purpose of obtaining information relative to the violation of the various provisions of this subsection (3). Any individual conducting such inspection shall carry on his person properly authorized fire department identification which shall be shown, on request, to the owner, lessee, agent, or occupant of any structure prior to the inspection of the same.

(B)  The chief of any such fire department or fire department members

designated by the chief have the authority to enter into all structures and upon all premises within their respective jurisdictions at reasonable times during business hours or such times as such structures or premises are open for the purpose of examination in conformity with the duties imposed by this subsection (3), and it is unlawful for any person to interfere with the chief of any such fire department, or any member of such fire department designated by the chief to conduct an inspection, in the discharge of his duties or to hinder or prevent him from entering into or upon or from inspecting any buildings, establishments, enclosures, or premises in the discharge of his duties.

(III)  Include, as part of the inspections required by subparagraph (II) of this

paragraph (b), all of the following:

(A)  An inspection of all buildings and enclosures to see that proper

receptacles for ashes are provided, to cause all rubbish or other inflammable material to be properly removed or disposed of, and to make such suggestions and issue such orders to the owners or occupants of buildings as, in the opinion of such inspecting officer, will render the same safe from fire;

(B)  An inspection of the surroundings of boilers and other heating apparatus

in any building to ascertain whether all woodwork is properly protected and that no rubbish or combustible material is allowed to accumulate;

(C)  An inspection of fire escapes and stairways to cause the removal of all

obstructions therefrom and of all places where explosives or inflammable compounds are sold or stored;

(D)  An inspection of the construction, placing, repair, and control of all fire

escapes, standpipes, pressure tanks, fire doors, fire shutters, fire lines, fire hose, sprinkling systems, exit lights, and exit signs and a review of the installation and testing of fire equipment in all buildings and places requiring such equipment and of the provisions for means of escape or protection against loss of life and property from fire in such buildings and places;

(IV)  Enforce, within his respective jurisdiction, all laws of this state and

ordinances and resolutions of any appropriate political subdivision pertaining to the keeping, storage, use, manufacture, sale, handling, transportation, or other disposition of highly inflammable materials and rubbish, gunpowder, dynamite, crude petroleum or any of its products, explosive or inflammable liquids or compounds, tablets, torpedoes, or any explosives of a like nature, or any other explosive, including fireworks and firecrackers, and such chief may prescribe the materials and construction of receptacles to be used for the storage of any of said items; but authorization for enforcement of the provisions of this subsection (3) does not extend to the production, transportation, or storage of inflammable liquids as regulated by articles 20 and 20.5 of title 8 and title 34, C.R.S.;

(V)  Investigate or cause to be investigated the cause, origin, and

circumstance of every fire occurring within his jurisdiction by which property is destroyed or damaged and, so far as is possible, determine whether the fire was the result of carelessness or design. Such investigation shall begin immediately upon the occurrence of the fire, and if, after such investigation, the chief is of the opinion that the facts in relation to such fire indicate that a crime has been committed, he shall present the facts of such investigation and the testimony taken from any person involved, together with any other data in his possession, to the district attorney of the proper county, with his request that the district attorney institute such criminal proceedings as the investigation, testimony, or data may warrant. It is the duty of the district attorney upon such request to assist in such further investigation as may be required.

(c)  Whenever any chief, or any designated member of a fire department,

finds, through inspection procedures as outlined in subparagraph (II) or (III) of paragraph (b) of this subsection (3), any building or other structure which, for want of repair of or lack of or insufficient fire escapes, automatic or other fire alarm apparatus, or fire extinguishing equipment as may be required by law or for reasons of age, dilapidated condition, or any other cause, is especially liable to fire or is hazardous to the safety of the occupants thereof and which is so situated as to endanger other property, and whenever such officer finds in any building combustible or explosive matter or inflammable conditions, dangerous to the safety of such building or its occupants, the chief shall order the same to be removed or remedied, and such order shall forthwith be complied with by the owner, lessee, agent, or occupant of such premises or buildings. Any such owner, lessee, agent, or occupant who feels himself aggrieved by any such order may file, within five days after the making of any such order, a petition with the district court of the county in which such premises or building is located, requesting a review of such order, and it is the duty of such court to hear the same at the first convenient day and to make such order in the premises as justice may require, and such decision shall be final.

(d)  Any owner, lessee, agent, or occupant of any building or premises

maintaining any condition likely to cause fire or to constitute an additional fire hazard or any condition which impedes or prevents the egress of persons from such building or premises in violation of the provisions of this subsection (3) shall be deemed to be maintaining a fire hazard. Any person who violates any provision of this subsection (3) is guilty of a misdemeanor and, upon conviction thereof, shall be punished by a fine of not less than fifty dollars nor more than two hundred fifty dollars. Each day in which such a violation occurs shall constitute a separate violation of this subsection (3).

(4) (a)  Within any fire protection district organized under the provisions of

this article, it is unlawful for any person:

(I)  To willfully or maliciously give, make, or cause to be given or made a false

alarm of fire, whether by the use of a fire alarm box, telephone call, or otherwise;

(II)  To willfully or maliciously disconnect, cut, or sever any wire of the fire

alarm telegraph or in any manner tamper with any part of such communication apparatus;

(III)  To aid, abet, knowingly permit, or participate in the commission of any

act prohibited by this paragraph (a).

(b)  Any person who violates any provision of this subsection (4) commits a

class 2 misdemeanor.

(c)  The provisions of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this subsection (4) shall not

limit the power of municipalities to enact ordinances covering the same or similar subject matter, but no person acquitted of, convicted of, or pleading guilty to a violation of a municipal ordinance shall be charged or tried in a state court for the same or a similar offense, and no person acquitted of, convicted of, or pleading guilty to a violation of paragraph (a) of this subsection (4) in a state court shall be charged or tried in a municipal court for the same or a similar offense.

(5)  The district attorney in the judicial district in which the special district

was organized shall prosecute any violation under subsection (3) or (4) of this section.

Source: L. 81: Entire article R&RE, p. 1591, � 1, effective July 1. L. 85: (1)(d) and

(1)(f) amended, p. 1062, � 2, effective July 1. L. 92: (2)(a), (2)(b)(III), and (2)(i) amended, p. 887, � 126, effective January 1, 1993. L. 95: (1)(g) amended, p. 1386, � 19, effective June 5; (3)(b)(IV) amended, p. 420, � 10, effective July 1. L. 96: (2)(b)(I) amended, p. 247, � 1, effective April 8; (1)(d) amended, p. 283, � 3, effective April 11; (1)(g) amended, p. 943, � 9, effective May 23. L. 97: (1)(h), (2)(b)(IV), (2)(c)(II), (2)(e), and (2)(h) amended, p. 1027, � 59, effective August 6. L. 2009: (3)(a) amended, (SB 09-020), ch. 189, p. 830, � 6, effective April 30; (1)(e)(I) amended, (HB 09-1041), ch. 415, p. 2291, � 1, effective August 5; (3)(a) amended, (SB 09-001), ch. 30, p. 128, � 6, effective August 5. L. 2010: (1)(e)(I)(B) amended, (HB 10-1095), ch. 23, p. 96, � 1, effective August 11. L. 2016: (1)(d.5) added, (HB 16-1088), ch. 259, p. 1061, � 4, effective June 8; (2)(a) and (2)(i) amended, (SB 16-189), ch. 210, p. 788, � 93, effective June 6. L. 2017: IP(1) and (1)(d) amended, (SB 17-222), ch. 245, p. 1028, � 7, effective August 9. L. 2021: (4)(b) amended, (SB 21-271), ch. 462, p. 3257, � 545, effective March 1, 2022. L. 2024: (1)(d.5) and IP(1)(e) amended, (SB 24-194), ch. 230, p. 1413, � 3, effective August 7; (3)(a) amended, (HB 24-1155), ch. 48, p. 172, � 8, effective August 7. L. 2025: (1)(i) added, (HB 25-1009), ch. 42, p. 196, � 3, effective August 6.

Editor's note: (1)  The provisions of this section are similar to provisions of

several former sections as they existed prior to 1981. For a detailed comparison, see the comparative tables located in the back of the index.

(2)  Amendments to subsection (3)(a) by Senate Bill 09-001 and Senate Bill

09-020 were harmonized.

Cross references: (1)  For provisions in title 34 concerning storage of

flammable liquids as referred to in subsection (3)(b)(IV), see article 64 of title 34 concerning underground storage of natural gas.

(2)  For the legislative declaration contained in the 1995 act amending

subsection (1)(g), see section 1 of chapter 254, Session Laws of Colorado 1995. For the legislative declaration in HB 25-1009, see section 1 of chapter 42, Session Laws of Colorado 2025.

(3)  For the short title (Public Safety Fairness Act) in HB 16-1088, see

section 1 of chapter 259, Session Laws of Colorado 2016.


C.R.S. § 32-1-103

32-1-103. Definitions. As used in this article 1, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1)  Ambulance district means a special district which provides emergency

medical services and the transportation of sick, disabled, or injured persons by motor vehicle, aircraft, or other form of transportation to and from facilities providing medical services. For the purpose of this subsection (1), emergency medical services means services engaged in providing initial emergency medical assistance, including, but not limited to, the treatment of trauma and burns and respiratory, circulatory, and obstetrical emergencies.

(1.5)  Board means the board of directors of a special district.


(2)  Court means the district court in any county in which the petition for

organization of the special district was originally filed and which entered the order organizing said district or the district court to which the file pertaining to the special district has been transferred pursuant to section 32-1-303 (1)(b).

(2.5)  Depository institution means:


(a)  A person that is organized or chartered, or is doing business or holds an

authorization certificate, under the laws of a state or of the United States which authorize the person to receive deposits, including deposits in savings, shares, certificates, or other deposit accounts, and that is supervised and examined for the protection of depositors by an official or agency of a state or the United States; and

(b)  A trust company or other institution that is authorized by federal or state

law to exercise fiduciary powers of the type that a national bank is permitted to exercise under the authority of the comptroller of the currency and that is supervised and examined by an official or agency of a state or the United States. The term does not include an insurance company or other organization primarily engaged in the insurance business.

(3)  Director means a member of the board.


(4)  Division means the division of local government in the department of

local affairs.

(4.5)  Early childhood development service district means a special district

created pursuant to article 21 of this title 32 to provide, directly or indirectly, early childhood development services to children from birth through eight years of age.

(5) (a)  Eligible elector means a person who, at the designated time or

event, is registered to vote pursuant to the Uniform Election Code of 1992, articles 1 to 13 of title 1, C.R.S., and:

(I)  Who is a resident of the special district or the area to be included in the

special district; or

(II)  Who, or whose spouse or civil union partner, owns taxable real or

personal property situated within the boundaries of the special district or the area to be included in the special district, whether said person resides within the special district or not.

(b)  A person who is obligated to pay taxes under a contract to purchase

taxable property situated within the boundaries of the special district or the area to be included within the special district shall be considered an owner within the meaning of this subsection (5).

(c)  Repealed.


(d)  For all elections and petitions that require ownership of real property or

land, the ownership of a mobile home as defined in section 38-12-201.5 (5) or 5-1-301 (29), or a manufactured home as defined in section 42-1-102 (48.8), is sufficient to qualify as ownership of real property or land for the purpose of voting rights and petitions.

(e)  In the event that the board, by resolution, ends business personal

property taxation by the district pursuant to subsection (8)(b) of section 20 of article X of the state constitution, persons owning such property and spouses or civil union partners of such persons shall not be eligible electors of the district on the basis of ownership of such property.

(6)  Repealed.


(6.5)  Financial institution or institutional investor means any of the

following, whether acting for itself or others in a fiduciary capacity:

(a)  A depository institution;


(b)  An insurance company;


(c)  A separate account of an insurance company;


(d)  An investment company registered under the federal Investment

Company Act of 1940;

(e)  A business development company as defined in the federal Investment

Company Act of 1940;

(f)  Any private business development company as defined in the federal

Investment Company Act of 1940;

(g)  An employee pension, profit-sharing, or benefit plan if the plan has total

assets in excess of five million dollars or its investment decisions are made by a named fiduciary, as defined in the federal Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, that is a broker-dealer registered under the federal Securities Exchange Act of 1934, an investment adviser registered or exempt from registration under the federal Investment Advisers Act of 1940, a depository institution, or an insurance company;

(h)  An entity, but not an individual, a substantial part of whose business

activities consists of investing, purchasing, selling, or trading in securities of more than one issuer and not of its own issue and that has total assets in excess of five million dollars as of the end of its last fiscal year; and

(i)  A small business investment company licensed by the federal small

business administration under the federal Small Business Investment Act of 1958.

(7)  Fire protection district means a special district which provides

protection against fire by any available means and which may supply ambulance and emergency medical and rescue services.

(7.5)  Forest improvement district means a special district created pursuant

to article 18 of this title that protects communities from wildfires and improves the condition of forests in the district.

(8)  Governing body means a city council or board of trustees and includes

a body or board where the operation and management of service is under the control of a municipal body or board other than a city council or board of trustees.

(8.5)  Health assurance district means a special district that is created to

organize, operate, control, direct, manage, contract for, furnish, or provide, directly or indirectly, health-care services to residents of the district and family members of such residents who are in need of such services.

(9)  Health service district means a special district that may establish,

maintain, or operate, directly or indirectly through lease to or from other parties or other arrangement, public hospitals, convalescent centers, nursing care facilities, intermediate care facilities, emergency facilities, community clinics, or other facilities licensed or certified pursuant to section 25-1.5-103 (1)(a), C.R.S., providing health and personal care services and may organize, own, operate, control, direct, manage, contract for, or furnish ambulance service.

(9.3)  Inactive special district means a special district in a predevelopment

stage that has no residents other than those who lived within the district boundaries prior to the formation of the district, no business or commercial ventures or facilities within its boundaries, has not issued any general obligation or revenue debt and does not have any financial obligations outstanding or contracts in effect that require performance by the district during the time the district is inactive, has not imposed a mill levy for tax collection in that fiscal year, anticipates no receipt of revenue and has no planned expenditures, except for statutory compliance, in that fiscal year, has no operation or maintenance responsibility for any facilities, has initially filed a notice of inactive status pursuant to section 32-1-104 (3), and, each year thereafter, has filed a notice of continuing inactive status pursuant to section 32-1-104 (4).

(9.5)  Mental health-care service district means a special district created

pursuant to this article to provide, directly or indirectly, mental health-care services to residents of the district who are in need of mental health-care services and to family members of such residents.

(10)  Metropolitan district means a special district that provides for the

inhabitants thereof any two or more of the following services:

(a)  Fire protection;


(b)  Mosquito control;


(c)  Parks and recreation;


(d)  Safety protection;


(e)  Sanitation;


(f)  Solid waste disposal facilities or collection and transportation of solid

waste;

(g)  Street improvement;


(h)  Television relay and translation;


(i)  Transportation;


(j)  Water.


(11)  Municipality means a municipality as defined in section 31-1-101 (6),

C.R.S.

(12)  Net effective interest rate means the net interest cost of securities

issued by a public body divided by the sum of the products derived by multiplying the principal amount of the securities maturing on each maturity date by the number of years from their date to their respective maturities. In all cases, net effective interest rate shall be computed without regard to any option of redemption prior to the designated maturity dates of the securities.

(13)  Net interest cost means the total amount of interest to accrue on

securities issued by a public body from their date to their respective maturities, less the amount of any premium above par, or plus the amount of any discount below par, at which said securities are being or have been sold. In all cases net interest cost shall be computed without regard to any option of redemption prior to the designated maturity dates of the securities.

(13.5)  Nonprofit entity means a person that is registered as an exempt

charitable organization pursuant to 26 U.S.C. sec. 501 (c)(3) and that is exempt from taxation pursuant to 26 U.S.C. sec. 501 (a) of the federal Internal Revenue Code of 1986.

(14)  Park and recreation district means a special district which provides

parks or recreational facilities or programs within said district.

(14.3)  Privately owned real property or property means privately owned

real property that is not classified as agricultural land by the tax assessor. Privately owned real property or property does not mean privately owned real property owned by a nonprofit entity that is leased for agricultural purposes. Privately owned real property or property does not mean real property owned or occupied by a public utility that has a vegetation management or wildfire mitigation plan to address vegetative fuel sources or real property adjacent to a ditch that conveys decreed water rights or within the appurtenant easement within which the ditch is located.

(14.5)  Property owners list means the list furnished by the county assessor

in accordance with section 1-5-304, 1-13.5-204, or 1-13.5-1105 (2)(a) and (2)(b) showing each property owner within the district, as shown on a deed or contract of record.

(15)  Publication means printing one time, in one newspaper of general

circulation in the special district or proposed special district if there is such a newspaper, and, if not, then in a newspaper in the county in which the special district or proposed special district is located. For a special district with territory within more than one county, if publication cannot be made in one newspaper of general circulation in the special district, then one publication is required in a newspaper in each county in which the special district is located and in which the special district also has fifty or more eligible electors.

(16)  Quorum means more than one-half of the number of directors serving

on the board of a special district.

(17)  Regular special district election means the election on the Tuesday

succeeding the first Monday of May in every odd-numbered year, held for the purpose of electing members to the boards of special districts and for submission of other public questions, if any.

(17.5)  (Deleted by amendment, L. 92, p. 874, � 105, effective January 1, 1993.)


(18)  Sanitation district means a special district that provides for storm or

sanitary sewers, or both, flood and surface drainage, treatment and disposal works and facilities, or solid waste disposal facilities or waste services, and all necessary or proper equipment and appurtenances incident thereto.

(19)  Secretary means the secretary of the board.


(19.5)  Solid waste shall have the same definition as specified in section 30-20-101 (6), C.R.S.


(20)  Special district means any quasi-municipal corporation and political

subdivision organized or acting pursuant to the provisions of this article. Special district does not include any entity organized or acting pursuant to the provisions of article 8 of title 29, article 20 of title 30, article 25 of title 31, or articles 41 to 50 of title 37, C.R.S.

(21)  Special election means any election called by the board for submission

of public questions and other matters. The election shall be held on the first Tuesday after the first Monday in February, May, October, or December, in November of even-numbered years or on the first Tuesday in November of odd-numbered years. Any special district may petition a district court judge who has jurisdiction in such district for permission to hold a special election on a day other than those specified in this subsection (21). The district court judge may grant permission only upon a finding that an election on the days specified would be impossible or impracticable or upon a finding that an unforeseeable emergency would require an election on a day other than those specified.

(22)  Taxable property means real or personal property subject to general

ad valorem taxes. Taxable property does not include the ownership of property on which a specific ownership tax is paid pursuant to law.

(23) (a)  Taxpaying elector means an eligible elector of a special district

who, or whose spouse or civil union partner, owns taxable real or personal property within the special district or the area to be included in or excluded from the special district, whether the person resides within the special district or not.

(b)  A person who is obligated to pay taxes under a contract to purchase

taxable property within the special district shall be considered an owner within the meaning of this subsection (23).

(c)  For all elections and petitions that require ownership of real property or

land, the ownership of a mobile home as defined in section 38-12-201.5 (5) or 5-1-301 (29), or a manufactured home as defined in section 42-1-102 (48.8), is sufficient to qualify as ownership of real property or land for the purpose of voting rights and petitions.

(23.2)  Tunnel means one or more holes under or through the ground,

mountains, rock formations, or other natural or man-made material, including roads, railroads, pipelines, and other means of transporting vehicles, people, or goods through any such tunnel, whether located in the tunnel or, to the extent the same connects the tunnel to other similar facilities, located outside the tunnel. Tunnel also means any ventilation, drainage, and support facilities, toll collection facilities, administrative facilities, and other facilities necessary or convenient to the acquisition, construction, improvement, equipping, operation, or maintenance of the tunnel or to the operation of the tunnel district, whether located within or without the tunnel.

(23.5)  Tunnel district means a special district which provides a tunnel.


(23.7)  Vegetative fuel means any dead plant material that can burn and

contribute to a fire, including leaves, grass, shrubs, ground litter, dead leaves, and fallen pine needles.

(24)  Water and sanitation district means a special district which provides

both water district and sanitation district services.

(25)  Water district means a special district which supplies water for

domestic and other public and private purposes by any available means and provides all necessary or proper reservoirs, treatment works and facilities, equipment, and appurtenances incident thereto.

Source: L. 81: Entire article R&RE, p. 1543, � 1, effective July 1. L. 82: (5)(d)

and (23)(c) added, p. 546, �� 5, 6, effective April 15. L. 83: (1) R&RE and (1.5) added, p. 412, �� 2, 3, effective June 1. L. 85: (20) amended, p. 1097, � 1, effective April 30; (21) amended, p. 1027, � 4, effective July 1; IP(5)(a) and (5)(a)(I) amended and (14.5) and (17.5) added, p. 1083, � 1, effective July 1, 1986. L. 86: (5)(c) repealed and (21) amended, pp. 1068, 814, �� 3, 6, effective July 1. L. 87: (23.2) and (23.5) added, p. 1232, � 1, effective May 13; IP(5)(a), (5)(a)(I), (5)(b), and (14.5) amended, p. 333, � 100, effective July 1. L. 89: (6) repealed, p. 1135, � 85, effective July 1. L. 90: (5)(d) amended, p. 1848, � 46, effective May 31. L. 91: (2.5) and (6.5) added, p. 780, � 2, effective June 4. L. 92: IP(5)(a), (17), (17.5), (21), and (23)(a) amended, p. 874, � 105, effective January 1, 1993. L. 93: (5)(a)(I) and (21) amended, p. 1438, � 133, effective July 1. L. 94: (5)(d) and (23)(c) amended, p. 706, � 10, effective April 19; (14.5) and (15) amended, p. 1194, � 97, effective July 1; (5)(a)(I) amended, p. 1775, � 45, effective January 1, 1995; (5)(d) and (23)(c) amended, p. 2565, � 79, effective January 1, 1995. L. 96: (5)(e) added and (9) and (14.5) amended, pp. 1771, 470, �� 72, 1, 73, effective July 1. L. 98: (10) and (18) amended and (19.5) added, p. 1069, � 1, effective June 1. L. 2001: (5)(d) and (23)(c) amended, p. 1276, � 42, effective June 5. L. 2003: (9) amended, p. 715, � 58, effective July 1. L. 2005: (9.5) added, p. 1035, � 1, effective June 2. L. 2007: (7.5) added, p. 425, � 1, effective April 9; (8.5) added, p. 1186, � 1, effective July 1. L. 2009: (20) amended, (SB 09-292), ch. 369, p. 1979, � 109, effective August 5. L. 2010: (9.3) added, (HB 10-1362), ch. 360, p. 1710, � 1, effective August 11. L. 2014: (5)(a), (5)(e), and (23)(a) amended, (HB 14-1164), ch. 2, p. 70, � 29, effective February 18. L. 2018: IP and (17) amended, (HB 18-1039), ch. 29, p. 330, � 3, effective July 1, 2022. L. 2019: IP amended and (4.5) added, (HB 19-1052), ch. 72, p. 257, � 1, effective August 2. L. 2020: (5)(d) and (23)(c) amended, (HB 20-1196), ch. 195, p. 927, � 18, effective June 30. L. 2021: (14.5) amended, (SB 21-160), ch. 133, p. 538, � 6, effective September 7. L. 2022: (5)(d) and (23)(c) amended, (SB 22-212), ch. 421, p. 2982, � 73, effective August 10. L. 2025: (13.5), (14.3), and (23.7) added, (HB 25-1009), ch. 42, p. 196, � 2, effective August 6.

Editor's note: (1)  The provisions of this section are similar to provisions of

several former sections as they existed prior to 1981. For a detailed comparison, see the comparative tables located in the back of the index.

(2)  Amendments to subsection (5)(d) by Senate Bill 94-092 and Senate Bill

94-001 were harmonized. Amendments to subsection (23)(c) by Senate Bill 94-092 and Senate Bill 94-001 were harmonized.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in HB 14-1164, see section 1

of chapter 2, Session Laws of Colorado 2014. For the legislative declaration in HB 25-1009, see section 1 of chapter 42, Session Laws of Colorado 2025.


C.R.S. § 32-18-108

32-18-108. Use of revenue. (1) The board may use the revenue received pursuant to section 32-18-106 to:

(a)  Plan and implement forest improvement projects in wildland-urban interface

areas, including projects to reduce hazardous fuels and protect communities, in cooperation with the state forest service, the division of parks and wildlife in the department of natural resources, conservation districts created pursuant to article 70 of title 35, C.R.S., the United States forest service, and the federal bureau of land management and other agencies in the United States department of the interior;

(b)  Establish financial incentives for private landowners to mitigate wildfire risks on

their property, including reimbursement of expenses pursuant to section 32-18-109;

(c)  Establish incentives for local wood products industries to improve the use of or

add value to small-diameter or beetle-infested trees;

(d)  Match state and federal grants for bioheating conversion and infrastructure

support for biomass collection and delivery;

(e)  Assist the state forest service in ensuring that all communities at risk of wildfire

within the district have adopted a community wildfire protection plan and are using appropriate planning, education, and outreach tools; and

(f)  Conduct or participate in forest health projects, as defined in section 37-95-103

(4.9).

Source: L. 2007: Entire article added, p. 429, � 2, effective April 9. L. 2021: (1)(d)

and (1)(e) amended and (1)(f) added, (HB 21-1008), ch. 159, p. 907, � 8, effective May 20.


C.R.S. § 32-20-103

32-20-103. Definitions. As used in this article 20, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1)  Board means the board of directors of the district.


(1.5)  Commercial building means any real property other than a residential

building containing fewer than five dwelling units and includes any other improvement or connected land that is billed with the improvement for purposes of ad valorem property taxation.

(2)  District means the Colorado new energy improvement district created in

section 32-20-104 (1).

(3)  District member means a qualified applicant whose application to join the

district, receive reimbursement or a direct payment, and consent to the levying of a special assessment is approved by the district.

(4)  Eligible real property means a residential or commercial building, located

within a county in which the district has been authorized to conduct the program as required by section 32-20-105 (3), on which or in which a new energy improvement to be financed by the district has been or will be completed.

(4.5)  Embodied carbon improvement means one or more installations or

modifications to real property using eligible materials, as defined in section 24-92-118 (2)(b), that result in the reduction of the installation's or modification's embodied emissions as established in policies created by the Colorado energy office, created in section 24-38.5-101, and in consultation with the office of the state architect.

(5)  Energy efficiency improvement means one or more installations or

modifications to eligible real property that are designed to reduce the energy consumption of the property and includes, but is not limited to, the following:

(a)  Insulation in walls, roofs, floors, and foundations and in heating and cooling

distribution systems;

(b)  Storm windows and doors, multiglazed windows and doors, heat-absorbing or

heat-reflective glazed and coated window and door systems, additional glazing, reductions in glass area, and other window and door system modifications that reduce energy consumption;

(c)  Automatic energy control systems;


(d)  Heating, ventilating, or air conditioning and distribution system modifications or

replacements in a building;

(e)  Caulking and weatherstripping;


(f)  Replacement or modification of lighting fixtures to increase the energy

efficiency of the system;

(g)  Energy recovery systems;


(h)  Daylighting systems;


(i)  Electric vehicle charging equipment added to the building or its associated

parking area; and

(j)  Any other modification, installation, or remodeling approved as a utility cost-savings measure by the district, including water conservation fixtures, both indoor

and outdoor and for both hot and cold water.

(5.2)  Financing agreement means an agreement between a qualified applicant

and an entity providing private third-party financing pursuant to section 32-20-105 (3)(h).

(6)  Loan balance means the outstanding principal balance of loans secured by a

mortgage or deed of trust with a first or second lien on eligible real property.

(7)  New energy improvement means one or more on-site energy efficiency

improvements, embodied carbon improvements, renewable energy improvements, resiliency improvements, or water efficiency improvements made to eligible real property that will reduce the energy consumption of or add energy produced from renewable energy sources with regard to any portion of the eligible real property.

(8)  Program means the new energy improvement program established by the

district in accordance with section 32-20-105.

(9)  Program administrator or administrator means an entity hired by the district

to administer the program on behalf of the district to the extent specified in a contract between the district and the administrator. Neither the district nor its program administrator shall offer rebates for the purchase of renewable energy credits. The district's activities shall be limited to funding new energy improvements and to marketing that funding.

(10)  Qualified applicant means a person who:


(a)  Repealed.


(b)  Timely submits to the district a complete application, which notes the existence

of any first priority mortgage or deed of trust on the eligible real property and the identity of the holder thereof, to join the district, have the eligible real property included in the district's boundaries, receive reimbursement or a direct payment, and consent to the levying of a special assessment on the property. Within thirty days of a person's submission of an application to the district, the district shall provide written notice to the holder of any first priority mortgage or deed of trust on the eligible real property that the person is participating in the district.

(c)  Meets any standard of credit-worthiness that the district may establish.


(11)  Reimbursement or a direct payment means the payment by the district to a

district member, or on behalf of a district member to a contractor that has completed a new energy improvement to the district member's eligible real property, of all or a portion of the cost of completing a new energy improvement. Utility rebates offered to program participants by a qualifying retail utility for the purpose of compliance with renewable energy targets established in section 40-2-124, C.R.S., are subject to the retail rate impact cap established pursuant to section 40-2-124 (1)(g)(I), C.R.S.

(12)  Renewable energy improvement means one or more fixtures, products,

systems, or devices, or an interacting group of fixtures, products, systems, or devices, that directly benefit eligible real property through a qualified community location, as defined in section 30-20-602 (4.3), C.R.S., enacted by Senate Bill 10-100, enacted in 2010, or that are installed behind the meter of any eligible real property and that produce energy from renewable resources, including but not limited to photovoltaic, solar thermal, small wind, low-impact hydroelectric, biomass, fuel cell, or geothermal systems such as ground source heat pumps, as may be approved by the district; except that no renewable energy improvement shall be authorized that interferes with a right held by a public utility under a certificate issued by the public utilities commission under article 5 of title 40, C.R.S. Nothing in this article shall limit the right of a public utility, subject to article 3 or 3.5 of title 40, C.R.S., or section 40-9.5-106, C.R.S., to assess fees for the use of its facilities or modify or expand the net metering limitations established in sections 40-9.5-118 and 40-2-124 (7), C.R.S. Primary jurisdiction to hear any disputes as to whether a renewable energy improvement interferes with such a right shall lie:

(a)  In the case of a regulated utility, with the public utilities commission; and


(b)  In the case of a municipally-owned electric utility, with the governing body of

the municipality.

(13)  Residential building means an improvement to real property that is designed

for use predominantly as a place of residency. The term also includes any other improvement or connected land that is billed with the improvement for purposes of ad valorem property taxation.

(13.5) (a)  Resiliency improvement means one or more installations or

modifications to eligible real property, with a useful life not less than ten years, that are designed to improve a property's resiliency by improving the eligible real property's:

(I)  Structural integrity for seismic events;


(II)  Indoor air quality;


(III)  Durability to resist wind, fire, and flooding;


(IV)  Ability to withstand an electrical power outage;


(V)  Storm water control measures, including structural or nonstructural measures

to mitigate storm water runoff;

(VI)  Ability to mitigate the effects of extreme temperatures; and


(VII)  Ability to mitigate any other environmental hazard identified by the Colorado

department of public health and environment.

(b)  The district shall develop guidelines that detail the requirements for an

installation or modification identified in subsection (13.5)(a) of this section to qualify as a resiliency improvement.

(14)  Special assessment or assessment means a charge levied by the district

against eligible real property specially benefited by a new energy improvement for which the district has made or will make reimbursement or a direct payment that is proportional to the benefit received from the new energy improvement and does not exceed the estimated amount of special benefits received or the full cost of completing the new energy improvement.

(15)  Special assessment bond or bond means any bond, note, interim certificate,

loan agreement, contract, or other evidence of borrowing of the district issued by the district pursuant to this article that is payable, in whole or in part, from revenues generated by special assessments levied as authorized in this article and, at the discretion of the board, from any other legally available source of moneys lawfully pledged for their repayment.

(16) (a)  Water efficiency improvement means one or more installations or

modifications to eligible real property that are designed to improve water efficiency by:

(I)  Reducing water consumption; or


(II)  Conserving or remediating water, in whole or in part, on the eligible real

property.

(b)  The district shall develop guidelines that detail the requirements for an

installation or modification identified in subsection (16)(a) of this section to qualify as a water efficiency improvement.

Source: L. 2010: Entire article added, (HB 10-1328), ch. 426, p. 2204, � 1, effective

June 11. L. 2013: (1.5) and (5)(j) added, (4), IP(5), (5)(f), (5)(h), (5)(i), (7), (11), IP(12), and (14) amended, and (10)(a) repealed, (SB 13-212), ch. 347, p. 2013, � 2, effective May 28. L. 2014: (5)(j) amended, (SB 14-171), ch. 195, p. 718, � 1, effective August 6. L. 2023: (5.2), (13.5), and (16) added and (7) amended, (HB 23-1005), ch. 12, p. 34, � 1, effective August 7. L. 2025: IP and (7) amended and (4.5) added, (SB 25-182), ch. 277, p. 1441, � 2, effective August 6.

Cross references: (1)  In 2013, subsections (1.5) and (5)(j) were added, subsection

(4), the introductory portion to subsection (5), subsections (5)(f), (5)(h), (5)(i), (7), and (11), the introductory portion to subsection (12), and subsection (14) were amended, and subsection (10)(a) was repealed by the New Energy Jobs Act of 2013. For the short title, see section 1 of chapter 347, Session Laws of Colorado 2013.

(2)  For the legislative declaration in SB 25-182, see section 1 of chapter 277,

Session Laws of Colorado 2025.


C.R.S. § 32-4-502

32-4-502. Definitions. As used in this part 5, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1)  Acquisition or acquire means the purchase, construction,

reconstruction, lease, gift, transfer, assignment, option to purchase, grant from the federal government, from any public body, or from any person, endowment, bequest, devise, installation, condemnation, other contract, or other acquirement, or any combination thereof, of facilities, other property, any project, or an interest therein authorized in this part 5.

(2)  Board of directors or board means the board of directors of a

metropolitan sewage disposal district.

(3)  Clerk means that official of a municipality or a district who performs

duties ordinarily performed by a city clerk, town clerk, or a secretary of a corporation.

(4)  Compensating reservoir means the structures, facilities, and

appurtenances for the impounding, transportation, and release of water for the replenishment or replacement in periods of drought or at other necessary times of all or a part of waters in or bordering the state diverted into any sewer, sewer system, intercepting sewer, or sewage disposal system appertaining to a district.

(5)  Condemnation or condemn means the acquisition by the exercise of

the power of eminent domain of property for any facilities, other property, project, or an interest therein, authorized in this part 5. A district may exercise in the state the power of eminent domain, either within or without the district, and in the manner provided by law for the condemnation of private property for public use may take any property necessary to carry out any of the objects or purposes hereof, whether such property is already devoted to the same use by any municipality or other public body or otherwise, and may condemn any existing works or improvements used in the district. The power of eminent domain vested in the board shall include the power to condemn, in the name of the district, either the fee simple or any lesser estate or interest in any real property which the board by resolution determines is necessary for carrying out the purposes of this part 5. A district shall not abandon any condemnation proceedings subsequent to the date upon which it has taken possession of the property being acquired. In the event the construction of any sewage disposal system or project authorized in this part 5, or any part thereof, makes necessary the removal and relocation of any public utilities, whether on private or public right-of-way, the district shall reimburse the owner of such public utility facility for the expense of such removal and relocation, including the cost of any necessary land or rights in land.

(6)  Cost or cost of any project, or words of similar import mean in addition

to the usual connotations thereof, the cost of acquisition or improvement and equipment of all or any part of a sewage disposal system and of all or any property, rights, easements, privileges, agreements, and franchises deemed by the district to be necessary or useful and convenient therefor or in connection therewith, including interest or discount on bonds, cost of issuance of bonds, engineering and inspection costs, and legal expenses, cost of financial, professional, and other estimates and advice, contingencies, any administrative, operating, and other expenses of the district prior to and during such acquisition or improvement and equipment, and additionally during a period of not exceeding one year after the completion thereof, as may be estimated and determined by the board in any resolution authorizing the issuance of any securities or other instrument appertaining thereto or in any contract with any municipality, or otherwise, and all such other expenses as may be necessary or incident to the financing, acquisition, improvement, equipment, and completion of said sewage disposal system or part thereof and the placing of the same in operation, and also such provision or reserves for working capital, operation, maintenance, or replacement expenses or for payment or security of principal of or interest on any securities during or after such acquisition or improvement and equipment as the district may determine, and also reimbursements to the district or any municipality or person of any moneys theretofore expended for the purposes of the district or to any municipality or other public body or the federal government of any moneys theretofore expended for or in connection with sanitation facilities.

(7)  Disposal or dispose means the sale, destruction, razing, loan, lease,

gift, grant, transfer, assignment, mortgage, option to sell, other contract, or other disposition, or any combination thereof, of facilities, other property, any project, or an interest therein authorized in this part 5.

(8)  District means a metropolitan sewage disposal district formed under

the provisions of this part 5 or as changed from time to time. A district formed under this part 5 shall not be considered a political subdivision for the purposes of section 8-3-104 (12), C.R.S.

(9)  Engineer means any engineer regularly employed by the district or any

competent engineer or firm or association of engineers employed by the district in connection with any facility, property, project, or power authorized in this part 5.

(10)  Equipment or equip means the furnishing of all necessary or

desirable, related or appurtenant, machinery and other facilities, or any combination thereof, appertaining to any property, project, or interest therein authorized in this part 5.

(11)  Executive means the chief executive elected official of a municipality

as defined in subsection (19) of this section by whatever name he may be designated.

(12)  Federal government means the United States, or any agency,

instrumentality, or corporation thereof.

(13)  Governing body means the city council of a city or of a city and county,

the board of trustees of an incorporated town, the board of directors of a sanitation district or of a water and sanitation district, or the governing body of any other municipality by law authorized to impose the obligations contemplated by this part 5, regardless of how the governing body may be designated.

(14)  Herein, hereby, hereunder, hereof, hereto, hereinabove,

hereinbefore, and hereinafter refer to this metropolitan sewage disposal district law and not solely to the particular portion thereof in which such word is used.

(15)  Improvement or improve means the extension, betterment,

alteration, reconstruction, replacement, repair, or other improvement, or any combination thereof, of facilities, other property, any project, or an interest therein authorized in this part 5.

(16)  Industrial wastes means liquid or other wastes resulting from any

process of industry, manufacture, trade, or business or from the development of any natural resource.

(17)  Intercepting sewer is considered as only such sewer and

appurtenances thereto as may be necessary to intercept and transport the outfalls from the sewer systems of the municipalities included within the boundaries of the district.

(18)  Metropolitan sewage disposal district means a district organized

under this part 5 either as originally organized or as changed from time to time.

(19)  Municipality means a city, a city and county, an incorporated town, a

sanitation district, or a water and sanitation district, and any other political subdivision or public entity created under the laws of the state of Colorado having specific boundaries within which it is authorized to provide sewer service for the area within its boundaries, other than a metropolitan sewage disposal district.

(20)  Ordinance means the formal action taken by a governing body, as

defined in subsection (13) of this section, whether it is in the form of an ordinance, resolution, or other form.

(21)  Person means any individual, association, corporation, or the federal

government, or any public body other than a municipality, and excluding a district.

(22)  Pollution or pollute means the condition of water resulting from the

introduction therein of substances of a kind and in quantities rendering it detrimental or immediately or potentially dangerous to the public health, or unfit for public or commercial use.

(23)  Project means any public structure, facility, or undertaking or sewage

disposal system which a district is authorized in this part 5 to acquire, improve, equip, maintain, and operate. A project may consist of all kinds of personal and real property. Any project of a district shall appertain to a sewage disposal system as defined in subsection (31) of this section and authorized by this part 5.

(24)  Property means real property and personal property.


(25)  Public body means the state of Colorado, or any agency,

instrumentality, or corporation thereof, or any county, municipality, or other city or town, or other type of quasi-municipal district, or any other political subdivision of the state, excluding a metropolitan sewage disposal district and excluding the federal government.

(26)  Publication means three consecutive weekly publications in at least

one newspaper having general circulation in the district. It shall not be necessary that an advertisement be made on the same day of the week in each of the three weeks, but not less than fourteen days, excluding the day of first publication but including the day of the last publication, shall intervene between the first publication and the last publication, and publication shall be complete on the date of the last publication.

(27)  Real property means:


(a)  Land, including land under water;


(b)  Buildings, structures, fixtures, and improvements on land;


(c)  Any property appurtenant to or used in connection with land;


(d)  Water and water rights appertaining to any project;


(e)  Every estate, interest, privilege, easement, franchise, and right in land,

legal or equitable, including, without limiting the generality of the foregoing, rights-of-way, terms for years, and liens, charges or encumbrances by way of judgment, mortgage, or otherwise, and the indebtedness secured by such liens.

(28)  Securities means any bonds, interim receipts or certificates, warrants,

debentures, notes, or other obligations of a district or any public body appertaining to any project, or interest therein, authorized in this part 5, or otherwise.

(29)  Service charges are the rents, rates, fees, tolls, or other charges for

direct or indirect connection with, or the use or services of, a sewage disposal system or sewer system, as more specifically provided in section 32-4-522 and elsewhere in this part 5.

(30)  Sewage means the water-carried wastes created in and carried, or to

be carried, away from residences, hotels, apartments, schools, hospitals, industrial establishments, or any other public or private building, together with such surface or groundwater and industrial wastes as are present.

(31)  Sewage disposal system includes any one or all or any combination of

the following: Any sewage treatment plant, sewage treatment works, sewage disposal facilities, connections and outfalls, intercepting sewers, outfall sewers, force mains, conduits, pipelines, water lines, pumping and ventilating plants or stations, compensating reservoirs, other plants, structures, facilities, equipment, and appurtenances useful or convenient for the interception, transportation, treatment, purification, or disposal of sewage, liquid wastes, solid wastes, night soil, and industrial wastes, and all necessary lands, interest in lands, easements, and water rights.

(31.5)  Sewer connection means any physical connection to a sewage

disposal system or sewer system, whether direct or indirect, of a residence building, dwelling, dwelling unit, or other building, including individual units of multiple unit dwellings such as condominiums, townhouses, multiplexes, and apartment buildings.

(32)  Sewer system means a system provided by a municipality to provide

sewer service to its inhabitants to the point of its connection with a sewage disposal system as defined in subsection (31) of this section which intercepts, receives, transports, treats, and disposes of the outfalls from such sewer systems.

(32.5)  Single-family equivalent means the capacity of sewer service or

water service required for a single-family household. For a multiple unit dwelling, each single-family household within such a dwelling shall be considered as having one single-family equivalent.

(33)  State means the state of Colorado, or any agency, instrumentality, or

corporation thereof.

(34)  Taxation or tax means general ad valorem taxes.


(35)  Taxpaying elector and eligible elector of a district have the

meanings, respectively, as specified in section 32-1-103; except that, to qualify as a taxpaying elector or as an eligible elector for the purposes of this part 5, a person must also be a resident of a municipality, as defined in subsection (19) of this section.

Source: L. 60: p. 162, � 12. CRS 53: � 89-15-2. L. 62: pp. 180, 182, �� 1, 2.

C.R.S. 1963: � 89-15-2. L. 70: p. 286, � 84. L. 81: (31.5) and (32.5) added, p. 1637, � 1, effective May 18; (35) amended, p. 1624, � 24, effective July 1. L. 92: (35) amended, p. 894, � 137, effective January 1, 1993.


C.R.S. § 32-4-536

32-4-536. Connections with existing drains and pumping stations. In order to carry out and effectuate its purposes, every district is authorized to enter upon and use and connect with any existing public drains, sewers, conduits, pipe lines, pumping and ventilating stations, and treatment plants or works, or any other public property of a similar nature within the district, and, if deemed necessary by the district, close off and seal outlets and outfalls therefrom. No district shall, in the absence of a contract so authorizing take permanent possession or make permanent use of any such treatment plant or works unless it acquires the same as provided in this part 5.

Source: L. 62: p. 219, � 14. C.R.S. 1963: � 89-15-35.

C.R.S. § 32-7-111

32-7-111. Designation of services. (1) Subject to local authorization as provided in section 32-7-112, local governing bodies, by resolution, or the people, by petition, or the service authority organizational commission, if such services are not designated by the resolution or petition for formation prior to formation, or the board after formation, may, by resolution, initiate one or more of the following services or combinations thereof:

(a)  Domestic water collection, treatment, and distribution;


(b)  Urban drainage and flood control;


(c)  Sewage collection, treatment, and disposal;


(d)  Public surface transportation;


(e)  Collection of solid waste, but the service authority shall not collect solid

waste except on a finding by the board that existing solid waste collection service is inadequate. Such finding shall be in addition to the concurrent majority requirement of section 32-7-112 (1)(a).

(f)  Disposal of solid waste;


(g)  Parks and recreation;


(h)  Libraries;


(i)  Fire protection;


(j)  Hospitals, including convalescent nursing homes, ambulance services,

and any other health and medical care facilities or services;

(k)  Museums, zoos, art galleries, theaters, and other cultural facilities or

services;

(l)  Housing;


(m)  Weed and pest control;


(n)  Central purchasing, computer services, equipment pool, and any other

management services for local governments, including procurement of supplies; acquisition, management, maintenance, and disposal of property and equipment; legal services; special communication systems; or any other similar services to local governments which are directly related to improving the efficiency or operation of local governments;

(o)  Local gas or electric services or heating and cooling services from

geothermal resources, solar or wind energy, hydroelectric or renewable biomass resources, including waste and cogenerated heat; except that no facilities of a municipally owned utility shall be combined with the facilities of another municipally owned utility without its consent and except that neither the initiation nor rendering of local gas and electric services under this paragraph (o) shall interfere with, impair, or otherwise affect any franchise, certificate of public convenience and necessity, or the services being rendered by any other supplier operating subject to the jurisdiction of the public utilities commission of the state of Colorado;

(p)  Jails and rehabilitation; and


(q)  Land and soil preservation.


(2)  Unless authorized pursuant to section 32-7-112 (2), the services provided

by a service authority shall be provided on a concurrent basis with local jurisdictions. This shall not prohibit a board from contracting with local governments or state government for the provision, construction, or operation of any service by the service authority or state or local government, nor does it prohibit any local government from voluntarily vesting exclusive jurisdiction for the provision of a given service with the service authority.

Source: L. 72: p. 461, � 1. C.R.S. 1963: � 89-25-11. L. 73: p. 997, � 1. L. 75: IP(1)

amended, p. 1299, � 3, effective June 20. L. 81: (1)(o) amended, p. 1457, � 6, effective May 27.


C.R.S. § 33-13-106

33-13-106. Equipment requirements. (1) No person shall operate a personal watercraft unless each person aboard is wearing a personal flotation device of a type approved by the United States Coast Guard that is in a good and serviceable condition.

(2)  A person operating a personal watercraft equipped by the original

manufacturer with an engine cutoff switch lanyard shall attach such lanyard to his or her person, clothing, or personal flotation device, as appropriate for the specific vessel.

(3)  Every vessel, other than a personal watercraft, operated on the waters of

this state shall at all times have aboard:

(a)  One personal flotation device of a type approved by the commandant of

the United States Coast Guard in good and serviceable condition and in a readily accessible place of storage for each person on board; except that sailboard operators may wear a wet suit, as defined by the commission, in lieu of carrying a personal flotation device as required by this paragraph (a);

(b)  When in operation during hours of darkness, a light sufficient to make the

vessel's presence and location known to any and all other vessels within a reasonable distance;

(c)  If not an entirely open vessel and if carrying or using any inflammable or

toxic fluid in any enclosure for any purpose, an efficient natural or mechanical ventilation system which shall be capable of removing any resulting gases prior to and during the time such vessel is occupied by any person.

(4)  Every vessel operated on the waters of this state shall have such

additional equipment that is designed to promote navigational safety and that the commission may find to be necessary or desirable for the safe operation of vessels upon the waters of this state.

(4.5)  No person shall operate a vessel that has entered the water unless

each child under the age of thirteen who is aboard such vessel is wearing a personal flotation device, unless such child is below deck or in an enclosed cabin. Such flotation device shall be of a type approved by the United States Coast Guard and shall be in good and serviceable condition.

(5)  Any person who violates this section commits a petty offense and, upon

conviction, shall be punished by a fine of one hundred dollars.

(6)  The commission may exempt vessels from subsection (1), (2), (3), (4), or

(4.5) of this section under certain conditions or upon certain waters.

Source: L. 84: Entire article added, p. 901, � 2, effective January 1, 1985. L.

93: (1)(a) amended, p. 1837, � 4, effective July 1. L. 95: (2) amended, p. 972, � 17, effective July 1. L. 97: Entire section amended, p. 1604, � 2, effective June 4. L. 2003: (4.5) added and (5) and (6) amended, p. 1946, � 18, effective May 22. L. 2012: (3)(a), (4), and (6) amended, (HB 12-1317), ch. 248, p. 1226, � 58, effective June 4. L. 2019: (5) amended, (HB 19-1026), ch. 423, p. 3697, � 19, effective July 1. L. 2021: (5) amended, (SB 21-271), ch. 462, p. 3264, � 569, effective March 1, 2022.

Editor's note: This section is similar to former � 33-31-105 as it existed prior

to 1984.

Cross references: For the short title (Respect the Great Outdoors Act) and

the legislative declaration in HB 19-1026, see sections 1 and 2 of chapter 423, Session Laws of Colorado 2019.


C.R.S. § 34-20-101

34-20-101. Legislative declaration. The general assembly hereby finds and declares that the extraction of mineral resources is a necessary and proper activity and that the achievement of safe and healthful conditions and practices in mines in this state can only be accomplished with the cooperation and coordination of the operators of such mines, the miners who work in the mines, and the state and federal government. The general assembly recognizes that the mining industry is vital to the economy of this state and that the state's mineral and energy resources are of commercial and strategic value to the entire country. The general assembly also recognizes that the efficient development of such resources provides jobs and generates revenues for state and local economies and that such development should be conducted in a manner which protects the health and safety of the miners and of the general public. The general assembly further finds and declares that all mines as defined under federal law are subject to federal regulation. It is the intent of the general assembly to recognize the existence of the federal mine safety laws and to provide a means whereby the state can assist, upon request, mine operators and miners in their attempts to comply with those laws. The general assembly also recognizes that nonproducing mines and mines that are open to the public are not regulated by the federal government. It is the intent of the general assembly to provide an inspection program for such mines to assist in protecting the health and safety of the general public touring such operations. The general assembly hereby recognizes that the Federal Mine Safety and Health Act of 1977, as amended, Pub.L. 95-164, provides for the proper ventilation of mines and the construction of escapement shafts. The general assembly declares that it is the intent of the general assembly that all mines in the state of Colorado that are subject to said federal law shall comply with said requirements for ventilation and escapement shafts.

Source: L. 88: Entire article R&RE, p. 1184, � 1, effective July 1. L. 92: Entire

section amended, p. 1922, � 9, effective July 1.

Editor's note: This section is similar to former � 34-20-102 as it existed prior

to 1988.


C.R.S. § 34-22-109

34-22-109. Examinations - content. (1) Applicants shall pass such reasonable and practical examinations as may be prescribed by the board for certification. Examinations shall be designed to demonstrate whether the applicant possesses sufficient practical and theoretical knowledge for competent performance of the position for which certification is sought and whether the applicant has knowledge of the state and federal mine health and safety laws.

(2)  An applicant for certification as a mine foreman or fire boss in

underground coal mines shall be sufficiently knowledgeable as to coal mining, mechanical equipment, the different systems of working and ventilating coal mines, the nature and properties of noxious, explosive, poisonous gases of mines, and the nature and properties of coal dust.

(3)  To qualify for certification, an applicant for certification as a shot-firer

must be sufficiently knowledgeable as to explosives, breaking agents, and blasting accessories used in coal mines, the proper placement of drill holes made for the purpose of breaking or dislodging coal and rock, the digital gas detector and its use in detecting inflammables and noxious gases, and the proper ventilation in the working places of coal mines.

Source: L. 88: Entire article R&RE, p. 1192, � 3, effective July 1. L. 2020: (3)

amended, (HB 20-1208), ch. 119, p. 495, � 4, effective June 23.

Editor's note: This section is similar to former � 34-21-110 as it existed prior

to 1988.


C.R.S. § 34-22-112

34-22-112. Examinations - applicant qualifications. (1) All candidates for examination for certification shall demonstrate at the time of the examination satisfactory eyesight and hearing consistent with the practice and needs of the coal mining industry.

(2)  Every applicant for certification as a mine foreman shall produce

evidence satisfactory to the board of not less than three years' experience in mines or in operations determined by the board to be equivalent to coal mines. The experience of an applicant intending to work in underground mines must be in underground mining. The experience of an applicant intending to work in surface mining must be in surface mining.

(3)  A person who holds a college degree in engineering, which degree is

determined by the board to be acceptable and suited to the intent and purpose of this article 22, who satisfies the board that the person has at least one year of actual and satisfactory experience in the operation of underground coal mines, including experience in mining, timbering, haulage, drainage, and ventilation and including experience in the capacity of mining engineer, is eligible for examination as a mine foreman in underground coal mines.

(4)  Every applicant for a fire boss certification shall provide evidence

satisfactory to the board that he has at least three years' experience in gassy underground mines, one year of which will be in an underground coal mine.

(5) (a)  Every applicant for a certificate of competency as a mine electrician

shall have at least one year's experience in coal mines or noncoal mines or other electrical experience and:

(I)  Shall have been qualified as a coal mine electrician by another state that

has a coal mine electrical qualification program equivalent to that of this state or a state program approved by the United States secretary of labor or his authorized representative; or

(II)  Shall be determined to be a person qualified to perform electrical work in

underground or surface coal mines by the United States secretary of labor or his authorized representative; or

(III)  Shall be qualified by training, education, and experience to perform

electrical work, maintain electrical equipment, and conduct examinations and tests of electrical equipment.

(b)  In the case of an applicant for a certificate of competency as an

underground coal mine electrician, the requisite one year's experience shall be in underground mines.

(c)  All certified coal mine electricians shall attend annually an approved

electrical retraining class to retain said certification.

(6)  Every applicant for certification as a shot-firer must have experience as

defined by the board.

(7)  All hoistmen working in coal mines must be certified as follows:


(a)  Applicants must have experience and training as approved by the board

or the United States mine safety and health administration.

(b)  (Deleted by amendment, L. 96, p. 378, � 3, effective July 1, 1996.)


Source: L. 88: Entire article R&RE, p. 1193, � 3, effective July 1. L. 96: (6) and

(7) amended, p. 378, � 3, effective July 1. L. 2020: (2) and (3) amended, (HB 20-1208), ch. 119, p. 495, � 5, effective June 23.

Editor's note: This section is similar to former �� 34-21-109 and 34-21-114 as

they existed prior to 1988.


C.R.S. § 34-24-106

34-24-106. Old workings. (1) The entrance to inactive or abandoned workings shall be posted to warn unauthorized persons against entering the territory.

(2)  Abandoned workings shall be sealed or ventilated.


Source: L. 88: Entire article R&RE, p. 1197, � 5, effective July 1.


Editor's note: This section is similar to former � 34-25-108 as it existed prior

to 1988.


C.R.S. § 34-24-107

34-24-107. Danger signals - operator's duty. When operations are temporarily suspended in a mine, the operator shall see that danger signals are placed across the mine entrances, which signals shall be a warning for persons not to enter said mine. If the circulation of air through the mine is stopped, each entrance to said mine shall be closed off in such a manner as will ordinarily prevent persons from entering said mine, and a danger signal shall be displayed upon each entrance until such time as the ventilation is restored and the mine has been examined by a properly authorized representative. The mine foreman shall see that all danger signals used in said mine are in good condition.

Source: L. 88: Entire article R&RE, p. 1197, � 5, effective July 1.


Editor's note: This section is similar to former � 34-26-102 as it existed prior

to 1988.


C.R.S. § 34-31-101

34-31-101. Tunnels - rights-of-way - condemnation. (1) The owner or his agent of any coal lands lying on two or more sides of the property of another shall have the right to enter and cross such adjoining or intermediate claims or property with such drifts, tunnels, and crosscuts as may be necessary for the practical or economical mining and development of his own property and for the purpose of extracting and removing coal therefrom. Such drifts, tunnels, crosscuts, and entries for the mining and development of coal shall not exceed six hundred sixty feet in length and shall not enter or cross any adjoining or intermediate claims or property which are operated at the time of entry or may reasonably be expected to be operated in the future either as a coal mine or as a part of an operating coal mine.

(2)  Neither shall such drifts, tunnels, crosscuts, or entries for coal mining

enter a seam of coal which it may reasonably be expected will be operated or mined in the future. Any such drifts, tunnels, crosscuts, or entries driven for the development of coal lands or which cross coal lands must conform to all pertinent laws relating to coal mines, and in no event shall such tunnels, drifts, crosscuts, or entries for coal mining be driven or maintained across any intermediate property if they interfere with the operation of said intermediate claim or property, nor if such drifts, tunnels, crosscuts, or entries for coal mining will interfere with the ventilation of any operations then or thereafter to be conducted in said intermediate property, nor if said drifts, tunnels, crosscuts, or entries for coal mining will damage the surface of said intermediate property or any seams of coal lying above said drifts, tunnels, crosscuts, or entries. In the construction of such drifts, tunnels, crosscuts, or entries for coal mining, no barrier pillars may be removed or destroyed without the consent of the owners of such barrier pillars.

(3)  In the event such drifts, tunnels, crosscuts, or entries pertain to the

development of coal lands or cross intermediate coal lands, they shall be subject to all pertinent laws and regulations relating to coal mines. When any such owner and the owners of such adjoining property through which such owner desires to pass under the terms of this article shall be unable to agree upon the terms and conditions and purchase price of rights-of-way for such necessary drifts, tunnels, and crosscuts, then the owner seeking to exercise the rights granted in this section may exercise the rights of eminent domain and condemn a right-of-way into, across, and through such intermediate or adjacent lands such as may be necessary for the practical and economical working of his own property, and such rights-of-way shall be deemed and are hereby declared to be private ways of necessity.

(4)  The value of the property taken in condemnation proceedings shall

include, among other things, the value in place of the coal which will be mined or removed in the construction of any drift, tunnel, crosscut, or entry, and also the value of any coal which the owners thereof have a right to mine or remove and which by reason of the construction and operation of such drifts, tunnels, crosscuts, or entries cannot be removed with due regard to the safety or convenience of the operations of such mine or part of such mine. Customary charges for use through said private way of necessity for haulage purposes shall be assessed on each ton of coal received through said private way of necessity.

Source: L. 27: p. 483, � 1. CSA: C. 110, � 190. L. 43: p. 432, � 1. CRS 53: � 92-12-1. C.R.S. 1963: � 92-12-1.


Cross references: For proceedings in eminent domain under this section, see

articles 1 to 7 of title 38.


C.R.S. § 34-33-103

34-33-103. Definitions. As used in this article, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1)  Administrator means the head of the office of mined land reclamation in

the division of reclamation, mining, and safety in the department of natural resources.

(2)  Alluvial valley floors means the unconsolidated stream-laid deposits

holding streams where water availability is sufficient for subirrigation or flood irrigation agricultural activities but does not include upland areas which are generally overlain by a thin veneer of colluvial deposits composed chiefly of debris from sheet erosion, deposits by unconcentrated runoff or slope wash, together with talus, other mass movement accumulation, and windblown deposits.

(3)  Approximate original contour means that surface configuration

achieved by backfilling and grading of the mined area so that the reclaimed area, including any terracing or access roads, closely resembles the general surface configuration of the land prior to mining and blends into and complements the drainage pattern of the surrounding terrain, with all highwalls and spoil piles eliminated. Water impoundments may be permitted where the board determines that they are in compliance with section 34-33-120 (2)(h).

(4)  Board means the mined land reclamation board created pursuant to

section 34-32-105.

(5)  Complete permit application means an application which minimally

addresses each and every requirement of sections 34-33-110 and 34-33-111 and section 34-33-120 or 34-33-121.

(6)  Department means the department of natural resources.


(7)  Division means the division of reclamation, mining, and safety in the

department of natural resources.

(8)  Executive director means the executive director of the department of

natural resources.

(9)  Federal land means any land, including mineral interests, owned by the

United States, but excluding Indian lands.

(10)  Historic areas means those lands which are listed or are eligible for

listing in the national register of historic places or the state register of historic properties or which are designated pursuant to the federal Historic Sites, Buildings, and Antiquities Act, as amended.

(11)  Imminent danger to the health and safety of the public means the

existence of any condition or practice, or any violation of a permit or other requirement of this article, in a surface coal mining and reclamation operation which could reasonably be expected to cause substantial physical harm to persons outside the permit area before such condition, practice, or violation can be abated. A reasonable expectation of death or serious injury before abatement exists if a rational person, subjected to the same conditions, or practices giving rise to the peril, would not expose himself to the danger during the time necessary for abatement.

(12)  Indian lands means all lands, including, but not limited to, mineral

interests and rights-of-way, within the exterior boundaries of any federal Indian reservation, notwithstanding the issuance of any patent, including mineral interests held in trust for or supervised by any Indian tribe.

(13)  Indian tribe means any Indian tribe, band, group, or community having

a governing body recognized by the secretary of the United States department of the interior.

(13.5)  Office means the office of mined land reclamation, created in section

34-32-105.

(14)  Operator means any person engaged in surface coal mining and

reclamation operations who removes or intends to remove more than two hundred fifty tons of coal from the earth or from coal mine waste disposal facilities within twelve consecutive calendar months in any one location.

(15)  Other minerals means clay, stone, sand, gravel, metalliferous and

nonmetalliferous ores, oil shale and oil extracted from shale by an in situ process, and any other solid material or substances of commercial value excavated in solid form from natural deposits on or in the earth, exclusive of coal and those minerals which occur naturally in liquid or gaseous form.

(16)  Permit means a permit to conduct surface coal mining and reclamation

operations.

(17)  Permit applicant or applicant means a person applying for a permit.


(18)  Permit area means the area of land indicated on the approved map

submitted by the operator with his application, which area of land shall be covered by the operator's bond as required by section 34-33-113 and shall be readily identifiable by appropriate markers on the site.

(19)  Permit revision means a significant alteration of the terms or

requirements of a permit issued pursuant to this article, including, but not limited to, significant changes in the reclamation plan, and other actions which the board may by regulation prescribe. Permit revision does not include a technical revision as defined in subsection (27) of this section.

(20)  Permittee means a person holding a permit.


(21)  Person means an individual, partnership, association, society, joint

stock company, firm, company, corporation, Indian tribe conducting surface coal mining and reclamation operations outside Indian lands, any other business organization, and any agency, unit, or instrumentality of federal, state, or local government, including any publicly owned utility or publicly owned corporation of federal, state, or local government.

(22)  Prime farmland shall have the same meaning prescribed pursuant to

the federal Surface Mining Control and Reclamation Act of 1977, as amended, and the regulations thereunder.

(23)  Reclamation plan means a plan submitted by an applicant under this

article which sets forth a plan for reclamation of the proposed surface coal mining operations pursuant to section 34-33-111.

(24)  Secretary means the secretary of the United States department of the

interior.

(25)  Surface coal mining and reclamation operations means surface coal

mining operations and all activities necessary and incident to the reclamation of such operations.

(26)  Surface coal mining operations means:


(a)  Activities conducted on the surface of lands in connection with a surface

coal mine or activities subject to the requirements of section 34-33-121 which involve surface operations and surface impacts incident to an underground coal mine. Such activities include excavation for the purpose of obtaining coal, including such common methods as contour, strip, auger, mountaintop removal, box cut, open pit, and area mining, removal of coal from coal mine waste disposal facilities, the use of explosives and blasting, and the use of in situ distillation or retorting, leaching or other chemical or physical processing, and the cleaning, concentrating, or other processing or preparation, loading of coal for interstate commerce at or near the mine site; except that such activities do not include any of the following: Coal exploration subject to section 34-33-117, the exploration and extraction of natural petroleum in a liquid or gaseous state by means of wells or pipe, or the extraction of geothermal resources.

(b)  The areas upon which such activities occur or where such activities

disturb the natural land surface. Such areas shall also include any adjacent land the use of which is incidental to any such activities, all lands affected by the construction of new roads or the improvement or use of existing roads to gain access to the site of such activities and for haulage, and excavations, workings, impoundments, dams, ventilation shafts, entryways, refuse banks, dumps, stockpiles, overburden piles, spoil banks, culm banks, tailings, holes or depressions, repair areas, storage areas, processing areas, shipping areas, and other areas upon which are sited structures, facilities, or other property or materials on the surface, resulting from or incident to such activities.

(27)  Technical revision means a minor change, including incidental

boundary revisions, to the terms or requirements of a permit issued under this article, which change shall not cause a significant alteration in the operator's reclamation plan.

(28)  Unwarranted failure to comply means the failure of a permittee to

prevent the occurrence of any violation of his permit or any requirement of this article due to indifference, lack of diligence, or lack of reasonable care or the failure to abate any violation of such permit or this article due to indifference, lack of diligence, or lack of reasonable care.

Source: L. 79: Entire article added, p. 1255, � 1, effective July 1. L. 81: (14) and

(26)(a) amended, p. 1681, � 1, effective June 16. L. 92: (14), (21), and (26)(a) amended, p. 1894, � 1, effective May 29; (1) and (7) amended and (13.5) added, p. 1944, � 48, effective July 1. L. 95: (14), (21), and (26)(a) amended, p. 147, � 1, effective April 7. L. 2006: (1) and (7) amended, p. 217, � 14, effective August 7.

Cross references: For the federal Historic Sites, Buildings, and Antiquities

Act, see 16 U.S.C. �� 461-467; for the federal Surface Mining Control and Reclamation Act of 1977, see 30 U.S.C. � 1201 et seq.


C.R.S. § 34-44-104

34-44-104. Accounting - items considered. In said accounting, the working tenant shall be permitted to set off against the proceeds of such mining operation all expenditures and expenses of said work, including: The building and repairing of such roads, whether public or private, as are necessary or expedient to furnish economical transportation to mill or reduction works or railroad; prospecting, development work, and mining, including openings and appliances for ventilation and drainage, and dead work generally; the purchase, installation, maintenance, and operation of tools, machinery, equipment, and appliances for prospecting, developing, and working the mine, and of transporting ore and products, and all other expenses reasonably incident to or arising out of such mining operation. In said accounting, the working tenant shall be allowed setoff for the reasonable value of his service actually rendered in or upon the operation, but the amount of compensation shall not exceed the current rate of wages or compensation for work of like character in the community in which said mine is situate, and shall also be allowed setoff for his expenditures and expenses in prospecting unless it clearly and convincingly appears that said prospecting was done in bad faith with willful intent to injure or defraud the nonworking tenant.

Source: L. 23: p. 451, � 2. CSA: C. 92, � 9. CRS 53: � 92-23-2. C.R.S. 1963: �

92-23-2.


C.R.S. § 34-60-106

34-60-106. Additional powers of commission - fees - rules - definitions - repeal. (1) The commission also shall require:

(a)  Identification of ownership of oil and gas wells, producing leases, tanks,

plants, and structures;

(b)  The making and filing with the commission of copies of well logs,

directional surveys, and reports on well location, drilling, and production; except that logs of exploratory or wildcat wells marked confidential shall be kept confidential for six months after the filing thereof, unless the operator gives written permission to release such logs at an earlier date;

(c)  The drilling, casing, operation, and plugging of seismic holes or

exploratory wells in such manner as to prevent the escape of oil or gas from one stratum into another, the intrusion of water into oil or gas stratum, the pollution of fresh water supplies by oil, gas, salt water, or brackish water; and measures to prevent blowouts, explosions, cave-ins, seepage, and fires;

(d)  (Deleted by amendment, L. 94, p. 1980, � 6, effective June 2, 1994.)


(e)  That every person who produces, sells, purchases, acquires, stores,

transports, refines, or processes oil or gas in this state shall keep and maintain within this state, for a period of five years, complete and accurate records of the quantities thereof, which records, or certified copies thereof, shall be available for examination by the commission, or its agents, at all reasonable times within said period and that every such person shall file with the commission such reasonable reports as it may prescribe with respect to such oil or gas or the products thereof;

(f) (I)  That no operations for the drilling of a well for oil and gas shall be

commenced without first:

(A)  Applying for a permit to drill, which must include proof either that: The

operator has filed an application with the local government with jurisdiction to approve the siting of the proposed oil and gas location and the local government's disposition of the application; or the local government with jurisdiction does not regulate the siting of oil and gas locations; and

(B)  Obtaining a permit from the commission, under rules prescribed by the

commission;

(I.5)  That oil and gas operations shall not occur without the operator

obtaining and maintaining any necessary permits and a license to conduct oil and gas operations from the commission, in accordance with rules promulgated by the commission; and

(II)  Paying to the commission a filing and service fee to be established by the

commission for the purpose of paying the expense of administering this article 60 as provided in section 34-60-122, which fee may be transferable or refundable, at the option of the commission, if the permit is not used.

(III)  Repealed.


(g)  That the production from wells be separated into gaseous and liquid

hydrocarbons and that each be accurately measured by such means and standards as prescribed by the commission;

(h)  The operation of wells with efficient gas-oil and water-oil ratios, the

establishment of these ratios, and the limitation of the production from wells with inefficient ratios;

(i)  Certificates of clearance in connection with the transportation and

delivery of oil and gas or any product; and

(j)  Metering or other measuring of oil, gas, or product in pipelines, gathering

systems, loading racks, refineries, or other places.

(2)  The commission may regulate:


(a)  The drilling, producing, and plugging of wells and all other operations for

the production of oil or gas;

(b)  The stimulating and chemical treatment of wells; and


(c)  The spacing and number of wells allowed in a drilling unit.


(d)  Repealed.


(2.5) (a)  In exercising the authority granted by this article 60, the commission

shall regulate oil and gas operations in a reasonable manner to protect and minimize adverse impacts to public health, safety, and welfare, the environment, and wildlife resources and shall protect against adverse environmental impacts on any air, water, soil, or biological resource resulting from oil and gas operations.

(b)  The nonproduction of oil and gas resulting from a conditional approval or

denial authorized by this subsection (2.5) does not constitute waste.

(3)  The commission also has the authority to:


(a)  Limit the production of oil or gas, or both, from any pool or field for the

prevention of waste, and to limit and to allocate the production from such pool or field among or between tracts of land having separate ownerships in the tracts of land, on a fair and equitable basis so that each such tract will be permitted to produce no more than its just and equitable share from the pool and so as to prevent, insofar as is practicable, reasonably avoidable drainage from each such tract that is not equalized by counter-drainage;

(b)  Classify wells as oil or gas wells for purposes material to the

interpretation or enforcement of this article 60;

(c)  After consultation with the division of administration in the department of

public health and environment, require operators to take such actions between May 1 and September 30 of each year to reduce emissions of oxides of nitrogen (NOx) generated from production and preproduction operations as the commission deems appropriate to assure compliance with:

(I)  NOx intensity targets; and


(II)  Other NOx rules that the air quality control commission adopts by rule to

achieve sector-wide compliance with the state's 2030 goals for NOx emission reductions; and

(d)  When requiring operators to take action pursuant to subsection (3)(c) of

this section, prioritize actions by those operators that do not demonstrate compliance with any applicable NOx intensity targets or other NOx rules that the air quality control commission adopts to achieve sector-wide compliance with the state's 2030 goals for NOx emission reductions.

(3.5)  The commission shall require the furnishing of reasonable security with

the commission by lessees of land for the drilling of oil and gas wells, in instances in which the owner of the surface of lands so leased was not a party to such lease, to protect such owner from unreasonable crop losses or land damage from the use of the premises by said lessee. The commission shall require the furnishing of reasonable security with the commission, to restore the condition of the land as nearly as is possible to its condition at the beginning of the lease and in accordance with the owner of the surface of lands so leased.

(4)  The grant of any specific power or authority to the commission shall not

be construed in this article to be in derogation of any of the general powers and authority granted under this article.

(5)  The commission shall also have power to make determinations, execute

waivers and agreements, grant consent to delegations, and take other actions required or authorized for state agencies by those laws and regulations of the United States which affect the price and allocation of natural gas and crude oil, including the federal Natural Gas Policy Act of 1978, 15 U.S.C. sec. 3301 et seq., including the power to give written notice of administratively final determinations.

(6)  The commission has the authority, as it deems necessary and convenient,

to conduct any hearings or to make any determinations it is otherwise empowered to conduct or make by means of an appointed administrative law judge or hearing officer, but recommended findings, determinations, or orders of any administrative law judge or hearing officer become final in accordance with section 34-60-108 (9). Upon appointment by the commission, a member of the commission may act as a hearing officer.

(7) (a)  The commission may establish, charge, and collect docket fees for the

filing of applications, petitions, protests, responses, and other pleadings. All fees shall be deposited in the energy and carbon management cash fund created in section 34-60-122 (5) and are subject to appropriations by the general assembly for the purposes of this article 60.

(b)  The commission shall by rule establish the fees for the filing of

applications in amounts sufficient to recover the commission's reasonably foreseeable direct and indirect costs in conducting the analysis, including the annual review of financial assurance pursuant to subsection (13) of this section, necessary to assure that permitted operations will be conducted in compliance with all applicable requirements of this article 60.

(8)  The commission shall prescribe special rules and regulations governing

the exercise of functions delegated to or specified for it under the federal Natural Gas Policy Act of 1978, 15 U.S.C. sec. 3301 et seq., or such other laws or regulations of the United States which affect the price and allocation of natural gas and crude oil in accordance with the provisions of this article.

(9) (a) (I)  Notwithstanding section 34-60-120 or any other provision of law

and subject to subsection (9)(a)(II) of this section, the commission, as to class II and class VI injection wells classified in 40 CFR 144.6, may perform all acts for the purposes of protecting underground sources of drinking water in accordance with state programs authorized by the federal Safe Drinking Water Act, 42 U.S.C. sec. 300f et seq., and regulations under those sections, as amended, and ensuring the safe and effective sequestration of greenhouse gases in a verifiable manner that meets Colorado's short- and long-term greenhouse gas emission reduction goals, as set forth in section 25-7-102 (2)(g).

(II)  In performing acts for the purpose of ensuring the safe and effective

sequestration of greenhouse gases pursuant to subsection (9)(a)(I) of this section, the commission shall act in accordance with subsection (9)(c) of this section and only after the governor and the commission have made an affirmative determination that the state has sufficient resources necessary to ensure the safe and effective regulation of the sequestration of greenhouse gases in accordance with the findings from the commission's study conducted pursuant to subsection (9)(b) of this section.

(b)  The commission shall:


(I)  Conduct a study to evaluate what resources are needed to ensure the safe

and effective regulation of the sequestration of greenhouse gases and identify and assess the applicable resources that the commission or other state agencies have; and

(II)  Report its findings to the governor and the general assembly by

December 1, 2021.

(c) (I)  The commission may seek class VI injection well primacy under the

federal Safe Drinking Water Act, 42 U.S.C. sec. 300f et seq., as amended, after the commission:

(A)  Determines it has the necessary resources for the application outlined in

the commission's study performed pursuant to subsection (9)(b) of this section; and

(B)  Holds a public hearing on the matter.


(II) (A)  The commission may issue and enforce permits for geologic storage

operations and may regulate geologic storage operations after the commission makes the determination and holds the hearing set forth in subsection (9)(c)(I) of this section and the commission and the governor satisfy the requirements set forth in subsection (9)(a) of this section.

(B)  A person that willfully violates a class VI rule, regulation, permit, or order

of the commission issued pursuant to subsection (9)(c)(II)(A) of this section commits a misdemeanor and, upon conviction by a court of competent jurisdiction, is subject to a fine of at least five thousand dollars and no more than seven thousand five hundred dollars for each act of violation and for each day that the person remains in violation.

(III) (A)  If a geologic storage location is proposed to be sited in an area that

would affect a disproportionately impacted community, the commission shall weigh the geologic storage operator's submitted cumulative impacts analysis and determine whether, on balance, the geologic storage operations will have a positive effect on the disproportionately impacted community. A proposal that will have negative net cumulative impacts on any disproportionately impacted community must be denied. The commission's decision must include a plain language summary of its determination.

(B)  The commission may amend by rule the cumulative impacts analysis and

requirements set forth in this subsection (9)(c)(III) if the commission finds the analysis and requirements to be inconsistent with, or incomplete with respect to, the federal environmental protection agency's requirements for class VI primacy.

(C)  Repealed.


(IV) (A)  The commission shall require each geologic storage operator to

provide adequate financial assurance demonstrating that the geologic storage operator is financially capable of fulfilling every obligation imposed on the operator under this article 60 and under rules that the commission adopts pursuant to this article 60.

(B)  The financial assurance required under this subsection (9)(c)(IV) must

cover the cost of corrective action, injection well plugging, post-injection site care, site closure, and any emergency and remedial response.

(C)  The commission shall adopt rules requiring that the financial assurance

cover the cost of obligations that are in addition to the obligations listed in subsection (9)(c)(IV)(B) of this section if the additional obligations are reasonably associated with geologic storage operations.

(D)  A geologic storage operator shall maintain the financial assurance

required by this subsection (9)(c)(IV) or any rules adopted pursuant to this subsection (9)(c)(IV) until the commission approves site closure, as specified in rules adopted by the commission. Except as described in subsection (9.4) of this section, commission approval of a site closure does not otherwise modify an operator's responsibility to comply with applicable laws.

(D.5)  Repealed.


(E)  Financial assurance provided under this subsection (9)(c)(IV) may be in

the form of a surety bond, insurance, or any other instrument that the commission, by rule, deems satisfactory.

(d)  In issuing and enforcing permits for geologic storage operations, the

commission shall ensure, after a public hearing, that:

(I)  The permitting of a geologic storage location complies with a local

government's siting of the geologic storage location and that the commission has consulted with any local government whose boundaries include lands overlying the geologic storage facility;

(II)  The proposed new or modified geologic storage location has received any

applicable air permits from the division of administration in the department of public health and environment;

(III)  The geologic storage operator has received the consent of any surface

owner or owners of the land where the surface disturbance will occur and has provided the commission a written contractual agreement that the surface owner or owners have executed; and

(IV)  The commission has evaluated and addressed any class VI injection well

impacts from the proposed class VI injection well on the affected area to ensure the terms and conditions of any permit issued under this section are sufficient to ensure that any class VI injection well impacts are avoided, minimized to the extent practicable, and, to the extent that any class VI injection well impacts remain, that the impacts are mitigated. The commission shall provide a plain language summary of how the negative impacts are avoided or, if not avoided, minimized and mitigated and, if any, the negative impacts that cannot be mitigated.

(d.5) (I)  For the purposes of implementing and administering this subsection

(9), the commission may assess and collect regulatory and permitting fees from geologic storage operators in an amount and frequency determined by the commission by rule.

(II)  The commission shall transfer any fees assessed and collected pursuant

to subsection (9)(d.5)(I) of this section to the state treasurer, who shall credit the fees to the energy and carbon management cash fund created in section 34-60-122 (5).

(e)  As used in this subsection (9), unless the context otherwise requires:


(I)  Class VI injection well impacts means the effect on the public health

and the environment, including air, water and soil, and the climate, caused by the incremental impact that a proposed new or significantly modified class VI injection well and associated infrastructure would have when added to the impacts from other development in the affected area.

(II)  Corrective action has the meaning set forth in 40 CFR 146.81.


(III)  Repealed.


(IV)  Greenhouse gas has the meaning set forth in section 25-7-140 (6).


(V)  Post-injection site care has the meaning set forth in 40 CFR 146.81.


(VI)  Repealed.


(9.3) (a)  The commission, in consultation with the department of public

health and environment, may adopt rules to establish a process to certify the quantity and demonstrated security of carbon dioxide stored in a class VI injection well.

(b)  The commission, in consultation with the department of public health and

environment, shall evaluate the risk of class VI injection wells by determining the likelihood and severity of an incident involving a class VI injection well, the potential for exposure from such incident, and the overall effect that such incident could have on the public health, safety, and welfare and on the environment.

(9.4) (a)  Before the commission approves a site closure, title to the injection

carbon dioxide stored by a geologic storage operator remains with the geologic storage operator or any party to which the geologic storage operator transferred title.

(b)  In addition to any criteria for site closure required by rules adopted by the

commission, the commission shall not approve a site closure until the commission has determined that the geologic storage operator requesting the site closure has contributed money to the geologic storage stewardship enterprise cash fund created in section 34-60-144 (7) in an amount sufficient to pay for long-term stewardship of the geologic storage facility for which the operator requests the site closure.

(c)  Upon approval by the commission of a site closure:


(I)  Ownership of the injection carbon dioxide and ownership of any remaining

geologic storage facilities, including those used to inject, monitor, or store injection carbon dioxide, transfer to the state without payment of compensation;

(II)  The geologic storage stewardship enterprise created in section 34-60-144 shall undertake long-term stewardship of the injection carbon dioxide and any

associated geologic storage facility; and

(III)  The geologic storage operator is released from all further regulatory

liability associated with the geologic storage operations or associated geologic storage facility, except as provided in subsection (9.4)(d) of this section.

(d)  Regulatory liability remains with the geologic storage operator to the

extent that the commission determines, after notice and hearing, that:

(I)  The geologic storage operator was in material violation of a state law or

regulation related to the geologic storage operations or any associated geologic storage facility that was not remedied prior to approval of site closure and has not been remedied since that time, and any applicable statutes of limitation have not run;

(II)  The geologic storage operator provided deficient or erroneous

information that was material and relied upon by the commission to support the approval of site closure;

(III)  Contractual, civil, or criminal liability arises from conduct of the geologic

storage operator associated with the geologic storage operations or any associated geologic storage facility and such liability materially affects the commission's decision to approve site closure; or

(IV)  There is fluid migration for which the geologic storage operator is

responsible that causes or threatens to cause imminent and substantial endangerment to an underground source of drinking water.

(e)  After notice and hearing, the commission may reimpose any regulatory

liability from which the geologic storage operator has been released pursuant to subsection (9.4)(c)(III) of this section and financial assurance obligations, if the commission determines that:

(I)  The geologic storage operator made a material misrepresentation or

omission that caused the commission to approve a site closure;

(II)  The geologic storage operator was in material violation of a duty imposed

on the operator by state law, including by rules, prior to approval of a site closure, the material violation has not been remedied, and any applicable statutes of limitation have not run; or

(III)  There is migration of the injection carbon dioxide for which the geologic

storage operator is responsible that causes or threatens to cause imminent and substantial endangerment to an underground source of drinking water.

(f)  Nothing in this subsection (9.4) waives, abrogates, or limits governmental

immunity, as described in article 10 of title 24. Geologic storage facilities, geologic storage locations, geologic storage resources, injection carbon dioxide, and facilities associated with geologic storage operations are not gas facilities for the purposes of section 24-10-106 (1)(f) and do not constitute any other area or facility for which sovereign immunity is waived pursuant to section 24-10-106 (1).

(g)  As used in this subsection (9.4), unless the context otherwise requires:


(I)  Regulatory liability means a geologic storage operator's obligation to

comply with any rule, regulation, permit condition, or order of the commission adopted or issued pursuant to subsection (9)(c)(II) of this section for geologic storage operations.

(II)  Regulatory liability includes a geologic storage operator's exposure to

penalties assessed in accordance with section 34-60-121 for violations of any rule, regulation, permit condition, or order of the commission adopted or issued pursuant to subsection (9)(c)(II) of this section for geologic storage operations.

(III)  Regulatory liability does not include a geologic storage operator's civil,

contractual, or criminal liability.

(9.5) (a)  On or before February 1, 2024, the commission, in consultation with

the department of public health and environment, shall conduct a study to better understand the safety of class VI injection wells, the potential for carbon dioxide releases from the wells, and methods to limit the likelihood of a carbon dioxide release from a class VI injection well or carbon dioxide pipeline or sequestration facility. The study must include:

(I)  An evaluation of the potential air quality impacts of capture technology at

a carbon dioxide source facility;

(II)  Carbon dioxide pipeline safety considerations, including computer

modeling to simulate carbon dioxide leaks from pipelines of varying diameters and lengths;

(III)  Appropriate safety protocols in the operation and maintenance of a class

VI injection well;

(IV)  Methods for determining the stability of underground carbon dioxide

storage and estimates of the time needed for carbon dioxide plume stabilization; and

(V)  Recommendations for safety measures to protect communities from

carbon dioxide releases, such as hazard zones, public notification systems, setbacks, additional monitoring requirements, or other measures.

(b)  On or before March 1, 2024, the commission shall present its findings and

conclusions from the study, including any recommendations for legislation, to the house of representatives energy and environment committee and the senate transportation and energy committee, or their successor committees. The commission shall not permit a class VI injection well in the state until the study has been completed and presented to the general assembly.

(c)  A class VI injection well shall not be located within two thousand feet of a

residence, school, or commercial building. The commission may adjust the two-thousand-foot setback by rule after studying and evaluating the severity of impacts arising from four or more class VI injection wells that have been in place in the state for at least four years.

(9.7)  Repealed.


(10)  The commission shall promulgate rules and regulations to protect the

health, safety, and welfare of any person at an oil or gas well; except that the commission shall not adopt such rules and regulations with regard to parties or requirements regulated under the federal Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970.

(11) (a)  By July 16, 2008, the commission shall:


(I) (A)  Promulgate rules to establish a timely and efficient procedure for the

review of applications for a permit to drill and applications for an order establishing or amending a drilling and spacing unit.

(B)  Repealed.


(II)  Promulgate rules, in consultation with the department of public health

and environment, to protect the health, safety, and welfare of the general public in the conduct of oil and gas operations. The rules shall provide a timely and efficient procedure in which the department has an opportunity to provide comments during the commission's decision-making process. This rule-making shall be coordinated with the rule-making required in section 34-60-128 (3)(d) so that the timely and efficient procedure established pursuant to this subsection (11) is applicable to the department and to the division of parks and wildlife.

(b) (I)  The general assembly shall review the rules promulgated pursuant to

paragraph (a) of this subsection (11) acting by bill pursuant to section 24-4-103, C.R.S., and reserves the right to alter or repeal such rules.

(II)  By January 1, 2008, the commission shall promulgate rules to ensure the

accuracy of oil and gas production reporting by establishing standards for wellhead oil and gas measurement and reporting. At a minimum, the rules shall address engineering standards, heating value, specific gravity, pressure, temperature, meter certification and calibration, and methodology for sales reconciliation to wellhead meters. The rules shall be consistent with standards established by the American society for testing and materials, the American petroleum institute, the gas processors association, or other applicable standards-setting organizations, and shall not affect contractual rights or obligations.

(c)  The commission shall adopt rules that:


(I)  Adopt an alternative location analysis process and specify criteria used to

identify oil and gas locations and facilities proposed to be located near populated areas that will be subject to the alternative location analysis process;

(II)  In consultation with the department of public health and environment,

evaluate and address the potential cumulative impacts of oil and gas development;

(III)  In consultation with the department of public health and environment,

require enhanced systems and practices to avoid, minimize, and mitigate emissions of ozone precursors from operations at newly permitted oil and gas locations in the eight-hour ozone control area and northern Weld county, as those terms are defined by the air quality control commission by rule. In adopting the rules pursuant to this subsection (11)(c)(III), the commission shall:

(A)  By September 30, 2024, adopt an initial list of enhanced systems and

practices considering the best management practices that have been recommended by the department of public health and environment in consultation with operators;

(B)  Consider a proposed oil and gas location's potential to contribute to

adverse impacts through emissions of ozone precursors;

(C)  Consider any available photochemical sensitivity modeling analyses

conducted by the department of public health and environment; and

(D)  Evaluate the potential for updates to the required enhanced systems and

practices periodically to account for evolving design, operational procedures, and technologies to reduce ozone precursors.

(d) (I)  By September 30, 2024, the commission shall promulgate rules that

evaluate and address the cumulative impacts of oil and gas operations. The rules shall require evaluation of all impacts set forth in the definition of cumulative impacts described in section 34-60-103. The rules shall require addressing those impacts resulting from operations regulated by the commission. Wells drilled for the exclusive purpose of obtaining subsurface data or information to support operations regulated by the commission do not require a cumulative impacts analysis.

(II)  The commission shall provide resources to support community

engagement in the process from affected communities, including translation, outreach, and other strategies to support public participation.

(III) and (IV)  Repealed.


(12)  The commission, in consultation with the state agricultural commission

and the commissioner of agriculture, shall promulgate rules to ensure proper reclamation of the land and soil affected by oil and gas operations and to ensure the protection of the topsoil of said land during such operations.

(13)  The commission shall require every operator to provide assurance that it

is financially capable of fulfilling every obligation imposed by this article 60 as specified in rules adopted on or after April 16, 2019. The rule-making must consider: Increasing financial assurance for inactive wells and for wells transferred to a new owner; requiring a financial assurance account, which must remain tied to the well in the event of a transfer of ownership, to be fully funded in the initial years of operation for each new well to cover future costs to plug, reclaim, and remediate the well; and creating a pooled fund to address orphaned wells for which no owner, operator, or responsible party is capable of covering the costs of plugging, reclamation, and remediation. For purposes of this subsection (13), references to operator include an operator of an underground natural gas storage cavern and an applicant for a certificate of closure under subsection (17) of this section. In complying with this requirement, an operator may submit for commission approval, without limitation, one or more of the following:

(a)  A guarantee of performance where the operator can demonstrate to the

commission's satisfaction that it has sufficient net worth to guarantee performance of every obligation imposed by this article 60. The commission shall annually review the guarantee and demonstration of net worth.

(b)  A certificate of general liability insurance in a form acceptable to the

commission that names the state as an additional insured and covers occurrences during the policy period of a nature relevant to an obligation imposed by this article 60;

(c)  A bond or other surety instrument;


(d)  A letter of credit, certificate of deposit, or other financial instrument;


(e)  An escrow account or sinking fund dedicated to the performance of every

obligation imposed by this article 60;

(f)  A lien or other security interest in real or personal property of the

operator. The lien or security interest must be in a form and priority acceptable to the commission in its sole discretion. The commission shall annually review the lien or security.

(14)  Before an operator commences operations for the drilling of any oil or

gas well, such operator shall evidence its intention to conduct such operations by giving the surface owner written notice describing the expected date of commencement, the location of the well, and any associated roads and production facilities. Unless excepted by the commission due to exigent circumstances or waived by the surface owner, such notice of drilling shall be mailed or delivered to the surface owner not less than thirty days prior to the date of estimated commencement of operations with heavy equipment. The notice of drilling shall also be provided to the local government in whose jurisdiction the well is located if such local government has registered with the commission for receipt thereof.

(15)  The commission may, as it deems appropriate, assign its inspection and

monitoring function, but not its enforcement authority, through intergovernmental agreement or by private contract; except that an assignment must not allow for the imposition of any new tax or fee by the assignee in order to conduct the assigned inspection and monitoring and must not provide for compensation contingent on the number or nature of alleged violations referred to the commission by the assignee.

(15.5)  The commission shall use a risk-based strategy for inspecting oil and

gas locations that targets the operational phases that are most likely to experience spills, excess emissions, and other types of violations and that prioritizes more in-depth inspections. The commission shall:

(a)  Repealed.


(b)  Implement the systematic risk-based strategy by July 1, 2014. The

commission may use a pilot project to test the risk-based strategy.

(16)  The commission has the authority to establish, charge, and collect fees

for services it provides, including but not limited to the sale of computer disks and tapes.

(17) (a)  The commission has exclusive authority to regulate the public health,

safety, and welfare aspects, including protection of the environment, of the termination of operations and permanent closure, referred to in this subsection (17) collectively as closure, of an underground natural gas storage cavern.

(b)  No underground natural gas storage cavern may be closed unless the

operator has secured a certificate of closure from the commission. The commission shall issue a certificate of closure if the applicant demonstrates that its closure plan protects public health, safety, and welfare, including protection of the environment.

(c)  Before submitting its application, an applicant for a certificate of closure

must, to the extent such owners are reasonably identifiable from public records, notify all owners of property, both surface and subsurface, occupied by and immediately adjacent to the underground natural gas storage cavern of the applicant's intent to submit a closure plan. Immediately adjacent to means contiguous to the boundaries of the underground natural gas storage cavern. The notice shall advise the owners of a location where a full copy of the closure plan may be inspected, that written comments may be submitted to the commission, and that they may participate in the public hearing required by this subsection (17). The applicant shall notify the owners of the date, time, and place of the public hearing. Contemporaneously with notifying the owners, the applicant shall send a copy of the notice to registered homeowners' associations that have submitted a written request for such notice prior to the filing of the application with the commission and the board of county commissioners in the county where the underground natural gas storage cavern is located.

(d)  The commission shall provide the public with notice and an opportunity to

comment on an application filed under this subsection (17) for a certificate of closure pursuant to the procedures set forth in section 34-60-108 (7). The applicant shall attend the public hearing and shall be available at other reasonable times as the director may request to respond to comments and questions.

(e)  The director may consult with other state agencies possessing expertise

in matters related to closure of underground natural gas storage caverns in the areas of the jurisdiction of such agencies, including, but not limited to, safety, environmental protection, public health, water resources, and geology. Agencies consulted under this subsection (17) may include, but are not limited to, the public utilities commission, the division of reclamation, mining, and safety, the Colorado geological survey, the division of water resources, and the department of public health and environment. Any agency consulted shall provide advice and assistance with respect to matters within its expertise.

(f)  The commission may attach conditions to its certificate of closure,

including requiring reasonable recovery of residual natural gas, if the commission determines that such conditions are technically feasible and necessary to ensure compliance with the requirements of this subsection (17), taking into consideration cost-effectiveness. If the closure application requires the abandonment of wells and reclamation of well sites associated with the underground natural gas storage cavern, the commission shall attach conditions to its certificate of closure requiring that such well abandonment and reclamation occur in a manner consistent with applicable commission rules.

(g)  The commission may, subject to the limitations contained in paragraph (f)

of this subsection (17), attach conditions to its certificate of closure requiring:

(I)  Reasonable post-closure monitoring and site security at a closed

underground natural gas storage cavern; and

(II)  That the applicant for the certificate of closure will perform post-closure

corrective actions consistent with this subsection (17), including, but not limited to, the limitations contained in paragraph (f) of this subsection (17) if any such post-closure monitoring establishes that the closure does not protect public health, safety, or welfare, including protection of the environment.

(h)  The commission shall require that the applicant for a certificate of

closure provide reasonable assurance that it is financially capable of fulfilling any obligation imposed under this subsection (17) including, but not limited to, post-closure corrective action required by paragraph (g) of this subsection (17), in accordance with subsection (13) of this section.

(i)  The applicant for a certificate of closure under this subsection (17) shall

reimburse the commission's reasonable and necessary costs of reviewing and acting on the application. Such reimbursement shall include:

(I)  Reimbursement to the commission, its staff, and any agencies consulted

under this subsection (17) for the reasonable cost of the time required to review the application, at a rate commensurate with the hourly compensation of the staff employee performing the actual work, but not to exceed the hourly compensation of the highest paid commission staff employee, based on the employee's annual salary divided by two thousand eighty hours; and

(II)  Reimbursement of the reasonable cost to the commission of hiring one or

more private consultants to review the application and provide advice to the commission as a result of such review, if the applicant consents in writing to the scope and expected range of costs of the activities to be undertaken by each such private consultant. If the commission and applicant cannot agree on the scope or expected range of costs and if the commission determines a private consultant is necessary in the review of the application, then the commission may hire a private consultant at its own expense.

(18)  The commission shall promulgate rules to ensure proper wellbore

integrity of all oil and gas production wells. In promulgating the rules, the commission shall consider incorporating recommendations from the State Oil and Gas Regulatory Exchange and shall include provisions to:

(a)  Address the permitting, construction, operation, and closure of

production wells;

(b)  Require that wells are constructed using current practices and standards

that protect water zones and prevent blowouts;

(c)  Enhance safety and environmental protections during operations such as

drilling and hydraulic fracturing;

(d)  Require regular integrity assessments for all oil and gas production wells,

such as surface pressure monitoring during production; and

(e)  Address the use of nondestructive testing of weld joints.


(19)  The commission shall review and amend its flowline and inactive,

temporarily abandoned, and shut-in well rules to the extent necessary to ensure that the rules protect and minimize adverse impacts to public health, safety, and welfare and the environment, including by:

(a)  Allowing public disclosure of flowline information and evaluating and

determining when a deactivated flowline must be inspected before being reactivated; and

(b)  Evaluating and determining when inactive, temporarily abandoned, and

shut-in wells must be inspected before being put into production or used for injection.

(20)  The commission shall adopt rules to require certification for workers in

the following fields:

(a)  Compliance officers with regard to the federal Occupational Safety and

Health Act of 1970, 29 U.S.C. sec. 651 et seq., including specifically working in confined spaces;

(b)  Compliance officers with regard to codes published by the American

Petroleum Institute and American Society of Mechanical Engineers or their successor organizations;

(c)  The handling of hazardous materials;


(d)  Welders working on oil and gas process lines, including:


(I)  Knowledge of the flowline rules promulgated pursuant to subsection (19)

of this section;

(II)  A minimum of seven thousand hours of documented on-the-job training,

which requirement can be met by an employee working under the supervision of a person with the requisite seven thousand hours of training; and

(III)  Passage of the International Code Council Exam F31, national standard

journeyman mechanical, or an analogous successor exam, for any person working on pressurized process lines in upstream and midstream operations.

(20.5)  The commission shall administer this article 60 in a manner to

minimize adverse impacts to disproportionately impacted communities that are negatively affected by oil and gas operations.

(21) (a)  As used in this subsection (21), unless the context otherwise requires:


(I)  Oil and gas reports means the types of reports described in subsection

(21)(b)(I) of this section.

(II)  Random sample has the meaning set forth in section 2-3-128 (1)(e).


(b)  On or before April 15, 2025, the commission shall submit a report to the

state auditor that includes:

(I)  The following reports filed for the 2023 calendar year by the operators

included in the random sample:

(A)  Monthly production reports;


(B)  Quarterly conservation levies;


(C)  Mechanical integrity tests; and


(D)  Any reporting of emissions data, including oil and gas location

assessments and cumulative impact data identifications;

(II)  For the random sample and the total population of operators in the state,

a description of any missing oil and gas reports due for the 2023 calendar year or incomplete or incorrect oil and gas reports that were accepted for the 2023 calendar year without a request for completion or correction;

(III)  For the random sample and the total population of operators in the state,

a copy of any notices given by the commission to an operator pursuant to section 34-60-121 (4) for the 2023 calendar year; and

(IV)  For the random sample and the total population of operators in the state,

a description of any penalties assessed for the 2023 calendar year, with the data broken down by:

(A)  Type of violation; and


(B)  Penalty amount assessed against a person for the violation.


(c)  The commission shall publish the report submitted to the state auditor

pursuant to subsection (21)(b) of this section on its website.

(d)  The commission shall provide any additional information that the state

auditor requests pursuant to section 2-3-128.

(e)  This subsection (21) is repealed, effective July 1, 2026.


(22)  The commission shall create and maintain a website that serves as the

state portal for information and data regarding the commission's regulatory activities.

Source: L. 51: p. 660, � 11. CSA: C. 118, � 68(11). CRS 53: � 100-6-15. L. 55: p.

654, � 8. C.R.S. 1963: � 100-6-15. L. 64: p. 509, � 1. L. 73: p. 1071, � 1. L. 77: (3.5) added, p. 1565, � 1, effective July 1. L. 79: (5) to (8) added, p. 1320, � 2, February 16. L. 81: (9) added, p. 1339, � 4, effective July 1; (9) amended, p. 2034, � 53, effective July 14. L. 85: (10) and (11) added, p. 1129, � 1, effective July 1. L. 86: (12) added, p. 1073, � 1, effective April 3. L. 91: (1)(f) and (9) amended, p. 1415, � 3, effective April 19. L. 94: (1)(d), (2)(d), (11), and (12) amended and (13), (14), (15), and (16) added, p. 1980, � 6, effective June 2. L. 96: (15) amended, p. 346, � 1, effective April 17. L. 2001: IP(13), (13)(a), (13)(b), and (13)(e) amended and (17) added, pp. 1303, 1304, �� 2, 3, effective June 5; (14) amended, p. 491, � 6, effective July 1. L. 2005: (7) amended, p. 733, � 3, effective July 1. L. 2006: (17)(e) amended, p. 218, � 16, effective August 7. L. 2007: (2)(d) and (11) amended, pp. 1358, 1359, �� 4, 6, effective May 29; (11) amended, p. 1344, � 1, effective May 29. L. 2008: IP(11)(a), (11)(a)(II), and (11)(b)(I) amended, p. 1033, � 1, effective May 21; (11)(a)(II) amended, p. 1912, � 122, effective August 5. L. 2013: (15.5) added, (SB 13-202), ch. 274, p. 1437, � 2, effective May 24. L. 2019: IP(1), (1)(f), IP(2), (2)(b), (2)(c), (6), (7), (13), and (15) amended, (2)(d) repealed, and (2.5), (11)(c), (18), (19), and (20) added, (SB 19-181), ch. 120, p. 513, � 12, effective April 16. L. 2021: (9) amended, (SB 21-264), ch. 328, p. 2107, � 3, effective June 24. L. 2022: (21) added, (HB 22-1361), ch. 472, p. 3451, � 4, effective July 1. L. 2023: (11)(d) added, (HB 23-1294), ch. 401, p. 2408, � 6, effective June 6; (7)(a) amended and (22) added, (SB 23-285), ch. 235, p. 1232, � 3, effective July 1; (9)(a) and (9)(b)(I) amended and (9)(c) to (9)(e), (9.3), (9.5), and (9.7) added, (SB 23-016), ch. 165, p. 736, � 9, effective August 7. L. 2024: (1)(f)(I)(B), (3), and (11)(c)(I) amended and (1)(f)(I.5), (11)(c)(III), and (20.5) added, (SB 24-229), ch. 183, p. 993, � 10, effective May 16; (9)(c)(II), (9)(c)(III)(A), (9)(c)(III)(B), (9)(c)(IV)(A), (9)(c)(IV)(C), (9)(c)(IV)(D), IP(9)(d), (9)(d)(I), (9)(d)(II), (9)(d)(III), and (11)(d)(I) amended, (9)(c)(III)(C), (9)(e)(III), (11)(d)(III), and (11)(d)(IV) repealed, and (9)(c)(IV)(D.5) and (9)(d.5) added, (HB 24-1346), ch. 216, p. 1331, � 4, effective May 21. L. 2025: (9)(c)(II) and (9)(c)(IV)(D) amended, (9)(c)(IV)(D.5) and (9)(e)(VI) repealed, and (9.4) added, (HB 25-1165), ch. 257, p. 1298, � 5, effective August 6.

Editor's note: (1)  Amendments to subsection (11)(a)(II) by House Bill 08-1379

and House Bill 08-1412 were harmonized.

(2)  Subsection (11)(a)(I)(B) provided for the repeal of subsection (11)(a)(I)(B),

effective July 1, 2010. (See L. 2007, p. 1359.)

(3)  Subsection (15.5)(a)(II) provided for the repeal of subsection (15.5)(a),

effective September 1, 2014. (See L. 2013, p. 1437.)

(4)  Subsection (1)(f)(III)(B) provided for the repeal of subsection (1)(f)(III),

effective January 15, 2021. On January 15, 2021, the revisor of statutes received the notice referred to in subsection (1)(f)(III) related to the repeal. For more information about the repeal and notice, see SB 19-181. (L. 2019, p. 513.)

(5)  Subsection (9.7)(c) provided for the repeal of subsection (9.7), effective

July 1, 2025. (See L. 2023, p. 736.)

Cross references: (1)  For the legislative declaration contained in the 1994

act amending subsections (1)(d), (2)(d), (11), and (12) and enacting subsections (13), (14), (15), and (16), see section 1 of chapter 317, Session Laws of Colorado 1994. For the legislative declaration contained in the 2007 act amending subsections (2)(d) and (11), see section 1 of chapter 320, Session Laws of Colorado 2007. For the legislative declaration in the 2013 act adding subsection (15.5), see section 1 of chapter 274, Session Laws of Colorado 2013. For the legislative declaration in HB 22-1361, see section 1 of chapter 472, Session Laws of Colorado 2022. For the legislative declaration in HB 23-1294, see section 1 of chapter 401, Session Laws of Colorado 2023. For the legislative declaration in SB 24-229, see section 1 of chapter 183, Session Laws of Colorado 2024. For the legislative declaration in HB 25-1165, see section 1 of chapter 257, Session Laws of Colorado 2025.

(2)  For the federal Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970, see 29

U.S.C. � 651 et seq.


C.R.S. § 35-14-116

35-14-116. Railroad car tare weights. (1) Whenever stenciled tare weights on freight cars are employed in the sale of commodities or the assessment of freight charges, the following conditions and requirements shall apply:

(a)  All newly stenciled or restenciled tare weights shall be accurately

represented to the nearest one hundred pounds for inch pound units and to the nearest fifty kilograms for metric units, and the representation shall include the date of weighing.

(b)  The allowable difference between actual tare weight and stenciled tare

weight on freight cars in use shall be:

(I)  If in inch pounds:


(A)  Plus or minus three hundred pounds for cars of fifty thousand pounds or

less;

(B)  Plus or minus four hundred pounds for cars over fifty thousand pounds

but not over sixty thousand pounds; or

(C)  Plus or minus five hundred pounds for cars over sixty thousand pounds;


(II)  If in metric:


(A)  Plus or minus one hundred fifty kilograms for cars twenty-five thousand

kilograms or less;

(B)  Plus or minus two hundred kilograms for cars over twenty-five thousand

kilograms but not over thirty thousand kilograms; or

(C)  Plus or minus two hundred fifty kilograms for cars over thirty thousand

kilograms.

(c)  Tare weight determinations for verification or change of stenciled

weights shall only be made on properly prepared and adequately cleaned freight cars.

(d)  Tank cars, covered hopper cars, flat cars equipped with multideck racks

or special superstructures, mechanical refrigerator cars, and house-type cars equipped with special lading protective devices must be reweighed and restenciled only by owners or their authorized representatives if the car bears no lightweight (empty weight) stenciling or if repairs or alterations result in a change of weight in excess of the permissible lightweight tolerance.

Source: L. 83: Entire article R&RE, p. 1346, � 1, effective July 1.

C.R.S. § 35-21-103

35-21-103. Refrigeration - transportation.

(1)  Repealed.


(2)  All eggs shall be kept under adequate refrigeration. The refrigeration

shall be such that the temperature of the eggs does not exceed the temperature established in rules adopted by the commissioner pursuant to section 35-21-106 (1).

(3)  Every vehicle used to transport eggs shall be maintained in a sanitary

condition and shall be enclosed to protect eggs from extreme heat or cold.

(4) to (9)  (Deleted by amendment, L. 95, p. 699, � 16, effective May 23, 1995.)


Source: L. 65: R&RE, p. 215, � 1. C.R.S. 1963: � 7-9-3. L. 73: p. 215, � 3. L. 95:

Entire section amended, p. 699, � 16, effective May 23. L. 2009: (1) repealed and (2) and (3) amended, (SB 09-127), ch. 63, pp. 225, 226, �� 11, 9, 12, effective July 1.


C.R.S. § 35-21-105

35-21-105. Exemption - rules. (1) (a) Except as provided in subsection (2) of this section, a person who produces and sells only on the premises at which the poultry eggs were produced, at a farmers' market, or through a community-supported agricultural organization, less than two hundred fifty dozen poultry eggs per month is exempt from this part 1; except that such a producer may apply for a dealer's license and, if in compliance with this part 1, be issued a dealer's license.

(b)  The commissioner may promulgate rules exempting small producers of

other eggs or dealers of other eggs from any provision of this part 1 and setting the conditions for the exemption; except that such a producer may apply for a dealer's license and, if in compliance with this part 1, be issued a dealer's license.

(2)  A person transporting eggs for sale at a farmers' market or similar venue

under subsection (1) of this section shall:

(a)  Comply with the transport requirements of section 35-21-103 (3) and any

rules, including rules requiring refrigeration, promulgated under this part 1 regarding the safe transport and washing of eggs; and

(b)  Affix to the egg package a label containing the address at which the

eggs originated and the date on which the eggs were packaged. Any eggs not treated for salmonella must also include the following statement on the package: Safe Handling Instructions: To prevent illness from bacteria, keep eggs refrigerated, cook eggs until yolks are firm, and cook any foods containing eggs thoroughly. These eggs do not come from a government-approved source.

Source: L. 65: R&RE, p. 220, � 1. C.R.S. 1963: � 7-9-5. L. 2009: Entire section

amended, (SB 09-127), ch. 63, p. 224, � 6, effective July 1. L. 2012: Entire section amended, (SB 12-048), ch. 16, p. 44, � 7, effective March 15. L. 2013: (2)(b) amended, (HB 13-1158), ch. 100, p. 319, � 4, effective April 4. L. 2020: (1) amended, (HB 20-1211), ch. 159, p. 712, � 5, effective June 29; (1) and (2)(a) amended, (HB 20-1343), ch. 217, p. 1077, � 5, effective September 14. L. 2021: (1)(b) amended, (SB 21-266), ch. 423, p. 2805, � 32, effective July 2.

Editor's note: Subsection (1) was amended in HB 20-1211. Those amendments

were harmonized in part with and superseded in part by the amendment of subsection (1) in HB 20-1343.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in the 2012 act amending

this section, see section 1 of chapter 16, Session Laws of Colorado 2012.


C.R.S. § 35-30-102

35-30-102. Powers of governor. The governor of the state of Colorado is vested with all police and regulatory powers regarding the production, storage, refrigeration, manufacture, distribution, handling, dealing in, or sale of foodstuffs or food products and other necessities of life, whether in the raw state or in manufactured form, or any article used or capable of use as food for human or beast, that are vested in the president or any other executive officer of the United States, but the rules, regulations, and orders promulgated by the governor in the exercise of the power conferred in this section must not be more drastic than nor in conflict with the rules, regulations, and orders of the president and executive officers of the United States government.

Source: L. 17: Ex. Sess., p. 3, � 2. C.L. � 3700. CSA: C. 69, � 48. CRS 53: � 7-1-2. C.R.S. 1963: � 7-1-2. L. 2025: Entire section amended, (HB 25-1084), ch. 24, p.

122, � 96, effective August 6.

ARTICLE 31

Destruction of Food Products

Cross references: For the Colorado Food and Drug Act, see part 4 of article

5 of title 25; for the Colorado Hazardous Substances Act of 1973, see part 5 of article 5 of title 25.

PART 1

PUBLIC ENFORCEMENT


C.R.S. § 35-33-103

35-33-103. Definitions. As used in this article 33, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1)  Adulterated has the meaning set forth in section 25-5-410, C.R.S.


(2)  Commission means the state agricultural commission.


(3)  Commissioner means the commissioner of agriculture or the

commissioner's authorized agent.

(4)  Custom processing means the slaughter or processing, for a fee or

other compensation, of meat or meat products of an animal not owned by the person performing the slaughter or processing and not intended for sale by the owner of the animal.

(5)  Department means the department of agriculture.


(6)  Food means all articles used for food, drink, confectionery, or

condiment by humans, whether simple, mixed, or compound, and any substance used as a constituent in the manufacture thereof.

(7)  Inedible meat means meat or meat products derived from dead, dying,

disabled, diseased, or condemned animals or from animals whose meat or meat products are otherwise unsuitable for human consumption. Inedible meat includes meat or meat products, regardless of origin, that have deteriorated so far as to be unfit for human consumption.

(8)  Meat or meat products means carcasses or parts of carcasses derived

from any animals used for food. Meat or meat products includes poultry.

(8.5)  Poultry means any domesticated bird, including chickens, turkeys,

ducks, geese, guineas, or squabs, whether live or dead.

(9)  Premises means the back, front, and side yard of property occupied by

a processing facility; docks and areas where vehicles are loaded or unloaded; driveways, approaches, pens, and alleys; and buildings or portions of buildings that are part of any facility even though not used for processing.

(10)  Processing means the slaughtering, dressing, cutting, preparing,

trimming, wrapping, or packaging of an animal or of meat or meat products from an animal.

(11)  Processing facility means any establishment where meat is

slaughtered, dressed, processed, cut, trimmed, wrapped, or packaged for delivery to consumers.

(12)  Sharp freezing facility means a facility capable of maintaining a

temperature of ten degrees below zero Fahrenheit or lower on still air or contact or a temperature of zero degrees Fahrenheit or lower by forced air circulation, within a tolerance of five degrees Fahrenheit for a minimum of twelve hours after fresh food is put in such facility for freezing.

(13)  Sharp frozen means the process of refrigeration sufficient to reduce

every portion of any meat or meat product to a temperature of zero degrees Fahrenheit or less in five hours or less.

(14)  Slaughter means any process, or the use of any process, including

without limitation the process of bleeding, that causes the death of any animal intended for food.

(15)  Uninspected, in reference to any animal, meat, or meat product, means

not inspected and passed by the United States department of agriculture or another authorized government agency.

Source: L. 89: Entire article R&RE, p. 1382, � 1, effective April 12. L. 95: (18)

amended, p. 30, � 1, effective July 1. L. 2009: Entire section amended, (SB 09-117), ch. 123, p. 507, � 5, effective April 16. L. 2016: (8) and (9) amended and (8.5) added, (SB 16-058), ch. 158, p. 500, � 2, effective May 4. L. 2025: IP and (3) amended, (HB 25-1084), ch. 24, p. 122, � 97, effective August 6.

Editor's note: This section is similar to former � 35-33-102 as it existed prior

to 1989.


C.R.S. § 35-52-113

35-52-113. Garbage cooking. (1) It is unlawful for any person, firm, partnership, or corporation, including charitable institutions, to feed garbage to animals unless the garbage has been heated throughout to boiling or equivalent temperature for thirty minutes or heated according to a method specifically adopted by the state agricultural commission; except that this requirement does not apply to an individual who feeds to the individual's own animals only the garbage obtained from the individual's household.

(2)  Garbage to be fed to swine located within the state of Colorado shall be

cooked or heated as provided in subsection (1) of this section by one or more of the following methods:

(a)  Wet steaming or boiling in an open vat;


(b)  Dry steaming or boiling in a jacketed kettle;


(c)  Steaming in a pressure cylinder;


(d)  Steam boilers; or


(e)  Direct heating.


Source: L. 65: p. 229, � 3. C.R.S. 1963: � 8-6-13. L. 2025: (1) amended, (HB

25-1084), ch. 24, p. 135, � 140, effective August 6.


C.R.S. § 35-75-102

35-75-102. Legislative declaration. (1) The general assembly hereby finds and declares that:

(a)  The high cost and lack of available agricultural loans for farmers and

other agricultural enterprises, with the resultant decrease in crop, livestock, and business productivity and resultant inability on the part of farmers and other agricultural enterprises to acquire modern agricultural equipment and processes, makes it difficult for farmers and other agricultural enterprises to maintain their present employment levels or to increase employment and lessens the supply of agricultural commodities available to fulfill the needs of the citizens of this state;

(b)  As a result of the continuing increase in the costs of maintaining

operations, including costs of construction and rehabilitation, taxes, heating and electricity expenses, maintenance and repair expenses, and the cost of land, the state of Colorado suffers from structural economic weaknesses which contribute to a decline in capital investment, unemployment, and underemployment; and

(c)  The insufficiency of gainful employment in rural areas puts additional

pressure on the state's welfare, public health, and crime prevention programs.

(2)  The general assembly further finds that:


(a)  Farm credit and agricultural loan financing is not currently available at

interest rates which are consistent with the needs of farmers and other agricultural enterprises;

(b)  The problems set forth in this section cannot alone be remedied through

the operation of private enterprise but can be alleviated through the creation of an agricultural development authority to encourage the investment of private capital in the agricultural sector through the use of public financing for the purpose of making loans available at interest rates lower than those available in the conventional farm credit markets. Creation of such an agricultural development authority to coordinate and cooperate with farmers and other agricultural enterprises is essential to alleviating these conditions.

(c)  Alleviating the conditions and problems set forth in this section by the

encouragement of private investment through an agricultural development authority is a public purpose, and public money provided by the sale of revenue bonds may be borrowed, expended, advanced, loaned, and granted for such use. Such activities shall not be conducted for profit and are proper governmental functions best accomplished by the creation of an agricultural development authority vested with the powers and duties specified in this article.

(d)  This article is enacted to protect the health, safety, and welfare of the

people of this state.

(3)  The agricultural development authority created by this article shall make

financing available for farmers and other agricultural enterprises to serve those people which private industry is unable to serve.

Source: L. 81: Entire article added, p. 1731, � 1, effective June 19.

C.R.S. § 35-80-109

35-80-109. Powers and duties of commissioner - rules. (1) The commissioner is authorized to administer and enforce the provisions of this article and any rules and regulations adopted pursuant thereto.

(2)  The commissioner is authorized to adopt all reasonable rules for the

administration and enforcement of this article, including, but not limited to:

(a)  Minimum standards of physical facility, sanitation, ventilation, heating,

cooling, humidity, spatial and enclosure requirements, nutrition, humane care, medical treatment, sterilization of dogs and cats released to prospective owners from animal shelters and pet animal rescues, and method of operation, including the minimum holding period for and disposition of stray or abandoned pet animals that are, in the opinion of the commissioner, necessary to carry out the provisions of this article; except that each holding period shall comply with section 35-80-106.3 (1);

(a.5)  The minimum weight requirement for the transfer of cats;


(b)  Maintenance of records concerning health care, euthanasia, and

transactions involving pet animals;

(b.5)  The content of, and procedures for, any written recommendations and

warnings concerning rabies vaccinations that the commissioner may require a licensee to give in connection with the sale, transfer, trade, or adoption of a dog, cat, or ferret;

(b.6)  Written disclosures by licensees in connection with the sale, transfer,

trade, or adoption of a dog, cat, ferret, or bird and the retention by licensees of written documentation that the disclosures were made;

(c)  The establishment of qualifications for any applicant and standards of

practice for any of the licenses authorized under this article, including the establishment of classifications and subclassifications for any license authorized under this article;

(d)  The issuance and reinstatement of any license authorized under this

article and the grounds for any disciplinary actions authorized under this article, including letters of admonition or the denial, restriction, suspension, or revocation of any license authorized under this article; and

(e) (I)  The amount of any license fee for a pet animal facility license. Such

license fee may be different for different classifications and subclassifications of any license authorized under this article. The commissioner is authorized to determine the amount of any licensing fee authorized under this article based on the actual cost of administering and enforcing this article and any rules adopted pursuant thereto.

(II)  Repealed.


(3)  The commissioner is authorized to conduct hearings required under

sections 35-80-112 and 35-80-113 pursuant to article 4 of title 24, C.R.S., and to use administrative law judges to conduct such hearings when their use would result in a net saving of costs to the department.

(4)  The commissioner is authorized to establish the annual date or dates on

which licenses and psittacine bird leg bands issued pursuant to this article shall expire.

(5)  The commissioner is authorized to enter into cooperative agreements

with any agency or political subdivision of this state or with any agency of the United States government for the purpose of carrying out the provisions of this article, receiving grants-in-aid, and securing uniformity of rules.

(6)  The powers and duties vested in the commissioner by this article may be

delegated to qualified employees of the department.

(7)  The commissioner shall appoint an advisory committee pursuant to

section 35-80-115.

Source: L. 94: Entire article added, p. 1305, � 8, effective July 1. L. 2001: (2)(a)

amended, p. 1263, � 4, effective June 5. L. 2003: (2)(a.5) added, p. 2095, � 7, effective July 1. L. 2008: IP(2) and (2)(a) amended, p. 201, � 3, effective January 1, 2009. L. 2009: (2)(e) and (4) amended, (SB 09-118), ch. 327, pp. 1741, 1743, �� 4, 12, effective July 1. L. 2014: (2)(b.5) and (2)(b.6) added, (HB 14-1270), ch. 365, p. 1746, � 7, effective July 1.

Editor's note: Subsection (2)(e)(II)(C) provided for the repeal of subsection

(2)(e)(II), effective July 1, 2011. (See L. 2009, p. 1741.)


C.R.S. § 37-90-137

37-90-137. Permits to construct wells outside designated basins - fees - permit no groundwater right - evidence - time limitation - well permits - rules - definitions. (1) (a) On and after May 17, 1965, a new well shall not be constructed outside the boundaries of a designated groundwater basin, and the supply of water from existing wells outside the boundaries of a designated groundwater basin shall not be increased or extended unless the user makes an application in writing to the state engineer for a permit to construct a well, in a form prescribed by the state engineer.

(b)  The applicant shall specify in the application described in subsection

(1)(a) of this section:

(I)  The particular aquifer from which the water is to be diverted;


(II)  The proposed beneficial use for the water;


(III)  The location of the proposed well;


(IV)  The name of the owner of the land on which the proposed well will be

located;

(V)  The average annual amount of water applied for in acre-feet per year;


(VI)  The proposed maximum pumping rate in gallons per minute; and


(VII)  If the proposed use is agricultural irrigation, a description of the land to

be irrigated, the name of the owner of the land, and any other reasonable information that the state engineer designates on the form prescribed.

(c)  Notwithstanding any provision of this subsection (1) to the contrary, the

requirements of this subsection (1) do not apply to wells constructed pursuant to an operations permit issued by the energy and carbon management commission pursuant to section 37-90.5-106 (1)(b).

(2) (a) (I)  Repealed.


(II)  Effective July 1, 2006, upon receipt of an application for a replacement

well or a new, increased, or additional supply of groundwater from an area outside the boundaries of a designated groundwater basin, accompanied by a filing fee of one hundred dollars, the state engineer shall make a determination as to whether or not the exercise of the requested permit will materially injure the vested water rights or prior geothermal operations of others.

(b) (I)  The state engineer shall issue a permit to construct a well only if:


(A)  The state engineer finds, as substantiated by hydrological and geological

facts, that there is unappropriated water available for withdrawal by the proposed well and that the vested water rights or prior geothermal operations of others will not be materially injured; and

(B)  Except as specified in subsection (2)(b)(II) of this section, the location of

the proposed well will be more than six hundred feet from an existing well completed in the same aquifer and more than one-fourth of a mile from a prior geothermal operation utilizing water from the same aquifer.

(II)  If the state engineer, after a hearing, finds that circumstances in a

particular instance so warrant, or if a court decree is entered for the proposed well location after notice has been given in accordance with subsection (2)(b)(II)(B) of this section, the state engineer may issue a permit without regard to the limitation specified in subsection (2)(b)(I)(B) of this section; except that a hearing is not required and the state engineer may issue a well permit without regard to the limitation specified in subsection (2)(b)(I)(B) of this section:

(A)  If the state engineer notifies the owners of all wells within six hundred

feet of the proposed well by certified mail and receives no response within the time set forth in the notice, and if the proposed well is located within one-fourth of a mile of a prior geothermal operation, and the state engineer notifies the prior geothermal operation's designated individuals and the energy and carbon management commission by electronic mail and receives no response within the time set forth in the notice;

(B)  If the proposed well is part of a water court proceeding adjudicating the

water right for the well, or if the proposed well is part of an adjudication of a plan for augmentation or change of water right and if evidence is provided to the water court that the applicant has given notice of the water court application, at least fourteen days before making the application, by registered or certified mail, return receipt requested, to the owners of record of all wells within six hundred feet of the proposed well and to all designated individuals of prior geothermal operations within one-fourth of a mile of the proposed well;

(C)  If the proposed well will serve an individual residential site and the

proposed pumping rate will not exceed fifteen gallons per minute; except that, if there is an oil and gas well within six hundred feet of the surface location of the proposed well, the state engineer shall notify the owner of such well by certified mail of the proposed well and may issue the well permit subject to the limitations specified in sub-subparagraph (A) of subparagraph (I) of this paragraph (b);

(D)  If the proposed well is an oil and gas well and the only wells within six

hundred feet of the surface location of the proposed well are oil and gas wells; or

(E)  If the proposed well is an oil and gas well, there is an existing production

water well that is not an oil and gas well within six hundred feet of the surface location of the proposed oil and gas well, the state engineer has provided written notice of the application by certified mail to the owners of such wells that are not oil and gas wells within thirty-five days after receipt of a complete application for the proposed well, and the state engineer has given those to whom notice was provided thirty-five days after the date of mailing of such notice to file comments on the proposed well's application.

(c)  The permit shall set forth the conditions for drilling, casing, and

equipping wells and other diversion facilities as are reasonably necessary to prevent waste, pollution, or material injury to existing rights or prior geothermal operations.

(d) (I)  The state engineer shall endorse upon the application the date of its

receipt, file and preserve such application, and make a record of such receipt and the issuance of the permit in his office so indexed as to be useful in determining the extent of the uses made from various groundwater sources.

(II)  The state engineer shall act upon an application filed under this section

within forty-five days after its receipt.

(e)  As used in this subsection (2), unless the context otherwise requires:


(I)  Material injury to a prior geothermal operation has the meaning set forth

in section 37-90.5-106 (1)(c).

(II)  Prior geothermal operation has the meaning set forth in section 37-90.5-103 (14.5).


(3) (a) (I)  A permit to construct a well outside the boundaries of a designated

groundwater basin issued on or after April 21, 1967, expires two years after issuance unless the well is constructed before the expiration of the permit.

(II)  If the requirements of section 37-92-301 are met, the expiration of any

permit pursuant to this paragraph (a) associated with a conditional groundwater right shall not be the sole basis to determine the existence of reasonable diligence toward completion of such conditional water right.

(III)  The state engineer may require the metering or other reasonable

measurement of withdrawals of groundwater pursuant to permits and the reasonable recording and disclosure of such measured withdrawals.

(b)  Any permit to construct a well issued by the state engineer prior to April

21, 1967, shall expire on July 1, 1973, unless the applicant furnishes to the state engineer, prior to July 1, 1973, evidence that the water from such well has been put to beneficial use prior to that date. The state engineer shall give notice by certified or registered mail to all persons to whom such permits were issued at the address shown on the state engineer's records, setting forth the provisions of this subsection (3). Such notices shall be mailed not later than December 31, 1971.

(c)  If evidence that the well has been constructed within two years after the

date that the permit was issued has not been furnished to the state engineer within the time frame prescribed by rules adopted pursuant to section 37-91-104, the well permit expires. The state engineer shall notify the permit holder and, if applicable, the contractor listed on the permit application that the well permit is expired.

(d)  In the case of federally authorized water projects wherein well permits

are required by this section and have been secured, the expiration dates of the projects may be extended for additional periods, not to exceed one year per extension, based upon a finding of good cause by the state engineer following a review of any such project at least annually by the state engineer. The state engineer may extend the expiration of a permit if the person to whom the permit was issued, on forms as may be prescribed by the state engineer, furnishes to the state engineer a showing of good cause as to why the well has not been constructed and an estimate of time necessary to complete construction.

(e)  The state engineer may reinstate an expired well permit if the state

engineer receives satisfactory evidence that the well was constructed within two years after the date that the permit was issued, accompanied by a filing fee of thirty dollars. The state engineer shall consider records of the state engineer and evidence provided to the state engineer in determining whether the permit should be reinstated.

(f)  Subsection (3)(e) of this section does not apply to a well permit that

formally expired through an order issued prior to September 1, 2025.

(4) (a)  In the issuance of a permit to construct a well outside a designated

groundwater basin and not meeting the exemptions set forth in section 37-92-602 to withdraw nontributary groundwater or any groundwater in the Dawson, Denver, Arapahoe, and Laramie-Fox Hills aquifers, the provisions of subsections (1) and (2) of this section shall apply.

(b) (I)  Permits issued pursuant to this subsection (4) shall allow withdrawals

on the basis of an aquifer life of one hundred years.

(II)  Subject to the provisions of subsections (1) and (2) of this section, the

amount of such groundwater available for withdrawal shall be that quantity of water, exclusive of artificial recharge, underlying the land owned by the applicant or underlying land owned by another:

(A)  Who has consented in writing to the applicant's withdrawal; or


(B)  Whose consent exists by virtue of a lawful municipal ordinance or a

quasi-municipal district resolution in effect prior to January 1, 1985, and which consent was the subject of a water court application for determination of nontributary groundwater rights filed by the affected municipality or quasi-municipal district prior to January 1, 1985; or

(C)  Who shall be deemed to have consented to the withdrawal of

groundwater pursuant to the provisions of subsection (8) of this section.

(b.5) (I)  An applicant claiming to own the overlying land or to have the

consent of the owner of the overlying land as contemplated in sub-subparagraph (A) of subparagraph (II) of paragraph (b) of this subsection (4) shall furnish to the state engineer, in addition to evidence of such consent, evidence that the applicant has given notice of the application by registered or certified mail, return receipt requested, no less than ten days prior to the making of the application, to every record owner of the overlying land and to every person who has a lien or mortgage upon, or deed of trust to, the overlying land recorded in the county in which the overlying land is located.

(II)  For purposes of this paragraph (b.5), person means any individual,

partnership, association, or corporation authorized to do business in the state of Colorado, or any political subdivision or public agency thereof, or any agency of the United States.

(III)  The provisions of subparagraph (I) of this paragraph (b.5) do not apply to

applicants whose right to withdraw the groundwater has been determined by a valid decree nor to political subdivisions of the state of Colorado, special districts, municipalities, or quasi-municipal districts that have obtained consent to withdraw the groundwater by deed, assignment, or other written evidence of consent where, at the time of application, the overlying land is within the water service area of such entity.

(c)  Material injury to vested nontributary groundwater rights shall not be

deemed to result from the reduction of either hydrostatic pressure or water level in the aquifer.

(d)  The annual amount of withdrawal allowed in any well permits issued

under this subsection (4) shall be the same as the amount determined by court decree, if any, and may, if so provided by any such decree, provide for the subsequent adjustment of such amount to conform to the actual aquifer characteristics encountered upon drilling of the well or test holes.

(5)  Any right to the use of groundwater entitling its owner or user to

construct a well, which right was initiated prior to July 6, 1973, as evidenced by an unexpired well permit issued prior to July 6, 1973, or a current decree, shall not be subject to the provisions of subsection (4) of this section.

(6)  Rights to nontributary groundwater outside of designated groundwater

basins may be determined in accordance with the procedures of sections 37-92-302 to 37-92-305. Such proceedings may be commenced at any time and may include a determination of the right to such water for existing and future uses. Such determination shall be in accordance with subsections (4) and (5) of this section. Claims pending as of October 11, 1983, which have been published pursuant to section 37-92-302 in the resume need not be republished.

(7)  In the case of dewatering of geologic formations by withdrawing

nontributary groundwater to facilitate or permit mining of minerals:

(a) (I)  Except for coal bed methane wells, a well permit is not required unless

the nontributary groundwater being removed will be beneficially used.

(II)  Except for coal bed methane wells, a well permit is not required if the

nontributary groundwater being removed to facilitate or permit the mining of minerals will be used only by operators within the geologic basin where the groundwater is removed to facilitate or permit the mining of minerals, including:

(A)  Injection into a properly permitted disposal well;


(B)  Evaporation or percolation in a properly permitted pit;


(C)  Disposal at a properly permitted commercial facility;


(D)  Roadspreading or reuse for enhanced recovery, drilling, well stimulation,

well maintenance, pressure control, pump operations, dust control on-site or off-site, pipeline and equipment testing, equipment washing, or fire suppression;

(E)  Discharge into state waters in accordance with the Colorado Water

Quality Control Act, article 8 of title 25, and the rules promulgated under that act;

(F)  Evaporation at a properly permitted centralized exploration and

production waste management facility; or

(G)  Generating energy or otherwise using heat from groundwater for the

mining of minerals.

(b)  In the issuance of any well permit pursuant to this subsection (7),

subsection (4) of this section does not apply and subsections (1), (2), and (3) of this section apply; except that, in considering whether the permit shall issue, the requirement that the state engineer find that there is unappropriated water available for withdrawal and the six-hundred-foot spacing requirement in subsection (2) of this section do not apply. The state engineer shall allow the rate of withdrawal stated by the applicant to be necessary to dewater the mine; except that, if the state engineer finds that the proposed dewatering will cause material injury to the vested water rights of others, the applicant may propose, and the permit shall contain, terms and conditions that will prevent such injury. The reduction of hydrostatic pressure level or water level alone does not constitute material injury. Permitting determinations pursuant to this subsection (7) neither confer a water right nor preclude determination of a water right by the water court.

(c)  The state engineer may, pursuant to the State Administrative Procedure

Act, article 4 of title 24, C.R.S., adopt rules to assist with the administration of this subsection (7). The rule-making authority includes the promulgation of rules pursuant to which groundwater within formations and basins, in whole or part, is determined to be nontributary for the purposes of this subsection (7). The rules may also provide rule-making and adjudicatory procedures for nontributary determinations to be made after the initial rule-making pursuant to this subsection (7). In all rule-making proceedings authorized by this subsection (7), the state engineer shall afford interested persons the right of cross-examination. Judicial review of all rules promulgated pursuant to this subsection (7), including all nontributary determinations made pursuant to this subsection (7), is in accordance with the State Administrative Procedure Act; except that venue for such review lies exclusively with the water judge or judges for the water division or divisions within which the groundwater that is the subject of such rules or determinations is located. In any judicial action seeking to curtail the withdrawal, use, or disposal of groundwater pursuant to this subsection (7) or to otherwise declare such activities unlawful, the court shall presume, subject to rebuttal, that any applicable nontributary determination made by the state engineer is valid. Any rules promulgated pursuant to this subsection (7) must not conflict with existing laws and do not affect the validity of groundwater well permits existing prior to the adoption of such rules.

(7.5) (a)  Except as required by subsection (7.5)(b) of this section, a permit

from the state engineer is not required in the case of withdrawing nontributary groundwater from a geologic formation if the withdrawal is permitted as a deep geothermal operation, as defined in section 37-90.5-103 (3), and the withdrawn nontributary groundwater will be used only for operations to extract or utilize heat, including:

(I)  Generating electricity;


(II)  Heating and cooling buildings;


(III)  Heating swimming pools, public bathhouses, or developed hot springs

facilities;

(IV)  Heating aquaculture;


(V)  Melting snow or ice;


(VI)  Heating to facilitate carbon dioxide capture or hydrogen production;


(VII)  Deep geothermal exploration, resource confirmation, or reservoir

enhancement; and

(VIII)  Heating and drying for other industrial processes.


(b)  A well permit is required if the operator will use the nontributary

groundwater for additional beneficial uses unrelated to the extraction or utilization of heat.

(8)  It is recognized that economic considerations generally make it

impractical for individual landowners to drill wells into the aquifers named in this subsection (8) for individual water supplies where municipal or quasi-municipal water service is available and that the public interest justifies the use of such groundwater by municipal or quasi-municipal water suppliers under certain conditions. Therefore, wherever any existing municipal or quasi-municipal water supplier is obligated either by law or by contract in effect prior to January 1, 1985, to be the principal provider of public water service to landowners within a certain municipal or quasi-municipal boundary in existence on January 1, 1985, said water supplier may adopt an ordinance or resolution, after ten days' notice pursuant to the provisions of part 1 of article 70 of title 24, C.R.S., which incorporates groundwater from the Dawson, Denver, Arapahoe, or Laramie-Fox Hills aquifers underlying all or any specified portion of such municipality's or quasi-municipality's boundary into its actual municipal service plan. Upon adoption of such ordinance or resolution, a detailed map of the land area as to which consent is deemed to have been given shall be filed with the state engineer. Upon the effective date of such ordinance or resolution, the owners of land which overlies such groundwater shall be deemed to have consented to the withdrawal by that water supplier of all such groundwater; except that no such consent shall be deemed to be given with respect to any portion of the land if:

(a)  Water service to such portion of the land is not reasonably available from

said water supplier and no plan has been established by that supplier allowing the landowner to obtain an alternative water supply;

(b)  Such ordinance or resolution is adopted prior to September 1, 1985, and,

prior to January 1, 1985, such groundwater was conveyed or reserved or consent to use such groundwater was given or reserved in writing to anyone other than such water supplier and such conveyance, reservation, or consent has been properly recorded prior to August 31, 1985;

(c)  Such ordinance or resolution is adopted on or after September 1, 1985,

and said groundwater has been conveyed or reserved or consent to use such groundwater has been given or reserved in writing to anyone other than such water supplier and such conveyance, reservation, or consent is properly recorded before the effective date of that ordinance or resolution;

(d)  Consent to use such groundwater has been given to anyone other than

such water supplier by the lawful effect of an ordinance or resolution adopted prior to January 1, 1985;

(e)  Such groundwater has been decreed or permitted to anyone other than

such water supplier prior to the effective date of such ordinance or resolution; or

(f)  Such portion of the land is not being served by said water supplier as of

the effective date of such ordinance or resolution and such groundwater is the subject of an application for determination of a right to use groundwater filed in the water court prior to July 1, 1985.

(9) (a)  For the purpose of making the state engineer's consideration of well

permit applications for the withdrawal of groundwater from wells described in subsection (4) of this section more certain and expeditious, the state engineer may, to the extent provided in this subsection (9) and pursuant to the State Administrative Procedure Act, adopt rules and regulations to prescribe reasonable criteria and procedures for the application for, and the evaluation, issuance, extension, and administration of, such well permits. Such rules and regulations shall only be promulgated after the state engineer has conducted a hydrogeologic analysis, the results of which factually support the promulgation and the content of such rules and regulations for any particular aquifer or portion thereof. All such rules and regulations shall allow the withdrawal pursuant to such permits of the full amount of groundwater determined under subsection (4) of this section and shall afford the applicant the opportunity to rebut any presumptive aquifer characteristics. Presumptive aquifer characteristics established by those rules and regulations shall also apply to the determination of rights to groundwater from wells described in subsection (4) of this section by the water judges, subject to rebuttal by any party. In all rule-making proceedings authorized by this subsection (9), the state engineer shall afford interested persons the right of cross-examination. Judicial review of all rules and regulations promulgated pursuant to this subsection (9) shall be in accordance with the State Administrative Procedure Act; except that venue for such review shall lie exclusively with the water judge or judges for the water division or divisions within which the subject groundwater is located.

(b)  On or before December 31, 1985, the state engineer shall promulgate

reasonable rules and regulations applying exclusively to the Dawson, Denver, Arapahoe, and Laramie-Fox Hills aquifers to the extent necessary to assure that the withdrawal of groundwater from wells described in subsection (4) of this section will not materially affect vested water rights to the flow of any natural stream. In no event shall the rules and regulations promulgated under this paragraph (b) require that persons who withdraw nontributary groundwater, as defined in section 37-90-103 (10.5), relinquish the right to consume, by means of original use, reuse, and successive use, more than two percent of the amount of such groundwater which is withdrawn without regard to dominion or control of the groundwater so relinquished, nor shall they require that judicial approval of plans for augmentation providing for such relinquishment be obtained.

(c)  Repealed.


(c.5) (I) (A)  As to wells that will be completed in the Dawson, Denver,

Arapahoe, and Laramie-Fox Hills aquifers and will withdraw groundwater that is not nontributary groundwater, judicial approval of plans for augmentation is required prior to the use of the groundwater.

(B)  As to such wells completed in the Dawson aquifer, decrees approving

plans for augmentation must provide for the replacement of actual out-of-priority depletions to the stream caused by withdrawals from the wells and must meet all other statutory criteria for the plans.

(C)  As to such wells completed in the Denver, Arapahoe, or Laramie-Fox Hills

aquifers more than one mile from any point of contact between any natural stream including its alluvium on which water rights would be injuriously affected by any stream depletion, and any such aquifer, the decrees must provide for the replacement to the affected stream system or systems of a total amount of water equal to four percent of the amount of water withdrawn on an annual basis. As to such wells completed in such aquifers at points closer than one mile to any such contact, the amount of the replacement is determined using the assumption that the hydrostatic pressure level in each such aquifer has been lowered at least to the top of that aquifer throughout that aquifer. The decrees may also require the continuation of replacement after withdrawal ceases if necessary to compensate for injurious stream depletions caused by prior withdrawals from the wells and must meet all other statutory criteria for such plans.

(II)  (Deleted by amendment, L. 2015.)


(d)  On or before July 1, 1995, the state engineer shall promulgate reasonable

rules that apply to the permitting and use of water artificially recharged into the Dawson, Denver, Arapahoe, and Laramie-Fox Hills aquifers. On or before July 1, 2018, the state engineer shall promulgate rules that apply to the permitting and use of water artificially recharged into a nontributary groundwater aquifer. The rules promulgated pursuant to this subsection (9)(d) must effectuate the maximum utilization of aquifers through the conjunctive use of surface and groundwater resources.

(10)  Owners of such permits issued pursuant to subsection (4) of this section

shall be entitled to the issuance of permits for additional wells to be constructed on the land referred to in subsection (4) of this section. The standards of subsection (4) of this section shall be applied as if the applications for those additional well permits were filed on the same dates that the original applications were filed.

(11) (a) (I)  A person shall not, in connection with the extraction of sand and

gravel by open mining as defined in section 34-32.5-103 (15), expose groundwater to the atmosphere unless the person has obtained a well permit from the state engineer pursuant to this section. The state engineer shall issue a well permit upon approval by the water court of a plan for augmentation or upon approval by the state engineer of a plan of substitute supply; except that no increased replacement of water shall be required by the water court or the state engineer whenever the operator or owner of land being mined has, prior to January 15, 1989, entered into and continually thereafter complied with a written agreement with a water conservancy district or water users' association to replace or augment the depletions in connection with or resulting from open mining of sand and gravel. The well permit and plan of substitute supply may authorize uses of water incidental to open mining for sand and gravel, including processing and washing mined materials; dust suppression; mined land reclamation including temporary irrigation for revegetation; liner or slurry wall construction; production of concrete and other aggregate-based construction materials; dewatering; and mitigation of impacts from mining and dewatering.

(II)  Any person who extracted sand and gravel by open mining and exposed

groundwater to the atmosphere after December 31, 1980, shall apply for a well permit pursuant to this section and, if applicable, shall apply for approval of a plan for augmentation or a plan of substitute supply prior to July 15, 1990.

(b)  If any groundwater was exposed to the atmosphere in connection with

the extraction of sand and gravel by open mining as defined in section 34-32-103 (9), C.R.S., prior to January 1, 1981, no such well permit, plan for augmentation, or plan of substitute supply shall be required to replace depletions from evaporation; except that the burden of proving that such groundwater was exposed prior to January 1, 1981, shall be upon the party claiming the benefit of this exception. Notwithstanding the provisions of this paragraph (b), judgments and decrees entered prior to July 1, 1989, approving plans for augmentation, which plans include the replacement of depletions from such evaporation, shall be given full effect and shall be enforced according to their terms.

(c)  Any person who has reactivated or reactivates open mining operations

which exposed groundwater to the atmosphere but which ceased activity prior to January 1, 1981, shall obtain a well permit and shall apply for approval of a plan for augmentation or a plan of substitute supply pursuant to paragraph (a) of this subsection (11).

(d)  No person who obtains or operates a plan for augmentation or plan of

substitute supply prior to July 1, 1989, shall be required to make replacement for the depletions from evaporation exempted in this subsection (11) or otherwise replace water for increased calls which may result therefrom.

(e)  In addition to the well permit filing fee required by subsection (2) of this

section, the state engineer shall collect the following fees for exposing groundwater to the atmosphere for the extraction of sand and gravel by open mining:

(I)  For persons who exposed groundwater to the atmosphere on or after

January 1, 1981, but prior to July 15, 1989, one thousand five hundred ninety-three dollars; except that, if such plan is filed prior to July 15, 1990, as required by subparagraph (II) of paragraph (a) of this subsection (11), the filing fee shall be seventy dollars if such plan includes ten acres or less of exposed groundwater surface area or three hundred fifty dollars if such plan includes more than ten acres of exposed groundwater surface area;

(II)  For persons who expose groundwater to the atmosphere on or after July

15, 1989, one thousand five hundred ninety-three dollars regardless of the number of acres exposed. In the case of new mining operations, such fee shall cover two years of operation of the plan.

(III)  For persons who reactivated or who reactivate mining operations that

ceased activity prior to January 1, 1981, and enlarge the surface area of any gravel pit lake beyond the area it covered before the cessation of activity, one thousand five hundred ninety-three dollars;

(IV)  For persons who request renewal of an approved substitute water

supply plan prior to the expiration date of the plan, two hundred fifty-seven dollars regardless of the number of acres exposed;

(V)  For persons whose approved substitute water supply plan has expired

and who submit a subsequent plan, one thousand five hundred ninety-three dollars regardless of the number of acres exposed. An approved plan shall be considered expired if the applicant has not applied for renewal before the expiration date of the plan. The state engineer shall notify the applicant in writing if the plan is considered expired.

(VI)  For persons whose proposed substitute water supply plan was

disapproved and who submit a subsequent plan, one thousand five hundred ninety-three dollars regardless of the number of acres exposed. The state engineer shall notify the applicant in writing of disapproval of a plan.

(f)  Excluding the well permit filing fee required by subsection (2) of this

section, the state treasurer shall credit all fees collected with an application for approval of a plan for augmentation or a plan of substitute supply to the water resources cash fund created in section 37-80-111.7 (1).

(g)  A person who has obtained a reclamation permit pursuant to section 34-32-112, C.R.S., shall be allowed to apply for a single well permit and to submit a

single plan for augmentation or a single plan of substitute supply for the entire acreage covered by the reclamation plan without regard to the number of gravel pit lakes placed within such acreage.

(12) (a)  In considering any well permit application in water division 3 that

involves a new withdrawal of groundwater that will affect the rate or direction of movement of water in the confined aquifer, the state engineer shall recognize that unappropriated water is not made available and injury is not prevented as a result of the reduction of water consumption by nonirrigated native vegetation.

(b) (I)  Repealed.


(II)  Subparagraph (I) of this paragraph (b) was repealed, effective July 1,

2004; except that nothing in this subsection (12) shall affect the validity of the rules adopted by the state engineer for groundwater withdrawals in water division 3, or affect the applicability of such rules to well permits that have been or will be issued, and judicial decrees that have been or will be entered, for the withdrawal of groundwater in water division 3.

(13)  Notwithstanding the amount specified for any fee in this section, the

commission by rule or as otherwise provided by law may reduce the amount of one or more of the fees if necessary pursuant to section 24-75-402 (3), C.R.S., to reduce the uncommitted reserves of the fund to which all or any portion of one or more of the fees is credited. After the uncommitted reserves of the fund are sufficiently reduced, the commission by rule or as otherwise provided by law may increase the amount of one or more of the fees as provided in section 24-75-402 (4), C.R.S.

(14)  The state engineer may issue permits for augmentation wells only in

accordance with plans for augmentation approved by the water judge for water division 1 and substitute water supply plans approved pursuant to section 37-92-308 that include such wells.

(15)  A person withdrawing water from a well pursuant to subsection (1) or (4)

of this section may use graywater through the use of a graywater treatment works, as those terms are defined in section 25-8-103 (8.3) and (8.4), C.R.S., in compliance with the requirements of section 25-8-205 (1)(g), C.R.S. Any limitations on use set forth in the well permit, and the provisions of any decreed plan for augmentation, apply to the use of graywater.

Source: L. 65: R&RE, p. 1265, � 1. C.R.S. 1963: � 148-18-36. L. 67: p. 277, � 10.

L. 71: pp. 1317, 1324, 1325, �� 16, 3, 5. L. 73: p. 1520, � 1. L. 77: (3)(c) and (3)(d) added, p. 1700, � 1, effective July 1. L. 79: (3)(a) amended, p. 1377, � 1, effective May 18. L. 83: (5) added, p. 1418, � 1, effective May 23; (6) added, p. 2080, � 2, effective October 11. L. 85: (1), (3)(a), and (4) amended and (7) to (10) added, p. 1161, � 3, effective July 1; (8) amended, p. 1372, � 55, effective July 1. L. 87: (2) and (3)(a) amended, p. 1302, � 6, effective July 2. L. 89: (11) added, p. 1422, � 2, effective July 15. L. 92: (2) and (3)(c) amended, p. 2299, � 5, effective March 19; (4) amended, p. 2310, � 1, effective March 20. L. 93: (4)(b.5) amended, p. 85, � 1, effective March 30; (11)(e) and (11)(f) amended, p. 1833, � 3, effective June 6. L. 94: (9)(d) added, p. 617, � 1, effective April 13; (3)(a)(I) amended, p. 1208, � 1, effective May 19. L. 95: (2) amended, p. 139, � 2, effective April 7. L. 96: (2)(b)(I), (2)(b)(II), (4)(a), and IP(8) amended, pp. 327, 325, �� 4, 1, effective April 16; (9)(c) amended and (9)(c.5) added, p. 1361, � 2, effective June 1. L. 98: (12) added, p. 853, � 2, effective May 26; (9)(c)(II) and (9)(c.5)(II) amended, p. 1072, � 1, effective June 1; (13) added, p. 1344, � 74, effective June 1. L. 99: (9)(c)(II) and (9)(c.5)(II) amended, p. 670, � 1, effective May 18. L. 2001: (12)(b) amended, p. 158, � 2, effective March 28; (9)(c)(II) and (9)(c.5)(II) amended, p. 727, � 2, effective July 1. L. 2003: (2)(a) and (3)(a)(I)(A) amended and (3)(a)(I)(A.3) and (3)(a)(I)(A.5) added, p. 46, � 6, effective (see editor's note); (14) added, p. 1454, � 4, effective April 30; (9)(c), (9)(c.5), and (12)(b) amended, pp. 1595, 1596, �� 1, 3, effective May 2; (2)(a)(I)(A) and (2)(a)(II) amended, p. 1684, � 17, effective May 14. L. 2004: (3)(a) R&RE and (3)(c) amended, pp. 1128, 1129, �� 1, 2, effective May 27. L. 2006: (11)(e) amended, p. 1271, � 2, effective July 1. L. 2009: (2)(b) and IP(7) amended and (7)(c) added, (HB 09-1303), ch. 390, pp. 2108, 2109, �� 2, 3, effective June 2. L. 2010: IP(7), (7)(a), and (7)(b) amended, (SB 10-165), ch. 31, p. 112, � 1, effective March 22. L. 2011: IP(7) and (7)(c) amended, (HB 11-1286), ch. 135, p. 473, � 1, effective May 4. L. 2012: (9)(c)(II) and (9)(c.5)(II) amended, (SB 12-008), ch. 7, p. 21, � 1, effective March 8; (2)(b)(II)(B), (2)(b)(II)(E), and (3)(c) amended, (SB 12-175), ch. 208, p. 884, � 156, effective July 1; (11)(f) amended, (SB 12-009), ch. 197, p. 791, � 4, effective July 1. L. 2013: (15) added, (HB 13-1044), ch. 228, p. 1090, � 8, effective May 15. L. 2015: (9)(c) repealed and (9)(c.5) amended, (SB 15-010), ch. 5, p. 11, � 1, effective March 13. L. 2017: (9)(d) amended, (HB 17-1076), ch. 89, p. 272, � 1, effective August 9. L. 2018: (11)(a)(I) amended, (SB 18-041), ch. 9, p. 157, � 2, effective August 8. L. 2023: (1) and (7)(a) amended, (SB 23-285), ch. 235, p. 1232, � 4, effective July 1. L. 2025: (2)(a)(II), (2)(b)(I), IP(2)(b)(II), (2)(b)(II)(A), (2)(b)(II)(B), and (2)(c) amended and (2)(e) and (7.5) added, (HB 25-1165), ch. 257, p. 1302, � 10, effective August 6; (3)(a)(I), (3)(c), and (3)(d) amended and (3)(e) and (3)(f) added, (HB 25-1014), ch. 388, p. 2183, � 2, effective August 6.

Editor's note: (1)  Section 10 of chapter 7, Session Laws of Colorado 2003,

provides for an effective date of March 1, 2003; however, the Governor did not sign the act until March 5, 2003.

(2)  Subsection (12)(b)(II) provided for the repeal of subsection (12)(b)(I),

effective July 1, 2004. (See L. 2003, p. 1596.)

(3)  Subsection (2)(a)(I)(B) provided for the repeal of subsection (2)(a)(I),

effective July 1, 2006. (See L. 2003, p. 46.)

(4)  Section 2 of chapter 135, Session Laws of Colorado 2011, provides that

the act amending the introductory portion to subsection (7) and subsection (7)(c) applies to nontributary determinations made and rules promulgated before, on, or after May 4, 2011.

(5)  Section 9(2) of chapter 388 (HB 25-1014), Session Laws of Colorado

2025, provides that the act changing this section applies to well permit applications that are pending before, on, or after August 6, 2025, and to valid well permits in existence before, on, or after August 6, 2025.

Cross references: (1)  For the State Administrative Procedure Act, see

article 4 of title 24; for the definition of designated groundwater, see � 37-90-103 (6); for small capacity wells, see � 37-90-105; for definitions of underground water, see �� 37-90-103 (19) and 37-92-103 (11); for exemptions from and presumptions formed in the application of article 92 of this title 37, see � 37-92-602.

(2)  For the legislative declaration contained in the 2003 act amending

subsections (2)(a) and (3)(a)(I)(A) and enacting subsections (3)(a)(I)(A.3) and (3)(a)(I)(A.5), see section 1 of chapter 7, Session Laws of Colorado 2003. For the legislative declaration in the 2013 act adding subsection (15), see section 1 of chapter 228, Session Laws of Colorado 2013. For the legislative declaration in HB 25-1165, see section 1 of chapter 257, Session Laws of Colorado 2025.


C.R.S. § 38-1-101

38-1-101. Compensation - public use - commission - jury - court - prohibition on elimination of nonconforming uses or nonconforming property design by amortization - limitation on extraterritorial condemnation by municipalities - definitions. (1) (a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, in order to protect property rights, without the consent of the owner of the property, private property shall not be taken or damaged by the state or any political subdivision for a public or private use without just compensation.

(b) (I)  For purposes of satisfying the requirements of this section, public

use shall not include the taking of private property for transfer to a private entity for the purpose of economic development or enhancement of tax revenue. Private property may otherwise be taken solely for the purpose of furthering a public use.

(II)  By enacting subparagraph (I) of this paragraph (b), the general assembly

does not intend to create a new procedural mechanism to bring about the condemnation of private property. By enacting subparagraph (I) of this paragraph (b), the general assembly intends to limit only as provided in subparagraph (I) of this paragraph (b), and not expand, the definition of public use.

(c)  Nothing in this section shall affect the right of a private party to condemn

property as otherwise provided by law.

(2) (a)  In all cases in which compensation is not made by the state in its

corporate capacity, such compensation shall be ascertained by a board of commissioners of not less than three disinterested and impartial freeholders pursuant to section 38-1-105 (1) or by a jury when required by the owner of the property as prescribed in section 38-1-106. All questions and issues, except the amount of compensation, shall be determined by the court unless all parties interested in the action stipulate and agree that the compensation may be so ascertained by the court. In the event of such stipulation and agreement, the court shall proceed as provided in this article for the trial of such causes by a board of commissioners or jury.

(b)  Notwithstanding any other provision of law, in any condemnation action,

without the consent of the owner of the property, the burden of proof is on the condemning entity to demonstrate, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the taking of private property is for a public use, unless the condemnation action involves a taking for the eradication of blight, in which case the burden of proof is on the condemning entity to demonstrate, by clear and convincing evidence, that the taking of the property is necessary for the eradication of blight.

(3) (a)  Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, a local

government shall not enact or enforce an ordinance, resolution, or regulation that requires a nonconforming property use that was lawful at the time of its inception to be terminated or eliminated by amortization.

(b)  (Deleted by amendment, L. 2006, p. 1749, � 1, effective June 6, 2006.)


(4) (a)  The general assembly hereby finds and declares that:


(I)  The acquisition by condemnation by a home rule or statutory municipality

of property outside of its territorial boundaries involves matters of both statewide and local concern because such acquisition by condemnation may interfere with the plans and operations of other local governments and of the state.

(II)  In order that each local government and the state enjoy the greatest

flexibility with respect to the planning and development of land within its territorial boundaries, it is necessary that the powers of a home rule or statutory municipality to acquire by condemnation property outside of its territorial boundaries be limited to the narrowest extent permitted by article XX of the state constitution.

(b) (I)  Effective January 1, 2004, no home rule or statutory municipality shall

either acquire by condemnation property located outside of its territorial boundaries nor provide any funding, in whole or in part, for the acquisition by condemnation by any other public or private party of property located outside of its territorial boundaries; except that the requirements of this paragraph (b) shall not apply to condemnation for water works, light plants, power plants, transportation systems, heating plants, any other public utilities or public works, or for any purposes necessary for such uses.

(II)  Effective January 1, 2004, no home rule or statutory municipality shall

either acquire by condemnation property located outside of its territorial boundaries for the purpose of parks, recreation, open space, conservation, preservation of views or scenic vistas, or for similar purposes, nor provide any funding, in whole or in part, for the acquisition by condemnation by any other private or public party of property located outside of its territorial boundaries for the purpose of parks, recreation, open space, conservation, preservation of views or scenic vistas, or for similar purposes except where the municipality has obtained the consent of both the owner of the property to be acquired by condemnation and the governing body of the local government in which territorial boundaries the property is located.

(c)  Effective January 1, 2004, the provisions of this subsection (4) shall

supersede any inconsistent statutory provisions whether contained in this title or any other title of the Colorado Revised Statutes.

(5)  For purposes of this section, unless the context otherwise requires:


(a)  Local government means a county, city and county, town, or home rule

or statutory city.

(b)  Political subdivision means a county; city and county; city; town; service

authority; school district; local improvement district; law enforcement authority; county revitalization authority; urban renewal authority; city or county housing authority; water, sanitation, fire protection, metropolitan, irrigation, drainage, or other special district; or any other kind of municipal, quasi-municipal, or public corporation organized pursuant to law.

Source: G.L. � 1058. G.S. C. � 237. R.S. 08: � 2415. C.L. � 6311. CSA: C. 61, � 1.

CRS 53: � 50-1-1. L. 61: p. 370, � 1. C.R.S. 1963: � 50-1-1. L. 84: Entire section amended, p. 972, � 1, effective February 17. L. 2003: Entire section amended, p. 2667, � 2, effective June 6. L. 2004: (4) added, p. 1747, � 6, effective June 4. L. 2006: (1), (2), and (3) amended and (5) added, p. 1749, � 1, effective June 6. L. 2024: (5)(b) amended, (HB 24-1172), ch. 387, p. 2861, � 14, effective August 7.

Cross references: (1)  For jurisdiction of federal court, when properly invoked,

see County of Allegheny v. Frank Mashuda Company, 360 U.S. 185, 79 S. Ct. 1060, 3 L. Ed. 2d 1163 (1959), and Louisiana Power and Light Company v. City of Thibodaux, 360 U.S. 25, 79 S. Ct. 1070, 3 L. Ed. 2d 1058 (1959); for taking private property for private use, see � 14 of art. II, Colo. Const.; for taking property for public use, see � 15 of art. II, Colo. Const.

(2)  For the legislative declaration in the 2003 act amending this section, see

section 1 of chapter 420, Session Laws of Colorado 2003.


C.R.S. § 38-12-502

38-12-502. Definitions. As used in this part 5 and part 8 of this article 12, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1)  Appliance means a refrigerator, range stove, oven, air conditioner,

permanent cooling device, or portable cooling device that is included within a residential premises by a landlord. Nothing in this part 5 requires a landlord to provide an appliance, and this part 5 applies to appliances solely to the extent that appliances are part of a written agreement between the landlord and the tenant or are otherwise actually provided to a tenant by the landlord at the inception of or during the tenancy for the duration of the rental agreement.

(2)  Common areas means the facilities and appurtenances to a residential

premises, including the grounds, areas, and facilities held out for the use of tenants generally or whose use is promised to a tenant.

(2.5)  Disability has the same meaning as set forth in the federal

Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, 42 U.S.C. sec. 12101 et seq., and its related amendments and implementing regulations.

(3)  Dwelling unit means a structure or the part of a structure that is used

as a home, residence, or sleeping place by a tenant.

(4)  Repealed.


(4.5)  Environmental public health event means a disaster or an

environmental event, such as a wildfire, a flood, or a release of toxic contaminants, that could create negative health and safety impacts or otherwise makes a residential premises uninhabitable, as described in section 38-12-505, for tenants that live in nearby residential premises.

(4.6)  Extreme heat event means a day on which the national weather

service of the national oceanic and atmospheric administration has declared, predicted, or indicated that there is a heat advisory, excessive heat watch, or excessive heat warning for the county in which a residential premises is located.

(4.8)  Hotel room means one or more rooms in a licensed or permitted

commercial lodging establishment.

(5)  Landlord means the owner, manager, lessor, sublessor, successor in

interest, or agent of the owner of a residential premises.

(5.7) (a)  Maintenance service means any service provided at a landlord's

expense for the purpose of generally maintaining, inspecting, repairing, or ensuring the upkeep and preservation of a residential premises.

(b)  Maintenance service does not include a one-time or specialized third-party contractor who is not an agent of the landlord and only provides a limited or

expert service to a residential premises.

(6)  Mold means microscopic organisms or fungi that can grow in damp

conditions in the interior of a building.

(6.3)  Organizing means any lawful, concerted activity by a tenant or a

tenant's guest or an invitee for the purpose of mutual aid or establishing, supporting, or operating a tenants' association or similar organization or exercising any other right or remedy provided by law.

(6.5) (a)  Portable cooling device means an air conditioner or evaporative

cooler, including devices mounted in a window or that are designed to sit on the floor.

(b)  Portable cooling device does not include a permanent cooling device

where installation of the device requires permanent alteration to the dwelling unit.

(6.8)  Remedial action means timely and good faith efforts to repair or

remedy an uninhabitable condition at a residential premises or dwelling unit and to mitigate any negative effect of the condition.

(7)  Rental agreement means the agreement, written or oral, embodying the

terms and conditions concerning the use and occupancy of a residential premises.

(8)  Residential premises means a dwelling unit, the structure of which the

unit is a part, and the common areas.

(9) (a)  Tenant means an individual entitled under a rental agreement to

occupy a dwelling unit to the exclusion of others.

(b)  Tenant includes any member of a tenant's household, including any

individual who has a right to occupy the dwelling unit with the tenant under any local, state, or federal law; the rental agreement; or any separate agreement with the landlord or any individual who otherwise has explicit or implicit permission from the landlord to occupy the dwelling unit.

(10)  Repealed.


(11) (a)  Written, writing, or in writing means any record conveying

information in a form that may be retained by the recipient or sender or that is capable of being displayed in visual text in a form the individual may retain, including paper, electronic, and digital.

(b)  Written, writing, or in writing, as defined in subsection (11)(a) of this

section, applies only to this part 5 and does not apply to the written notice or demand requirements in article 40 of title 13.

Source: L. 2008: Entire part added, p. 1820, � 3, effective September 1. L.

2018: IP amended, (SB 18-010), ch. 61, p. 608, � 1, effective August 8. L. 2019: Entire section amended, (HB 19-1170), ch. 229, p. 2305, � 2, effective August 2. L. 2023: (4.5) and (10) added, (HB 23-1254), ch. 169, p. 825, � 2, effective May 12. L. 2024: (1), (4.5), (5), and (9) amended, (2.5), (4.6), (4.8), (5.7), (6.3), (6.5), (6.8), and (11) added, and (4) and (10) repealed, (SB 24-094), ch. 158, p. 702, � 2, effective May 3.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in HB 23-1254, see section 1

of chapter 169, Session Laws of Colorado 2023.


C.R.S. § 38-12-503

38-12-503. Warranty of habitability - notice - landlord obligations. (1) In every rental agreement, the landlord is deemed to warrant that the residential premises is fit for human habitation at the inception of the tenant's occupancy and that the landlord will maintain the residential premises as fit for human habitation throughout the entire period that the tenant lawfully occupies the residential premises or dwelling unit.

(2)  A landlord breaches the warranty of habitability set forth in subsection (1)

of this section if:

(a)  A residential premises is:


(I)  Uninhabitable as described in section 38-12-505; or


(II)  In a condition that materially interferes with the tenant's life, health, or

safety; and

(b)  The landlord has notice, as described in subsection (3)(e) of this section,

of the condition described in subsection (2)(a) of this section and:

(I)  Has failed to commence remedial action in accordance with subsection (4)

of this section within the following period after having notice:

(A)  Twenty-four hours, where the condition materially interferes with the

tenant's life, health, or safety; or

(B)  Seventy-two hours, where the residential premises are uninhabitable as

described in section 38-12-505 or otherwise;

(II)  Has commenced remedial action, in accordance with subsection (4) of

this section, within the period described in subsection (2)(b)(I) of this section, but failed to continue performing the remedial action as needed until the condition was remedied or repaired;

(III)  Has failed to completely remedy or repair the condition within a

reasonable time after commencing remedial action;

(IV)  Has failed to comply with subsection (8) of this section concerning a

residential premises that has been damaged due to an environmental public health event; or

(V)  Leases a residential premises to a tenant and the residential premises is

in an uninhabitable condition at the inception of the tenant's occupancy.

(3) (a)  There is a rebuttable presumption that a landlord has failed to

commence remedial action, continue performing remedial action, or completely remedy or repair a condition that renders the residential premises uninhabitable within a reasonable time if the tenant establishes that the residential premises is uninhabitable, as described in subsection (2)(a) of this section, the tenant establishes that the landlord has notice of the uninhabitable condition, as described in subsection (3)(e) of this section, and:

(I)  The landlord has failed to communicate with the tenant after having

notice of a condition within the time frame required under subsection (6) of this section; or

(II)  The condition continues to exist:


(A)  Fourteen calendar days after the landlord received notice of the

condition, where the residential premises are uninhabitable as described in section 38-12-505 or otherwise; or

(B)  Seven calendar days after the landlord received notice of the condition,

where the condition materially interferes with the tenant's life, health, or safety.

(b) (I)  A landlord may rebut the presumption described in subsection (3)(a) of

this section by establishing, by a preponderance of the evidence, that:

(A)  The landlord commenced and continued performing remedial action but

the condition could not be completely remedied or repaired due to circumstances outside the landlord's reasonable control;

(B)  Remedial action would require entry to the tenant's dwelling unit and the

tenant unreasonably denied the landlord entry to the dwelling unit; or

(C)  The tenant engaged in conduct that unreasonably delayed or otherwise

prevented the landlord from commencing remedial action within the time period described in subsection (2)(b)(I) of this section, from continuing to perform remedial action, or from completely remedying or repairing the condition within a reasonable time.

(II)  A tenant otherwise has the burden of proof to establish a breach of the

warranty of habitability.

(c)  Notwithstanding the circumstances described in subsection (3)(b)(I) of

this section, a landlord must reasonably continue to make efforts to commence or continue performing remedial action to remedy or repair a condition that renders the tenant's residential premises uninhabitable and for which the landlord has notice. These efforts to commence or continue performing remedial action shall include prompt correspondence and good faith cooperation with the tenant and may require prompt correspondence and good faith cooperation with maintenance staff, third-party contractors, a government official, or any other person whose involvement is necessary to remedy or repair the condition.

(d)  If a tenant denies entry to the dwelling unit and entry to the dwelling unit

is necessary to commence or continue performing remedial action, the presumptive time periods described in subsection (3)(a)(II) of this section are tolled until the date that the tenant proposes as a reasonable alternative date and time for entry or another date and time that the landlord proposes and to which the tenant agrees in accordance with subsection (6)(b) of this section.

(e)  A landlord has notice of a condition described in subsection (2)(a) of this

section if there is any writing that provides a basis for the landlord to substantially know that the condition exists or may exist, including:

(I)  Written notice from a governmental entity regarding the condition;


(II)  Written notice from a third party regarding the condition;


(III)  Written notice from a tenant concerning a condition that may affect

multiple tenants;

(IV)  A tenant's written correspondence with maintenance staff or a

maintenance service provided by the landlord, including a maintenance service provided by a third party;

(V)  Written observations or written reports that the landlord has obtained

personally, directly, or indirectly; or

(VI)  Written notice from the tenant regarding the condition, which notice is

sent in a manner that the landlord typically uses to communicate with the tenant.

(f) (I)  Any notice provided by a tenant is sufficient if the notice is provided to

the landlord in a manner that is required or permitted by the rental agreement or by any property rules or regulations pertaining to the tenancy or residential premises.

(II)  A rental agreement or property rule or regulation pertaining to a tenancy

or residential premises that states that a tenant may or must give notice of an uninhabitable condition to the landlord verbally waives the landlord's right to receive written notice under subsection (3)(e) of this section.

(4) (a) (I)  Upon having notice of a condition described in subsection (2)(a) of

this section, a landlord shall commence remedial action within the time period described in subsection (2)(b) of this section unless the circumstances described in subsection (3)(b)(I) of this section prevented the landlord from commencing remedial action.

(II)  If the condition materially interferes with the tenant's life, health, or

safety or is a condition described in section 38-12-505 (4)(l), remedial action must include a landlord providing the tenant, at the request of the tenant and within twenty-four hours after the tenant's request:

(A)  A comparable dwelling unit, as selected by the landlord, at no cost to the

tenant; or

(B)  A hotel room, as selected by the landlord, at no cost to the tenant.


(b) (I)  A comparable dwelling unit or hotel room must include at least the

same number of beds as there are beds used in a tenant's dwelling unit.

(II)  If a tenant requires a comparable dwelling unit or hotel room for more

than forty-eight hours:

(A)  The comparable dwelling unit or hotel room must include a refrigerator

with a freezer and a range stove or oven; or

(B)  The landlord must provide a per diem for daily meals and incidentals for

each tenant in an amount that is at least equal to the Colorado state employee per diem for intrastate travel as established by the department of personnel. The landlord must provide the per diem to the tenant at the time the landlord reasonably expects the tenant to be in a comparable dwelling unit or hotel room for more than forty-eight hours and for every twenty-four-hour period thereafter.

(III) (A)  A comparable dwelling unit or hotel room must be habitable,

accessible to an individual with disabilities if the tenant has a disability, and located within five miles of the tenant's dwelling unit, unless the tenant consents at the time of the request or after the request to a comparable dwelling unit or hotel room that is further than five miles from the tenant's dwelling unit.

(B)  The landlord may select a comparable dwelling unit or hotel room that is

further than five miles but less than ten miles from the tenant's dwelling unit if the comparable dwelling unit or hotel room that is further away from the tenant's dwelling unit is substantially less expensive than other options that are available within five miles of the tenant's dwelling unit.

(C)  If a comparable dwelling unit or hotel room within five or ten miles of the

tenant's dwelling unit is not available for the tenant's use in accordance with subsections (4)(b)(III)(A) and (4)(b)(III)(B) of this section, the landlord must select the nearest available comparable dwelling unit or hotel room.

(IV)  If a tenant is relocated pursuant to subsection (4)(a) of this section, a

landlord is required to pay for only the following expenses that arise from relocating the tenant:

(A)  A per diem allowance pursuant to subsection (4)(b)(II)(B) of this section;

and

(B)  Reasonable costs that are incurred due to the tenant's relocation,

including storage and transportation costs.

(V)  A relocated tenant remains responsible for any portion of the rent

payment owed under the rental agreement during the period of any temporary relocation and for the remainder of the term of the rental agreement following remediation.

(c)  If a tenant is provided a hotel room due to a condition described in

subsection (4)(a)(II) of this section and the condition cannot be remedied or repaired within sixty consecutive days due to circumstances outside the landlord's reasonable control, the landlord is required to provide the hotel room to the tenant for only up to sixty consecutive days. The landlord is relieved of the landlord's obligation to provide hotel accommodations to the tenant if the landlord:

(I)  Determines that the condition at the residential premises cannot be

remedied or repaired within sixty consecutive days due to circumstances outside the landlord's reasonable control;

(II)  Provides the tenant, at the earliest opportunity, written notice that

specifies:

(A)  That the uninhabitable condition at the residential premises cannot be

remedied or repaired to a condition that no longer materially interferes with a tenant's life, health, or safety within sixty consecutive days from the start of the tenant's hotel stay;

(B)  The date that the tenant's hotel accommodations will no longer be

provided to the tenant at the landlord's expense, which date must be no earlier than sixty consecutive days after the start of the tenant's hotel stay at the landlord's expense; and

(C)  That the tenant may terminate their rental agreement with no liability or

financial penalty to the tenant; and

(III)  Returns to the tenant the tenant's full security deposit on or before the

date that the landlord provides the tenant notice in accordance with subsection (4)(c)(II) of this section.

(5) (a)  A landlord shall maintain accurate and complete records of all written

notices and correspondence, as described in subsection (3)(e) of this section, and all documentation relevant to any uninhabitable condition or remedial action taken to remedy or repair a condition that renders a tenant's dwelling unit uninhabitable.

(b)  A landlord must maintain the records described in subsection (5)(a) of

this section for the entire period of the tenant's occupancy of the dwelling unit and for at least three years thereafter.

(c)  A landlord shall provide to a tenant, upon request by the tenant, any

record, notice, correspondence, or other documentation related to a condition or remedial action within ten calendar days after the tenant's request.

(6) (a)  A landlord that has notice of a condition described in subsection (2)(a)

of this section shall:

(I)  Contact the tenant not more than twenty-four hours after receiving the

notice; except that a landlord may take up to seventy-two hours to contact the tenant after the landlord has notice that the residential premises is inaccessible because of an environmental public health event. The communication must indicate the landlord's intentions to remedy or repair the condition, including an estimate of when the remedial action will commence and when it will be completed.

(II)  Inform the tenant of the landlord's responsibilities under subsection (4) of

this section, including the landlord's obligation to provide the tenant a comparable dwelling unit or hotel room at no cost to the tenant; and

(III)  Provide the tenant with written notice at least twenty-four hours in

advance of entry to the dwelling unit if entry to the dwelling unit is necessary to commence or maintain remedial action; except that the landlord is not required to provide advance notice when the condition materially and imminently threatens an individual's life, health, or safety or when the condition poses an active and ongoing threat of causing, and, without immediate remediation, would cause, substantial and material damage to the residential premises.

(b) (I)  A landlord shall provide the date and time the landlord intends to enter

a tenant's dwelling unit and a reasonable estimate of the duration the landlord, or any other party acting on behalf of the landlord, will need to be in the tenant's dwelling unit.

(II)  Except as provided in subsection (6)(a)(III) of this section, a tenant may

reasonably deny entry to the dwelling unit at the date and time the landlord requests entry. The landlord must then propose and the tenant may accept or propose a reasonable alternative date and time for the landlord to enter the tenant's dwelling unit.

(III)  A tenant may permit the landlord to enter the dwelling unit with less

than twenty-four hours advance notice.

(7)  A landlord that has notice of a condition, as described in subsection (2)(a)

of this section, at the tenant's dwelling unit or the residential premises is responsible for remedying and repairing the dwelling unit or residential premises to a habitable standard at the landlord's expense, except as described in subsection (9) of this section.

(8) (a)  A landlord that has notice of a condition, as described in subsection

(2)(a) of this section, at a residential premises that has been damaged due to an environmental public health event shall comply with the standards described in section 38-12-505 (1)(b)(XIII) within a reasonable amount of time given the condition of the premises and at the landlord's expense.

(b)  Once a governmental entity, government official, law enforcement

officer, or public safety officer deems a tenant's dwelling unit safe for reentry after an environmental public health event, the landlord must grant the tenant or tenant's representative access to the dwelling unit for the purposes of retrieving the tenant's personal property, even if the residential premises that includes the tenant's dwelling unit is considered uninhabitable under this section.

(c)  A landlord that has remedied or repaired a residential premises to a

habitable standard following an environmental public health event shall provide the tenant with documentation that demonstrates compliance with the standards described in section 38-12-505 (1)(b)(XIII).

(d)  A landlord's submission of an insurance claim for an uninhabitable or a

contaminated residential premises after the landlord has notice of a condition that renders the residential premises uninhabitable after an environmental public health event is not considered evidence of remediation.

(9)  When a condition described in subsection (2)(a) of this section is

substantially caused by the misconduct of the tenant, a member of the tenant's household, a guest or an invitee of the tenant, or a person under the tenant's direction or control, the condition does not constitute a basis for a breach of the warranty of habitability under subsection (2) of this section. It is not misconduct under this subsection (9) by a victim of domestic violence; domestic abuse; unlawful sexual behavior, as described in section 16-22-102 (9); or stalking if the condition is the result of domestic violence; domestic abuse; unlawful sexual behavior, as described in section 16-22-102 (9); or stalking and the landlord has notice at any time of the domestic violence; domestic abuse; unlawful sexual behavior, as described in section 16-22-102 (9); or stalking, as described in section 38-12-402 (2)(a).

(10)  Except as set forth in this part 5, any agreement waiving or modifying

any right, remedy, obligation, or prohibition provided in this part 5 is void as contrary to public policy.

(11)  A landlord may terminate a rental agreement, if permitted by the rental

agreement and without further liability to the landlord or tenant, if the residential premises is damaged as a result of a sudden environmental public health event or an action taken by a governmental authority that renders continued occupancy of the residential premises impossible or unlawful and:

(a)  The landlord was not already in breach of the warranty of habitability

prior to the sudden environmental public health event or government action;

(b)  It would be impracticable for the landlord to remedy or repair the

residential premises into compliance with the warranty of habitability due to the sudden environmental public health event or government action;

(c)  The landlord gives a minimum of thirty days' written notice to the tenant

concerning the termination of the rental agreement due to the sudden environmental public health event or government action and complies with all landlord obligations under this part 5 through the date of termination;

(d)  The landlord grants the tenant or tenant's representative access to the

tenant's dwelling unit for the purpose of retrieving the tenant's personal property prior to the termination of the rental agreement; except that, if it is unsafe to enter the dwelling unit prior to termination of the rental agreement, the landlord shall agree in a signed writing to grant the tenant or tenant's representative access to the dwelling unit to retrieve personal property at the earliest possible time that it is safe to do so;

(e)  Notwithstanding section 38-12-103, the landlord returns the tenant's

security deposit prior to or on the date of the termination of the rental agreement; and

(f)  The landlord provides a prorated discount or refund for any portion of rent

paid during the time that the dwelling unit is uninhabitable and for which a comparable dwelling unit or hotel room was not provided to the tenant.

(12) (a)  Unless the circumstances described in subsection (3)(b)(I) of this

section prevented a landlord from commencing remedial action, the landlord shall commence remedial action within the period described in subsection (2)(b) of this section upon having notice of:

(I)  Mold associated with dampness in a dwelling unit; or


(II)  Any other condition causing the residential premises to be damp, which

condition, if unremedied or unrepaired, could create mold or would materially interfere with the life, health, or safety of a tenant.

(b)  The remedial action required pursuant to subsection (12)(a) of this section

must include performing all of the following applicable tasks within a reasonable amount of time:

(I)  Mitigating immediate risk from mold by installing a containment, stopping

active sources of water contributing to the mold, installing a high-efficiency particulate air filtration device to reduce a tenant's exposure to mold, and performing all of these tasks within seventy-two hours after receiving notice of the condition;

(II)  Maintaining the containment described in subsection (12)(b)(I) of this

section throughout the remediation and repair process;

(III)  Establishing any additional protections for workers and occupants that

may be appropriate given the condition;

(IV)  Eliminating or limiting moisture sources and drying all materials

impacted by the mold or dampness;

(V)  Decontaminating or removing materials damaged by mold or dampness;


(VI)  Evaluating whether the residential premises has been successfully

remediated, including post-remediation testing for the existence of mold; and

(VII)  Reassembling the residential premises to control sources of moisture to

prevent or limit the recurrence of mold or dampness.

(c)  If the condition described in subsection (12)(a) of this section would

interfere with the tenant's life, health, or safety, the landlord must provide, at the request of the tenant, a comparable dwelling unit or hotel room in accordance with subsection (4) of this section.

(13) (a)  A landlord shall not require a tenant to submit an insurance claim

with the tenant's rental insurance carrier to cover a cost or expense related to remedial action that the landlord is responsible for paying under this part 5.

(b)  A landlord is prohibited from filing a claim with a tenant's rental

insurance carrier to cover a cost or expense related to remedial action that the landlord is responsible for paying under this part 5 without express written permission from the tenant provided at the time the claim is submitted.

(14)  A landlord shall hire a professional, as defined in section 38-12-104 (3),

to remedy or repair a hazardous condition related to gas piping, gas facilities, gas appliances, or other gas equipment at a residential premises.

Source: L. 2008: Entire part added, p. 1821, � 3, effective September 1. L.

2017: (3) amended, (HB 17-1035), ch. 276, p. 1515, � 2, effective June 1. L. 2019: (2), (3), and (4) amended and (2.2), (2.3), and (2.5) added, (HB 19-1170), ch. 229, p. 2306, � 3, effective August 2. L. 2023: (2)(a), (2.3), (2.5), and IP(4)(a) amended and (2.7) added, (HB 23-1254), ch. 169, p. 825, � 3, effective May 12; IP(2) amended and (2.4) added, (SB 23-206), ch. 356, p. 2138, � 4, effective August 7. L. 2024: Entire section R&RE, (SB 24-094), ch. 158, p. 704, � 3, effective May 3.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in SB 23-206, see section 1

of chapter 356, Session Laws of Colorado 2023. For the legislative declaration in HB 23-1254, see section 1 of chapter 169, Session Laws of Colorado 2023.


C.R.S. § 38-12-504

38-12-504. Tenant's maintenance of premises. (1) In addition to any duties imposed upon a tenant by a rental agreement, every tenant of a residential premises has a duty to use that portion of the premises within the tenant's control in a reasonably clean and safe manner. A tenant fails to maintain the premises in a reasonably clean and safe manner when the tenant substantially fails to:

(a)  Comply with obligations imposed upon tenants by applicable provisions

of building, health, and housing codes materially affecting health and safety;

(b)  Keep the dwelling unit reasonably clean, safe, and sanitary as permitted

by the conditions of the unit;

(c)  Dispose of ashes, garbage, rubbish, and other waste from the dwelling

unit in a clean, safe, sanitary, and legally compliant manner;

(d)  Use in a reasonable manner all electrical, plumbing, sanitary, heating,

ventilating, air-conditioning, elevators, and other facilities and appliances in the dwelling unit;

(e)  Conduct himself or herself and require other persons in the residential

premises within the tenant's control to conduct themselves in a manner that does not disturb their neighbors' peaceful enjoyment of the neighbors' dwelling unit; or

(f)  Promptly notify the landlord if the residential premises is uninhabitable as

defined in section 38-12-505 or if there is a condition that could result in the premises becoming uninhabitable if not remedied.

(2)  In addition to the duties set forth in subsection (1) of this section, a tenant

shall not knowingly, intentionally, deliberately, or negligently destroy, deface, damage, impair, or remove any part of the residential premises or knowingly permit any person within his or her control to do so.

(3)  Nothing in this section shall be construed to authorize a modification of a

landlord's obligations under this part 5.

Source: L. 2008: Entire part added, p. 1822, � 3, effective September 1. L.

2024: (3) amended, (SB 24-094), ch.158, p. 713, � 4, effective May 3.


C.R.S. § 38-12-505

38-12-505. Uninhabitable residential premises - habitability procedures - rules - definition. (1) A residential premises is deemed uninhabitable if:

(a)  There is mold that is associated with dampness, or there is any other

condition causing the residential premises to be damp, which condition, if not remedied, would materially interfere with the health or safety of the tenant, excluding the presence of mold that is minor and found on surfaces that can accumulate moisture as part of their proper functioning and intended use;

(b)  It substantially lacks any of the following characteristics:


(I)  Functioning appliances that conformed to applicable law at the time of

installation and that are maintained in good working order;

(II)  Waterproofing and weather protection of roof and exterior walls

maintained in good working order, including unbroken windows and doors;

(III)  Plumbing or gas facilities that conformed to applicable law in effect at

the time of installation and that are maintained in good working order;

(IV)  Running water at all times and hot water in an amount necessary for the

tenant to perform all ordinary activities related to maintaining cleanliness and health, furnished to appropriate fixtures and connected to a sewage disposal system approved under applicable law;

(V)  Functioning heating facilities that conformed to applicable law at the

time of installation and that are maintained in good working order;

(VI)  Electrical lighting, with wiring and electrical equipment that conformed

to applicable law at the time of installation, maintained in good working order;

(VII)  Common areas and areas under the control of the landlord that are kept

reasonably clean, sanitary, and free from all accumulations of debris, filth, rubbish, and garbage and that have appropriate extermination in response to the infestation of rodents, vermin, pests, or insects;

(VIII)  Appropriate extermination in response to the infestation of rodents,

vermin, pests, or insects throughout a residential premises, including compliance with all requirements under part 10 of this article 12;

(IX)  An adequate number of appropriate exterior receptacles for garbage,

waste, and rubbish, in good repair and scheduled to be serviced and emptied at sufficient intervals to ensure containment and proper disposal of all trash, waste, and rubbish;

(X)  Floors, stairways, elevators, and railings maintained in good repair;


(XI)  Locks on all exterior doors and locks or security devices on windows

designed to be opened that are maintained in good working order;

(XII)  Compliance with all applicable building, housing, and health codes, the

violation of which would constitute a condition that materially interferes with the life, health, or safety of the tenant;

(XIII)  Compliance with applicable standards from the American National

Standards Institute, or its successor organization, and all applicable provisions of building, fire, health, and housing codes for the remediation and cleanup of a residential premises following an environmental public health event;

(XIV)  Remediation in compliance with article 18.5 of title 25 if the residential

premises was used as an illegal drug laboratory, as defined in section 25-18.5-101 (8), involving methamphetamine.

(XV)  Compliance with all requirements in section 38-12-803; or


(XVI)  Compliance with all requirements related to cooling devices

established in subsection (7) of this section; or

(c)  It is otherwise unfit for human habitation.


(2)  A deficiency in the common area shall not render a residential premises

uninhabitable as set forth in subsection (1) of this section, unless it materially affects the tenant's use of the tenant's dwelling unit.

(3) (a)  Before a landlord leases a residential premises to a tenant, the

landlord must ensure that the residential premises is fit for human habitation in accordance with section 38-12-503 (1) and that the residential premises is not in a condition described in subsection (1) of this section.

(b)  A landlord that leases a residential premises that is not in compliance

with this section breaches the warranty of habitability pursuant to section 38-12-503 (1), and the tenant may pursue any remedy under section 38-12-507.

(c)  On and after January 1, 2025, every rental agreement between a landlord

and tenant must include a statement in at least twelve-point, bold-faced type that states that every tenant is entitled to safe and healthy housing under Colorado's warranty of habitability and that a landlord is prohibited by law from retaliating against a tenant in any manner for reporting unsafe conditions in the tenant's residential premises, requesting repairs, or seeking to enjoy the tenant's right to safe and healthy housing.

(d)  On and after January 1, 2025, every rental agreement between a landlord

and tenant must include a statement in English and Spanish and in at least twelve-point, bold-faced type that states an address where a tenant can mail or personally deliver written notice of an uninhabitable condition and an email address or accessible online tenant portal or platform where a tenant can deliver written notice of an uninhabitable condition.

(e)  If a landlord provides a tenant with an online tenant portal or platform,

the landlord must post in a conspicuous place in the online tenant portal or platform a statement in English and Spanish that states an address where a tenant can mail or personally deliver written notice of an uninhabitable condition and an email address or accessible online portal or platform where a tenant can deliver written notice of an uninhabitable condition.

(4)  There is a rebuttable presumption that the following conditions at a

residential premises materially interfere with a tenant's life, health, or safety pursuant to section 38-12-503 (2)(a)(II):

(a)  Lack of waterproofing and weather protection for the roof, exterior walls,

exterior doors, and exterior windows of a dwelling unit so that weather-related elements can enter the dwelling unit;

(b)  Any hazardous condition of gas piping, gas facilities, gas appliances, or

other gas equipment;

(c)  Inadequate running water or inadequate running hot water, except for

temporary disruptions in water service due to necessary maintenance, repair, or construction that is being performed or temporary disruptions in water service that a landlord could not reasonably prevent or control;

(d)  Lack of functioning heating facilities and equipment fixtures that are

installed and operating in compliance with applicable law at the time of installation and that are maintained in good working order from October through April of each year;

(e)  Any hazardous condition of electrical wiring, electrical facilities,

electrical appliances, or other electrical equipment;

(f)  Lack of electricity or disruptions of electricity that are caused by a

landlord's failure to maintain electrical wiring, electrical facilities, electrical appliances, or electrical equipment;

(g)  Lack of working locks or security devices on all exterior doors that allow

entry into a residential premises or a dwelling unit and all exterior windows that are designed to be opened;

(h)  Lack of working plumbing or sewage disposal or any condition that allows

sewage, water, moisture, or other contaminants to enter the residential premises other than through properly working plumbing and sewage disposal systems;

(i)  An infestation of rodents, vermin, pests, or insects;


(j)  Any inaccessible fire exits or egress in accordance with applicable

building, housing, fire, and health codes;

(k)  Any missing, damaged, improper, or misaligned chimney or venting on any

fuel-fired heating, ventilation, or cooling system; or

(l)  An inoperable elevator when the tenant has a disability that prevents the

tenant from being able to use the stairs to access the tenant's dwelling unit or the tenant relies on an elevator to access the tenant's dwelling unit and there are no other operable elevators that provide access to the tenant's unit.

(5)  A landlord may rebut the presumption in subsection (4) of this section by

demonstrating, through clear and convincing evidence, that a condition listed in subsection (4) of this section does not materially interfere with a tenant's life, health, or safety.

(6)  Nothing in this section prevents a court or jury from finding that any

condition or combination of conditions described in this section materially interferes with a tenant's life, health, or safety.

(7) (a)  A landlord shall not prohibit or restrict a tenant from installing or

using a portable cooling device, including under any rental agreement or other agreement between the landlord and the tenant; except that the landlord may prohibit or restrict the installation or use of a portable cooling device if the installation or use of the portable cooling device would:

(I)  Violate any building codes, state law, or federal law;


(II)  Violate the portable cooling device manufacturer's written safety

guidelines for installing or using the device;

(III)  Damage the premises or render the premises uninhabitable; or


(IV)  Require more amperage to power the portable cooling device than can

be accommodated by the residential premises', dwelling unit's, or circuit's electrical capacity.

(b)  A landlord that restricts the installation or use of portable cooling

devices at a residential premises with multiple dwelling units under subsection (7)(a)(IV) of this section shall prioritize a tenant who requests the installation or usage of a portable cooling device to accommodate the tenant's disability over other tenants' requests to install or use a portable cooling device.

(c)  A landlord that restricts the installation or use of a portable cooling

device at a residential premises under subsection (7)(a) of this section shall:

(I)  Disclose any restrictions on the installation or use of portable cooling

devices to a tenant or prospective tenant in writing;

(II)  Provide information about whether the landlord intends to operate one or

more common spaces at the residential premises that will be cooled by a portable cooling device or permanent cooling device and available to the tenant during an extreme heat event; and

(III)  If the landlord does not intend to operate common spaces at the

residential premises that will be cooled by a portable cooling device or permanent cooling device, provide information on community cooling spaces that are located near the residential premises and accessible to the tenant during an extreme heat event; except that a landlord is not required to provide information on community cooling spaces if there are no known community cooling spaces within ten miles of the residential premises.

(d) (I)  As used in this subsection (7), unless the context otherwise requires,

community cooling spaces means public spaces that are available to a tenant and that are located on or near the residential premises and that maintain a temperature that is not higher than eighty degrees Fahrenheit.

(II)  Community cooling spaces may include recreation centers, community

centers, and public libraries.

(e)  Nothing in this subsection (7) modifies a landlord's obligation to permit

reasonable modifications and reasonable accommodations for individuals with a disability under section 24-34-502.2.

Source: L. 2008: Entire part added, p. 1822, � 3, effective September 1. L.

2019: (1) and (3) amended, (HB 19-1170), ch. 229, p. 2308, � 4, effective August 2. L. 2023: (1)(b)(XI), (1)(b)(XII), and (3) amended and (1)(b)(XIII) added, (HB 23-1254), ch. 169, p. 826, � 4, effective May 12; (1)(b)(XI) and (1)(b)(XII) amended and (1)(b)(XIV) added, (SB 23-148), ch. 326, p. 1958, � 4, effective August 7. L. 2024: (1)(a), (1)(b)(IV), (1)(b)(VII) to (1)(b)(X), (1)(b)(XIII), (2), and (3) amended and (1)(b)(XV), (1)(b)(XVI), (1)(c), and (4) to (7) added, (SB 24-094), ch. 158, p. 713, � 5, effective May 3.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in HB 23-1254, see section 1

of chapter 169, Session Laws of Colorado 2023.


C.R.S. § 38-12-513

38-12-513. Receivership of residential housing - definition. (1) The purpose of this section is to establish a receivership mechanism that will be available as a remedy for violations of applicable laws and regulations by the landlord of multifamily residential property. The duties of a receiver are to achieve the purposes of this part 5 pursuant to section 38-12-501, to ensure that multifamily residential property is fit for human habitation as required by section 38-12-503 (1), and to ensure that the multifamily residential property complies with all county or municipal public health codes or municipal ordinances regulating public health and safety that apply to multifamily residential property.

(2)  The following parties may apply to the district court for the appointment

of a receiver to operate a multifamily residential property:

(a)  The attorney general, when the attorney general has reasonable cause to

believe that any person, whether in this state or elsewhere, has engaged in or is engaging in a pattern of neglect in connection with the multifamily residential property; and

(b)  A county, city and county, or municipality when the county, city and

county, or municipality has reasonable cause to believe that any person, whether in this state or elsewhere, has engaged in or is engaging in a pattern of neglect in connection with the multifamily residential property.

(c)  As used in this subsection (2), unless the context otherwise requires,

pattern of neglect means evidence that a person has maintained the multifamily residential property in a state of disrepair that constitutes a threat to the health, safety, or security of the tenants or the public. A threat to the health, safety, or security of the tenants includes:

(I)  A vermin or rat infestation;


(II)  Filth or contamination;


(III)  Inadequate ventilation, illumination, sanitary, heating, or life safety

facilities;

(IV)  Inoperative fire suppression or warning equipment;


(V)  Inoperative doors or window locks; and


(VI)  Any other condition that constitutes a hazard to tenants, occupants, or

the public.

(3) (a)  A petitioner seeking the appointment of a receiver pursuant to this

section must file an application with the district court for the county or city and county where the multifamily residential property is located.

(b) (I)  The district court shall not hold a hearing concerning an application for

the appointment of a receiver pursuant to this section sooner than three business days after the following parties have been served with notice thereof, as provided in the Colorado rules of civil procedure:

(A)  The landlord of the multifamily residential property;


(B)  Any lessee or mortgagee of the multifamily residential property, except

that the failure to serve any such party whose name and address are not available to the petitioner does not preclude the court from holding the hearing or invalidating the proceeding so long as the notice is posted at the property;

(C)  The city or town in which the multifamily residential property is located;


(D)  The county or city and county in which the multifamily residential

property is located;

(E)  The attorney general's office;


(F)  The department of local affairs; and


(G)  If the multifamily residential property is subject to a form of local, state,

or federal government subsidy or support or other government assistance that has a recorded use covenant upon the property, the provider of that subsidy, support, or other government assistance.

(II)  In providing notice pursuant to subsection (3)(b)(I) of this section, a party

does not have to provide notice to itself.

(III)  A petitioner seeking the appointment of a receiver pursuant to this

section must conspicuously post notice of the petition on and around the relevant multifamily residential property. This notice shall include the phone number and email address of the petitioner. The petitioner is strongly encouraged to post the notice in languages other than English, if the petitioner is aware that those languages are spoken by the property's tenants.

(c)  An application for appointment of a receiver pursuant to this subsection

(3) has precedence and priority over any civil or criminal case pending in the district court where the application is filed.

(4) (a)  The district court's appointment of a receiver pursuant to this section

shall be in accordance with and governed by rule 66 of the Colorado rules of civil procedure.

(b)  To appoint a receiver pursuant to this section, the district court must find

that:

(I)  Grounds for the appointment of a receiver exist due to a finding by the

district court, based on a preponderance of the evidence, supporting the relevant claims in an application submitted by a party pursuant to subsection (2) of this section; and

(II)  Proper notice as required by subsection (3) of this section has been

served.

(c)  A receiver appointed by the district court pursuant to this section must be

a person with knowledge and experience in the operation, maintenance, and improvement of residential housing. The receiver must be financially and legally independent of the multifamily residential property's ownership or management. The district court may also require that the receiver post a bond with adequate sureties as determined by the court.

(d)  In appointing a receiver pursuant to this section, the district court must

hold a hearing, at which time the parties may appear and be heard.

(e)  Following the hearing described in subsection (4)(d) of this section, if the

court appoints a receiver, the court must enter an order of appointment that specifies the duties and responsibilities of the receiver, which must include that the receiver:

(I)  Within thirty days of being appointed by the district court, submit a plan to

the district court for the remediation of any violations of this part 5, other than a violation of section 38-12-503 (5), a county or city and county public health code, or a municipal ordinance;

(II)  Take the actions necessary to ensure that the multifamily residential

property is no longer in violation of this part 5, other than a violation of section 38-12-503 (5), a county or city and county public health code, or a municipal ordinance;

(III)  No later than every thirty days after being appointed by the district

court, submit an accounting and status report to the district court, which must include actions that have been completed and actions that are still ongoing to achieve compliance with this part 5, a county or city and county public health code, or a municipal ordinance; and

(IV)  At the end of the receivership, as described in subsection (8) of this

section, submit a final accounting and status report to the court, which must include actions that have been completed and actions that are still ongoing to achieve compliance with this part 5, a county or city and county public health code, or a municipal ordinance.

(5) (a)  A receiver appointed by the district court pursuant to this section has

the power to:

(I)  Remediate any violation by the multifamily residential property of this

part 5, other than a violation of section 38-12-503 (5), a county or city and county public health code, or a municipal ordinance;

(II)  As necessary to accomplish the remediation and compliance described in

subsection (5)(a)(I) of this section:

(A)  Enter into new contracts;


(B)  Borrow money;


(C)  Secure funds by granting liens upon the multifamily residential property;

and

(D)  Receive rent from tenants of the multifamily residential property; and


(III)  Exercise any other powers deemed necessary by the district court and

not inconsistent with rule 66 of the Colorado rules of civil procedure.

(b)  The receiver's fees established in the district court's order of

appointment entered pursuant to subsection (4)(e) of this section may only be covered by money that the receiver raises pursuant to subsection (5)(a)(II)(C) of this section.

(c)  In exercising its powers pursuant to this subsection (5), a receiver is not

required to employ standard public bidding practices and may:

(I)  Carry out executory contracts;


(II)  Enter into new contracts;


(III)  Borrow money;


(IV)  Mortgage or pledge property;


(V)  Sell assets at public or private sale;


(VI)  Make and receive conveyances in the corporate name;


(VII)  Lease real estate;


(VIII)  Settle or compromise claims;


(IX)  Commence and prosecute all actions and proceedings necessary to

enable liquidation; and

(X)  Distribute assets either in cash or in kind among members according to

their respective rights after paying or adequately providing for the payment of liabilities.

(6)  The receiver shall perform duties, assume responsibilities, and preserve

the multifamily residential property in accordance with established principles of law for receivers of real property. In so doing, the receiver:

(a)  Shall perform their duties in a way that minimizes, to the greatest extent

possible, further disruption of the multifamily residential property's tenants;

(b)  Shall communicate, at least once a week, in a manner reasonably

calculated to be received by the multifamily residential property's tenants, such as by conspicuously posting communications on and around the property or on the property's online tenant portal, concerning what measures the receiver is taking to bring the property into compliance with a county or city and county public health code, or a municipal ordinance and otherwise bringing the property into compliance with this part 5;

(c)  Shall first apply rents received pursuant to subsection (5)(a)(II)(D) of this

section toward the payment of any utilities or services for the multifamily residential property;

(d)  After applying rents received pursuant to subsection (5)(a)(II)(D) of this

section as described in subsection (6)(c) of this section, shall apply rents received pursuant to subsection (5)(a)(II)(D) of this section toward the cost of remediating any violation by the multifamily residential property of this part 5, other than a violation of section 38-12-503 (5), a county or city and county public health code, or a municipal ordinance and otherwise bringing the property into compliance with this part 5;

(e)  After applying rents received pursuant to subsection (5)(a)(II)(D) of this

section as described in subsection (6)(d) of this section, shall apply rents received pursuant to subsection (5)(a)(II)(D) of this section for purposes reasonably necessary in the ordinary course of business of the multifamily residential property, including maintenance and upkeep of the property; mortgages, or other debts; and payment of the receiver's fees;

(f)  Has a fiduciary duty to the owner of the multifamily residential property

to maintain and preserve the property so long as the violation by the multifamily residential property of this part 5, other than a violation of section 38-12-503 (5), is addressed, and owes a duty to the property's residents;

(g)  Shall not initiate a forcible entry or detainer action or proceeding related

to the nonpayment of before the beginning of the receivership;

(h)  May initiate a forcible entry or detainer action or proceeding related to

the nonpayment of rent that occurs during the receivership; and

(i)  Shall not increase rents, fees, or costs charged to the multifamily

residential property's tenants beyond the levels of the rents, fees, and costs charged when the court appointed the receiver.

(7)  Nothing in this section prevents the court from altering or amending the

terms and conditions of the receivership or the receiver's responsibilities and duties following a hearing, at which time the parties may appear and be heard, and nothing in this section prohibits the parties from stipulating to the terms and conditions of the receivership and the responsibilities and duties of the receiver, including the duration thereof, which stipulation must be submitted to the court for approval.

(8) (a)  No sooner than ninety days after the district court has appointed a

receiver for a multifamily residential property, any of the following may submit an application to the district court seeking the termination of the receivership:

(I)  The landlord of the multifamily residential property;


(II)  Any lessee of the entire multifamily residential property;


(III)  The attorney general's office;


(IV)  The city or town in which the multifamily residential property is located;

and

(V)  The county or city and county in which the multifamily residential

property is located.

(b)  A district court may only terminate a receivership if it:


(I)  Receives an application to terminate the receivership pursuant to

subsection (8)(a) of this section;

(II)  Finds that terminating a receivership is in the public interest and in the

best interest of the multifamily residential property's tenants; and

(III)  Finds that the landlord, operator, or manager of the multifamily

residential property has:

(A)  Demonstrated that it will carry out, in the time frame most recently

approved by the court pursuant to subsection (4) or (7) of this section, any remaining actions identified by the receiver as necessary to ensure that the multifamily residential property is no longer in violation of this part 5, other than a violation of section 38-12-503 (5), a county or city and county public health code, or a municipal ordinance;

(B)  Paid or deposited with the district court any money necessary for the

receiver to complete their duties pursuant to this section;

(C)  Agreed to assume all legal obligations, including debt or liens, incurred

by the receiver in connection with the receivership of the multifamily residential property;

(D)  Paid any costs incurred by the receiver in connection with the

receivership of the multifamily residential property; and

(E)  Posted a bond with the district court in an amount determined by the

district court and equal to not more than fifty percent of the fair market value of the multifamily residential property, which bond is forfeited in the event of future violation by the multifamily residential property of this part 5, other than a violation of section 38-12-503 (5), a county or city and county public health code, or a municipal ordinance and failure to bring the multifamily residential property into compliance with this part 5, county or city and county public health codes, and municipal ordinances, and which bond is released when the actions, obligations, and indebtedness identified in this subsection (8)(b)(III) are completed or otherwise satisfied.

(c)  Notwithstanding subsection (8)(b) of this section, the district court may

terminate the receivership upon a finding that the receiver has completed its work and that all violations by the multifamily residential property of this part 5, other than a violation of section 38-12-503 (5), a county or city and county public health code, or a municipal ordinance have been remedied and the multifamily residential property has been brought into compliance with this part 5, county or city and county public health codes, and municipal ordinances.

(d)  Upon a finding that the landlord of the multifamily residential property

has not complied with any of the conditions identified in subsection (8)(b)(III) of this section, the district court may reappoint the receiver.

(e)  After terminating the receivership pursuant to this subsection (8), the

district court:

(I)  May appoint the receiver, or another qualified entity that satisfies the

requirements of a receiver established in subsection (4)(c) of this section, to monitor the landlord's operation and maintenance of the multifamily residential property;

(II)  Shall order a final accounting and finally fix the fees and expenses of the

receiver following a hearing, at which time the parties may appear and be heard; and

(III)  Shall require the receiver to communicate in a manner reasonably

calculated to be available to the multifamily residential property's tenants, such as by conspicuously posting communications on and around the property or on the property's online tenant portal, that the receivership has been terminated and the name, phone number, and email address of the owner, manager, or other entity that will assume the responsibility of making the property compliant with this part 5, a county or city and county public health code, or a municipal ordinance.

(9)  Notwithstanding anything in this section to the contrary:


(a)  Nothing in this section relieves the landlord of the multifamily residential

property of any civil or criminal liability or any duty imposed by reason of acts or omissions of the landlord, nor does the district court's appointment of a receiver suspend any obligation the landlord of the multifamily residential property or any other person may have for payment of taxes, any operating or maintenance expenses, or mortgages or liens, or for repair of the multifamily residential property;

(b)  A receiver appointed by a district court pursuant to this section is liable

for injuries to persons and property to the same extent as the landlord of the multifamily residential property would have been liable; except that, such liability is limited to the assets and income of the receivership, including any proceeds of insurance purchased by the receiver in its capacity as receiver;

(c)  A receiver is not personally liable for actions or inactions within the scope

of the receiver's capacity as receiver;

(d)  Only a suit approved by the district court that appoints the receiver may

be brought against the receiver;

(e)  Nothing in this section limits the right of tenants to seek a remedy for a

violation of this part 5, other than a violation of section 38-12-503 (5), including a breach of the warranty of habitability, that occurred before the appointment of a receiver pursuant to this section;

(f)  Nothing in this section limits the powers of any home rule municipality to

enact ordinances or otherwise safeguard the health, safety, and welfare of residents of multifamily residential properties; and

(g)  Nothing in this section limits the right of tenants to raise any

counterclaims or defenses in any summary process or other action regarding possession brought by a receiver.

Source: L. 2025: Entire section added, (SB 25-020), ch. 264, p. 1357, � 6,

effective August 6.

PART 6

ELECTRIC VEHICLE CHARGING SYSTEMS


C.R.S. § 38-33-103

38-33-103. Definitions. As used in this article, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1)  Condominium unit means an individual air space unit together with the

interest in the common elements appurtenant to such unit.

(2)  Declaration is an instrument recorded pursuant to section 38-33-105

and which defines the character, duration, rights, obligations, and limitations of condominium ownership.

(3)  Unless otherwise provided in the declaration or by written consent of all

the condominium owners, general common elements means: The land or the interest therein on which a building or buildings are located; the foundations, columns, girders, beams, supports, main walls, roofs, halls, corridors, lobbies, stairs, stairways, fire escapes, entrances, and exits of such building or buildings; the basements, yards, gardens, parking areas, and storage spaces; the premises for the lodging of custodians or persons in charge of the property; installations of central services such as power, light, gas, hot and cold water, heating, refrigeration, central air conditioning, and incinerating; the elevators, tanks, pumps, motors, fans, compressors, ducts, and in general all apparatus and installations existing for common use; such community and commercial facilities as may be provided for in the declaration; and all other parts of the property necessary or convenient to its existence, maintenance, and safety, or normally in common use.

(4)  Individual air space unit consists of any enclosed room or rooms

occupying all or part of a floor or floors in a building of one or more floors to be used for residential, professional, commercial, or industrial purposes which has access to a public street.

(5)  Limited common elements means those common elements designated

in the declaration as reserved for use by fewer than all the owners of the individual air space units.

Source: L. 63: p. 782, � 1. C.R.S. 1963: � 118-15-3. L. 69: p. 982, � 2.

C.R.S. § 38-35-204

38-35-204. Order to show cause. (1) Any person whose real or personal property is affected by a recorded or filed lien or document that the person believes is a spurious lien or spurious document may petition the district court in the county or city and county in which the lien or document was recorded or filed or the federal district court in Colorado for an order to show cause why the lien or document should not be declared invalid. The petition shall set forth a concise statement of the facts upon which the petition is based and shall be supported by an affidavit of the petitioner or the petitioner's attorney. The order to show cause may be granted ex parte and shall:

(a)  Direct any lien claimant and any person who recorded or filed the lien or

document to appear as respondent before the court at a time and place certain not less than fourteen days nor more than twenty-one days after service of the order to show cause why the lien or document should not be declared invalid and why such other relief provided for by this section should not be granted;

(b)  State that, if the respondent fails to appear at the time and place

specified, the spurious lien or spurious document will be declared invalid and released; and

(c)  State that the court shall award costs, including reasonable attorney

fees, to the prevailing party.

(2)  If, following the hearing on the order to show cause, the court determines

that the lien or document is a spurious lien or spurious document, the court shall make findings of fact and enter an order and decree declaring the spurious lien or spurious document and any related notice of lis pendens invalid, releasing the recorded or filed spurious lien or spurious document, and entering a monetary judgment in the amount of the petitioner's costs, including reasonable attorney fees, against any respondent and in favor of the petitioner. A certified copy of such order may be recorded or filed in the office of any state or local official or employee, including the clerk and recorder of any county or city and county and the Colorado secretary of state.

(3)  If, following the hearing on the order to show cause, the court determines

that the lien or document is not a spurious lien or spurious document, the court shall issue an order so finding and enter a monetary judgment in the amount of any respondent's costs, including reasonable attorney fees, against any petitioner and in favor of the respondent.

Source: L. 97: Entire part added, p. 37, � 1, effective March 20. L. 2012: (1)(a)

amended, (SB 12-175), ch. 208, p. 895, � 170, effective July 1.

Editor's note: Section 38-22.5-110 states that this section applies to liens

asserted pursuant to article 22.5 of this title.

ARTICLE 35.5

Nondisclosure of Information Psychologically

Impacting Real Property

38-35.5-101.  Circumstances psychologically impacting real property - no

duty for broker or salesperson to disclose. (1) Facts or suspicions regarding circumstances occurring on a parcel of property which could psychologically impact or stigmatize such property are not material facts subject to a disclosure requirement in a real estate transaction. Such facts or suspicions include, but are not limited to, the following:

(a)  That an occupant of real property is, or was at any time suspected to be,

infected or has been infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or diagnosed with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS), or any other disease which has been determined by medical evidence to be highly unlikely to be transmitted through the occupancy of a dwelling place; or

(b)  That the property was the site of a homicide or other felony or of a

suicide.

(2)  No cause of action shall arise against a real estate broker or salesperson

for failing to disclose such circumstance occurring on the property which might psychologically impact or stigmatize such property.

Source: L. 91: Entire article added, p. 1636, � 20, effective July 1.

ARTICLE 35.7

Disclosures Required in Connection with

Conveyances of Residential Real Property

38-35.7-101.  Disclosure - special taxing districts - general obligation

indebtedness. (1) Every contract for the purchase and sale of residential real property shall contain a disclosure statement in bold-faced type which is clearly legible and in substantially the following form:

SPECIAL TAXING DISTRICTS MAY BE SUBJECT TO GENERAL OBLIGATION INDEBTEDNESS THAT IS PAID BY REVENUES PRODUCED FROM ANNUAL TAX LEVIES ON THE TAXABLE PROPERTY WITHIN SUCH DISTRICTS. PROPERTY OWNERS IN SUCH DISTRICTS MAY BE PLACED AT RISK FOR INCREASED MILL LEVIES AND TAX TO SUPPORT THE SERVICING OF SUCH DEBT WHERE CIRCUMSTANCES ARISE RESULTING IN THE INABILITY OF SUCH A DISTRICT TO DISCHARGE SUCH INDEBTEDNESS WITHOUT SUCH AN INCREASE IN MILL LEVIES. BUYERS SHOULD INVESTIGATE THE SPECIAL TAXING DISTRICTS IN WHICH THE PROPERTY IS LOCATED BY CONTACTING THE COUNTY TREASURER, BY REVIEWING THE CERTIFICATE OF TAXES DUE FOR THE PROPERTY, AND BY OBTAINING FURTHER INFORMATION FROM THE BOARD OF COUNTY COMMISSIONERS, THE COUNTY CLERK AND RECORDER, OR THE COUNTY ASSESSOR.

(2)  The obligation to provide the disclosure set forth in subsection (1) of this

section shall be upon the seller, and, in the event of the failure by the seller to provide the written disclosure described in subsection (1) of this section, the purchaser shall have a claim for relief against the seller for all damages to the purchaser resulting from such failure plus court costs.

Source: L. 92: Entire article added, p. 995, � 4, effective July 1. L. 2009: (1)

amended, (SB 09-087), ch. 325, p. 1735, � 7, effective July 1.

38-35.7-102.  Disclosure - common interest community - obligation to pay

assessments - requirement for architectural approval. (1) On and after January 1, 2007, every contract for the purchase and sale of residential real property in a common interest community shall contain a disclosure statement in bold-faced type that is clearly legible and in substantially the following form:

THE PROPERTY IS LOCATED WITHIN A COMMON INTEREST COMMUNITY AND IS SUBJECT TO THE DECLARATION FOR SUCH COMMUNITY. THE OWNER OF THE PROPERTY WILL BE REQUIRED TO BE A MEMBER OF THE OWNER'S ASSOCIATION FOR THE COMMUNITY AND WILL BE SUBJECT TO THE BYLAWS AND RULES AND REGULATIONS OF THE ASSOCIATION. THE DECLARATION, BYLAWS, AND RULES AND REGULATIONS WILL IMPOSE FINANCIAL OBLIGATIONS UPON THE OWNER OF THE PROPERTY, INCLUDING AN OBLIGATION TO PAY ASSESSMENTS OF THE ASSOCIATION. IF THE OWNER DOES NOT PAY THESE ASSESSMENTS, THE ASSOCIATION COULD PLACE A LIEN ON THE PROPERTY AND POSSIBLY SELL IT TO PAY THE DEBT. THE DECLARATION, BYLAWS, AND RULES AND REGULATIONS OF THE COMMUNITY MAY PROHIBIT THE OWNER FROM MAKING CHANGES TO THE PROPERTY WITHOUT AN ARCHITECTURAL REVIEW BY THE ASSOCIATION (OR A COMMITTEE OF THE ASSOCIATION) AND THE APPROVAL OF THE ASSOCIATION. PURCHASERS OF PROPERTY WITHIN THE COMMON INTEREST COMMUNITY SHOULD INVESTIGATE THE FINANCIAL OBLIGATIONS OF MEMBERS OF THE ASSOCIATION. PURCHASERS SHOULD CAREFULLY READ THE DECLARATION FOR THE COMMUNITY AND THE BYLAWS AND RULES AND REGULATIONS OF THE ASSOCIATION.

(2) (a)  The obligation to provide the disclosure set forth in subsection (1) of

this section shall be upon the seller, and, in the event of the failure by the seller to provide the written disclosure described in subsection (1) of this section, the purchaser shall have a claim for relief against the seller for actual damages directly and proximately caused by such failure plus court costs. It shall be an affirmative defense to any claim for damages brought under this section that the purchaser had actual or constructive knowledge of the facts and information required to be disclosed.

(b)  Upon request, the seller shall either provide to the buyer or authorize the

unit owners' association to provide to the buyer, upon payment of the association's usual fee pursuant to section 38-33.3-317 (4), all of the common interest community's governing documents and financial documents, as listed in the most recent available version of the contract to buy and sell real estate promulgated by the real estate commission as of the date of the contract.

(3)  This section shall not apply to the sale of a unit that is a time share unit,

as defined in section 38-33-110 (7).

Source: L. 2005: Entire section added, p. 1389, � 19, effective January 1,
  1. L. 2006: Entire section R&RE, p. 1225, � 15, effective May 26. L. 2012: (2)(b) amended, (HB 12-1237), ch. 232, p. 1019, � 2, effective January 1, 2013.

    38-35.7-103. Disclosure - methamphetamine laboratory. (1) A buyer of residential real property has the right to test the property for the purpose of determining whether the property has ever been used as a methamphetamine laboratory.

    (2) (a) Tests conducted pursuant to this section shall be performed by a certified industrial hygienist or industrial hygienist, as those terms are defined in section 24-30-1402, C.R.S., and in accordance with the procedures and standards established by rules of the state board of health promulgated pursuant to section 25-18.5-102, C.R.S. If the buyer's test results indicate that the property has been contaminated with methamphetamine or other contaminants for which standards have been established pursuant to section 25-18.5-102, C.R.S., and has not been remediated to meet the standards established by rules of the state board of health promulgated pursuant to section 25-18.5-102, C.R.S., the buyer shall promptly give written notice to the seller of the results of the test, and the buyer may terminate the contract. The contract shall not limit the rights to test the property or to cancel the contract based upon the result of the tests.

    (b) The seller shall have thirty days after receipt of the notice to conduct a second independent test. If the seller's test results indicate that the property has been used as a methamphetamine laboratory but has not been remediated to meet the standards established by rules of the state board of health promulgated pursuant to section 25-18.5-102, C.R.S., then the second independent hygienist shall so notify the seller.

    (c) If the seller receives a notice under this subsection (2) and does not elect to have the property retested under this subsection (2), then an illegal drug laboratory used to manufacture methamphetamine has been discovered. Nothing in this section prohibits a buyer from purchasing the property and assuming liability under section 25-18.5-103, C.R.S., if, on the date of closing, the buyer provides notice to the department of public health and environment and governing body of the purchase and assumption of liability and if the remediation required by section 25-18.5-103, C.R.S., is completed within ninety days after the date of closing.

    (3) (a) Except as specified in subsection (4) of this section, the seller shall disclose in writing to the buyer whether the seller knows that the property was previously used as a methamphetamine laboratory.

    (b) A seller who fails to make a disclosure required by this section at or before the time of sale and who knew of methamphetamine production on the property is liable to the buyer for:

    (I) Costs relating to remediation of the property according to the standards established by rules of the state board of health promulgated pursuant to section 25-18.5-102, C.R.S.;

    (II) Costs relating to health-related injuries occurring after the sale to residents of the property caused by methamphetamine production on the property; and

    (III) Reasonable attorney fees for collection of costs from the seller.

    (c) A buyer shall commence an action under this subsection (3) within three years after the date on which the buyer closed the purchase of the property where the methamphetamine production occurred.

    (4) If the seller becomes aware that the property was an illegal methamphetamine drug laboratory, remediates the property in accordance with the standards established pursuant to section 25-18.5-102, and receives certificates of compliance under section 25-18.5-102 (1)(e), then:

    (a) The seller is not required to disclose that the property was used as an illegal methamphetamine drug laboratory to a buyer; and

    (b) Five years after the later date on the certificates of compliance issued pursuant to section 25-18.5-102 (1)(e), the property is no longer included in the database listing properties that have been used as an illegal methamphetamine drug laboratory in accordance with section 25-18.5-106 (2).

    (5) For purposes of this section, residential real property or property includes a manufactured home; mobile home; condominium; townhome; home sold by the owner, a financial institution, or the federal department of housing and urban development; rental property, including an apartment; and short-term residence such as a motel or hotel.

    Source: L. 2006: Entire section added, p. 712, � 1, effective January 1, 2007. L. 2009: (2)(a) amended, (SB 09-060), ch. 140, p. 601, � 3, effective April 20. L. 2013: (2)(c) and (4) amended, (SB 13-219), ch. 293, p. 1570, � 2, effective August 7. L. 2023: (4) and (5) amended, (SB 23-148), ch. 326, p. 1958, � 5, effective August 7.

    38-35.7-104. Disclosure of potable water source - rules. (1) (a) (I) By January 1, 2008, the real estate commission created in section 12-10-206 shall, by rule, require each listing contract, contract of sale, or seller's property disclosure for residential real property that is subject to the commission's jurisdiction pursuant to article 10 of title 12 to disclose the source of potable water for the property, which disclosure shall include substantially the following information:

THE SOURCE OF POTABLE WATER FOR THIS REAL ESTATE IS:

A WELL;

A WATER PROVIDER, WHICH CAN BE CONTACTED AS FOLLOWS:

NAME:

ADDRESS:

WEB SITE:

TELEPHONE:

NEITHER A WELL NOR A WATER PROVIDER. THE SOURCE IS [DESCRIBE]:

SOME WATER PROVIDERS RELY, TO VARYING DEGREES, ON NONRENEWABLE GROUNDWATER. YOU MAY WISH TO CONTACT YOUR PROVIDER TO DETERMINE THE LONG-TERM SUFFICIENCY OF THE PROVIDER'S WATER SUPPLIES.

(II)  On and after January 1, 2008, each listing contract, contract of sale, or

seller's property disclosure for residential real property that is not subject to the real estate commission's jurisdiction pursuant to article 10 of title 12 shall contain a disclosure statement in bold-faced type that is clearly legible in substantially the same form as is specified in subsection (1)(a)(I) of this section.

(b)  If the disclosure statement required by paragraph (a) of this subsection

(1) indicates that the source of potable water is a well, the seller shall also provide with such disclosure a copy of the current well permit if one is available.

(2)  The obligation to provide the disclosure set forth in subsection (1) of this

section shall be upon the seller. If the seller complies with this section, the purchaser shall not have any claim under this section for relief against the seller or any person licensed pursuant to article 10 of title 12 for any damages to the purchaser resulting from an alleged inadequacy of the property's source of water. Nothing in this section shall affect any remedy that the purchaser may otherwise have against the seller.

(3)  For purposes of this section, residential real property means residential

land and residential improvements, as those terms are defined in section 39-1-102, C.R.S., but does not include hotels and motels, as those terms are defined in section 39-1-102, C.R.S.; except that a mobile home and a manufactured home, as those terms are defined in section 39-1-102, C.R.S., shall be deemed to be residential real property only if the mobile home or manufactured home is permanently affixed to a foundation.

Source: L. 2007: Entire section added, p. 853, � 1, effective August 3. L.

2019: (1)(a) and (2) amended, (HB 19-1172), ch. 136, p. 1724, � 236, effective October 1.

38-35.7-105.  Disclosure of transportation projects - rules. No later than

January 1, 2009, the real estate commission created in section 12-10-206 shall, by rule, require each seller's property disclosure for real property that is subject to the commission's jurisdiction pursuant to article 10 of title 12 to disclose the existence of any proposed or existing transportation project that affects or is expected to affect the real property.

Source: L. 2008: Entire section added, p. 1713, � 10, effective June 2. L. 2019:

Entire section amended, (HB 19-1172), ch. 136, p. 1725, � 237, effective October 1.

38-35.7-106.  Solar prewire option - solar consultation. (1) (a)  Every person

that builds a new single-family detached residence for which a buyer is under contract shall offer the buyer the opportunity to have each of the following options included in the residence's electrical system or plumbing system, or both:

(I)  A residential photovoltaic solar generation system or a residential solar

thermal system, or both;

(II)  Upgrades of wiring or plumbing, or both, planned by the builder to

accommodate future installation of such systems; and

(III)  A chase or conduit, or both, constructed to allow ease of future

installation of the necessary wiring or plumbing for such systems.

(b)  The offer required by subsection (1)(a) of this section must be made in

accordance with the builder's construction schedule for the residence.

(2)  Every person that builds a new single-family detached residence for sale,

whether or not the residence has been prewired for a photovoltaic solar generation system, shall provide to every buyer under contract a list of businesses in the area that offer residential solar installation services so that the buyer, if he or she so desires, can obtain expert help in assessing whether the residence is a good candidate for solar installation and how much of a cost savings a residential photovoltaic solar generation system could provide. The list of businesses shall be derived from a master list of Colorado solar installers maintained by the Colorado solar energy industries association, or a successor organization.

(3)  Repealed.


(4)  Providing the master list of solar installers prepared by the Colorado

solar energy industries association, or a successor organization, to a buyer under contract shall not constitute an endorsement of any installer or contractor listed. A person that builds a new single-family detached residence shall not be liable for any advice, labor, or materials provided to the buyer by a third-party solar installer.

(5)  Repealed.


(6)  Nothing in this section shall preclude a person that builds a new single-family detached residence from:


(a)  Subjecting solar photovoltaic electrical system upgrades to the same

terms and conditions as other upgrades, including but not limited to charges related to upgrades, deposits required for upgrades, deadlines, and construction timelines;

(b)  Selecting the contractors that will complete the installation of solar

photovoltaic electrical system upgrades;

(c)  Stipulating in the purchase agreement or sales contract that solar

photovoltaic electrical system upgrades are based on technology available at the time of installation and such upgrades may not support all solar photovoltaic systems or systems installed at a future date, and that the person that builds a new single-family detached residence shall not be liable for any additional upgrades, retrofits, or other alterations to the residence that may be necessary to accommodate a solar photovoltaic system installed at a future date.

(7) (a)  This section applies to contracts entered into on or after August 10,

2009, to purchase new single-family detached residences built on or after August 10, 2009.

(b)  This section does not apply to:


(I)  An unoccupied home serving as sales inventory or a model home; or


(II)  A manufactured home as defined in section 24-32-3302 (20).


Source: L. 2009: Entire section added, (HB 09-1149), ch. 235, p. 1073, � 1,

effective August 5. L. 2012: (2), (3), (4), and (5) amended, (HB 12-1315), ch. 224, p. 977, � 43, effective July 1. L. 2018: (2) and (4) amended and (3) and (5) repealed, (SB 18-003), ch. 359, p. 2148, � 11, effective June 1. L. 2020: (1) and (7) amended, (HB 20-1155), ch. 193, p. 895, � 2, effective September 14.

38-35.7-107.  Water-smart homes option. (1) (a)  Every person that builds a

new single-family detached residence for which a buyer is under contract shall offer the buyer the opportunity to select one or more of the following water-smart home options for the residence:

(I)  Repealed.


(II)  If dishwashers or clothes washers are financed, installed, or sold as

upgrades through the home builder, the builder shall offer a model that is qualified pursuant to the federal environmental protection agency's energy star program at the time of offering. Clothes washers shall have a water factor of less than or equal to six gallons of water per cycle per cubic foot of capacity.

(III)  If landscaping is financed, installed, or sold as upgrades through the

home builder and will be maintained by the home owner, the home builder shall offer a landscape design that follows the landscape practices specified in this subparagraph (III) to ensure both the professional design and installation of such landscaping and that water conservation will be accomplished. These best management practices are contained in the document titled Green Industry Best Management Practices (BMPs) for the Conservation and Protection of Water Resources in Colorado: Moving Toward Sustainability, 3rd release, and appendix, released in May 2008, or this document's successors due to future inclusion of improved landscaping practices, water conservation advancements, and new irrigation technology. The best management practices specified in this subparagraph (III), through utilization of the proper landscape design, installation, and irrigation technology, accomplish substantial water savings compared to landscape designs, installation, and irrigation system utilization where these practices are not adhered to. The following best management practices and water budget calculator form the basis for the design and installation for the front yard landscaping option if selected by the homeowner as an upgrade:

(A)  Xeriscape: To include the seven principles of xeriscape that provide a

comprehensive approach for conserving water;

(B)  Water budgeting: To include either a water allotment by the water utility

for the property, if offered by the water utility, or a landscape water budget based on plant water requirements;

(C)  Landscape design: To include a plan and design for the landscape to

comprehensively conserve water and protect water quality;

(D)  Landscape installation and erosion control: To minimize soil erosion and

employ proper soil care and planting techniques during construction;

(E)  Soil amendment and ground preparation: To include an evaluation of the

soil and improve it, if necessary, to address water retention, permeability, water infiltration, aeration, and structure;

(F)  Tree placement and tree planting: To include proper soil and space for

root growth and to include proper planting of trees, shrubs, and other woody plants to promote long-term health of these plants;

(G)  Irrigation design and installation: To include design of the irrigation

system for the efficient and uniform distribution of water to plant material and the development of an irrigation schedule;

(H)  Irrigation technology and scheduling: To include water conserving

devices that stop water application during rain, high wind, and other weather events and incorporate evapotranspiration conditions. Irrigation scheduling should address frequency and duration of water application in the most efficient manner; and

(I)  Mulching: To include the use of organic mulches to reduce water loss

through evaporation, reduce soil loss, and suppress weeds.

(IV)  Installation of a pressure-reducing valve that limits static service

pressure in the residence to a maximum of sixty pounds per square inch. Piping for home fire sprinkler systems shall comply with state and local codes and regulations but are otherwise excluded from this subparagraph (IV).

(b)  The offer required by paragraph (a) of this subsection (1) shall be made in

accordance with the builder's construction schedule for the residence. In the case of prefabricated or manufactured homes, construction schedule includes the schedule for completion of prefabricated walls or other subassemblies.

(2)  Nothing in this section precludes a person that builds a new single-family

detached residence from:

(a)  Subjecting water-efficient fixture and appliance upgrades to the same

terms and conditions as other upgrades, including charges related to upgrades, deposits required for upgrades, deadlines, and construction timelines;

(b)  Selecting the contractors that will complete the installation of the

selected options; or

(c)  Stipulating in the purchase agreement or sales contract that water-efficient fixtures and appliances are based on technology available at the time of

installation, such upgrades may not support all water-efficient fixtures or appliances installed at a future date, and the person that builds a new single-family detached residence is not liable for any additional upgrades, retrofits, or other alterations to the residence that may be necessary to accommodate water-efficient fixtures or appliances installed at a future date.

(3)  This section does not apply to unoccupied homes serving as sales

inventory or model homes.

(4)  The upgrades described in paragraph (a) of subsection (1) of this section

shall not contravene state or local codes, covenants, and requirements. All homes, landscapes, and irrigation systems shall meet all applicable national, state, and local regulations.

Source: L. 2010: Entire section added, (HB 10-1358), ch. 398, p. 1892, � 1,

effective January 1, 2011. L. 2011: IP(1)(a)(III) amended, (HB 11-1303), ch. 264, p. 1174, � 89, effective August 10. L. 2014: (1)(a)(I)(B) added by revision, (SB 14-103), ch. 384, pp. 1877, 1880, � 3, 6.

Editor's note: Subsection (1)(a)(I)(B) provided for the repeal of subsection

(1)(a)(I), effective September 1, 2016. (See L. 2014, pp. 1877, 1880.)

38-35.7-108.  Disclosure of oil and gas activity - rules. (1) (a)  By January 1,

2016, the real estate commission created in section 12-10-206 shall promulgate a rule requiring each contract of sale or seller's property disclosure for residential real property that is subject to the commission's jurisdiction to disclose the following or substantially similar information:

THE SURFACE ESTATE OF THE PROPERTY MAY BE OWNED SEPARATELY

FROM THE UNDERLYING MINERAL ESTATE, AND TRANSFER OF THE SURFACE ESTATE MAY NOT INCLUDE TRANSFER OF THE MINERAL ESTATE. THIRD PARTIES MAY OWN OR LEASE INTERESTS IN OIL, GAS, OR OTHER MINERALS UNDER THE SURFACE, AND THEY MAY ENTER AND USE THE SURFACE ESTATE TO ACCESS THE MINERAL ESTATE.

 THE USE OF THE SURFACE ESTATE TO ACCESS THE MINERALS MAY BE

GOVERNED BY A SURFACE USE AGREEMENT, A MEMORANDUM OR OTHER NOTICE OF WHICH MAY BE RECORDED WITH THE COUNTY CLERK AND RECORDER.

 THE OIL AND GAS ACTIVITY THAT MAY OCCUR ON OR ADJACENT TO

THIS PROPERTY MAY INCLUDE, BUT IS NOT LIMITED TO, SURVEYING, DRILLING, WELL COMPLETION OPERATIONS, STORAGE, OIL AND GAS, OR PRODUCTION FACILITIES, PRODUCING WELLS, REWORKING OF CURRENT WELLS, AND GAS GATHERING AND PROCESSING FACILITIES.

 THE BUYER IS ENCOURAGED TO SEEK ADDITIONAL INFORMATION

REGARDING OIL AND GAS ACTIVITY ON OR ADJACENT TO THIS PROPERTY, INCLUDING DRILLING PERMIT APPLICATIONS. THIS INFORMATION MAY BE AVAILABLE FROM THE ENERGY AND CARBON MANAGEMENT COMMISSION.

(b)  On and after January 1, 2016, each contract of sale or seller's property

disclosure for residential real property that is not subject to the real estate commission's jurisdiction must contain a disclosure statement in bold-faced type that is clearly legible in substantially the same form as is specified in paragraph (a) of this subsection (1).

(2)  The disclosure required by subsection (1) of this section does not create a

duty to investigate or disclose that does not otherwise exist for the seller, a person licensed under article 10 of title 12, or a title insurance agent or company licensed under article 2 of title 10.

Source: L. 2014: Entire section added, (SB 14-009), ch. 74, p. 305, � 1,

effective August 6. L. 2019: IP(1)(a) and (2) amended, (HB 19-1172), ch. 136, p. 1725, � 238, effective October 1. L. 2023: (1)(a) amended, (SB 23-285), ch. 235, p. 1258, � 41, effective July 1.

38-35.7-109.  Electric vehicle charging and heating systems - options -

definitions. (1) (a) A person that builds a new residence for which a buyer is under contract shall offer the buyer the opportunity to have the residence's electrical system include one of the following:

(I)  An electric vehicle charging system;


(II)  Upgrades of wiring planned by the builder to accommodate future

installation of an electric vehicle charging system; or

(III)  A two-hundred-eight- to two-hundred-forty-volt alternating current

plug-in receptacle in an appropriate place accessible to a motor vehicle parking area.

(b)  A person that builds a new residence for which a buyer is under contract

shall offer the buyer the opportunity to have the residence include an efficient electrical heating system, including an electric water heater, electric boiler, or electric furnace or heat-pump system.

(c)  A person that builds a new residence for which a buyer is under contract

shall offer the buyer pricing, energy efficiency, and utility bill information for each natural gas, electric, or other option available from and information pertaining to those options from the federal Energy Star program, as defined in section 6-7.5-102 (24), or similar information about energy efficiency and utilization reasonably available to the person building the residence.

(d)  Subsection (1)(a) of this section does not apply to a residence in which the

electrical system has been substantially installed before a buyer enters into a contract to purchase the residence. Subsection (1)(b) of this section does not apply to a residence in which the heating system has been substantially installed before a buyer enters into a contract to purchase the residence.

(2)  To comply with this section, the offer required by subsection (1) of this

section must be made in accordance with the builder's construction schedule for the residence.

(3)  Nothing in this section precludes a person that builds a new residence

from:

(a)  Subjecting electric vehicle charging system upgrades to the same terms

and conditions as other upgrades, including charges related to upgrades, deposits required for upgrades, deadlines, and construction timelines;

(b)  Selecting the contractors that will complete the installation of electric

vehicle charging system upgrades;

(c)  Stipulating in the purchase agreement or sales contract that:


(I)  Electric vehicle charging system upgrades are based on technology

available at the time of installation and might not support all electric vehicle charging systems or systems installed in the future; and

(II)  The person that builds a new residence is not liable for any additional

upgrades, retrofits, or other alterations to the residence necessary to accommodate an electric vehicle charging system installed in the future.

(4)  As used in this section:


(a)  Electric vehicle charging system means:


(I)  An electric vehicle charging system as defined in section 38-12-601 (6)(a)

that has power capacity of at least 6.2 kilowatts, that is Energy Star certified, and that has the ability to connect to the internet; or

(II)  An inductive residential charging system for battery-powered electric

vehicles that is certified by Underwriters Laboratories or an equivalent certification, that complies with the current version of article 625 of the National Electrical Code, published by the National Fire Protection Association, and other applicable industry standards, that is Energy Star certified, and that has the ability to connect to the internet.

(b)  Residence means a single-family owner-occupied detached dwelling.


(5) (a)  This section applies to contracts entered into on or after September

14, 2020, to purchase new residences built on or after September 14, 2020.

(b)  This section does not apply to:


(I)  An unoccupied home serving as sales inventory or a model home; or


(II)  A manufactured home as defined in section 24-32-3302 (20).


Source: L. 2020: Entire section added, (HB 20-1155), ch. 193, p. 896, � 3,

effective September 14. L. 2023: (1)(c) amended, (HB 23-1161), ch. 285, p. 1717, � 11, effective August 7.

38-35.7-110.  Disclosure - estimated future property taxes for residences

within the boundaries of a metropolitan district - rules - definition.

(1)  Repealed.


(2)  On and after January 1, 2022, an owner of residential real property that is

located within the boundaries of a metropolitan district organized on or after January 1, 2000, that sells the property, concurrently with or prior to the execution of a contract to sell the property, shall provide to the purchaser of the property:

(a)  A paper copy, electronic copy, or a website page link to the notice to

electors required by section 32-1-809 (1) as most recently prepared and filed by the metropolitan district;

(b)  A paper copy, electronic copy, or a website page link to the service plan

or statement of purpose of the metropolitan district, including any amendments to the service plan, as filed with the division of local government in the department of local affairs;

(c)  A statement in writing disclosing that:


(I)  Pursuant to its service plan, the metropolitan district has authority to

issue up to ____ dollars of debt and, if applicable, that the debt of the district may be repaid through ad valorem property taxes, from a debt service mill levy on all taxable property of the district, or any other legally available revenues of the district;

(II)  The maximum debt service mill levy the metropolitan district is permitted

to impose under the service plan is ____ mills or, if no maximum debt service mill levy is specified in the service plan, a statement that there is no maximum debt service mill levy. If applicable, the statement must also disclose whether the debt service mill levy cap may be adjusted due to changes in the constitutional or statutory method of assessing property tax or in the assessment ratio, or by amendments to the service plan or voter authorizations.

(III)  In addition to imposing a debt service mill levy, the metropolitan district

is also authorized to impose a separate mill levy to generate revenues for general operating expenses. If applicable, the statement must also disclose whether the amount of the general operating expenses mill levy may be increased as necessary, separate and apart from the debt service mill levy cap. In the alternative, if the service plan provides for the aggregate mill levy cap for debt service and general operating expenses combined, the statement must address the applicable aggregate mill levy cap.

(IV)  The metropolitan district may also rely upon various other revenue

sources authorized by law to offset its expenses of capital construction and general operating expenses. Pursuant to Colorado law, the district may impose fees, rates, tolls, penalties, or other charges as provided in title 32. The statement must include that a current fee schedule, if applicable, is available from the metropolitan district.

(V)  Actions by the metropolitan district pursuant to its authority to issue

debt, impose mill levies, and impose fees, rates, tolls, penalties, or other charges may increase costs to residents living in the metropolitan district.

(d)  An estimate of the dollar amount of property taxes levied by the

metropolitan district that are applicable to the property for collection during the year in which the sale occurs, which estimate must include any debt service mill levies that are specified in subsection (2)(c)(II) of this section and any mill levies for general operating expenses that are specified in subsection (2)(c)(III) of this section, shown both as the total mill levy as well as the total dollar amount that could be collected based upon the purchase price of the property, the residential assessment rate, and mill levies that are in effect in the district at the time of the sale; and

(e)  A copy of the most current certificate of taxes due or tax statement

issued by the county treasurer that is applicable to the property as an estimate of the sum of additional mill levies levied by other taxing entities that overlap the property in which the newly constructed residence is located.

(3)  In disclosing an estimate of property taxes for purposes of satisfying

subsection (2)(d)(I) of this section, the seller shall calculate the estimate based upon application of the following assumptions:

(a)  The purchase price is considered to be the value of the real property

including the newly constructed residence as reflected in the contract to purchase the property;

(b)  The ratio of valuation for assessment is the same as the residential real

property assessment ratio set forth in section 39-1-104.2 for the property tax year in which the sale occurs; and

(c)  The mill levies are the same as those levied by all taxing entities that are

applicable to the property for the property tax year in which the sale occurs; except that, if the seller has actual knowledge that the total mill levies will change in the next property tax year, the seller shall use the updated information in making the calculation.

(4)  Along with the estimate required by subsection (2) of this section, the

seller shall include, in bold-faced type that is clearly legible, the following statement:

This estimate only provides an illustration of the amount of the new property taxes that may be due and owing after the property has been reassessed and, in some instances, reclassified as residential property. This estimate is not a statement of the actual and future taxes that may be due. First year property taxes may be based on a previous year's tax classification, which may not include the full value of the property and, consequently, taxes may be higher in subsequent years. A seller has complied with this disclosure statement as long as the disclosure is based upon a good-faith effort to provide accurate estimates and information.

(5)  A seller is deemed to have complied with this section as long as the

disclosures required by this section are based upon a good-faith effort to provide accurate estimates and information.

Source: L. 2021: Entire section added, (SB 21-262), ch. 368, p. 2430, � 6,

effective September 7. L. 2022: (2)(e) amended, (SB 22-164), ch. 155, p. 984, � 1, effective May 6. L. 2025: (1) repealed, IP(2) and (2)(d) amended, and (2)(c)(V) added, (HB 25-1219), ch. 290, p. 1491, � 4, effective August 6.

38-35.7-111.  Disclosure - metropolitan district website - residences within

the boundaries of a metropolitan district. On or after January 1, 2024, an owner of residential real property that is located within the boundaries of a metropolitan district organized on or after January 1, 2000, that sells the property shall provide the purchaser of the property with the official website established by the metropolitan district pursuant to section 32-1-104.5 (3). The information shall be provided on the Colorado real estate commission approved seller's property disclosure or other concurrent writing.

Source: L. 2023: Entire section added, (SB 23-110), ch. 52, p. 186, � 5,

effective August 7.

38-35.7-112.  Disclosure - elevated radon - rules - definition. (1)  A buyer of

residential real property has the right to be informed of whether the property has been tested for elevated levels of radon.

(2) (a)  Each contract of sale for residential real property must contain the

following disclosure in bold-faced type that is clearly legible in substantially the same form as is specified as follows:

The Colorado Department of Public Health and Environment strongly

recommends that ALL home buyers have an indoor radon test performed before purchasing residential real property and recommends having the radon levels mitigated if elevated radon concentrations are found. Elevated radon concentrations can be reduced by a radon mitigation professional.

Residential real property may present exposure to dangerous levels of

indoor radon gas that may place the occupants at risk of developing radon-induced lung cancer. Radon, a Class A human carcinogen, is the leading cause of lung cancer in nonsmokers and the second leading cause of lung cancer overall. The seller of residential real property is required to provide the buyer with any known information on radon test results of the residential real property.

(b)  Each contract of sale for residential real property or seller's property

disclosure for residential real property must contain the following disclosures:

(I)  Any knowledge the seller has of the residential real property's radon

concentrations, including the following information:

(A)  Whether a radon test or tests have been conducted on the residential

real property;

(B)  The most recent records and reports pertaining to radon concentrations

within the residential real property;

(C)  A description of any radon concentrations detected or mitigation or

remediation performed; and

(D)  Information regarding whether a radon mitigation system has been

installed in the residential real property; and

(II)  An electronic or paper copy of the most recent brochure published by the

department of public health and environment in accordance with section 25-11-114 (2)(a) that provides advice about radon in real estate transactions.

(c)  The real estate commission shall promulgate rules requiring:


(I)  Each contract that is for the purchase and sale of residential real property

and that is subject to the real estate commission's jurisdiction to include the statement described in subsection (2)(a) of this section in bold-faced type that is clearly legible in substantially the same form as described in subsection (2)(a) of this section; and

(II)  Each contract for sale or seller's property disclosure for residential real

property to include the disclosures described in subsection (2)(b) of this section, including rules that specify the format and manner for delivery of the brochure.

(3)  As used in this section:


(a)  Real estate commission means the real estate commission created in

section 12-10-206.

(b)  Residential real property includes:


(I)  A single-family home, manufactured home, mobile home, condominium,

apartment, townhome, or duplex; or

(II)  A home sold by the owner, a financial institution, or the United States

department of housing and urban development.

Source: L. 2023: Entire section added, (SB 23-206), ch. 356, p. 2135, � 2,

effective August 7.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in SB 23-206, see section 1

of chapter 356, Session Laws of Colorado 2023.

ARTICLE 36

Torrens Title Registration Act

PART 1

TORRENS TITLE REGISTRATION


C.R.S. § 39-1-102

39-1-102. Definitions. As used in articles 1 to 13 of this title 39, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1)  Administrator means the property tax administrator.


(1.1) (a)  Agricultural and livestock products means plant or animal products

in a raw or unprocessed state that are derived from the science and art of agriculture, regardless of the use of the product after its sale and regardless of the entity that purchases the product. Agriculture, for the purposes of this subsection (1.1), means farming, ranching, animal husbandry, and horticulture.

(b)  On and after January 1, 2023, for the purposes of this subsection (1.1),

agricultural and livestock products includes crops grown within a controlled environment agricultural facility in a raw or unprocessed state for human or livestock consumption. For the purposes of this subsection (1.1)(b), agricultural and livestock products does not include marijuana, as defined in section 18-18-102 (18)(a), or any other nonfood crop agricultural products.

(1.3)  Agricultural equipment that is used on the farm or ranch or in a CEA

facility in the production of agricultural products:

(a)  Means any personal property used on a farm or ranch, as defined in

subsections (3.5) and (13.5) of this section, for planting, growing, and harvesting agricultural products or for raising or breeding livestock for the primary purpose of obtaining a monetary profit; and

(b)  Includes:


(I)  Any mechanical system used on the farm or ranch for the conveyance and

storage of animal products in a raw or unprocessed state, regardless of whether or not such mechanical system is affixed to real property;

(II)  Silviculture personal property that is designed, adapted, and used for the

planting, growing, maintenance, or harvesting of trees in a raw or unprocessed state;

(III)  Any personal property within a facility, whether attached to a building or

not, that is capable of being removed from the facility, and is used in direct connection with the operation of a controlled environment agricultural facility, which facility is used solely for planting, growing, or harvesting crops in a raw or unprocessed state; and

(IV)  Any personal property within a greenhouse, whether attached to the

greenhouse or not, that is capable of being removed from the greenhouse and is used in direct connection with the operation of a greenhouse, which greenhouse is used solely for planting or growing crops in a raw or unprocessed state, and the sole purpose of growing crops in the greenhouse is to obtain a monetary profit from the wholesale of plant-based food for human or livestock consumption.

(1.6) (a)  Agricultural land, whether used by the owner of the land or a

lessee, means one of the following:

(I) (A)  A parcel of land, whether located in an incorporated or unincorporated

area and regardless of the uses for which such land is zoned, that was used the previous two years and presently is used as a farm or ranch, as defined in subsections (3.5) and (13.5) of this section, or that is in the process of being restored through conservation practices. Such land must have been classified or eligible for classification as agricultural land, consistent with this subsection (1.6), during the ten years preceding the year of assessment. Such land must continue to have actual agricultural use. Agricultural land under this subparagraph (I) shall not include two acres or less of land on which a residential improvement is located unless the improvement is integral to an agricultural operation conducted on such land. Agricultural land also includes the land underlying other improvements if such improvements are an integral part of the farm or ranch and if such other improvements and the land area dedicated to such other improvements are typically used as an ancillary part of the operation. The use of a portion of such land for hunting, fishing, or other wildlife purposes, for monetary profit or otherwise, shall not affect the classification of agricultural land. For purposes of this subparagraph (I), a parcel of land shall be in the process of being restored through conservation practices if: The land has been placed in a conservation reserve program established by the natural resources conservation service pursuant to 7 U.S.C. secs. 1 to 5506; or a conservation plan approved by the appropriate conservation district has been implemented for the land for up to a period of ten crop years as if the land has been placed in such a conservation reserve program.

(B)  A residential improvement shall be deemed to be integral to an

agricultural operation for purposes of sub-subparagraph (A) of this subparagraph (I) if an individual occupying the residential improvement either regularly conducts, supervises, or administers material aspects of the agricultural operation or is the spouse or a parent, grandparent, sibling, or child of the individual.

(II)  A parcel of land that consists of at least forty acres, that is forest land,

that is used to produce tangible wood products that originate from the productivity of such land for the primary purpose of obtaining a monetary profit, that is subject to a forest management plan, and that is not a farm or ranch, as defined in subsections (3.5) and (13.5) of this section. Agricultural land under this subparagraph (II) includes land underlying any residential improvement located on such agricultural land.

(III)  A parcel of land that consists of at least eighty acres, or of less than

eighty acres if such parcel does not contain any residential improvements, and that is subject to a perpetual conservation easement, if such land was classified by the assessor as agricultural land under subparagraph (I) or (II) of this paragraph (a) at the time such easement was granted, if the grant of the easement was to a qualified organization, if the easement was granted exclusively for conservation purposes, and if all current and contemplated future uses of the land are described in the conservation easement. Agricultural land under this subparagraph (III) does not include any portion of such land that is actually used for nonagricultural commercial or nonagricultural residential purposes.

(IV)  A parcel of land, whether located in an incorporated or unincorporated

area and regardless of the uses for which such land is zoned, used as a farm or ranch, as defined in subsections (3.5) and (13.5) of this section, if the owner of the land has a decreed right to appropriated water granted in accordance with article 92 of title 37, C.R.S., or a final permit to appropriated groundwater granted in accordance with article 90 of title 37, C.R.S., for purposes other than residential purposes, and water appropriated under such right or permit shall be and is used for the production of agricultural or livestock products on such land;

(V)  A parcel of land, whether located in an incorporated or unincorporated

area and regardless of the uses for which such land is zoned, that has been reclassified from agricultural land to a classification other than agricultural land and that met the definition of agricultural land as set forth in subparagraphs (I) to (IV) of this paragraph (a) during the three years before the year of assessment. For purposes of this subparagraph (V), the parcel of land need not have been classified or eligible for classification as agricultural land during the ten years preceding the year of assessment as required by subparagraph (I) of this paragraph (a).

(b) (I)  Except as provided in subparagraph (II) of this paragraph (b), all other

agricultural property that does not meet the definition set forth in paragraph (a) of this subsection (1.6) shall be classified as all other property and shall be valued using appropriate consideration of the three approaches to appraisal based on its actual use on the assessment date.

(II)  On and after January 1, 2015, all other agricultural property includes

greenhouse and nursery production areas used to grow food products, agricultural products, or horticultural stock for wholesale purposes only that originate above the ground.

(c)  An assessor must determine, based on sufficient evidence, that a parcel

of land does not qualify as agricultural land, as defined in subparagraph (IV) of paragraph (a) of this subsection (1.6), before land may be changed from agricultural land to any other classification.

(d)  Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, property that

is used solely for the cultivation of medical marijuana shall not be classified as agricultural land.

(2)  Assessor means the elected assessor of a county, or his or her

appointed successor, and, in the case of the city and county of Denver, such equivalent officer as may be provided by its charter, and, in the case of the city and county of Broomfield, such equivalent officer as may be provided by its charter or code.

(2.5)  Bed and breakfast means an overnight lodging establishment,

whether owned by a natural person or any legal entity, that is a residential dwelling unit or an appurtenance thereto, in which the innkeeper resides, or that is a building designed but not necessarily occupied as a single family residence that is next to, or directly across the street from, the innkeeper's residence, and in either circumstance, in which:

(a)  Lodging accommodations are provided for a fee;


(b)  At least one meal per day is provided at no charge other than the fee for

the lodging accommodations; and

(c)  There are not more than thirteen sleeping rooms available for transient

guests.

(3)  Board means the board of assessment appeals.


(3.1)  Commercial lodging area means a guest room or a private or shared

bathroom within a bed and breakfast that is offered for the exclusive use of paying guests on a nightly or weekly basis. Classification of a guest room or a bathroom as a commercial lodging area shall be based on whether at any time during a year such rooms are offered by an innkeeper as nightly or weekly lodging to guests for a fee. Classification shall not be based on the number of days that such rooms are actually occupied by paying guests.

(3.2)  Conservation purpose means any of the following purposes as set

forth in section 170 (h) of the federal Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended:

(a)  The preservation of land areas for outdoor recreation, the education of

the public, or the protection of a relatively natural habitat for fish, wildlife, plants, or similar ecosystems; or

(b)  The preservation of open space, including farmland and forest land,

where such preservation is for the scenic enjoyment of the public or is pursuant to a clearly delineated federal, state, or local government conservation policy and where such preservation will yield a significant public benefit.

(3.3)  Controlled environment agricultural facility or CEA facility means a

nonresidential structure and related equipment and appurtenances that combines engineering, horticultural science, and computerized management techniques to optimize hydroponics, plant quality, and food production efficiency from the land's water for human or livestock consumption. The sole purpose of growing crops in a CEA facility is to obtain a monetary profit from the wholesale of plant-based food for human or livestock consumption.

(3.5)  Farm means a parcel of land which is used to produce agricultural

products that originate from the land's productivity for the primary purpose of obtaining a monetary profit.

(3.7)  Fee simple estate means the largest possible estate allowed by law,

an estate that has potentially infinite duration.

(4)  Fixtures means those articles which, although once movable chattels,

have become an accessory to and a part of real property by having been physically incorporated therein or annexed or affixed thereto. Fixtures includes systems for the heating, air conditioning, ventilation, sanitation, lighting, and plumbing of such building. Fixtures does not include machinery, equipment, or other articles related to a commercial or industrial operation which are affixed to the real property for proper utilization of such articles. In addition, for property tax purposes only, fixtures does not include security devices and systems affixed to any residential improvements, including but not limited to security doors, security bars, and alarm systems.

(4.3)  Forest land means land of which at least ten percent is stocked by

forest trees of any size and includes land that formerly had such tree cover and that will be naturally or artificially regenerated. Forest land includes roadside, streamside, and shelterbelt strips of timber which have a crown width of at least one hundred twenty feet. Forest land includes unimproved roads and trails, streams, and clearings which are less than one hundred twenty feet wide.

(4.4)  Forest management plan means an agreement which includes a plan

to aid the owner of forest land in increasing the health, vigor, and beauty of such forest land through use of forest management practices and which has been either executed between the owner of forest land and the Colorado state forest service or executed between the owner of forest land and a professional forester and has been reviewed and has received a favorable recommendation from the Colorado state forest service. The Colorado forest service shall annually inspect each parcel of land subject to a forest management plan to determine if the terms and conditions of such plan are being complied with and shall report by March 1 of each year to the assessor in each affected county the legal descriptions of the properties and the names of their owners that are eligible for the agricultural classification. The report shall also contain the legal descriptions of those properties and the names of their owners that no longer qualify for the agricultural classification because of noncompliance with their forest management plans. No property shall be entitled to the agricultural classification unless the legal description and the name of the owner appear on the report submitted by the Colorado state forest service. The Colorado state forest service shall charge a fee for the inspection of each parcel of land in such amount for the reasonable costs incurred by the Colorado state forest service in conducting such inspections. Such fee shall be paid by the owner of such land prior to such inspection. Any fees collected pursuant to this subsection (4.4) shall be subject to annual appropriation by the general assembly.

(4.5)  Forest management practices means practices accepted by

professional foresters which control forest establishment, composition, density, and growth for the purpose of producing forest products and associated amenities following sound business methods and technical forestry principles.

(4.6)  Forest trees means woody plants which have a well-developed stem

or stems, which are usually more than twelve feet in height at maturity, and which have a generally well-defined crown.

(5)  Repealed.


(5.5) (a)  Hotels and motels means improvements and the land associated

with such improvements that are used by a business establishment primarily to provide lodging, camping, or personal care or health facilities to the general public and that are predominantly used on an overnight or weekly basis; except that hotels and motels does not include:

(I)  A residential unit, except for a residential unit that is a hotel unit;


(II)  A residential unit that would otherwise be classified as a hotel unit if the

residential unit is held as inventory by a developer primarily for sale to customers in the ordinary course of the developer's trade or business, is marketed for sale by the developer, and either has been held by the developer for less than two years since the certificate of occupancy for the residential unit has been issued or is not depreciated under the internal revenue code, as defined in section 39-22-103 (5.3), while owned by the developer; or

(III)  A residential unit that would otherwise be classified as a hotel unit if the

residential unit has been acquired by a lender or an owners' association through foreclosure, a deed in lieu of foreclosure, or a similar transaction, is marketed for sale by the lender or owners' association and is not depreciated under the internal revenue code, as defined in section 39-22-103 (5.3), while owned by the lender or owners' association.

(IV)  Repealed.


(b)  If any time share estate, time share use period, undivided interest, or

other partial ownership interest in any hotel unit is owned by any non-hotel unit owner, then, unless a declaration or other express agreement binding on the non-hotel unit owners and the hotel unit owners provides otherwise:

(I)  The hotel unit owners shall pay the taxes on the hotel unit not required to

be paid by the non-hotel unit owners pursuant to subparagraph (II) of this paragraph (b).

(II)  Each non-hotel unit owner shall pay that portion of the taxes on the hotel

unit equal to the non-hotel unit owner's ownership or usage percentage of the hotel unit multiplied by the property tax that would have been levied on the hotel unit if the actual value and valuation for assessment of the hotel unit had been determined as if the hotel unit was residential real property.

(III)  For purposes of determining the amount due from any hotel unit owner

or non-hotel unit owner pursuant to subparagraph (II) of this paragraph (b), the assessor shall, upon the request of any hotel unit owner or non-hotel unit owner, calculate the property tax that would have been levied on the hotel unit if the actual value and valuation for assessment of the hotel unit had been determined as if the hotel unit were residential real property. A hotel unit owner or non-hotel unit owner may petition the county board of equalization for review of the assessor's calculation pursuant to the procedures set forth in section 39-10-114. Any appeal from the decision of the county board shall be governed by section 39-10-114.5.

(c)  As used in this subsection (5.5):


(I)  Condominium unit means a unit, as defined in section 38-33.3-103 (30),

C.R.S., and also includes a time share unit.

(II)  Hotel unit owners means any person or member of a group of related

persons whose ownership and use of a residential unit cause the residential unit to be classified as a hotel unit.

(III)  Hotel units means more than four residential unit ownership

equivalents in a project that are owned, in whole or in part, directly, or indirectly through one or more intermediate entities, by one person or by a group of related persons if the person or group of related persons uses the residential units or parts thereof in connection with a business establishment primarily to provide lodging, camping, or personal care or health facilities to the general public predominantly on an overnight or weekly basis. Hotel unit means any residential unit included in hotel units. For purposes of this subparagraph (III):

(A)  Control means the power to direct the business or affairs of an entity

through direct or indirect ownership of stock, partnership interests, membership interests, or other forms of beneficial interests.

(B)  Related persons means individuals who are members of the same

family, including only spouses and minor children, or persons who control, are controlled by, or are under common control with each other. Persons are not related persons solely because they engage a common agent to manage or rent their residential units, they are members of an owners' association or similar group, they enter into a tenancy in common or a similar agreement with respect to undivided interests in a residential unit, or any combination of the foregoing.

(IV)  Project means one or more improvements that contain residential units

if the boundaries of the residential units are described in or determined by the same declaration, as defined in section 38-33.3-103 (13), C.R.S.

(V)  Residential unit means a condominium unit, a single family residence,

or a townhome.

(VI)  Non-hotel unit owner means any owner of a time share estate, time

share use period, undivided interest, or other partial ownership interest in any hotel unit who is not a hotel unit owner with respect to the hotel unit.

(VII)  Residential unit ownership equivalent means:


(A)  In the case of time share units, time share interests or time share use

periods in one or more time share units that in the aggregate entitle the owner of such time share interests or time share use periods to three hundred sixty-five days of use in any calendar year or three hundred sixty-six days of use in any calendar year that is a leap year; and

(B)  In the case of residential units other than time share units, undivided

interests or other ownership interests in one or more such residential units that total one hundred percent. For purposes of this sub-subparagraph (B), any undivided interest or other ownership interest not stated in terms of a percentage of total ownership shall be converted to a percentage of total ownership based on the rights accorded to the holder of the undivided interest or other ownership interest.

(VIII)  Time share unit means a condominium unit that is divided into time

share estates as defined in section 38-33-110 (5) or that is subject to a time share use as defined in section 12-10-501 (4).

(5.6)  Hotels and motels as defined in subsection (5.5) of this section shall

not include bed and breakfasts.

(6)  Household furnishings means that personal property, other than

fixtures, in residential structures and buildings which is not used for the production of income at any time.

(6.2)  Hydroponics means a system in which water soluble primary or

secondary plant nutrients or micronutrients, or a combination of such nutrients, are placed in intimate contact with a plant's root system that is being grown in water or an inert supportive medium that supplies physical support for the roots.

(6.3)  Improvements means all structures, buildings, fixtures, fences, and

water rights erected upon or affixed to land, whether or not title to such land has been acquired.

(6.8)  Independently owned residential solar electric generation facility

means personal property that:

(a)  Is located on residential real property;


(b)  Is owned by a person other than the owner of the residential real

property;

(c)  Is installed on the customer's side of the meter;


(d)  Is used to produce electricity from solar energy primarily for use in the

residential improvements located on the residential real property; and

(e)  Has a production capacity of no more than one hundred kilowatts.


(7)  (Deleted by amendment, L. 2010, (HB 10-1267), ch. 425, p. 2198, � 1,

effective August 11, 2010.)

(7.1)  Innkeeper means the owner, operator, or manager of a bed and

breakfast.

(7.2)  Inventories of merchandise and materials and supplies which are held

for consumption by a business or are held primarily for sale means those classes of personal property which are held primarily for sale by a business, farm, or ranch, including components of personal property to be held for sale, or which are held for consumption by a business, farm, or ranch, or which are rented for thirty days or less. For the purposes of this subsection (7.2), personal property rented for thirty days or less means personal property rented for thirty days or less which can be returned at the option of the person renting the property, in a transaction on which the sales or use tax is actually collected before being finally sold, whether or not such personal property is subject to depreciation. It is the purpose of the general assembly to exempt personal property rented for thirty days or less from property tax because of the similarity of such property to inventories of merchandise held by retail stores. Further, the general assembly intends this exemption to encompass a transaction under a rental agreement in which the customer pays rent in order to use an item for a brief period of time; it is not intended to encompass an equipment lease contract covering a specific period of time and which includes financial penalties for early cancellation. Except for personal property rented for thirty days or less, the term inventories of merchandise and materials and supplies which are held for consumption by a business or are held primarily for sale does not include personal property which is held for rent or lease or is subject to an allowance for depreciation. For property tax years commencing on or after January 1, 1984, the term does include inventory which is owned by and which is in the possession of the manufacturer of such inventory unless:

(a)  Such inventory is in the possession of the manufacturer after having

previously been leased by the manufacturer to a customer; and

(b)  Such manufacturer has not designated such inventory for scrapping,

substantial reconditioning, renovating, or remanufacturing in accordance with its customary practices. For the purposes of this paragraph (b), normal maintenance shall not constitute substantial reconditioning, renovating, or remanufacturing.

(7.5)  Repealed.


(7.7)  Livestock includes all animals.


(7.8)  Manufactured home means any preconstructed building unit or

combination of preconstructed building units that:

(a)  Includes electrical, mechanical, or plumbing services that are fabricated,

formed, or assembled at a location other than the residential site of the completed home;

(b)  Is designed and used for residential occupancy in either temporary or

permanent locations;

(c)  Is constructed in compliance with the National Manufactured Housing

Construction and Safety Standards Act of 1974, 42 U.S.C. sec. 5401 et seq., as amended;

(d)  Does not have motive power;


(e)  Is not licensed as a vehicle; and


(f)  Is eligible for a certificate of title pursuant to part 1 of article 29 of title

38, C.R.S.

(7.9)  Minerals in place means, without exception, metallic and nonmetallic

mineral substances of every kind while in the ground.

(8)  Mobile home means a manufactured home built prior to the adoption of

the National Manufactured Housing Construction and Safety Standards Act of 1974, 42 U.S.C. sec. 5401 et seq., as amended.

(8.3)  Modular home means any preconstructed factory-built building that:


(a)  Is ineligible for a certificate of title pursuant to part 1 of article 29 of title

38, C.R.S.;

(b)  Is not constructed in compliance with the National Manufactured

Housing Construction and Safety Standards Act of 1974, 42 U.S.C. sec. 5401 et seq., as amended; and

(c)  Is constructed in compliance with building codes adopted by the division

of housing in the department of local affairs.

(8.4)  Natural cause means fire, explosion, flood, tornado, action of the

elements, act of war or terror, or similar cause beyond the control of and not caused by the party holding title to the property destroyed.

(8.5)  Not for private gain or corporate profit means the ownership and use

of property whereby no person with any connection to the owner thereof shall receive any pecuniary benefit except for reasonable compensation for services rendered and any excess income over expenses derived from the operation or use of the property and all proceeds from the sale of the property of the owner shall be devoted to the furthering of any exempt purpose.

(8.6) (a)  Nursing home means a nursing care facility, regardless of a

resident's length of stay, that is licensed by the department of public health and environment under section 25-1.5-103 (1) and that meets the definition of a nursing care facility as set forth in the department of public health and environment regulations, including a nursing care facility that provides convalescent care or rehabilitation services such as physical and occupational therapy.

(b)  As used in this subsection (8.6), nursing care facility means a licensed

health care entity that is planned, organized, operated, and maintained to provide supportive, restorative, and preventative services to persons who, due to physical or mental disability, require continuous or regular inpatient nursing care.

(8.7)  Perpetual conservation easement means a conservation easement in

gross, as described in article 30.5 of title 38, C.R.S., that qualifies as a perpetual conservation restriction pursuant to section 170 (h) of the federal Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended, and any regulations issued thereunder.

(9)  Person means natural persons, corporations, partnerships, limited

liability companies, associations, and other legal entities which are or may become taxpayers by reason of the ownership of taxable real or personal property.

(10)  Personal effects means such personal property as is or may be worn or

carried on or about the person, and such personal property as is usually associated with the person or customarily used in personal hobby, sporting, or recreational activities and which is not used for the production of income at any time.

(11)  Personal property means everything that is the subject of ownership

and that is not included within the term real property. Personal property includes machinery, equipment, and other articles related to a commercial or industrial operation that are either affixed or not affixed to the real property for proper utilization of such articles. Except as otherwise specified in articles 1 to 13 of this title, any pipeline, telecommunications line, utility line, cable television line, or other similar business asset or article installed through an easement, right-of-way, or leasehold for the purpose of commercial or industrial operation and not for the enhancement of real property shall be deemed to be personal property, including, without limitation, oil and gas distribution and transmission pipelines, gathering system pipelines, flow lines, process lines, and related water pipeline collection, transportation, and distribution systems. Structures and other buildings installed on an easement, right-of-way, or leasehold that are not specifically referenced in this subsection (11) shall be deemed to be improvements pursuant to subsection (6.3) of this section.

(12)  Political subdivision means any entity of government authorized by law

to impose ad valorem taxes on taxable property located within its territorial limits.

(12.1)  Repealed.


(12.3) and (12.4)  Repealed.


(12.5)  Professional forester means any person who has received a

bachelor's or higher degree from an accredited school of forestry.

(13)  Property means both real and personal property.


(13.2)  Qualified organization means a qualified organization as defined in

section 170 (h)(3) of the federal Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended.

(13.5)  Ranch means a parcel of land which is used for grazing livestock for

the primary purpose of obtaining a monetary profit. For the purposes of this subsection (13.5), livestock means domestic animals which are used for food for human or animal consumption, breeding, draft, or profit.

(14)  Real property means:


(a)  All lands or interests in lands to which title or the right of title has been

acquired from the government of the United States or from sovereign authority ratified by treaties entered into by the United States, or from the state;

(b)  All mines, quarries, and minerals in and under the land, and all rights and

privileges thereunto appertaining; and

(c)  Improvements.


(14.3)  Residential improvements means a building, or that portion of a

building, designed for use predominantly as a place of residency by a person, a family, or families. The term includes buildings, structures, fixtures, fences, amenities, and water rights that are an integral part of the residential use. The term also includes a manufactured home, a mobile home, a modular home, a tiny home, and a nursing home as defined in subsection (8.6) of this section, regardless of a resident's length of stay.

(14.4) (a) (I)  Residential land means a parcel of land upon which residential

improvements are located. The term also includes:

(A)  Land upon which residential improvements were destroyed by natural

cause after the date of the last assessment as established in section 39-1-104 (10.2);

(B)  Two acres or less of land on which a residential improvement is located

where the improvement is not integral to an agricultural operation conducted on such land; and

(C)  A parcel of land without a residential improvement located thereon, if the

parcel is contiguous to a parcel of residential land that has identical ownership based on the record title and contains a related improvement that is essential to the use of the residential improvement located on the identically owned contiguous residential land.

(II)  Residential land does not include any portion of the land that is used for

any purpose that would cause the land to be otherwise classified, except as provided for in section 39-1-103 (10.5).

(III)  As used in this subsection (14.4):


(A)  Contiguous means that the parcels physically touch; except that

contiguity is not interrupted by an intervening local street, alley, or common element in a common-interest community.

(B)  Related improvement means a driveway, parking space, or

improvement other than a building, or that portion of a building designed for use predominantly as a place of residency by a person, a family, or families.

(b) (I)  Notwithstanding section 39-1-103 (5)(c) and except as provided in

subparagraph (II) of this paragraph (b), when residential improvements are destroyed, demolished, or relocated as a result of a natural cause on or after January 1, 2010, that, were it not for their destruction, demolition, or relocation due to such natural cause, would have qualified the land upon which the improvements were located as residential land for the following property tax year, the residential land classification shall remain in place for the year of destruction, demolition, or relocation and the two subsequent property tax years. The residential land classification may remain in place for additional subsequent property tax years, not to exceed a total of five subsequent property tax years, if the assessor determines there is evidence the owner intends to rebuild or locate a residential improvement on the land. For purposes of this determination, the assessor may consider, but shall not be limited to considering, a building permit or other land development permit for the land, construction plans for such residential improvement, efforts by the owner to obtain financing for a residential improvement, or ongoing efforts to settle an insurance claim related to the destruction, demolition, or relocation of the residential improvement due to a natural cause.

(II)  The residential land classification of the land described in subparagraph

(I) of this paragraph (b) shall change according to current use if:

(A)  A new residential improvement or part of a new residential improvement

is not constructed or placed on the land in accordance with applicable land use regulations prior to the January 1 after the period described in subparagraph (I) of this paragraph (b), unless the property owner provides documentary evidence to the assessor that during such period a good-faith effort was made to construct or place a new or part of a new residential improvement on the land but that additional time is necessary;

(B)  The assessor determines that the classification at the time of

destruction, demolition, or relocation as a result of a natural cause was erroneous; or

(C)  A change of use has occurred. For purposes of this sub-subparagraph (C),

a change of use shall not include the temporary loss of the residential use due to the destruction, demolition, or relocation as a result of a natural cause of the residential improvement.

(c) (I)  Notwithstanding section 39-1-103 (5)(c) and except as provided in

subsection (14.4)(c)(II) of this section, when residential improvements are destroyed, demolished, or relocated on or after January 1, 2018, that, were it not for their destruction, demolition, or relocation, would have qualified the land upon which the improvements were located as residential land for the following property tax year, the residential land classification shall remain in place for the year of destruction, demolition, or relocation and one subsequent property tax year if the assessor determines there is evidence that the owner intends to rebuild or locate a residential improvement on the land. For purposes of this determination, the assessor may consider, but is not limited to considering, a building permit or other land development permit for the land, construction plans for such residential improvement, or efforts by the owner to obtain financing for a residential improvement.

(II)  The residential land classification of the land described in subsection

(14.4)(c)(I) of this section shall change according to current use if:

(A)  A new residential improvement or part of a new residential improvement

is not constructed or placed on the land in accordance with applicable land use regulations prior to the January 1 after the period described in subsection (14.4)(c)(I) of this section;

(B)  The assessor determines that the classification of the land at the time of

the destruction, demolition, or relocation was erroneous; or

(C)  A change of use has occurred. For purposes of this subsection

(14.4)(c)(II)(C), a change of use shall not include the temporary loss of the residential use due to the destruction, demolition, or relocation of the residential improvement.

(14.5)  Residential real property means residential land and residential

improvements but does not include hotels and motels as defined in subsection (5.5) of this section.

(15)  Repealed.


(15.5) (a)  School means:


(I)  An educational institution having a curriculum comparable to that of a

publicly supported elementary or secondary school or college, or any combination thereof, and requiring daily attendance; or

(II)  An institution that is licensed as a child care center pursuant to part 3 of

article 5 of title 26.5 that is:

(A)  Operated by and as an integral part of a not-for-profit educational

institution that meets the requirements of subparagraph (I) of this paragraph (a); or

(B)  A not-for-profit institution that offers an educational program for not

more than six hours per day and that employs educators trained in preschool through eighth grade educational instruction and is licensed by the appropriate state agency and that is not otherwise qualified as a school under this paragraph (a) or as a religious institution.

(b)  School includes any educational institution that meets the

requirements set forth in subparagraph (I) or (II) of paragraph (a) of this subsection (15.5), even if such educational institution maintains hours of operation in excess of the minimum hour requirements of section 22-32-109 (1)(n)(I), C.R.S.

(16)  Taxable property means all property, real and personal, not expressly

exempted from taxation by law.

(16.3)  Tiny home means a tiny home, as defined in section 24-32-3302 (35),

that is certified by the division of housing in the department of local affairs to be designed for long-term residency and that is not registered in accordance with article 3 of title 42.

(17)  Treasurer means the elected treasurer of a county or his or her

appointed successor, and, in the case of the city and county of Denver, such equivalent officer as may be provided by its charter, in the case of the city and county of Broomfield, such equivalent officer as may be provided by its charter or code, and in the case of any home rule county, the treasurer or such equivalent officer as provided by its charter.

(18)  Works of art means those items of personal property that are original

creations of visual art, including, but not limited to:

(a)  Sculpture, in any material or combination of materials, whether in the

round, bas-relief, high relief, mobile, fountain, kinetic, or electronic;

(b)  Paintings or drawings;


(c)  Mosaics;


(d)  Photographs;


(e)  Crafts made from clay, fiber and textiles, wood, metal, plastics, or any

other material, or any combination thereof;

(f)  Calligraphy;


(g)  Mixed media composed of any combination of forms or media; or


(h)  Unique architectural embellishments.


Source: L. 64: R&RE, p. 674, � 1. C.R.S. 1963: � 137-1-1. L. 65: p. 1095, � 1. L.

67: p. 945, � 1. L. 70: p. 379, � 8. L. 73: p. 237, � 17. L. 75: (8) repealed, p. 1473, � 30, effective July 18. L. 77: (7.5), (12.3), and (12.4) added, p. 1728, �1, effective June 20; (8) RC&RE, p. 1740, � 1, effective January 1, 1978. L. 78: (12.1) added, p. 467, � 1, effective July 1. L. 79: (12.1) amended, p. 1400, � 1, effective March 13; (12.1)(a) amended, p. 1059, � 9, effective June 20; (12.1) repealed, p. 1456, � 4, effective July 1, 1981. L. 80: (18) added, p. 711, � 1, effective April 16. L. 81: (12.1)(d) R&RE, p. 1872, � 4, effective June 29; (12.1)(a)(II) amended, � 5, effective July 1. L. 83: (15) repealed, p. 1485, � 11, effective April 22; (1.1), (1.3), (1.6), (3.5), (5.5), (7.2), (7.8), (13.5), and (14.3) to (14.5) added, (5) repealed, and (12.3)(b) amended, pp. 1486, 1488, �� 1, 6, 4, effective June 1. L. 84: (7.2) amended, p. 983, � 1, effective May 8. L. 85: IP(7.2) amended and (7.9) added, pp. 1215, 1210, �� 1, 2, effective May 9. L. 87: (1.3) amended, p. 1382, � 1, effective May 8; (7.5), (12.3), and (12.4) repealed, p. 1304, � 1, effective May 20. L. 88: (4) and (11) amended and (12.1) repealed, pp. 1269, 1275, �� 4, 14, effective May 29. L. 89: (15.5) added, p. 1482, � 3, effective April 23. L. 90: (1.6)(a) amended, (4.3) to (4.6) and (12.5) added, p. 1706, � 1, effective April 16; (9) amended, p. 450, � 26, effective April 18; (1.6)(a) and (13.5) amended and (8.5) added, pp. 1695, 1703, 1701, �� 16, 37, 33, effective June 9. L. 91: IP(7.2) amended, p. 1980, � 1, effective April 20; (8) amended, p. 1394, � 2, effective April 27. L. 92: (4) amended, p. 2216, � 3, effective June 2. L. 94: (8) and (14.3) amended, p. 2568, � 86, effective January 1, 1995. L. 95: IP(1.6)(a) amended and (1.6)(a)(III), (3.2), (8.7), and (13.2) added, pp. 173, 174, �� 1, 2, effective April 7. L. 97: (1.1) and (1.6) amended, p. 509, � 1, effective April 24. L. 98: (11) amended, p. 1276, � 1, effective June 1. L. 99: (15.5) amended, p. 1299, � 1, effective June 3. L. 2000: (15.5)(a)(II) amended, p. 1499, � 1, effective August 2. L. 2001: (2) and (17) amended, p. 268, � 14, effective November 15. L. 2002: (5.5) amended, p. 1939, � 1, effective August 7; (2.5), (3.1), (5.6), and (7.1) added, (5.5)(a)(IV) repealed, and (14.4) amended, pp. 1671, 1673, �� 1, 3, effective January 1, 2003. L. 2004: (1.6)(a)(I) amended, p. 1208, � 86, effective August 4. L. 2008: (14.3) amended, p. 1914, � 129, effective August 5. L. 2009: (7.7) and (8.3) added and (7.8), (8), and (14.3) amended, (SB-040), ch. 9, p. 70, � 12, effective July 1; (8.5) amended, (SB 09-042), ch. 176, p. 779, � 1, effective August 5. L. 2010: (1.1) amended, (SB 10-177), ch. 392, p. 1861, � 1, effective August 11; (1.6)(a)(III) amended, (HB 10-1197), ch. 175, p. 634, � 1, effective August 11; (6.3) and (6.8) added and (7) and (11) amended, (HB10-1267), ch. 425, p. 2198, � 1, effective August 11. L. 2011: (8.4) added and (14.4) amended, (HB 11-1042), ch. 138, p. 479, � 1, effective May 4; (1.6)(d) added, (HB 11-1043), ch. 266, p. 1213, � 23, effective July 1; (1.6)(a)(I) and (14.4) amended, (HB 11-1146), ch. 166, p. 571, � 1, effective January 1, 2012. L. 2013: (14.4)(a) amended, (HB 13-1300), ch. 316, p. 1699, � 116, effective August 7. L. 2014: (8.5) amended, (HB 14-1349), ch. 230, p. 854, � 4, effective May 17; (1.6)(b) amended, (SB 14-043), ch. 53, p. 248, � 1, effective August 6. L. 2016: (14.4)(b)(II)(A) amended, (SB 16-012), ch. 66, p. 169, � 1, effective April 5. L. 2017: IP, (1.1), and (1.3) amended, (SB 17-302), ch. 311, p. 1675, � 1, effective June 2. L. 2018: (14.4)(c) added, (HB 18-1283), ch. 270, p. 1665, � 1, effective August 8. L. 2019: (5.5)(c)(VIII) amended, (HB 19-1172), ch. 136, p. 1727, � 249, effective October 1. L. 2020: (17) amended, (HB 20-1077), ch. 80, p. 324, � 5, effective September 14. L. 2021: (3.7) added, (HB 21-1312), ch. 299, p. 1791, � 3, effective July 1; (14.4)(a) amended, (HB 21-1061), ch. 63, p. 252, � 1, effective September 7. L. 2022: IP(15.5)(a)(II) amended, (HB 22-1295), ch. 123, p. 865, � 124, effective July 1; (1.1), IP(1.3), and (1.3)(b) amended and (3.3) and (6.2) added, (HB 22-1301), ch. 198, p. 1321, � 1, effective August 10; (8.6) added and (14.3) amended, (HB 22-1296), ch. 310, p. 2226, � 1, effective August 10; (14.3) amended and (16.3) added, (HB 22-1242), ch. 172, p. 1139, � 34, effective August 10. L. 2024, 2nd Ex. Sess.: (1.3)(b)(II) and (1.3)(b)(III) amended and (1.3)(b)(IV) added, (HB 24B-1003), ch. 2, p. 24, � 1, effective November 28.

Editor's note: (1)  Amendments to subsection (1.6)(a) by House Bill 90-1229

harmonized with House Bill 90-1018.

(2)  Amendments to subsection (14.4) by House Bill 11-1042 and House Bill 11-1146 were harmonized, effective January 1, 2012.


(3)  Amendments to this section by HB 22-1242 and HB 22-1296 were

harmonized.

Cross references: (1)  For the creation of the property tax administrator, see �

39-2-101.

(2)  For the legislative declaration in HB 21-1312, see section 1 of chapter 299,

Session Laws of Colorado 2021.


C.R.S. § 39-22-514.5

39-22-514.5. Tax credit for qualified costs incurred in preservation of historic structures - commercial historic preservation tax credit program cash fund - tax preference performance statement - legislative declaration - short title - definitions. (1) Short title. The short title of this section is the Colorado Job Creation and Main Street Revitalization Act.

(2)  Definitions. As used in this section, unless the context otherwise

requires:

(a) (I)  Certified historic structure means a property located in Colorado that

has been certified by the historical society or other reviewing entity because it has been:

(A)  Listed individually on, or as a contributing property in a district included

within, the national register of historic places;

(B)  Listed individually on, or as a contributing property in a district that is

included within, the state register of historic properties pursuant to the provisions of article 80.1 of title 24; or

(C)  Listed individually by, or as a contributing property within a designated

historic district of, a certified local government.

(II)  Certified historic structure may be either a residential or commercial

structure.

(b)  Certified local government means any local government that has been

certified by the historical society in accordance with federal law.

(c)  Certified rehabilitation means repairs or alterations to a certified

historic structure that have been certified by the historical society or other reviewing entity as meeting the standards for rehabilitation of the United States secretary of the interior.

(d)  Contributing property means property that adds to the sense of time,

place, and historical development of a historic district as determined by the historical society or other reviewing entity.

(d.3)  Denver metropolitan area means all of the land area within the

boundaries of the counties of Adams, Arapahoe, Boulder, and Jefferson, all of the area within the boundaries of the city and county of Broomfield and the city and county of Denver, and all of the area within the boundaries of the county of Douglas; except that the area within the boundaries of the town of Castle Rock and the area within the boundaries of the town of Larkspur in the county of Douglas shall not be included in such area.

(e)  Department means the Colorado department of revenue or any

successor entity.

(f)  Designated means established by local preservation ordinance.


(g)  Historical society means the state historical society of Colorado, also

known as history Colorado, or any successor entity.

(g.5)  Municipality has the same meaning as specified in section 31-1-101 (6)

and also includes any unincorporated area of a county, including without limitation an unincorporated community or a census-designated place.

(h)  Office means the Colorado office of economic development or any

successor entity.

(i)  Owner means any taxpayer filing a state tax return or any entity that is

exempt from federal income taxation pursuant to section 501 (c) of the internal revenue code, as amended, that owns:

(I)  Title to a qualified structure;


(II)  Prospective title to a qualified structure in the form of a purchase

agreement or an option to purchase;

(III)  A leasehold interest in a qualified commercial structure for a term of not

less than thirty-nine years;

(III.5)  A leasehold interest in a qualified commercial structure that is located

in a rural community for a term of not less than five years; or

(IV)  A leasehold interest in a qualified residential structure for a term of not

less than five years.

(j)  Qualified commercial structure means an income producing or

commercial property located in Colorado that is:

(I)  At least thirty years old; and


(II) (A)  Listed individually on, or as a contributing property in a district

included within, the state register of historic properties pursuant to article 80.1 of title 24; or

(B)  (Deleted by amendment, L. 2018.)


(C)  Listed individually by, or as a contributing property that is included within

a designated historic district of, a certified local government.

(k)  Qualified rehabilitation expenditures means:


(I)  With respect to a qualified commercial structure, any expenditure as

defined under section 47 (c)(2)(A) of the internal revenue code, as amended, and the related regulations thereunder; and

(II)  With respect to a qualified residential structure, exterior improvements

and interior improvements undertaken to restore, rehabilitate, or preserve the historic character of a qualified property that meet the standards for rehabilitation of the United States secretary of the interior as adopted by the historical society or the certified local government pursuant to federal law. As used in this subsection (2)(k)(II), exterior improvements is limited to any one or more of the following: Roof replacement or repair; exterior siding replacement or repair; masonry repair, re-pointing, or replacement; window repair or replacement; door repair or replacement; woodwork and trim repair or replacement; foundation repair or replacement; and excavation costs associated with foundation work. As used in this subsection (2)(k)(II), interior improvements is limited to one or more of the following: Electrical repairs and upgrades; plumbing repairs and upgrades; heating, venting, and air conditioning repairs and upgrades; repair of existing interior walls, ceilings, and finishes; repair or replacement of existing woodwork and trim; insulation; refinishing or replacing historic floor materials in-kind, excluding carpeting; and reconstructing missing historic elements when there is sufficient historical documentation to guide the reconstruction.

(l)  Qualified residential structure means a nonincome producing and

owner-occupied residential property located in Colorado that is:

(I)  At least thirty years old; and


(II) (A)  Listed individually on, or as a contributing property in a district

included within, the state register of historic properties pursuant to article 80.1 of title 24; or

(B)  (Deleted by amendment, L. 2018.)


(C)  Listed individually by, or as a contributing property that is included within

a designated historic district of, a certified local government.

(m)  Qualified structure means a structure that satisfies the definition of

either a qualified residential structure or a qualified commercial structure.

(n)  Rehabilitation plan or plan means construction plans and

specifications for the proposed rehabilitation of a qualified structure that are in sufficient detail to enable the office or the reviewing entity, as applicable, to evaluate whether the structure is in compliance with the standards developed under subsection (4) of this section.

(o)  Reviewing entity means:


(I)  A certified local government that has decided pursuant to subsection

(5.5)(c) of this section to perform the duties specified under this section; or

(II)  The historical society if the qualified residential structure either is not

located within the territorial boundaries of any certified local government or is located within the territorial boundaries of a certified local government that has decided pursuant to subsection (5.5)(c) of this section not to perform the duties specified under this section.

(o.5)  Rural community means:


(I)  A municipality with a population of less than fifty thousand people that is

not located within the Denver metropolitan area; or

(II)  An unincorporated area of any county the total population of which

county is less than fifty thousand people that is not located within the Denver metropolitan area.

(p)  Substantial rehabilitation means:


(I)  With respect to a qualified commercial structure:


(A)  For tax years commencing prior to January 1, 2020, rehabilitation for

which the qualified rehabilitation expenditures exceed twenty-five percent of the owner's original purchase price of the qualified commercial structure less the value attributed to the land; and

(B)  For tax years commencing on or after January 1, 2020, rehabilitation for

which the qualified rehabilitation expenditures are in an aggregate amount of at least twenty thousand dollars; and

(II)  With respect to a qualified residential structure, rehabilitation for which

the qualified rehabilitation expenditures exceed five thousand dollars.

(3)  General provisions. For income tax years commencing on or after

January 1, 2016, but prior to January 1, 2037, there shall be allowed a credit with respect to the income taxes imposed pursuant to this article 22 to each owner of a qualified structure that complies with the requirements of this section.

(4)  Development of standards for approval of commercial or residential

rehabilitation projects. (a) The office, in consultation with the historical society, shall develop standards for the approval of the substantial rehabilitation of qualified commercial structures for which a tax credit under this section is being claimed. The standards must consider whether the substantial rehabilitation of a qualified commercial structure is consistent with the standards for rehabilitation adopted by the United States department of the interior.

(b)  The historical society shall develop standards for the approval of the

substantial rehabilitation of qualified residential structures for which a tax credit under this section is being claimed. The standards must consider whether the substantial rehabilitation of a qualified residential structure is consistent with the standards for rehabilitation adopted by the United States department of the interior.

(5)  Submission by owner of application and rehabilitation plan. (a)  The

owner shall submit an application and rehabilitation plan to either the office for a qualified commercial structure or to the reviewing entity for a qualified residential structure, along with an estimate of the qualified rehabilitation expenditures under the rehabilitation plan. If an application and rehabilitation plan is for a qualified commercial structure, the owner shall specify whether the owner is seeking to reserve a credit allowed pursuant to subsection (12)(a) of this section or a credit allowed pursuant to subsection (12)(a.5) of this section, and an owner may only apply for one of these two credits for a single qualified rehabilitation plan as described in subsection (7) of this section. An owner, at the owner's own risk, may incur qualified rehabilitation expenditures no earlier than twenty-four months prior to the submission of the application and rehabilitation plan that an owner submits prior to January 1, 2026, and no earlier than twelve months prior to the submission of the application and rehabilitation plan that an owner submits on or after January 1, 2026, but only if satisfactory documentation is submitted to the office or the reviewing entity, as applicable, indicating the condition of the qualified structure prior to commencement of the rehabilitation, including but not limited to photographs of the qualified structure and written declarations from persons knowledgeable about the qualified structure. An owner may submit an application and rehabilitation plan and may commence rehabilitation before the property:

(I)  Is listed individually on, or as a contributing property in a district included

within, the national register of historic places;

(II)  Is listed individually on, or as a contributing property in a district included

within, the state register of historic properties pursuant to article 80.1 of title 24; or

(III)  (Deleted by amendment, L. 2018.)


(IV)  Is listed individually by, or as a contributing property within a designated

historic district of, a certified local government.

(b)  Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (5)(a) of this section, an

owner may incur qualified rehabilitation expenditures at the owner's own risk.

(b.5)  On or after January 1, 2025, an owner shall not submit an application

and rehabilitation plan for an already completed rehabilitation project.

(c)  Within ninety days after receipt of the application and rehabilitation plan,

the office and the historical society, in the case of a qualified commercial structure, and the reviewing entity, in the case of a qualified residential structure, shall notify the owner in writing if the rehabilitation plan is preliminarily determined to be a certified rehabilitation.

(5.5)  Issuance of tax credit certificate for qualified residential structures -

rules. (a) (I) Following the completion of a rehabilitation of a qualified residential structure, the owner shall notify the reviewing entity that the rehabilitation has been completed and shall certify that the qualified rehabilitation expenditures incurred in connection with the rehabilitation plan. The owner shall also provide the reviewing entity with a cost and expense certification for the total qualified rehabilitation expenditures and the total amount of tax credits for which the owner is eligible. The reviewing entity shall review the documentation of the rehabilitation and verify its compliance with the rehabilitation plan. Except as otherwise provided in subsections (5.5)(a)(II) and (5.5)(a)(III) of this section, within ninety days after receipt of the foregoing documentation from the owner the reviewing entity shall issue a tax credit certificate in an amount equal to twenty percent of the actual qualified rehabilitation expenditures; except that the amount of the tax credit certificate awarded for tax years commencing before January 1, 2025, shall not exceed fifty thousand dollars for each qualified residential structure, the amount of the tax credit certificate awarded for tax years commencing on or after January 1, 2025, shall not exceed one hundred thousand dollars for each qualified residential structure, and both the fifty thousand dollar and one hundred thousand dollar amounts are to be calculated over a ten-year rolling period that commences with each change in ownership of the qualified residential structure.

(II)  For income tax years commencing prior to January 1, 2030, and for

applications submitted pursuant to subsection (5) of this section prior to January 1, 2025, with respect to a qualified residential structure located in an area that the president of the United States has determined to be a major disaster area under section 102 (2) of the federal Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. sec. 5121 et seq., or that is located in an area that the governor has determined to be a disaster area under the Colorado Disaster Emergency Act, part 7 of article 33.5 of title 24, the amount of the tax credit specified in subsection (5.5)(a)(I) of this section is increased to twenty-five percent for an application that is filed within six years after the disaster determination.

(III)  For income tax years commencing on and after January 1, 2020, with

respect to a qualified residential structure located in a rural community, the amount of the tax credit specified in subsection (5.5)(a)(I) of this section is increased to thirty-five percent for an application that is properly filed in accordance with this section.

(b)  Repealed.


(c)  For the purposes of this section, a certified local government may act as a

reviewing entity only for a qualified residential structure. Each certified local government shall adopt a resolution or ordinance stating whether the government will act as a reviewing entity for the purposes of this section. The local government shall send a copy of the resolution or ordinance to the historical society. Any certified local government that decides to act as a reviewing entity for the purposes of this section shall perform all duties and responsibilities in connection with a certified rehabilitation that receives preliminary approval from such entity. The historical society shall promulgate rules on standards and reporting, in accordance with article 4 of title 24, as it deems necessary to facilitate the effective implementation of this subsection (5.5)(c).

(d)  In the case of a qualified residential structure, the reviewing entity may

impose a reasonable application fee.

(e)  The historical society shall promulgate any and all rules necessary to

further implement the tax credits to be claimed for the substantial rehabilitation of qualified residential structures under this section. Any rules must be promulgated in accordance with article 4 of title 24.

(f)  By March 15, 2019, and on a quarterly basis thereafter, the historical

society shall provide a report to the department specifying the ownership of tax credits to be claimed for the rehabilitation of qualified residential structures under this section covering the period since the last report. The historical society shall share with the department all necessary information about the tax credit created by this section to enable the historical society and the department to properly administer the tax credit.

(6)  Application and issuance fees for qualified commercial structures. (a)

For a qualified commercial structure for which the amount of tax credit requested under this section is two hundred fifty thousand dollars or more, the office may impose a reasonable application fee that does not exceed five hundred dollars. For a qualified commercial structure for which the amount of tax credit requested under this section is less than two hundred fifty thousand dollars, the office may impose a reasonable application fee that does not exceed two hundred fifty dollars.

(b)  (Deleted by amendment, L. 2018.)


(c)  The office may impose on the owner a reasonable issuance fee of up to

three percent of the amount of the tax credit issued, which must be paid before the tax credit is issued to the owner. With respect to both an application fee and an issuance fee, the office shall share on an equal basis any such fees collected with the historical society and the department. Money collected from such fees must be credited to the commercial historic preservation tax credit program cash fund created in subsection (17) of this section and applied to the administration of the tax credit created by this section.

(d)  (Deleted by amendment, L. 2018.)


(7)  Reservation of tax credits for qualified rehabilitation plans for qualified

commercial structures. (a) In the case of a qualified commercial structure, a reservation of tax credits is permitted in accordance with the provisions of this subsection (7). The office and the historical society shall review the application and rehabilitation plan for a qualified commercial structure to determine that the information contained in the application and plan is complete. If the office and the historical society determine that the application and rehabilitation plan are complete, the office shall reserve for the benefit of the owner an allocation of a tax credit as provided in subsection (12)(a) or (12)(a.5) of this section and subsection (8)(c)(II) of this section, and the office shall notify the owner in writing of the amount of the reservation. The reservation of tax credits does not entitle the owner to an issuance of a tax credit until the owner complies with all the other requirements specified in this section for the issuance of the tax credit. The office shall separately reserve tax credits allowed pursuant to subsection (12)(a) of this section and tax credits allowed pursuant to subsection (12)(a.5) of this section in the order in which it receives completed applications and rehabilitation plans for each of those two categories of credits. The office shall issue a reservation of tax credits authorized by this subsection (7) within a reasonable time, not to exceed ninety days after the filing of a completed application and rehabilitation plan. The office shall stamp each completed application and plan with the date and time it receives the application and plan and shall review a plan and application on the basis of the order in which the documents were submitted by date and time. The office shall only review an application and plan submitted in connection with a property for which a property address, legal description, or other specific location is provided in the application and plan and for which the owner has specified the category of credit sought as required by subsection (5)(a) of this section. The owner shall not request the review of another property for approval in the place of the property that is the subject of the application and plan. Any application and plan disapproved by the office will be removed from the review process, and the office shall notify the owner in writing of the decision to remove the property from the review process. Disapproved applications and plans lose their priority in the review process. An owner may resubmit a modified application and plan, but a resubmitted application and plan is a new submission for purposes of the priority procedures described in this subsection (7)(a). If a resubmitted application and plan are submitted, the office may charge a new application fee in an amount specified in accordance with subsection (6) of this section.

(a.5)  In the case of any project for a qualified commercial structure the

qualified rehabilitation expenditures for which amount to less than fifty thousand dollars, if the total number of applications for such projects that are received but not reserved for credits allowed pursuant to either subsection (12)(a) or (12)(b) of this section reaches fifteen, the office may suspend the submission of additional applications for that credit for such projects until such time as the fifteen projects have been duly reserved or disapproved. The notification period that is specified in subsection (5)(c) of this section is extended to one hundred twenty days after receipt of the application and rehabilitation plan for the fifteen projects. Any application for a qualified commercial structure the qualified rehabilitation expenditures for which amount to fifty thousand or more dollars is not subject to this subsection (7)(a.5).

(b)  If, for any calendar year, the aggregate amount of reservations for tax

credits allowed pursuant to either subsection (12)(a) or (12)(a.5) of this section that the office has approved is equal to the total amount of tax credits available for reservation pursuant to the applicable subsection (12)(a) or (12)(a.5) of this section during that calendar year, the office shall notify all owners who have submitted applications and rehabilitation plans for reservation of a tax credit allowed pursuant to the applicable subsection (12)(a) or (12)(a.5) of this section then awaiting approval or submitted for approval after the calculation is made that no additional approvals of applications and plans for reservations of tax credits will be granted during that calendar year. The office shall additionally notify the owner of the priority number given to the owner's application and plan then awaiting approval. The applications and plans remain in priority status for two years from the date of the original application and plan and are considered for reservations of tax credits in the priority order established in this subsection (7) if additional credits become available resulting from the rescission of approvals under subsection (8)(a) of this section or because a new allocation of tax credits for a calendar year becomes available.

(c)  Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, this subsection (7)

does not apply to a qualified residential structure because no reservation of tax credits is necessary in the case of a qualified residential structure.

(8)  Deadline for incurring specified amount of estimated costs of

rehabilitation - proof of compliance - audit of cost and expense certification - issuance of tax credit certificate - commercial structures. (a) An owner receiving a reservation of tax credits under subsection (7)(a) of this section shall incur not less than twenty percent of the estimated costs of rehabilitation contained in the application and rehabilitation plan not later than eighteen months after the date of issuance of the written notice from the office to the owner granting the reservation of tax credits. An owner receiving a reservation of tax credits shall submit evidence of compliance with the provisions of this subsection (8)(a). If the office determines that an owner has failed to comply with the requirements of this subsection (8)(a), the office may rescind the issuance it previously gave the owner approving the reservation of tax credits and, if so, the total amount of tax credits made available pursuant to subsection (12)(a) or (12)(a.5) of this section, as applicable, for the calendar year for which reservations may be granted must be increased by the amount of the tax credits rescinded. The office shall promptly notify any owner whose reservation of tax credits has been rescinded and, upon receipt of the notice, the owner may submit a new application and plan for which the office may charge a new application fee in accordance with subsection (6) of this section.

(b)  Following the completion of a rehabilitation of a qualified commercial

structure, the owner shall notify the office that the rehabilitation has been completed and shall certify the qualified rehabilitation costs and expenses. The applicant shall include a review of the certification by a licensed certified public accountant that is not affiliated with the qualified applicant, and the review of the certification must align with office policies for certification of qualified rehabilitation expenditures. The office and the historical society shall review the documentation of the rehabilitation and the historical society shall verify that the documentation satisfies the rehabilitation plan. Within ninety days after receipt of such documentation from the owner, the office shall issue a tax credit certificate in an amount equal to the following subject to subsection (8)(c) of this section:

(I)  Twenty-five percent of the actual qualified rehabilitation expenditures

that are less than two million dollars; plus

(II)  Twenty percent of the actual qualified rehabilitation expenditures in

excess of two million dollars.

(c)  Notwithstanding subsection (8)(b) of this section:


(I)  The total amount of the tax credit certificate issued for any particular

project shall not exceed the amount of the tax credit reservation issued for the project under subsection (7)(a) of this section;

(II)  The amount of a tax credit certificate to be issued pursuant to subsection

(12)(a) of this section for any one qualified commercial structure shall not exceed one million dollars, and the amount of a tax credit certificate to be issued pursuant to subsection (12)(a.5) of this section for any one qualified rehabilitation plan shall not exceed one million five hundred thousand dollars in any one calendar year;

(III)  For income tax years commencing prior to January 1, 2030, and for

applications submitted pursuant to subsection (5) of this section prior to January 1, 2026, with respect to a certified historic structure that is a qualified commercial structure that is located in an area that the president of the United States has determined to be a major disaster area under section 102 (2) of the federal Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. sec. 5121 et seq., or that is located in an area that the governor has determined to be a disaster area under the Colorado Disaster Emergency Act, part 7 of article 33.5 of title 24, the tax credit amounts specified in subsections (8)(b)(I) and (8)(b)(II) of this section must be increased as follows for an application that is filed within six years after the disaster determination:

(A)  The twenty-five percent credit amount specified in subsection (8)(b)(I) of

this section is increased to thirty percent; and

(B)  The twenty percent credit amount specified in subsection (8)(b)(II) of this

section is increased to twenty-five percent;

(IV)  For income tax years commencing on or after January 1, 2020, with

respect to a certified historic structure that is a qualified commercial structure that is located in a rural community, the tax credit amounts specified in subsections (8)(b)(I) and (8)(b)(II) of this section must be increased as follows for an application that is properly filed in accordance with this section:

(A)  The twenty-five percent credit amount specified in subsection (8)(b)(I) of

this section is increased to thirty-five percent; and

(B)  The twenty percent credit amount specified in subsection (8)(b)(II) of this

section is increased to thirty percent; and

(V)  For a tax credit allowed pursuant to subsection (12)(a.5) of this section

only, if, due to a regulatory requirement or condition of financing, the qualified commercial structure for which the tax credit is claimed is subject to a deed restriction that requires the owner to lease rental housing units in the qualified commercial structure only to individuals or households whose income is below a specified amount, then the amount of the tax credit specified in subsection (8)(b) of this section, as increased pursuant to subsection (8)(c)(III) or (8)(c)(IV) of this section, if applicable, is increased by an additional five percent.

(d)  If the amount of qualified rehabilitation expenditures incurred by the

owner would result in an owner being issued an amount of tax credits that exceeds the amount of tax credits reserved for the owner under subsection (7)(a) of this section, the owner may apply to the office for the issuance of an amount of tax credits that equals the excess. The owner must submit its application for issuance of such excess tax credits on a form prescribed by the office. The office shall automatically approve the application, which it shall issue by means of a separate certificate, subject only to the availability of tax credits and the provisions concerning priority provided in subsection (7)(a) of this section.

(e)  (Deleted by amendment, L. 2018.)


(f)  Repealed.


(9)  Filing tax credit certificate with income tax return. In order to claim the

credit authorized by this section, the owner shall file the tax credit certificate with the owner's state income tax return. The amount of the credit claimed that the owner may claim under this section is the amount stated on the tax credit certificate.

(10)  (Deleted by amendment, L. 2018.)


(11)  Residential and commercial. (a)  For tax years commencing prior to

January 1, 2027, the entire tax credit to be issued under this section for either a qualified residential structure or a qualified commercial structure may be claimed by the owner in the taxable year in which the certified rehabilitation is placed in service. If the amount of the credit allowed under this section exceeds the amount of income taxes otherwise due on the income of the owner in the income tax year for which the credit is being claimed, the amount of the credit not used as an offset against income taxes in said income tax year may be carried forward as a credit against subsequent years' income tax liability for a period not to exceed ten years and will be applied to the earliest income tax years possible. Any amount of the credit that is not used after such period shall not be refunded to the owner.

(b) (I)  For tax years commencing on or after January 1, 2027, the entire tax

credit to be issued under this section for either a qualified residential structure or a qualified commercial structure may be claimed by the owner in the tax year in which the certified rehabilitation is placed in service.

(II)  If the amount of the credit allowed under this section for a qualified

commercial structure, but not a qualified residential structure, exceeds the amount of income taxes otherwise due on the income of the owner in the income tax year for which the credit is being claimed, the amount of the credit not used as an offset against income taxes in said income tax year may be carried forward as a credit against subsequent years' income tax liability for a period not to exceed ten years and shall be applied to the earliest income tax years possible. Any amount of the credit that is not used after such period shall not be refunded to the owner.

(III)  If the amount of the credit allowed under this section for a qualified

residential structure, but not a qualified commercial structure, exceeds the amount of income taxes otherwise due on the income of the qualified applicant in the income tax year for which the credit is being claimed, the amount of the credit not used as an offset against income taxes in the income tax year is refunded to the qualified applicant.

(12)  Limit on aggregate amount of all tax credits that may be reserved for

qualified commercial structures - assignability and transferability of tax credits for qualified commercial structures - tax preference performance statement - legislative declaration. (a) Except as otherwise provided in subsections (12)(a.5) and (12)(b) of this section, the aggregate amount of all tax credits in any calendar year that may be reserved for qualified commercial structures by the office upon the certification of all rehabilitation plans under subsection (7)(a) of this section for such structures must not exceed:

(I)  For qualified commercial structures estimating qualified rehabilitation

expenditures in the amount of two million dollars or less, two and one-half million dollars in the aggregate for the 2016 calendar year, five million dollars in the aggregate for each of the 2017, 2018, and 2019 calendar years, in addition to the amount of any previously reserved tax credits that were rescinded under subsection (8)(a) of this section during the applicable calendar year;

(II)  For qualified commercial structures estimating qualified rehabilitation

expenditures in excess of two million dollars, two and one-half million dollars in the aggregate for the 2016 calendar year, five million dollars in the aggregate for each of the 2017, 2018, and 2019 calendar years, in addition to the amount of any previously reserved tax credits that were rescinded under subsection (8)(a) of this section during the applicable calendar year;

(III)  For qualified commercial structures estimating qualified rehabilitation

expenditures in any amount, ten million dollars in the aggregate for each of the 2020 through 2032 calendar years, in addition to the amount of any previously reserved tax credits that were rescinded under subsection (8)(a) of this section during the applicable calendar year; except that the aggregate amount of the ten million dollars in tax credits in any tax year that may be reserved by the office must be equally split between qualified commercial structures for which the estimated qualified rehabilitation expenditures are equal to or less than two million dollars and qualified commercial structures for which the estimated qualified rehabilitation expenditures are in excess of two million dollars.

(a.5)  For calendar years commencing on or after January 1, 2025, but before

January 1, 2030, in addition to the tax credits allowed to be reserved by the office pursuant to subsection (12)(a) of this section, the office shall separately reserve credits pursuant to this subsection (12)(a.5) for an owner of a qualified commercial structure that submits an application and rehabilitation plan for rehabilitation of the qualified commercial structure so that at least fifty percent of the square footage of the qualified commercial structure will be net new rental housing units, as defined by the office. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (12)(b) of this section, the aggregate amount of all tax credits in any calendar year that may be reserved pursuant to this subsection (12)(a.5) for qualified commercial structures by the office upon the certification of all rehabilitation plans under subsection (7)(a) of this section for such structures must not exceed five million dollars per year in the aggregate, in addition to the amount of any previously reserved tax credits that were rescinded under subsection (8)(a) of this section during the applicable calendar year.

(b)  Notwithstanding any other provision of this subsection (12), if the entirety

of the allowable tax credit amount for any calendar year is not requested and reserved under:

(I)  Subsection (12)(a) of this section, the office may use any such unreserved

tax credits in reserving tax credits in another category for that same calendar year, and the office may also use any remaining unreserved tax credits for that calendar year in reserving tax credits in subsequent calendar years; or

(II)  Subsection (12)(a.5) of this section, the office shall use any remaining

unreserved tax credits for that calendar year in reserving tax credits in subsequent calendar years.

(c)  Any tax credits issued under this section to a partnership, a limited

liability company taxed as a partnership, or multiple owners of a property must be passed through to the partners, members, or owners, including any nonprofit entity that is a partner, member, or owner, respectively, on a pro rata basis or pursuant to an executed agreement among the partners, members, or owners documenting an alternate distribution method.

(d)  Any tax credits issued under this section for a qualified commercial

structure are freely transferable and assignable, subject to any notice and verification requirements to be determined by the office; except that the owner or a subsequent transferee may only transfer the portion of the tax credit that has neither been applied against the income tax imposed by this article 22 nor used to obtain a refund. Any transferee of a tax credit for a qualified commercial structure issued under this section may use the amount of tax credits transferred to offset against any other tax due under this article 22 or the transferee may freely transfer and assign all or any portion of the tax credits that have neither been applied against the income taxes imposed by this article 22 nor used to obtain a refund to any other person or entity, including an entity that is exempt from federal income taxation pursuant to section 501 (c) of the internal revenue code, as amended, and the other person or entity may freely transfer and assign all or any portion of the tax credits that have neither been applied against the income taxes imposed by this article 22 nor used to obtain a refund to any other person or entity. The tax credits may be transferred or assigned on multiple occasions until such time as the credit is claimed on a state tax return. The transferor and the transferee of the tax credits shall jointly file a copy of the written transfer agreement with the office within thirty days after the transfer. Any filing of the written transfer agreement with the office perfects the transfer. The office shall develop a system to track the transfers of tax credits and to certify the ownership of tax credits. A certification by the office of the ownership and the amount of tax credits may be relied on by the department and the transferee as being accurate, and the office shall not adjust the amount of tax credits as to the transferee; except that the office retains any remedies it may have against the owner. The office may promulgate rules to permit verification of the ownership and amount of the tax credits; except that any rules promulgated shall not unduly restrict or hinder the transfer of the tax credits. Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, only tax credits issued under this section for a qualified commercial structure, and not tax credits issued under this section for a qualified residential structure, are freely transferable and assignable in accordance with this subsection (12)(d).

(e)  (Deleted by amendment, L. 2018.)


(13)  Appeal. Any owner or any duly authorized representative of an owner

may appeal any final determination made by the office, the historical society, or the department, including, without limitation, any preliminary or final reservation, or any approval or denial, in accordance with the State Administrative Procedure Act, article 4 of title 24. The owner or the owner's representative shall submit any such appeal within thirty days after receipt by the owner or the owner's representative of the final determination that is the subject of the appeal.

(14)  Deadline for submitting application and rehabilitation plan.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, the tax credits authorized by this section for the substantial rehabilitation of a qualified structure are not available to an owner of a qualified structure that submits an application and rehabilitation plan after December 31, 2032. No action or inaction on the part of the general assembly has the effect of limiting or suspending the issuing of tax credits authorized by this section in any past or future income tax year with respect to a qualified structure if the owner of the structure submits an application and rehabilitation plan with the office on or prior to December 31, 2032, even if the qualified structure is placed into service after December 31, 2032. Any tax credits that have been reserved for a qualified commercial structure in accordance with subsection (7)(a) of this section and any applicable rules promulgated under this section prior to December 31, 2032, may still be issued by the office through and including December 31, 2036.

(15)  Report to the department - rules - qualified commercial structures. (a)

On or before March 15, 2016, and on a quarterly basis thereafter, the office shall provide a report to the department specifying the ownership and transfers of tax credits for the rehabilitation of qualified commercial structures under this section covering the period since the last report.

(b)  The office, in consultation with the historical society, may promulgate any

and all rules necessary to further implement the tax credits to be claimed for the substantial rehabilitation of qualified commercial structures under this section and shall solicit advice from the department in promulgating rules for transfers of such tax credits. Any such rules must be promulgated in accordance with article 4 of title 24.

(c)  Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a taxpayer shall not claim a

credit under this section in connection with the rehabilitation of a historic structure for which the taxpayer is also claiming a credit under section 39-22-514.

(16)  Tax preference performance statement. (a)  In accordance with section

39-21-304 (1), which requires each bill that creates a new tax expenditure or extends an expiring tax expenditure to include a tax preference performance statement as part of a statutory legislative declaration, the general assembly declares that the general purposes of the tax credit created in this section are to induce certain designated behavior by taxpayers and to provide tax relief for certain businesses or individuals. The specific purposes of the tax credit are to provide an incentive to taxpayers to rehabilitate qualified structures in a way that increases the number of net new rental housing units in the state and to provide a greater incentive for taxpayers who develop such units for rental to low- and moderate-income renters who need affordable and middle-income housing.

(b)  The general assembly and the state auditor shall measure the

effectiveness of the tax credit in achieving the purposes specified in subsection (16)(a) of this section based on the information required to be maintained and reported by the office to the state auditor pursuant to subsection (16)(c) of this section.

(c)  The office shall maintain a database of any information determined

necessary by the office to evaluate the effectiveness of the income tax credit allowed in this section in meeting the purposes set forth in subsection (16)(a) of this section and shall provide such information, which must include the number and value of tax credits claimed pursuant to this section, the number of net new rental units developed, including the number of such units developed for rental only to low- and moderate-income renters, through the rehabilitation of qualified commercial or residential structures for which tax credits were allowed pursuant to this section, and, if available, any other information that may be needed, to the state auditor as part of the state auditor's evaluation of the tax credit required by section 39-21-305.

(17)  Commercial historic preservation tax credit program cash fund. (a)  The

commercial historic preservation tax credit program cash fund is created in the state treasury. The fund consists of gifts, grants, donations, fee revenue credited to the fund pursuant to subsection (6) of this section, and any other money that the general assembly may appropriate, transfer, or require by law to be credited to the fund.

(b)  The state treasurer shall credit all interest and income derived from the

deposit and investment of money in the commercial historic preservation tax credit program cash fund to the fund.

(c)  Money in the fund is continuously appropriated to the office for the

purpose of administering the tax credit issued pursuant to this section.

(d)  The state treasurer shall transfer all unexpended and unencumbered

money in the fund on December 31, 2051, to the general fund.

Source: L. 2014: Entire section added, (HB 14-1311), ch. 183, p. 670, � 1,

effective May 14. L. 2015: (2)(j) amended, (HB 15-1307), ch. 218, p. 804, � 1, effective August 5. L. 2018: Entire section amended, (HB 18-1190), ch. 344, p. 2046, � 1, effective May 30; (5.5)(a)(III) and (8)(c)(IV)(A) added, (HB 18-1190), ch. 344, p. 2046, � 1, effective January 1, 2020. L. 2019: (7)(a.5) amended, (SB 19-241), ch. 390, p. 3477, � 55, effective August 2. L. 2024: (2)(j)(I), (2)(l)(I), (2)(n), (3), IP(5)(a), (5.5)(a)(I), (5.5)(a)(II), (6)(c), (7)(a), (7)(a.5), (7)(b), (8)(a), IP(8)(b), (8)(c)(II), (8)(c)(IV)(B), (11), IP(12)(a), (12)(a)(III), (12)(b), and (14) amended, (5)(b.5), (8)(c)(V), (12)(a.5), (16), and (17) added, and (5.5)(b) and (8)(f) repealed, (HB 24-1314), ch. 245, p. 1613, � 1, effective August 7. L. 2025: IP(8)(c)(III) amended, (HB 25-1296), ch. 202, p. 913, � 8, effective May 16.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in HB 25-1296, see section 1

of chapter 202, Session Laws of Colorado 2025.


C.R.S. § 39-22-516.8

39-22-516.8. Tax credit for innovative trucks - tax preference performance statement - legislative declaration - definitions - repeal. (1) As used in this section, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) (I)  Actual cost incurred means the actual cost paid by the purchaser for

a new or used truck or clean fuel refrigerated trailer, conversion of a truck or clean fuel refrigerated trailer, idling reduction technologies, or aerodynamic technologies, minus any credits, grants, or rebates, including federal credits, grants, or rebates for which the purchaser is eligible, but excluding the credit specified in this section.

(II)  For purposes of a lease, actual cost incurred means the total of

payments contracted in the lease for the truck minus:

(A)  Any security deposit included in the total of payments;


(B)  The rent charge included in the total of payments;


(C)  Any sales tax included in the total of payments;


(D)  Any titling and registration fees included in the total of payments;


(E)  Any disposition fee included in the total of payments;


(F)  Any administrative fee or any other fee that does not reflect the value of

the truck included in the total of payments; and

(G)  Any credits, grants, or rebates, including federal credits, grants, or

rebates for which the lessee or lessor is eligible, but excluding the credit specified in this section.

(b)  Aerodynamic technologies means a device on the United States

environmental protection agency's smartway verified technology list that minimizes drag and improves air flow over a truck and trailer; except that aerodynamic technologies do not include tires.

(c)  Alternative fuel has the meaning set forth in section 24-30-1104

(2)(c)(III)(A).

(d)  Battery capacity means the quantity of electricity that a battery is

capable of storing, expressed in kilowatt hours, as measured from a one hundred percent state of charge to a zero percent state of charge.

(e)  Bus means a motor vehicle with a minimum seating capacity of thirty-three, including the driver.


(f)  Category 4 means original equipment manufacturer trucks that are

equipped to operate on compressed natural gas or on liquefied petroleum gas. For purposes of this paragraph (f), operate on compressed natural gas or on liquefied petroleum gas means a truck that operates exclusively on compressed natural gas or on liquefied petroleum gas, or a bi-fuel truck with a multi-fuel engine capable of running on either compressed natural gas or traditional fuel, or on either liquefied petroleum gas or traditional fuel, or a dual-fuel truck with a multi-fuel engine capable of running on both compressed natural gas and traditional fuel, or on both liquefied petroleum gas and traditional fuel.

(g)  Category 4 A means compressed natural gas or liquefied petroleum

gas conversions certified by the United States environmental protection agency. For purposes of this paragraph (g), compressed natural gas or liquefied petroleum gas conversions means a conversion to a truck that operates exclusively on compressed natural gas or on liquefied petroleum gas, or a bi-fuel truck with a multi-fuel engine capable of running on either compressed natural gas or traditional fuel, or on either liquefied petroleum gas or traditional fuel, or a dual-fuel truck with a multi-fuel engine capable of running on both compressed natural gas and traditional fuel, or on both liquefied petroleum gas and traditional fuel.

(h)  Category 4 B means original equipment manufacturer trucks that are

equipped to operate on liquified natural gas. For purposes of this subsection (1)(h), operate on liquified natural gas means a truck that operates exclusively on liquified natural gas, or a bi-fuel truck with a multi-fuel engine capable of running on either liquified natural gas or traditional fuel, or a dual-fuel truck with a multi-fuel engine capable of running on both liquified natural gas and traditional fuel.

(i)  Category 4 C means liquefied natural gas conversions certified by the

United States environmental protection agency. For purposes of this subsection (1)(i), liquefied natural gas conversions means a conversion to a truck that operates exclusively on liquefied natural gas, or a bi-fuel truck with a multi-fuel engine capable of running on either liquefied natural gas or traditional fuel, or a dual-fuel truck with a multi-fuel engine capable of running on both liquified natural gas and traditional fuel.

(j)  Category 5 means the installation of any idling reduction technologies

on or in a truck.

(k)  Category 6 means the installation of any aerodynamic technologies on

or in a truck.

(l)  Category 7 means an original equipment manufacturer electric truck

and plug-in hybrid electric truck.

(m)  Category 7 A means a conversion of a truck to an electric truck or a

plug-in hybrid electric truck.

(n)  Category 8 means a clean fuel refrigerated trailer.


(o)  Category 8 A means a conversion of a refrigerated trailer to a clean fuel

refrigerated trailer.

(p)  Category 9 means a hydraulic hybrid truck.


(q)  Clean fuel refrigerated trailer means a trailer capable of being pulled

by a truck with a gross vehicle weight rating greater than fourteen thousand pounds, with a power unit and fuel storage used for climate control that:

(I) (A)  Is installed on the trailer by the original equipment manufacturer; or


(B)  Is installed on the trailer through a conversion certified by the United

States environmental protection agency; and

(II)  Operates on either compressed natural gas, liquefied natural gas,

liquefied petroleum gas, hydrogen, or electricity, or any combination thereof.

(q.5)  Department means the department of revenue.


(r)  Electric truck or plug-in hybrid electric truck means a truck that:


(I)  Has a gross vehicle weight rating that exceeds eight thousand five

hundred pounds;

(II)  Has a maximum speed capability of at least fifty-five miles per hour; and


(III)  Is propelled to a significant extent by:


(A)  An electric motor that draws electricity from a battery that has a

capacity of not less than four kilowatt hours and is capable of being recharged from an external source of electricity; or

(B)  Power derived from one or more cells which convert chemical energy

directly into electricity by combining oxygen with hydrogen fuel which is stored on board the vehicle in any form and may or may not require reformation prior to use.

(r.5)  Financing entity means the entity that finances the purchase or lease

of a category 4, category 4 A, category 4 B, category 4 C, category 7, category 7 A, or category 9 vehicle eligible for a credit allowed by this section.

(s)  Gross vehicle weight rating or GVWR has the same meaning as set

forth in section 42-2-402 (6), C.R.S.

(t)  Heavy-duty truck means a truck with a gross vehicle weight rating

greater than twenty-six thousand pounds.

(u)  Hybrid truck means a truck with a hybrid propulsion system that

operates on both electricity and an alternative fuel or traditional fuel.

(v)  Hydraulic hybrid truck means the conversion of a truck with a gross

vehicle weight rating of more than fourteen thousand pounds to a truck with a hybrid propulsion system that operates on both pressurized fluid and either compressed natural gas, liquified natural gas, liquified petroleum gas, hydrogen, electricity, or a traditional fuel; except that the converted hydraulic hybrid truck must increase the fuel economy of the original truck.

(w)  Idling reduction technologies means idling reduction devices or

advanced insulation, as those terms are defined in section 4053 of the internal revenue code, as amended, that are exempt from federal excise tax pursuant to said section 4053.

(x)  Light-duty electric truck means an electric truck with a gross vehicle

weight rating less than or equal to ten thousand pounds but does not include a light-duty passenger motor vehicle.

(y)  Light-duty passenger motor vehicle means a private passenger motor

vehicle, including vans, capable of seating twelve passengers or less; except that the term does not include motor homes as defined in section 42-1-102 (57), C.R.S., or motor vehicles designed to travel on three or fewer wheels in contact with the ground.

(z)  Light-duty truck means a truck with a gross vehicle weight rating less

than or equal to fourteen thousand pounds but does not include a light-duty passenger motor vehicle.

(aa)  Medium-duty electric truck means an electric truck with a gross

vehicle weight rating greater than ten thousand pounds and up to twenty-six thousand pounds.

(bb)  Medium-duty truck means a truck with a gross vehicle weight rating

greater than fourteen thousand pounds and up to twenty-six thousand pounds.

(bb.1)  Motor vehicle dealer has the same meaning as set forth in section

44-20-102 (18).

(bb.3) (I)  Purchaser means the buyer or the lessee of a category 4,

category 4 A, category 4 B, category 4 C, category 7, category 7 A, or category 9 vehicle, but, for income tax years commencing before January 1, 2024, does not include the state or any political subdivision of the state. For tax years commencing on or after January 1, 2017, a lessee seeking to claim a credit allowed in this section must enter into a lease with a term of not less than two years.

(II)  For income tax years commencing on or after January 1, 2024,

purchaser includes a person or political subdivision of the state who is exempt from taxation under section 39-22-112 (1).

(cc)  Traditional fuel means a petroleum-based motor fuel commonly used

on the highways of the state in the year 2008.

(dd)  Trailer has the same meaning as in section 42-1-102 (105), C.R.S.


(ee) (I)  Truck, for tax years commencing prior to January 1, 2017, has the

same meaning as in section 42-1-102 (108), C.R.S., includes a hybrid truck, a light-duty passenger motor vehicle, and a bus, has a maximum speed capability of at least fifty-five miles per hour, is licensed or subject to licensing for operation upon the highways of the state, and is either:

(A)  Titled and registered in the state; or


(B)  Registered under the international registration plan and base plated in

the state.

(II)  Truck, for tax years commencing on or after January 1, 2017, has the

same meaning as in section 42-1-102 (108), C.R.S., and includes a hybrid truck, a light-duty passenger motor vehicle, and a bus, has a maximum speed capability of at least fifty-five miles per hour, is licensed or subject to licensing for operation upon the highways of the state, is new, not used, unless the truck is being converted, and is either:

(A)  Titled and registered in the state; or


(B)  Registered under the international registration plan and base plated in

the state.

(1.5) (a)  In accordance with section 39-21-304 (1), which requires each bill

that extends an expiring tax expenditure to include a tax preference performance statement as part of a statutory legislative declaration, the general assembly finds and declares that the purpose of the tax credit provided in this section is to induce certain designated behavior by taxpayers, specifically the sale and purchase or lease of electric light-duty, medium-duty, or heavy-duty trucks, by providing a reduction in income tax liability to the purchaser or lessee or to a financing entity in connection with the sale and purchase or lease of an electric light-duty, medium-duty, or heavy-duty truck.

(b)  The general assembly and the state auditor shall measure the

effectiveness of the credit in achieving the purpose specified in subsection (1.5)(a) of this section based on the number and value of credits claimed.

(2)  Category 4. (a)  With respect to the income tax years commencing on or

after January 1, 2014, but before January 1, 2017, there is allowed to any person a credit against the tax imposed by this article as a percentage set forth in paragraph (b) of this subsection (2) of the actual cost incurred by the taxpayer during the tax year for each purchase or lease of a category 4 truck, not to exceed the amount set forth in paragraph (b) of this subsection (2). For purposes of the income tax year commencing on or after January 1, 2014, but before January 1, 2015, the purchase or lease of a category 4 truck must occur on or after July 1, 2014, but before January 1, 2015.

(b)  [Insert 39-22-516.8(2)(b).pdf here]


(2.3)  Category 4 purchase. (a)  Except as provided in subsection (14) of this

section, with respect to the income tax years commencing on or after January 1, 2017, but before January 1, 2022, there is allowed to any person a credit against the tax imposed by this article in an amount set forth in paragraph (b) of this subsection (2.3) for each purchase of a category 4 truck during the tax year.

(b)  [Insert 39-22-516.8(2.3)(b).pdf here]


(2.5)  Category 4 lease. (a)  Except as provided in subsection (14) of this

section, with respect to the income tax years commencing on or after January 1, 2017, but before January 1, 2022, there is allowed to any person a credit against the tax imposed by this article in an amount set forth in paragraph (b) of this subsection (2.5) for each lease of a category 4 truck during the tax year.

(b)  [Insert 39-22-516.8(2.5)(b).pdf here]


(3)  Category 4 A. (a)  With respect to the income tax years commencing on

or after January 1, 2014, but before January 1, 2017, there is allowed to any person a credit against the tax imposed by this article as a percentage set forth in paragraph (b) of this subsection (3) of the actual cost incurred by the taxpayer during the tax year for the conversion of a category 4 A truck, not to exceed the amount set forth in paragraph (b) of this subsection (3). For purposes of the income tax year commencing on or after January 1, 2014, but before January 1, 2015, the conversion of a category 4 A truck must occur on or after July 1, 2014, but before January 1, 2015.

(b)  [Insert 39-22-516.8(3)(b).pdf here]


(3.5)  Category 4 A. (a)  Except as provided in subsection (14) of this section,

with respect to the income tax years commencing on or after January 1, 2017, but before January 1, 2022, there is allowed to any person a credit against the tax imposed by this article an amount set forth in paragraph (b) of this subsection (3.5) for the conversion of a category 4 A truck during the tax year.

(b)  [Insert 39-22-516.8(3.5)(b).pdf here]


(4)  Category 4 B. (a)  With respect to the income tax years commencing on

or after January 1, 2014, but before January 1, 2017, there is allowed to any person a credit against the tax imposed by this article as a percentage set forth in paragraph (b) of this subsection (4) of the actual cost incurred by the taxpayer during the tax year for each purchase or lease of a category 4 B truck, not to exceed the amount set forth in paragraph (b) of this subsection (4). For purposes of the income tax year commencing on or after January 1, 2014, but before January 1, 2015, the purchase or lease of a category 4 B truck must occur on or after July 1, 2014, but before January 1, 2015.

(b)  [Insert 39-22-516.8(4)(b).pdf here]


(4.3)  Category 4 B purchase. (a)  Except as provided in subsection (14) of this

section, with respect to the income tax years commencing on or after January 1, 2017, but before January 1, 2022, there is allowed to any person a credit against the tax imposed by this article an amount set forth in paragraph (b) of this subsection (4.3) for each purchase of a category 4 B truck during the tax year.

(b)  [Insert 39-22-516.8(4.3)(b).pdf here]


(4.5)  Category 4 B lease. (a)  Except as provided in subsection (14) of this

section, with respect to the income tax years commencing on or after January 1, 2017, but before January 1, 2022, there is allowed to any person a credit against the tax imposed by this article an amount set forth in paragraph (b) of this subsection (4.5) for each lease of a category 4 B truck during the tax year.

(b)  [Insert 39-22-516.8(4.5)(b).pdf here]


(5)  Category 4 C. (a)  With respect to the income tax years commencing on

or after January 1, 2014, but before January 1, 2017, there is allowed to any person a credit against the tax imposed by this article as a percentage set forth in paragraph (b) of this subsection (5) of the actual cost incurred by the taxpayer during the tax year for the conversion of a category 4 C truck, not to exceed the amount set forth in paragraph (b) of this subsection (5). For purposes of the income tax year commencing on or after January 1, 2014, but before January 1, 2015, the conversion of a category 4 C truck must occur on or after July 1, 2014, but before January 1, 2015.

(b)  [Insert 39-22-516.8(5)(b).pdf here]


(5.5)  Category 4 C. (a)  Except as provided in subsection (14) of this section,

with respect to the income tax years commencing on or after January 1, 2017, but before January 1, 2022, there is allowed to any person a credit against the tax imposed by this article in the amount set forth in paragraph (b) of this subsection (5.5) for the conversion of a category 4 C truck during the tax year.

(b)  [Insert 39-22-516.8(5.5)(b).pdf here]


(6)  Category 5. With respect to the income tax years commencing on or

after January 1, 2015, but before January 1, 2022, there is allowed to any person a credit against the tax imposed by this article of twenty-five percent of the actual cost incurred by the taxpayer during a tax year for category 5, not to exceed six thousand dollars.

(7)  Category 6. With respect to the income tax years commencing on or

after January 1, 2014, but before January 1, 2022, there is allowed to any person a credit against the tax imposed by this article of twenty-five percent of the actual cost incurred by the taxpayer during a tax year for category 6, not to exceed six thousand dollars for each installed device and not to exceed fifty thousand dollars during a tax year for the installation of multiple devices. For purposes of the income tax year commencing on or after January 1, 2014, but before January 1, 2015, the installation must occur on or after July 1, 2014, but before January 1, 2015.

(8)  Category 7. (a)  With respect to the income tax years commencing on or

after January 1, 2014, but before January 1, 2017, there is allowed to any person a credit against the tax imposed by this article as a percentage set forth in paragraph (b) of this subsection (8) of the actual cost incurred by the taxpayer during the tax year for each purchase or lease of a category 7 truck, not to exceed the amount set forth in paragraph (b) of this subsection (8). For purposes of the income tax year commencing on or after January 1, 2014, but before January 1, 2015, the purchase or lease of a category 7 truck must occur on or after July 1, 2014, but before January 1, 2015.

(b)  [Insert 39-22-516.8(8)(b).pdf here]


(8.3)  Category 7 purchase. (a)  Except as provided in subsection (14) of this

section, with respect to the income tax years commencing on or after January 1, 2017, but before January 1, 2024, there is allowed to any person a credit against the tax imposed by this article 22 in an amount set forth in subsection (8.3)(b) of this section for each purchase of a category 7 truck during the tax year.

(b)  [Insert 39-22-516.8(8.3)(b).pdf here]


(8.5)  Category 7 lease. (a)  Except as provided in subsection (14) of this

section, with respect to the income tax years commencing on or after January 1, 2017, but before January 1, 2024, there is allowed to any person a credit against the tax imposed by this article 22 in an amount set forth in subsection (8.5)(b) of this section for each lease of a category 7 truck during the tax year.

(b)  [Insert 39-22-516.8(8.5)(b).pdf here]


(8.7) (a)  Category 7 light-duty passenger motor vehicle over 8,500 GVWR

or light-duty electric truck lease or purchase for tax years 2024 through 2028. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (8.7)(d) of this section, with respect to income tax years commencing on or after January 1, 2024, but before January 1, 2029, for each purchase or lease of a category 7 light-duty passenger motor vehicle over 8,500 GVWR or a light-duty electric truck sold or leased during the tax year, there is allowed to any person a credit against the tax imposed by this article 22 in an amount as follows:

(I)  For income tax years commencing on or after January 1, 2024, but before

January 1, 2025, five thousand dollars;

(II)  For income tax years commencing on or after January 1, 2025, but before

January 1, 2026, three thousand five hundred dollars;

(III)  For income tax years commencing on or after January 1, 2026, but before

January 1, 2027, one thousand five hundred dollars;

(IV)  For income tax years commencing on or after January 1, 2027, but before

January 1, 2028, one thousand dollars; and

(V)  For income tax years commencing on or after January 1, 2028, but before

January 1, 2029, five hundred dollars.

(b)  Category 7 medium-duty electric truck lease or purchase for tax years

2024 through 2032. With respect to income tax years commencing on or after January 1, 2024, but before January 1, 2033, for each purchase or lease of a category 7 medium-duty electric truck sold or leased during the tax year, there is allowed to any person a credit against the tax imposed by this article 22 in an amount as follows:

(I)  For income tax years commencing on or after January 1, 2024, but before

January 1, 2026, twelve thousand dollars; and

(II)  For income tax years commencing on or after January 1, 2026, but before

January 1, 2033, four thousand dollars.

(c)  Category 7 heavy-duty truck lease or purchase for tax years 2024

through 2032. With respect to income tax years commencing on or after January 1, 2024, but before January 1, 2033, for each purchase or lease of a category 7 heavy-duty truck sold or leased during the tax year, there is allowed to any person a credit against the tax imposed by this article 22 in an amount as follows:

(I)  For income tax years commencing on or after January 1, 2024, but before

January 1, 2026, twelve thousand dollars; and

(II)  For income tax years commencing on or after January 1, 2026, but before

January 1, 2033, eight thousand dollars.

(d)  If the June 2025 revenue forecast, and each June revenue forecast

through the June 2027 revenue forecast as prepared by either legislative council staff or the office of state planning and budgeting, projects that state revenues, as defined in section 24-77-103.6 (6)(c), will not increase by at least four percent for the next fiscal year, the amount of the credit allowed pursuant to subsection (8.7)(a)(III), (8.7)(a)(IV), or (8.7)(a)(V) of this section for any tax year commencing in the calendar year that begins during said next fiscal year is reduced by fifty percent; except that if the amount of reduced credit is equal to or less than five hundred dollars, then no credit is available for such a tax year.

(9)  Category 7 A. (a)  With respect to the income tax years commencing on

or after January 1, 2014, but before January 1, 2017, there is allowed to any person a credit against the tax imposed by this article as a percentage set forth in paragraph (b) of this subsection (9) of the actual cost incurred by the taxpayer during the tax year for the conversion of a category 7 A truck, not to exceed the amount set forth in paragraph (b) of this subsection (9). For purposes of the income tax year commencing on or after January 1, 2014, but before January 1, 2015, the conversion of a category 7 A truck must occur on or after July 1, 2014, but before January 1, 2015.

(b)  [Insert 39-22-516.8(9)(b).pdf here]


(9.5)  Category 7 A. (a)  Except as provided in subsection (14) of this section,

with respect to the income tax years commencing on or after January 1, 2017, but before January 1, 2022, there is allowed to any person a credit against the tax imposed by this article in an amount set forth in paragraph (b) of this subsection (9.5) for the conversion of a category 7 A truck during the tax year.

(b)  [Insert 39-22-516.8(9.5)(b).pdf here]


(10)  Category 8. (a)  With respect to the income tax years commencing on or

after January 1, 2014, but before January 1, 2022, there is allowed to any person a credit against the tax imposed by this article as a percentage set forth in paragraph (b) of this subsection (10) of the actual cost incurred by the taxpayer during the tax year for each purchase or lease of a category 8 trailer, not to exceed the amount set forth in paragraph (b) of this subsection (10). For purposes of the income tax year commencing on or after January 1, 2014, but before January 1, 2015, the purchase or lease of a category 8 trailer must occur on or after July 1, 2014, but before January 1, 2015.

(b)  [Insert 39-22-516.8(10)(b).pdf here]


(11)  Category 8 A. (a)  With respect to the income tax years commencing on

or after January 1, 2014, but before January 1, 2022, there is allowed to any person a credit against the tax imposed by this article as a percentage set forth in paragraph (b) of this subsection (11) of the actual cost incurred by the taxpayer during the tax year for the conversion of a refrigerated trailer to a category 8 A trailer, not to exceed the amount set forth in paragraph (b) of this subsection (11). For purposes of the income tax year commencing on or after January 1, 2014, but before January 1, 2015, the conversion of a refrigerated trailer to a category 8 A trailer must occur on or after July 1, 2014, but before January 1, 2015.

(b)  [Insert 39-22-516.8(11)(b).pdf here]


(11.5)  Category 9. (a)  With respect to the income tax years commencing on

or after January 1, 2014, but before January 1, 2017, there is allowed to any person a credit against the tax imposed by this article as a percentage set forth in paragraph (b) of this subsection (11.5) of the actual cost incurred by the taxpayer during the tax year for the conversion of a category 9 truck, not to exceed the amount set forth in paragraph (b) of this subsection (11.5).

(b)  [Insert 39-22-516.8(11.5)(b).pdf here]


(11.6)  Category 9. (a)  Except as otherwise provided in subsection (14) of this

section, with respect to the income tax years commencing on or after January 1, 2017, but before January 1, 2022, there is allowed to any person a credit against the tax imposed by this article in an amount set forth in paragraph (b) of this subsection (11.6) for the conversion of a category 9 truck during the tax year.

(b)  [Insert 39-22-516.8(11.6)(b).pdf here]


(12)  A taxpayer claiming the credit authorized by this section shall not claim

the credit in an amount that exceeds the incremental cost of the actual cost incurred for the category 4, 4 A, 4 B, 4 C, 7, or 7 A truck or motor vehicle over the manufacturer's suggested retail price of a comparable traditional fuel truck or light-duty passenger motor vehicle.

(13)  If a credit authorized in this section exceeds the income tax due on the

income of the taxpayer for the taxable year, the excess credit may not be carried forward and must be refunded to the taxpayer.

(13.5) (a)  A purchaser may assign the tax credit allowed in this section for

the purchase or lease of a category 4, category 4 A, category 4 B, category 4 C, category 7, category 7 A, or category 9 vehicle completed on or after January 1, 2017, but before January 1, 2024, to a financing entity as follows:

(I)  The assignment to the financing entity must be completed at the time of

purchase or lease by entering into an election statement as set forth in paragraph (c) of this subsection (13.5);

(II)  The purchaser must title and register the vehicle in the state or register

the vehicle under the international registration plan and base plate the vehicle in the state as required by state law;

(III)  The purchaser must assign the tax credit to the financing entity and

forfeit the right to claim the tax credit on the purchaser's tax return in exchange for good and valuable consideration; and

(IV)  The financing entity shall compensate the purchaser for the full nominal

value of the tax credit; except that the financing entity may collect an administrative fee not to exceed one hundred fifty dollars for processing the assignment. The compensation paid to the purchaser is considered a refund of state taxes and is not income.

(b)  Notwithstanding section 39-21-108 (3), if a purchaser assigns the tax

credit to a financing entity pursuant to this subsection (13.5), the financing entity receives the full amount of the tax credit that the purchaser is allowed in this section. Any unpaid balance or unpaid debt of the purchaser may not be credited from the amount of the tax credit allowed in this section.

(c)  To complete the tax credit assignment, the purchaser and the financing

entity must enter into an election statement that must:

(I)  Identify the vehicle identification number of the category 4, category 4 A,

category 4 B, category 4 C, category 7, category 7 A, or category 9 vehicle for which a credit is allowed in this section; and

(II)  Affirm that the requirements specified in paragraph (a) of this subsection

(13.5) were met.

(d)  The financing entity may authorize an agent or a designee to sign the

election statement on its behalf.

(e)  The financing entity shall electronically submit a report containing the

information contained in the election statement described in paragraph (c) of this subsection (13.5) to the department of revenue within thirty days of the purchase or lease of a category 4, category 4 A, category 4 B, category 4 C, category 7, category 7 A, or category 9 vehicle in such a form and in such a manner as required by the department.

(f)  The financing entity shall also file the election statement described in

paragraph (c) of this subsection (13.5) with the original tax return for the taxable year in which the category 4, category 4 A, category 4 B, category 4 C, category 7, category 7 A, or category 9 vehicle is purchased or leased.

(g)  The department of revenue, in consultation with the Colorado energy

office created in section 24-38.5-101, C.R.S., shall develop a model report and election statement no later than December 1, 2016.

(h)  This subsection (13.5) is repealed, effective December 31, 2028.


(13.7) (a)  A purchaser may assign the tax credit allowed in this section for the

purchase or lease of a category 7 vehicle sold or leased on or after January 1, 2024, to a financing entity or to a motor vehicle dealer as follows:

(I)  The assignment to the financing entity or the motor vehicle dealer must

be completed at the time of purchase or lease by entering into an election statement as set forth in subsection (13.7)(c) of this section;

(II)  The purchaser must title and register the vehicle in the state or register

the vehicle under the international registration plan and base plate the vehicle in the state as required by state law;

(III)  The purchaser must assign the tax credit to the financing entity or the

motor vehicle dealer and forfeit the right to claim the tax credit on the purchaser's tax return in exchange for the good and valuable consideration; and

(IV)  The financing entity or the motor vehicle dealer shall compensate the

purchaser for the full nominal value of the tax credit; except that the financing entity or the motor vehicle dealer may collect an administrative fee not to exceed two hundred fifty dollars for processing the assignment. The compensation paid to the purchaser is considered a refund of state taxes and is not income.

(b)  Notwithstanding section 39-21-108 (3), if a purchaser assigns the tax

credit to a financing entity or to a motor vehicle dealer pursuant to this subsection (13.7), the financing entity or the motor vehicle dealer receives the full amount of the tax credit that the purchaser is allowed in this section. Any unpaid balance or unpaid debt of the purchaser may not be credited from the amount of the tax credit allowed in this section.

(c)  To complete the tax credit assignment, the purchaser and the financing

entity or the motor vehicle dealer shall enter into an election statement that:

(I)  Identifies the vehicle identification number of the category 7 vehicle for

which a credit is allowed in this section;

(II)  Specifies the value of the credit allowed; and


(III)  Affirms that the requirements specified in subsection (13.7)(a) of this

section were met.

(d)  The financing entity or the motor vehicle dealer may authorize an agent

or a designee to sign the election statement on its behalf.

(e)  For the purchase or lease of a category 7 vehicle completed on or after

January 1, 2024, the financing entity or the motor vehicle dealer shall electronically submit a report containing the information contained in the election statement described in subsection (13.7)(c) of this section to the department on a quarterly basis in a form and manner required by the department.

(f)  The financing entity or the motor vehicle dealer shall maintain the

election statement described in subsection (13.7)(c) of this section and produce it upon request or audit by the department.

(g)  For income tax years commencing on or after January 1, 2025, the

financing entity or motor vehicle dealer may elect advance payments of credits assigned under this subsection (13.7) as specified in section 39-22-629.

(14) (a)  During the calendar year ending December 31, 2018, the Colorado

energy office created in section 24-38.5-101, C.R.S., shall determine whether category 4, 4 A, 4 B, 4 C, 7, 7 A, or 9 medium- or heavy-duty trucks generate life-cycle emissions materially greater than comparable medium- or heavy-duty trucks using traditional fuel. Such a life-cycle analysis must include the direct emissions regulated by the United States environmental protection agency or by the department of public health and environment that are associated with producing, transporting, and using the alternative or traditional fuels. The Colorado energy office shall consider the likely adoption of future technology at each stage of the life-cycle.

(b)  In making the determinations described in paragraph (a) of this

subsection (14), the Colorado energy office shall consider public input, any analysis or reports prepared by the department of public health and environment, other states, or the United States environmental protection agency, and any peer-reviewed studies conducted in the United States that evaluate similar matters.

(c)  In the event that category 4, 4 A, 4 B, 4 C, 7, 7 A, or 9 medium- or heavy-duty trucks are shown to generate life-cycle emissions materially greater than

comparable traditional fuel trucks, then the Colorado energy office shall notify the department of revenue that no tax credit specified in this section is available for such trucks for the income tax years commencing on or after January 1, 2019, but before January 1, 2022; except that the Colorado energy office may determine if a particular category 4, 4 A, 4 B, 4 C, 7, 7 A, or 9 truck model or engine does not generate life-cycle emissions materially greater than a comparable traditional fuel truck model or engine and is thus allowed a credit for a given income tax year, or the Colorado energy office may allow a credit if the taxpayer can demonstrate that the taxpayer has a long-term fuel contract for his or her category 4, 4 A, 4 B, 4 C, 7, 7 A, or 9 truck from a green fuel provider, such that the life-cycle emissions from such truck are not materially greater than the emissions of a comparable traditional fuel truck. For purposes of this paragraph (c), green fuel provider means the alternative fuel is produced and delivered by providers that have adopted best practices for low life-cycle emissions. On or before January 1, 2019, and on or before each January 1 thereafter through January 1, 2021, the Colorado energy office and the department of revenue shall, through their respective websites, specify which category 4, 4 A, 4 B, 4 C, 7, 7 A, or 9 medium- or heavy-duty trucks are not allowed a credit for a given income tax year.

(15)  No more than one tax credit shall be granted pursuant to this section

and section 39-22-516.7 for any individual motor vehicle or truck.

(16)  With respect to tax years commencing on or after January 1, 2017, the

taxpayer claiming a credit allowed in this section shall provide the department of revenue with, and the department shall commence tracking, the vehicle identification number of the motor vehicle or truck for which a credit is claimed as allowed in this section.

(17)  Making the purchaser aware of the income tax credit allowed in this

section or helping the purchaser assign the income tax credit to a financing entity as allowed in this section does not rise to the level of providing the purchaser with unauthorized tax advice.

(17.5)  A purchaser, as set forth in subsection (1)(bb.3)(II) of this section, who

claims the credit allowed by this section shall file a return pursuant to section 39-22-601 (7)(b).

(18)  This section is repealed, effective December 31, 2037.


Source: L. 2014: Entire section added, (HB 14-1326), ch. 357, p. 1664, � 2,

effective June 6. L. 2016: (1)(r.5), (1)(bb.3), (2.3), (2.5), (3.5), (4.3), (4.5), (5.5), (8.3), (8.5), (9.5), (11.6), (13.5), (17), and (18) added and (1)(ee), (2), (3), (4), (5), (8), (9), (11.5), and (16) amended, (HB 16-1332), ch. 237, p. 960, � 2, effective June 6. L. 2019: (1)(h), (1)(i), (1)(r)(III), (8.3), (8.5), and (18) amended, (HB 19-1159), ch. 386, p. 3445, � 3, effective August 2. L. 2020: (15) amended, (HB 20-1402), ch. 216, p. 1058, � 68, effective June 30; (1)(c) amended, (HB 20-1167), ch. 56, p. 192, � 4, effective September 14. L. 2023: (1)(q.5), (1)(bb.1), (1.5), (8.7), (13.5)(h), (13.7), and (17.5) added and (1)(bb.3), (8.3), (8.5), IP(13.5)(a), and (18) amended, (HB 23-1272), ch. 167, p. 771, � 3, effective May 11. L. 2024: (15) amended, (HB 24-1450), ch. 490, p. 3425, � 80, effective August 7.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in HB 14-1326, see section 1

of chapter 357, Session Laws of Colorado 2014. For the legislative declaration in HB 19-1159, see section 1 of chapter 386, Session Laws of Colorado 2019. For the legislative declaration in HB 23-1272, see section 1 of chapter 167, Session Laws of Colorado 2023.


C.R.S. § 39-22-545

39-22-545. Credit against tax - heat pump systems - heat pump water heaters - tax preference performance statement - legislative declaration - definitions - repeal. (1) (a) The general assembly hereby finds and declares that:

(I)  The general assembly has committed to reduce greenhouse gases

through numerous policy and regulatory measures to meet the goals established in 2019;

(II)  Great quantities of emissions are released in the traditional process of

heating and cooling private sector residential buildings;

(III)  There is great potential for businesses and individuals in the state to

reduce greenhouse gas emissions generated in the heating and cooling of residential buildings by installing heat pump systems or heat pump water heaters, which reduce net greenhouse gas emissions;

(IV)  Providing an income tax credit for heat pump systems and heat pump

water heaters will encourage businesses and individuals to purchase and use heat pump systems and heat pump water heaters rather than traditional heating and cooling methods; and

(V)  The purchase and use of heat pump systems and heat pump water

heaters will benefit public health in the heating and cooling of homes and businesses and take advantage of latent heat sources and available renewable power during low demand periods.

(b)  In accordance with section 39-21-304 (1), which requires each bill that

creates a new tax expenditure to include a tax preference performance statement as part of a statutory legislative declaration, the general assembly hereby finds and declares that the purposes of the tax expenditure created in subsection (3) of this section are to:

(I)  Induce certain designated behavior by taxpayers, specifically the

purchase and use of heat pump systems and heat pump water heaters; and

(II)  Contribute to the state's effort to achieve its climate goals.


(c)  The general assembly and the state auditor shall measure the

effectiveness of the tax credits in achieving the purposes specified in subsection (1)(b) of this section based on the number of heat pump systems and the number of heat pump water heaters sold and used in the state. The Colorado energy office shall provide the state auditor with any available information that would assist the state auditor's measurement.

(2)  As used in this section, unless the context otherwise requires:


(a)  Air-source heat pump system has the same meaning set forth in section

39-26-732 (2)(a).

(b)  Ground-source heat pump system has the same meaning set forth in

section 39-26-732 (2)(b).

(c)  Heat pump system means an air-source heat pump system, ground-source heat pump system, water-source heat pump system, or variable refrigerant

flow heat pump system.

(d)  Heat pump water heater has the same meaning set forth in section 39-26-732 (2)(d).


(e)  Purchase price means the amount actually paid by the purchaser for

the tangible personal property installed, including charges for sales tax and freight, but not including any charges for assembly, installation, or other construction services, or permit fees.

(f)  Purchaser means a taxpayer who is the buyer of a heat pump system or

heat pump water heater.

(g)  Seller means the entity that sells a heat pump system or heat pump

water heater to a purchaser.

(h)  Taxpayer means a person subject to tax under this article 22, or a

person or political subdivision of this state who is exempt from tax under section 39-22-112 (1), but does not include insurance companies subject to the tax imposed on gross premiums by section 10-3-209. For purposes of this section, a person or political subdivision of this state who is exempt from tax under section 39-22-112 (1) is a taxpayer even if the person or political subdivision has no unrelated business income.

(i)  Variable refrigerant flow heat pump system has the same meaning set

forth in section 39-26-732 (2)(f).

(j)  Water-source heat pump system has the same meaning set forth in

section 39-26-732 (2)(e).

(3) (a)  Subject to the provisions of subsection (4) of this section, for income

tax years commencing on or after January 1, 2023, but before January 1, 2024, any purchaser that installs a residential or commercial heat pump system into real property in this state or that installs a residential or commercial heat pump water heater into real property in this state is allowed a credit against the tax imposed by this article 22 in an amount equal to ten percent of the purchase price paid by the purchaser for the heat pump system or heat pump water heater.

(b)  The credit allowed pursuant to this section is for the income tax year in

which the heat pump system or heat pump water heater is purchased.

(4) (a) (I)  To be eligible to claim a tax credit pursuant to this section, the

purchaser shall certify, as specified in subsection (4)(b) of this section, that all necessary mechanical, plumbing, and electrical work performed in connection with the installation of a heat pump system or heat pump water heater in a new or existing industrial, commercial, or multifamily residential building containing twenty thousand square feet or more of conditioned floor space was or will be performed by a contractor on the certified contractor list created pursuant to section 40-3.2-105.6 (3)(a), or by employees of a utility, subject to state licensing requirements and all applicable state and local rules, codes, and standards.

(II)  The requirements of this subsection (4)(a) do not apply to the installation

of a heat pump system or heat pump water heater that is limited to in-unit work in a multifamily building or unit and that is initiated by the owner or tenant of the multifamily building or unit.

(b)  The purchaser shall certify, in a form and manner to be determined by the

department of revenue, that the heat pump system or heat pump water heater was or will be installed in accordance with the provisions of subsection (4)(a) of this section, if applicable. The seller shall provide the certification to the purchaser for the purposes of subsection (5) of this section.

(5) (a)  A purchaser may assign the tax credit allowed in this section to the

purchaser's seller as follows:

(I)  The assignment to the seller must be completed at the time of purchase

of a new heat pump system or heat pump water heater by entering into an agreement as set forth in subsection (5)(c) of this section;

(II)  The purchaser must certify in writing that the purchaser will comply with

the provisions regarding installation of the heat pump system or heat pump water heater specified in subsection (4) of this section, if applicable;

(III)  The purchaser must assign the tax credit to the seller and forfeit the

right to claim the tax credit on the purchaser's tax return in exchange for good and valuable consideration; and

(IV)  The seller must compensate the purchaser for the full nominal value of

the tax credit. The compensation paid to the purchaser is considered a refund of state taxes and is not state taxable income.

(b)  Notwithstanding section 39-21-108 (3), if a purchaser assigns the tax

credit to a seller pursuant to this subsection (5), the seller receives the full amount of the tax credit that the purchaser is allowed in this section. Any unpaid balance or unpaid debt of the purchaser may not be credited from the amount of the tax credit allowed in this section.

(c)  To complete the tax credit assignment, the purchaser and the seller must

enter into an agreement that:

(I)  Includes the purchaser's written certification to comply with the

provisions regarding installation of the heat pump system or heat pump water heater specified in subsection (4) of this section, if applicable; and

(II)  Affirms that the requirements specified in subsection (5)(a) of this section

were met.

(d)  The seller may authorize an agent or a designee to sign the agreement on

its behalf.

(e)  The seller shall electronically submit a report containing the information

required in the agreement described in subsection (5)(c) of this section to the department of revenue within thirty days of the purchase of a heat pump system or heat pump water heater in a form and manner to be determined by the department.

(f)  The seller shall also file the agreement described in subsection (5)(c) of

this section with the original tax return for the taxable year in which the heat pump system or heat pump water heater is purchased.

(g)  The department of revenue, in consultation with the Colorado energy

office, shall develop a model report and agreement no later than December 1, 2022.

(6)  If a credit authorized in this section exceeds the income tax due on the

income of the seller for the taxable year, the excess credit may not be carried forward and shall be refundable to the seller.

(7)  Making a purchaser aware of the income tax credit allowed in this section

or helping a purchaser assign the income tax credit to a seller as allowed in this section does not rise to the level of providing the purchaser with unauthorized tax advice.

(8)  This section is repealed, effective January 1, 2028.


Source: L. 2022: Entire section added, (SB 22-051), ch. 333, p. 2346, � 2,

effective August 10. L. 2023: (3)(a) amended, (HB 23-1272), ch. 167, p. 775, � 4, effective May 11.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in HB 23-1272, see section 1

of chapter 167, Session Laws of Colorado 2023.


C.R.S. § 39-22-551

39-22-551. Industrial clean energy tax credit - tax preference performance statement - definitions - report - repeal. (1) (a) In accordance with section 39-21-304 (1), which requires each bill that creates a new tax expenditure to include a tax preference performance statement as part of a statutory legislative declaration, the general assembly finds and declares that the purpose of the tax credit provided for in this section is to induce certain designated behavior by taxpayers and to provide a reduction in income tax liability for certain businesses or individuals by allowing an owner of an industrial facility to receive a credit against income tax for the costs associated with conducting industrial studies or for implementing a plan to put into service greenhouse gas emissions reduction improvements.

(b)  The general assembly and the state auditor shall measure the

effectiveness of the credit in achieving the purposes specified in subsection (1)(a) of this section based on the information required and reported by the office pursuant to subsection (10)(b) of this section, and based on the number and value of the credits claimed.

(2)  Definitions. As used in this section, unless the context otherwise

requires:

(a)  Applicable percentage means thirty percent, except as provided in

subsection (3)(b)(II) of this section.

(b)  Certified greenhouse gas emissions reduction improvements means

greenhouse gas emissions reduction improvements to a qualified industrial facility that have been certified by the office as meeting the standards of the office.

(c)  Colorado energy office or office means the Colorado energy office

created in section 24-38.5-101.

(d)  Department means the department of revenue.


(e)  Greenhouse gas emissions reduction improvements means

improvements that help to measurably reduce greenhouse gas emissions. Greenhouse gas emissions reduction improvements may include one or more of the following equipment purchases, improvements, retrofits, or investments:

(I)  Replacing fossil-fuel-powered off-road equipment such as forklifts and

construction equipment with electric equipment;

(II)  Replacing fossil-fuel-fired equipment for space or water heating or

industrial process heating with high-efficiency electric equipment;

(III)  Replacing fossil-fuel-fired or compressed air-driven industrial process

equipment with high-efficiency electric equipment;

(IV)  Placing in service advanced refrigeration systems that reduce

greenhouse gas emissions;

(V)  Placing in service electric charging infrastructure for electric vehicles at

an industrial facility;

(VI)  Placing in service waste heat recovery technology;


(VII)  Upgrading or implementing energy monitoring systems;


(VIII)  Installing high efficiency electric pumps, motors, compressors, and

lighting;

(IX)  Installing variable volume or load efficiency equipment;


(X)  Installing carbon capture equipment which provides supporting

information that demonstrates a net reduction in greenhouse gas emissions when accounting for energy-related emissions released to operate the carbon capture equipment and provides a permanent durable carbon storage plan; except that the captured carbon may not be used for enhanced oil recovery;

(XI)  Installing equipment used for collection of biomethane;


(XII)  Replacing fossil-fuel-fired equipment with hydrogen fueled equipment;


(XIII)  Installing hydrogen fueling stations for fuel cell vehicles at industrial

facilities;

(XIV)  Converting fossil-fuel-powered pumps, compressors, and controllers to

compressed air-driven or electric-driven pumps, compressors, and controllers;

(XV)  Installing onsite energy storage;


(XVI)  Installing or upgrading to utility service feed equipment to directly

support the implementation of any of the electrification improvements set forth in this subsection (2)(e);

(XVII)  Placing in service carbon management systems including direct air

capture and other forms of carbon dioxide removal;

(XVIII)  Material substitutions within industrial processes to reduce industrial

process greenhouse gas emissions by a minimum of fifteen percent when compared to existing production practices;

(XVIII.5)  For income tax years commencing on or after January 1, 2026,

embodied carbon investments, which are investments in the production of eligible materials, as defined in section 24-92-118 (2)(b), that result in the reduction of the eligible materials' cradle-to-gate embodied emissions, as established in policies created by the Colorado energy office, created in section 24-38.5-101, and in consultation with the office of the state architect. To qualify as an embodied carbon investment, an investment must result in a fifteen percent or greater reduction in cradle-to-gate embodied emissions of the eligible materials when compared to the eligible materials' cradle-to-gate baseline as established in standards and guidelines created by the Colorado energy office and in consultation with the office of the state architect. A cradle-to-gate measurement or baseline considers the life cycle stages for a product including, but not limited to, the raw material extraction and processing related to the product, and the transport to the manufacturer and manufacturing of the product.

(XIX)  Other similar purchases and improvements identified and set forth in

the standards developed by the office pursuant to subsection (4) of this section that result in at least a twenty percent reduction in greenhouse gas emissions when compared to current technology, equipment, or production processes being deployed by the owner.

(f)  Greenhouse gas emissions reduction plan or plan means project

implementation plans or specifications for the proposed greenhouse gas emissions reduction improvements to a qualified industrial facility that are sufficiently detailed to enable the office to evaluate whether the improvements are in compliance with the standards developed under this section and whether the plan will measurably reduce greenhouse gas emissions at a qualified industrial facility. The plan must include, but is not limited to, a property address, legal description, or other specific location of the industrial facility, and must include information on the estimated costs for the proposed greenhouse gas emissions reduction improvements.

(g) (I)  Industrial facility means any real property in the state, and the

machinery or equipment on the real property, where the principal trade or business activity is the mechanical or chemical transformation of organic or inorganic substances into new products, characteristically using power-driven machines and materials handling equipment.

(II)  Industrial facility does not include a landfill, an electric utility subject to

regulation by the public utilities commission, or an upstream or mid-stream oil and gas operation.

(h)  Industrial process greenhouse gas emissions means greenhouse gas

emissions that occur as a result of the chemical or physical transformation of process input materials.

(i)  Industrial study means an energy and emissions audit, a feasibility

study, a pre-front-end or a front-end engineering design study that meets or exceeds the standards established by the office, or any other industrial studies as outlined in program standards adopted by the office.

(j)  Owner means a person or developer of a project to be implemented at a

qualified industrial facility subject to tax under this article 22 who applies for and claims the credit allowed by this section.

(3)  Availability of credit and amount. (a)  For income tax years commencing

on or after January 1, 2024, but prior to January 1, 2033, there shall be allowed a credit with respect to the income taxes imposed pursuant to this article 22 to the owner of a qualified industrial facility in an amount equal to:

(I)  The applicable percentage of the costs paid and approved by the office

for completing an industrial study during the tax year in which the credit is claimed; except that the credit cannot be claimed in an amount exceeding one million dollars; or

(II)  The applicable percentage of the capital costs paid by the owner, not

including the cost for design, and approved by the office for certified greenhouse gas emissions reduction improvements that are placed in service during the tax year in which the credit is claimed; except that the credit must be claimed in an amount that is not less than seventy-five thousand dollars and does not exceed eight million dollars.

(b) (I)  If the office approves the owner's industrial study or greenhouse gas

emissions reduction plan and reserves credits under subsection (6) of this section, the office shall apply the applicable percentage of the costs paid for completing an industrial study or the capital costs paid for greenhouse gas emissions reduction improvements to calculate the amount of the credit that the owner will receive for the tax year in which the industrial study is completed or the greenhouse gas emissions reduction improvements are placed in service.

(II)  The office may on a case by case basis determine that the applicable

percentage may be increased to an amount not to exceed fifty percent upon request by an owner for greenhouse gas emissions reduction improvements that have significant potential to significantly advance reductions in greenhouse gas emissions but may not be in the commercial stage of development. In evaluating such a request, the office may use United States department of energy technology readiness level criteria, scientific literature detailing potential decarbonization impacts of proposed technology, or subsequent literature on technology results to date to determine whether the requested increase of the applicable percentage sufficiently satisfies the office's criteria to justify the increase.

(c)  An owner that claims the credit allowed by this section cannot, for the

same greenhouse gas emission reduction improvements:

(I)  Claim the credit allowed by section 39-30-104; or


(II)  Receive grant money under the industrial and manufacturing operations

clean air grant program created in section 24-38.5-116 (3)(a).

(4)  Office to develop standards. (a)  The office shall develop standards for

the approval of industrial facilities as qualified industrial facilities for which a tax credit under this section is allowed to an owner.

(b)  The office shall develop standards for the approval of industrial studies,

for the approval of an industrial facility owner's greenhouse gas emissions reduction plan, for certifying greenhouse gas emissions reduction improvements, including verification of reduction in greenhouse gas emissions, and for reviewing the cost certifications for the costs of the industrial study and the costs related to the implementation of a greenhouse gas emissions reduction improvements plan. The standards that are adopted pursuant to this subsection (4)(b), must provide that a plan propose greenhouse gas emissions reduction improvements that lead to direct reductions through project implementation.

(c)  Any standards developed by the office under this subsection (4) must be

posted on the office's website.

(d)  The office may annually review and update as necessary standards

adopted pursuant to this subsection (4).

(5)  Application and industrial study or plan submission. (a)  An owner that

intends to claim a credit pursuant to subsection (3)(a)(I) of this section shall submit to the office an application on a form prescribed by the office and any documentation that the office requires to demonstrate the anticipated completion of an industrial study in the current or in a future tax year, including the cost of the industrial study and the amount of credit requested.

(b)  An owner that intends to claim a tax credit pursuant to subsection

(3)(a)(II) of this section shall submit to the office an application and plan as set forth in the standards developed by the office. The office shall prescribe a form for the application, which must include a place for owners to provide the following information:

(I)  Detailed estimates of the capital costs for the proposed greenhouse gas

emissions reduction improvements;

(II)  Estimates of expected energy consumption avoided by the use of the

greenhouse gas emissions reduction improvements;

(III)  Estimated timing for the greenhouse gas emissions reduction

improvements to be placed into service;

(IV)  For carbon management projects, net reductions in greenhouse gas

emissions;

(V)  Estimated dollar savings;


(VI)  Estimated dollars leveraged, including any private investment, state

grant funding, and federal grants or tax credits;

(VII)  The type and age of equipment being replaced, if applicable;


(VIII)  The type and estimated life span of new equipment, if applicable;


(IX)  The amount of credit requested; and


(X)  Any other information as specified in the standards set forth by the

office.

(c) (I)  The office shall accept applications through June 30, 2024, and semi-annually through each December 31 and June 30 thereafter, through June 30, 2032.


(II) (A)  The office shall review applications and documentation related to

industrial studies to be conducted or plans for greenhouse gas emissions reduction improvements at a qualified industrial facility to determine that the application, documentation, and plan, if applicable, are complete and in compliance with the requirements of this section and the standards established by the office.

(B)  If the office determines that the application, documentation, and plan, if

applicable, are complete and in compliance, the office shall add the application to an evaluation pool for the application period.

(C)  If the office determines that the application is incomplete or that it does

not comply with the requirements of this section or the standards established by the office, the office shall remove the application from the review process and notify the owner in writing of its decision. An owner may resubmit a disapproved application, documentation, and plan, if applicable, to be evaluated in a future application period.

(6)  Merit-based review and reservation of credits. (a) (I)  For each

application period, the office shall conduct a merit-based evaluation of the applications that have been placed in the evaluation pool pursuant to subsection (5)(c)(II)(B) of this section. The office shall complete its review, and award reservations, within ninety days after the end of the application period.

(II)  Based upon the totality of the factors set forth in subsection (6)(c) of this

section, the office may adjust the applicable percentage as provided in subsection (3)(b)(II) of this section and reserve for the benefit of each owner all, part, or none of the credit amount requested by the owner; except that the office shall not reserve an amount in excess of the credit allowed by subsection (3)(a) of this section, and the aggregate amount of credits reserved for all owners may not exceed the reservation limits set forth in subsection (8) of this section.

(III)  The office may reserve credits for the current or any future tax year

based upon the anticipated completion or in service date indicated in the application; except that credits may not be reserved for an industrial study completed or for greenhouse gas emissions reduction improvements placed in service prior to the end of the application period. The office shall not reserve tax credits for any tax year beginning on or after January 1, 2033.

(b) (I)  If the office reserves credits for the benefit of an owner under

subsection (6)(a) of this section, the office shall notify the owner of the reservation and the amount reserved. The reservation of tax credits does not entitle the owner to an issuance of any tax credit certificates until the owner complies with all of the requirements specified in this section, or by the office, for the issuance of a tax credit certificate.

(II)  The office shall notify any owner for which it reserved no credit under

subsection (6)(a) of this section of its decision in writing.

(III)  If the office reserves less than the full amount of credit requested by the

owner, the owner may submit a new application for the remaining balance up to the amount of credit allowed by subsection (3)(a) of this section in a future application period.

(c) (I)  In conducting the merit-based review pursuant to subsection (6)(a) of

this section, the office shall consider the factors set forth in this subsection (6)(c) in addition to any other factors the office may establish in its guidelines. The office may weigh the factors equally or differently.

(II)  The office shall:


(A)  Consider additional resources leveraged by the owner to conduct the

industrial study or implement the plan; and

(B)  Prioritize the location of the industrial facility that is the subject of the

industrial study or the plan, in particular if the location is in a disproportionately impacted community or within a non-attainment area.

(III)  In addition to the factors set forth in subsection (6)(c)(II) of this section,

for an application that is requesting a reservation of credit for the credit allowed pursuant to subsection (3)(a)(II) of this section, the office shall also consider:

(A)  The annual greenhouse gas emissions reduction impact, considering both

the total impact and the per dollar impact for the amount of credit requested to be reserved;

(B)  Any co-benefits of a project that will implement the plan with

prioritization given to projects that limit the amount of pollutants emitted by emerging technologies, including projects that include electrification and use of renewable electricity;

(C)  The readiness of a greenhouse gas emissions reduction improvement

that will be implemented by the plan; and

(D)  The innovative nature of the plan and proposed greenhouse gas

emissions reduction improvements.

(7)  Proof of compliance - audit of cost certification - issuance of tax credit

certificate. (a) Any owner receiving a reservation of tax credits under subsection (6) of this section for credits allowed pursuant to subsection (3)(a) of this section shall complete the approved industrial study or put the approved greenhouse gas emissions reduction improvements identified in the plan in service during the tax year for which the reservation is approved. When the approved industrial study is complete or the approved greenhouse gas emissions reduction improvements are placed in service, the owner shall notify the office of the completion of the industrial study or plan and shall provide the office with a cost certification of the costs for the approved industrial study or approved greenhouse gas emissions reduction improvements. The cost certification must be audited by a licensed certified public accountant that is not affiliated with the owner. The office shall review the cost certification and verify that it satisfies the information provided in the owner's application, including, if applicable, the plan, within ninety days after receipt of the cost certification. If the office determines that the industrial study is complete or that the plan is complete and that the greenhouse gas emissions reduction improvements have been placed in service, and the office approves the cost certification, the office shall issue a tax credit certificate in the amount allowed pursuant to subsection (3) of this section.

(b)  Notwithstanding subsection (7)(a) of this section, the total amount of the

initial tax credit certificate issued for an industrial study or certified greenhouse gas emissions reduction improvement must not exceed the amount of the tax credit reservation approved pursuant to subsection (6)(a) of this section.

(c)  If the amount of certified costs incurred by the owner would result in an

owner being issued an amount that exceeds the amount of tax credit reserved for the owner under subsection (6) of this section, the owner may apply to the office for the issuance of an amount of tax credits that equals the excess. The owner shall submit its application for issuance of such excess tax credits on a form prescribed by the office. The office shall review the application for an additional tax credit amount in the same manner it reviews all other applications and in accordance with subsection (6)(a) of this section. Subject to the availability of tax credits for the application period during which the owner applies for the additional credit award pursuant to this subsection (7)(c), the office may approve the application and shall issue a separate certificate.

(8)  Limit on aggregate amount of tax credits available to be reserved. (a)

For the application period ending June 30, 2024, and for each semi-annual application period commencing on or after July 1, 2024, but before July 1, 2028, the aggregate amount of all tax credits that may be reserved under subsection (6)(a) of this section and awarded under subsection (7)(c) of this section must not exceed eight million dollars. For application periods commencing on or after July 1, 2028, but before July 1, 2032, the aggregate amount of all tax credits that may be reserved under subsection (6)(a) of this section must not exceed twelve million dollars.

(b)  Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (8)(a) of this section, the

office may increase the periodic aggregate amount of tax credits available for the application period ending June 30, 2024, and for any semi-annual application period commencing on or after July 1, 2024, but before July 1, 2028. If so increased, the office shall decrease accordingly the amount of tax credits available for the application periods commencing on or after July 1, 2028, but before July 1, 2032.

(c)  Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (8)(a) of this section, if the

aggregate amount of all tax credits reserved pursuant to subsection (6)(a) of this section and awarded pursuant to subsection (7)(c) of this section for an application period is less than the amount available under subsections (8)(a) and (8)(b) of this section, then the aggregate amount of all tax credits that may be reserved and awarded in the next application period is increased by the unreserved and unawarded amount.

(9)  The office shall, in a sufficiently timely manner to allow the department

to process returns claiming the income tax credit allowed in this section, provide the department with an electronic report of each owner to which the office has issued a tax credit certificate, as allowed in subsection (7) of this section, for the preceding tax year that includes the following information:

(a)  The taxpayer's name;


(b)  The amount of the credit; and


(c)  The taxpayer's social security number or the taxpayer's Colorado account

number and federal employer identification number.

(10)  Guidelines. (a)  In addition to the standards that the office is required to

establish pursuant to subsection (4) of this section, the office may establish guidelines to implement this section. All guidelines established by the office must be posted on the office's website.

(b)  The office shall maintain a database of any information necessary to

evaluate the effectiveness of the tax credit allowed in this section in meeting the purpose set forth in subsection (1)(a) of this section and shall provide this information and any other information requested, if available, to the state auditor as part of the state auditor's evaluation of this tax expenditure required by section 39-21-305. Information provided by the office to the state auditor may include approved industrial studies or approved plans for greenhouse gas emissions reduction improvements.

(11)  In order to claim the credit authorized by this section, the owner shall file

the tax credit certificate with the owner's state income tax return. The amount of the credit that the owner may claim under this section is the amount stated on the tax credit certificate.

(12) (a)  An owner shall submit a report to the office by the end of the first

month after the end of any income tax year in which the owner received a tax credit under this section and shall annually submit a report for three years thereafter verifying the greenhouse gas emissions reduction improvements are, notwithstanding circumstances evaluated and determined by the office to be justified, in use at the location identified in the owner's application for a tax credit certificate and remain owned by the owner.

(b)  If an owner was allowed a credit under this section and fails to

demonstrate the greenhouse gas emissions reduction improvements are, notwithstanding circumstances evaluated and determined by the office to be justified, in use at the location identified in the owner's application for a tax credit certificate or are owned by the owner in any of the three taxable years immediately following the taxable year in which the greenhouse gas emissions reduction improvements were placed in service, the office shall notify the department in writing that the credit allowed in this section must be disallowed for that owner. The owner shall add the amount of the disallowed credit to its return as a recaptured credit for the tax year in which the credit is disallowed pursuant to this subsection (12).

(13)  If a credit authorized by this section exceeds the income tax due on the

income of the owner for the taxable year, the excess credit may not be carried forward and must be refunded to the owner.

(14)  This section is repealed, effective December 31, 2038.


Source: L. 2023: Entire section added, (HB 23-1272), ch. 167, p. 776, � 5,

effective May 11. L. 2024: IP(2)(e), (2)(i), (2)(j), (3)(a)(II), and (3)(c) amended, (SB 24-214), ch. 191, p. 1100, � 15, effective May 17. L. 2025: IP(2)(e) and (2)(e)(XVIII) amended and (2)(e)(XVIII.5) added, (SB 25-182), ch. 277, p. 1442, � 3, effective August 6.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in HB 23-1272, see section 1

of chapter 167, Session Laws of Colorado 2023. For the legislative declaration in SB 25-182, see section 1 of chapter 277, Session Laws of Colorado 2025.


C.R.S. § 39-22-552

39-22-552. Tax credit for expenditures made in connection with a geothermal energy project - tax preference performance statement - legislative declaration - definitions - repeal. (1) (a) In accordance with section 39-21-304 (1), which requires each bill that creates a new tax expenditure to include a tax preference performance statement as part of a statutory legislative declaration, the general assembly finds and declares that the purpose of the tax credit provided in this section is to induce certain designated behavior by taxpayers and to provide a reduction in income tax liability for certain businesses or individuals by providing a financial incentive for the development of thermal energy networks and electricity generation from geothermal sources.

(b)  The general assembly and the state auditor shall measure the

effectiveness of the credit in achieving the purpose specified in subsection (1)(a) of this section based on the number and value of the credits claimed.

(2)  Definitions. As used in this section, unless the context otherwise

requires:

(a) (I)  Applicable amount means, except as provided in subsection (2)(a)(II)

of this section, an amount of tax credit not to exceed thirty percent of a qualified expenditure by an eligible taxpayer that is allowed pursuant to this section as set by the office in accordance with subsection (4)(c) of this section.

(II)  The office may, on a case-by-case basis, determine that the applicable

amount may be increased to an amount not to exceed fifty percent of a qualified expenditure by an eligible taxpayer if the office determines that a geothermal energy project has significant potential to result in geothermal electricity production or technological demonstration of geothermal electricity production.

(b)  Approved geothermal energy project means a geothermal energy

project that has been approved to receive qualified expenditures by the office pursuant to the standards developed by the office in accordance with subsection (5) of this section.

(c)  Colorado energy office or office means the Colorado energy office

created in section 24-38.5-101.

(d)  Department means the department of revenue.


(e)  Eligible taxpayer means any of the following people or entities that

made a qualified expenditure:

(I)   A person engaged in a trade or business that is subject to tax pursuant to

this article 22;

(II)   A person or political subdivision of this state that is exempt from tax

pursuant to section 39-22-112 (1); or

(III)   A tribal government.


(f)  Geothermal electricity project or project means a project in the state

that is intended to evaluate and develop a geothermal resource for the purpose of electricity production, that meets the standards developed pursuant to subsection (5) of this section, and that involves any of the following:

(I)  The exploration and development of wells;


(II)  Drilling exploration and confirmation wells;


(III)  The use of any heat extracted with produced fluids in an oil and gas

operation if the heat is only utilized to reduce emissions from the operation in the same location as the well from which it was produced and would otherwise not be economically feasible as a stand-alone geothermal energy project;

(IV)  Drilling injection wells;


(V)  Flow testing;


(VI)  Reservoir engineering;


(VII)  Geothermal energy storage;


(VIII)  Coproduction of geothermal energy, including for industrial uses or

thermal energy networks;

(IX)  Power generation equipment; or


(X)  Studies to identify and explore resources that may be suitable for

geothermal electricity generation and may include hydrogen generation or utilization of direct air capture technology.

(f.5)  Geothermal energy project means a geothermal electricity project,

thermal energy network, or a thermal energy network study.

(g)  Qualified expenditure means the total monetary cost approved by the

office and expended on or after January 1, 2024, but before January 1, 2033, by an eligible taxpayer in connection with an approved geothermal energy project in the tax year for which the credit allowed in this section is claimed.

(h)  Thermal energy network has the same meaning as set forth in section

39-22-554 (2)(n).

(i)  Thermal energy network study means an energy and emissions scoping

study, a feasibility study, an investment grade energy audit, a detailed engineering design, or a combination of these options that meets or exceeds the standards established by the office.

(j)  Tribal government means a federally recognized Indian tribe, including

its business operations and wholly owned entities, with reservation lands within the state of Colorado or operating within the state.

(3) (a)  For income tax years commencing on or after January 1, 2024, but

before January 1, 2033, an eligible taxpayer that makes a qualified expenditure is allowed a credit against the tax imposed under this article 22 in the applicable amount and subject to the limitations set forth in subsection (3)(b) of this section.

(b)  An eligible taxpayer is not allowed a tax credit pursuant to this section in

an aggregate amount of more than five million dollars in tax credits for all income tax years for which the tax credit may be claimed pursuant to this section per approved geothermal energy project.

(4) (a)  An eligible taxpayer shall submit an application in a form and manner

determined by the office for a tax credit certificate for the credit allowed in this section. The application must include:

(I)  Information sufficient for the office to evaluate the geothermal energy

project for which the eligible taxpayer proposes making an expenditure and to approve the project if the project has not been previously approved by the office;

(II)  Information related to the specific costs associated with the proposed

expenditure;

(III)  Estimated timing for the proposed expenditure to be made by the

eligible taxpayer;

(IV)  The amount of credit requested; and


(V)  Any other information as specified in the standards set forth by the

office.

(b) (I)  The office shall accept applications through June 30, 2024, and semi-annually through each December 31 and June 30 thereafter, through June 30, 2032.


(II) (A)  The office shall review applications and documentation provided

pursuant to subsection (4)(a) of this section to determine whether the application and documentation are complete and in compliance with the requirements of this section and the standards established by the office.

(B)  If the office determines that the application and documentation are

complete and in compliance with the requirements of this section and the standards established by the office, the office shall add the application to the evaluation pool for the application period.

(C)  If the office determines that the application or documentation, or both,

are not complete or do not comply with the requirements of this section or the standards established by the office, the office shall remove the application from the review process and notify the taxpayer in writing of its decision. A taxpayer may resubmit a disapproved application and documentation to be evaluated in a future application period.

(c) (I) (A)  For each application period, the office shall conduct a merit-based

evaluation of the application in the evaluation pool. The office shall complete its review and award reservations within ninety days after the end of the application period.

(B)  Based upon the totality of the factors set forth in subsection (4)(d) of this

section and based on considerations required for geothermal energy projects as set forth in subsection (5) of this section, which the office may weigh equally or differently, the office shall determine an applicable amount of credit that may be reserved for the benefit of the eligible taxpayer which may be all, part, or none of the credit amount requested in the eligible taxpayer's application; except that the office shall not reserve an amount in excess of the limitations set forth in subsection (3)(b) of this section, and the aggregate amount of credits reserved for all owners must not exceed thirty-five million dollars for all taxpayers in all years the credit is allowed.

(C)  The office may reserve credits for the current or any future tax year

based upon the anticipated timing of the expenditure; except that credits may not be reserved for an expenditure that is made prior to the end of the application period. The office shall not reserve credits for any tax year beginning on or after January 1, 2033.

(II) (A)  If the office reserves credits for the benefit of an eligible taxpayer

pursuant to subsection (4)(c)(I) of this section, the office shall notify the owner of the reservation and the amount reserved.

(B)  The office shall notify any taxpayer for which it reserved no credit

pursuant to subsection (4)(c)(I) of this section of its decision in writing.

(C)  If the office reserves less than the full amount of credit requested by the

taxpayer, the taxpayer may submit a new application for the remaining balance up to the limitation of the credit set forth in subsection (3)(b) of this section.

(d)  In conducting the merit-based review pursuant to subsection (4)(c) of this

section, the office shall consider the following factors in addition to any other factors that the office may establish in its standards:

(I)  The workforce development and geothermal sector growth that the

expenditure in the project will promote, including supporting workforce transition;

(II)  Whether the project the expenditure is made in connection with

demonstrates effective and unique technology and circumstances that are supported by public outreach and education;

(III)  Demonstration of community resilience through utilization of geothermal

energy in support of building heating and cooling decarbonization or enhancement of electric grid resiliency, including for dispatchability and energy storage, especially for rural or isolated communities; and

(IV)  Whether the project the expenditure is made in connection with serves a

disproportionately impacted community or a just transition community or is within a non-attainment area.

(e)  The reservation of tax credits does not entitle an eligible taxpayer to an

issuance of any credits until the eligible taxpayer provides the office with any documentation required by the office and a cost certification of the expenditure made in connection with an approved geothermal energy project during the tax year in which the reservation is approved. The cost certification must be audited by a licensed public accountant that is not affiliated with the eligible taxpayer. The office shall review the cost certification to verify that it satisfies the information provided in the eligible taxpayer's application. If the office determines that the eligible taxpayer made a qualified expenditure, the office shall issue a tax credit certificate in the applicable amount.

(5)  The office shall develop standards for the implementation of the tax

credit allowed pursuant to this section. Any standards developed by the office must be posted on the office's website. At a minimum, the standards must provide for the evaluation and approval of geothermal energy projects and require the office to consider whether the project:

(a)  Demonstrates technology to further the adoption of clean, firm carbon-free electricity derived from geothermal energy in the state;


(b)  Supports replicable, cost-effective reduction outcomes to stimulate the

geothermal sector or otherwise expand geothermal energy capacity in the state; and

(c)  Directly, or through technological demonstration evaluated and approved

by the office, will lead to measurable greenhouse gas reduction outcomes for the state.

(6) (a)  The office shall maintain a database of any information necessary to

evaluate the effectiveness of the tax credit allowed in this section in meeting the purpose set forth in subsection (1)(a) of this section and shall provide such information, and any other information that may be needed, if available, to the state auditor as part of the state auditor's evaluation of this tax expenditure required by section 39-21-305.

(b)  The office shall, in a sufficiently timely manner to allow the department

to process returns claiming the income tax credit allowed in this section, provide the department with an electronic report of each eligible taxpayer to which the office issued a tax credit certificate for the preceding tax year that includes the following information:

(I)  The taxpayer's name;


(II)  The amount of the credit; and


(III)  The taxpayer's social security number or the taxpayer's Colorado

account number and federal employer identification number.

(7)  An eligible taxpayer that claims the credit allowed by this section may

not claim the credit allowed by section 39-30-104 for the same project.

(8)  In order to claim the credit authorized by this section, an eligible taxpayer

shall file the tax credit certificate with the qualified entity's state income tax return and, if the eligible taxpayer is exempt from tax pursuant to section 39-22-112 (1), the eligible taxpayer shall file a return pursuant to section 39-22-601 (7)(b). The amount of the credit that the eligible taxpayer may claim pursuant to this section is the amount stated on the tax credit certificate.

(9)  If a credit authorized in this section exceeds the income tax due on the

income of the eligible taxpayer for the taxable year, the excess credit may not be carried forward and must be refunded to the eligible taxpayer.

(10)  This section is repealed, effective December 31, 2038.


Source: L. 2023: Entire section added, (HB 23-1272), ch. 167, p. 785, � 6,

effective May 11. L. 2024: (1)(a), (2)(e), IP(2)(f), (2)(f)(VIII), and (2)(f)(IX) amended and (2)(f)(X), (2)(f.5), (2)(h), (2)(i), and (2)(j) added, (SB 24-214), ch. 191, p. 1101, � 16, effective May 17.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in HB 23-1272, see section 1

of chapter 167, Session Laws of Colorado 2023.


C.R.S. § 39-22-554

39-22-554. Heat pump technology and thermal energy network tax credit - tax preference performance statement - legislative declaration - definitions - repeal. (1) (a) In accordance with section 39-21-304 (1), which requires each bill that creates a new tax expenditure to include a tax preference performance statement as part of a statutory legislative declaration, the general assembly finds and declares that the purpose of the tax credit provided in this section is to induce certain designated behavior by taxpayers and to provide a reduction in income tax liability for certain businesses or individuals by providing a financial incentive for the installation of heat pump technology and the use of heat pump technology and thermal energy networks.

(b)  The general assembly and the state auditor shall measure the

effectiveness of the credit in achieving the purpose specified in subsection (1)(a) of this section based on the number and value of the credits claimed.

(2)  Definitions. As used in this section, unless the context otherwise

requires:

(a) (I)  Air-source heat pump system means a system that:


(A)  Is certified pursuant to the federal environmental protection agency's

energy star program;

(B)  Repealed.


(C)  Is listed in the Air-conditioning, Heating, and Refrigeration Institute

directory of certified product performance as a matched system;

(D)  Conforms to all applicable municipal, state, and federal codes, standards,

regulations, and certifications; and

(E)  Is installed in accordance with the manufacturer's specifications.


(II)  Air-source heat pump system may include supplemental heat so long

as:

(A)  The air-source heat pump is used as the primary source of a building's

heat and is designed to supply at least eighty percent of total annual heating for the building; and

(B)  The system is capable of distributing produced heat to all conditioned

areas of the building.

(III)  Repealed.


(b)  Applicable percentage means a percentage annually established by the

office as specified in subsection (4) of this section.

(c) (I)  Campus means a collection of two or more buildings that are owned

and operated by the same person, that have a shared purpose and function as a single property, that do not lease space to tenants, and that do not provide energy or heat services for a fee.

(II)  Campus includes two or more of the buildings that comprise the capitol

complex, as defined in section 24-82-101 (3)(f).

(c.5)  Cold-climate heat pump means a type of air-source heat pump

system that:

(I)  Meets the qualification criteria of the federal environmental protection

agency's Energy Star program's cold-climate heat pump designation or meets the highest tier of the Consortium for Energy Efficiency's northern air-source heat pump specifications, not including an advanced tier;

(II)  Is installed with controls that set a crossover temperature specified by

guidelines established by the office pursuant to subsection (7) of this section;

(III)  Conforms to all applicable municipal, state, and federal codes,

standards, regulations, and certifications;

(IV)  Is installed in accordance with the manufacturer's specifications; and


(V)  Is listed in the Air-conditioning, Heating, and Refrigeration Institute

directory of certified product performance as a matched system.

(d)  Colorado energy office or office means the Colorado energy office

created in section 24-38.5-101.

(d.5)  Crossover temperature means the point that a heat-pump-based

HVAC system switches either partially or fully from the heat pump to a supplementary heating source.

(e)  Department means the department of revenue.


(f)  Eligible taxpayer means a taxpayer that meets the requirements for and

is included on the list of eligible taxpayers described in subsection (5) of this section.

(g) (I)  Ground-source heat pump system means a system that:


(A)  Is certified pursuant to the federal environmental protection agency's

energy star program;

(B)  Conforms to all applicable municipal, state, and federal codes, standards,

regulations, and certifications;

(C)  Has blowers that are high-efficiency motors that meet or exceed

efficiency levels listed in the National Electrical Manufacturers Association MG 1-1993 publication;

(D)  Complies with all state and local drinking water guidelines and

regulations and public water system requirements; and

(E)  Is installed in accordance with the manufacturer's specifications.


(II)  Ground-source heat pump system may include supplemental heat so

long as:

(A)  The ground-source heat pump is used as the primary source of a

building's heat and is designed to supply at least eighty percent of total annual heating for the building; and

(B)  The system is capable of distributing produced heat to all conditioned

areas of the building.

(III) and (IV)  Repealed.


(h)  Heat pump technology means an air-source heat pump system, ground-source heat pump system, water-source heat pump system, variable refrigerant

flow heat pump system, any combination of these systems, or a heat pump water heater.

(i) (I)  Heat pump water heater means an electric water heater that uses

heat pump technology to transfer heat from the surrounding air to water in a tank and that is certified pursuant to the federal environmental protection agency's Energy Star program.

(II)  Heat pump water heater may include:


(A)  An electric resistance heating element; and


(B)  Mechanical and electrical equipment central to the operation of a heat

pump water heater, including an upgraded electrical panel if necessary.

(i.5)  Heat pump means an electrically powered mechanical device that

uses the refrigeration cycle to transfer thermal energy from one location to another.

(j)  List means the list of eligible taxpayers created by the office as

specified in subsection (5) of this section.

(k)  Multifamily property means a building with multiple separate housing

units for residential inhabitants including a residential building that is a duplex, triplex, or multi-structure of four or more units.

(l)  Taxpayer means a person subject to tax pursuant to this article 22 or a

person or political subdivision of this state that is exempt from tax pursuant to section 39-22-112 (1).

(m) (I)  Thermal energy means piped, noncombustible fluids used for adding

or removing heat from buildings for the purpose of efficient building temperature control and domestic hot water, including space heating and cooling and refrigeration.

(II)  Thermal energy includes methods of exchanging the piped,

noncombustible fluids through the ground, wastewater treatment facilities, or other sources that achieve desired fluid temperatures; except that any source of thermal energy for this purpose must:

(A)  Not cause incremental greenhouse gas emissions or rely on increased,

long-term combustion of fossil fuels; and

(B)  Be evaluated by the office to protect against increased emissions of

harmful co-pollutants, negative impacts to communities including to disproportionately impacted communities, as defined in section 24-4-109 (2)(b)(II), and the risk of stranded assets, if the thermal energy is from any industrial source including a system for which the primary purpose is to generate electricity, including any process involving engine-driven generation.

(n)  Thermal energy network:


(I)  Means all real estate, fixtures, and personal property that are operated,

owned, used, or intended to be used for, in connection with or to facilitate, a distribution infrastructure project that supplies thermal energy to two or more buildings that are not a campus and that assists in reducing greenhouse gas emissions in the state;

(II)  Consists of pipe loops between multiple buildings and energy sources

carrying piped, noncombustible fluids at the desired thermal temperature;

(III)  Includes a network that can be used for heating, cooling, and other

building services; and

(IV)  May also be known as a geothermal exchange district, networked

geothermal system, geoexchange system, geogrid system, community geothermal heating and cooling district, or geothermal heating district.

(o)  Thermal energy system includes a geothermal system or other method

of exchanging the piped, noncombustible fluids through the ground, wastewater treatment facilities, or other sources of thermal energy that achieve desired fluid temperatures.

(p) (I)  Variable refrigerant flow heat pump system means a system that:


(A)  Is certified pursuant to the federal environmental protection agency's

energy star program;

(B)  Conforms to all applicable municipal, state, and federal codes, standards,

regulations, and certifications;

(C)  Has blowers that are high-efficiency motors that meet or exceed

efficiency levels listed in the National Electrical Manufacturers Association MG 1-1993 publication;

(D)  Complies with all state and local drinking water guidelines and

regulations and public water system and wastewater system requirements; and

(E)  Is installed in accordance with the manufacturer's specifications.


(II)  Variable refrigerant flow system may include supplemental heat so

long as:

(A)  The variable refrigerant flow system is used as the primary source of a

building's heat and is designed to supply at least eighty percent of the total annual heating for the building; and

(B)  The system is capable of distributing produced heat to all conditioned

areas of the building.

(III)  Repealed.


(q) (I)  Water-source heat pump system means a system that:


(A)  Is certified pursuant to the federal environmental protection agency's

Energy Star program;

(B)  Conforms to all applicable municipal, state, and federal codes, standards,

regulations, and certifications;

(C)  Has blowers that are high-efficiency motors that meet or exceed

efficiency levels listed in the National Electrical Manufacturers Association MG 1-1993 publication;

(D)  Complies with all state and local drinking water guidelines and

regulations and public water system and wastewater system requirements; and

(E)  Is installed in accordance with the manufacturer's specifications.


(II)  Water-source heat pump system may include supplemental heat so

long as:

(A)  The water-source heat pump is used as the primary source of a building's

heat and is designed to supply at least eighty percent of the total annual heating for the building; and

(B)  The system is capable of distributing produced heat to all conditioned

areas of the building.

(III)  Repealed.


(3) (a)  For income tax years commencing on or after January 1, 2024, but

before January 1, 2033, an eligible taxpayer that installs heat pump technology in a building in the state, on a campus in the state, or develops, through purchase and installation of necessary equipment, a thermal energy network in the state is allowed a credit against the tax imposed under this article 22 in an amount set forth in subsection (3)(c) of this section in the tax year that the heat pump technology or thermal energy network is placed into service.

(b)  In order to qualify for the tax credit allowed under this section the

eligible taxpayer shall provide a discount from the amount charged for the installation of heat pump technology or a thermal energy network in an amount equal to the amount of the credit set forth in subsection (3)(c) of this section minus the applicable percentage of the credit, and shall show the discount as a separate item on the receipt or invoice; except that the requirement in this subsection (3)(b) does not apply to an eligible taxpayer who installs their own heat pump technology or thermal energy network.

(c)  Subject to the modifications set forth in subsection (3)(d) of this section

and the annual review required pursuant to subsection (3)(e) of this section and except as otherwise provided in subsection (3)(f) of this section, the amount of the credit allowed pursuant to this section is calculated as follows:

(I)  For the installation of an air-source heat pump system or for a variable

refrigerant flow heat pump system:

(A)  For tax years commencing on or after January 1, 2024, but before January

1, 2026, one thousand five hundred dollars;

(B)  For tax years commencing on or after January 1, 2026, but before January

1, 2029, one thousand dollars; and

(C)  For tax years commencing on or after January 1, 2029, but before January

1, 2033, five hundred dollars;

(II)  For the installation of a ground-source heat pump system, water-source

heat pump system, a combined air-source and ground-source heat pump system, a combined water-source and ground-source heat pump system, a combined variable refrigerant flow and ground-source heat pump system, or a combined variable refrigerant flow and water-source heat pump system:

(A)  For tax years commencing on or after January 1, 2024, but before January

1, 2026, three thousand dollars;

(B)  For tax years commencing on or after January 1, 2026, but before January

1, 2029, two thousand dollars; and

(C)  For tax years commencing on or after January 1, 2029, but before January

1, 2033, one thousand dollars; and

(III)  For the installation of a heat pump water heater:


(A)  For tax years commencing on or after January 1, 2024, but before January

1, 2026, five hundred dollars; and

(B)  For tax years commencing on or after January 1, 2026, but before January

1, 2033, two hundred fifty dollars.

(d)  Notwithstanding the amounts set forth in subsection (3)(c) of this section,

the amount of the credit allowed by this section may be modified as follows:

(I)  For heat pump technology installed at a multifamily property, unless the

heat pump technology is installed for an individual unit by the eligible taxpayer for use by the occupant of the individual unit, the amount of the credit is the amount of the credit permitted pursuant to subsection (3)(c) of this section multiplied by the number of units in the multifamily property that will utilize the heat pump technology;

(II)  For a nonresidential building, the amount of the credit is the amount of

the credit permitted pursuant to subsection (3)(c) of this section multiplied by the number of increments of four tons of heating capacity; and

(III)  For a thermal energy network or for a campus, the amount of the credit

is the amount of the credit permitted pursuant to subsection (3)(c) of this section multiplied by the total number of residential buildings and multifamily property units networked in a single system, plus the credit determined for each nonresidential building networked in the system pursuant to subsection (3)(d)(II) of this section.

(e)  The office shall annually review and evaluate the effectiveness of the tax

credits and may, for the subsequent tax year:

(I)  Modify the amounts set forth in subsection (3)(c) of this section; and


(II)  Establish, modify, or remove limits on the credits calculated pursuant to

subsection (3)(d) of this section.

(f)  If the June 2025 revenue forecast, and each June revenue forecast

through the June 2031 revenue forecast as prepared by either legislative council staff or the office of state planning and budgeting, projects that state revenues, as defined in section 24-77-103.6 (6)(c), will not increase by at least four percent for the next fiscal year, the amount of the credit allowed pursuant to subsection (3)(c)(I)(B), (3)(c)(I)(C), (3)(c)(II)(B), (3)(c)(II)(C), or (3)(c)(III)(B) of this section, as may be modified by subsections (3)(d) and (3)(e) of this section, for any tax year commencing in the calendar year that begins during said next fiscal year is reduced by fifty percent if the heat pump technology is installed at an existing residential or nonresidential building; except that if the amount of the reduced credit is equal to or less than two hundred fifty dollars, then no credit is available for such a tax year.

(4)  An eligible taxpayer may retain an applicable percentage of the amount

of the tax credit allowed under subsection (3)(c) of this section to support the industry-wide adoption and deployment of heat pump technologies in the state. The office shall annually determine the applicable percentage, which must be the same for each eligible taxpayer, pursuant to guidelines established by the office. The office shall maintain the current applicable percentage on its website and shall provide the applicable percentage in writing to the department no later than December 31, 2023, and each December 31 thereafter through December 31, 2031.

(5) (a)  The office shall create, and update at least annually, a list containing

the names and contact information of eligible taxpayers. To become an eligible taxpayer, and be included on the list described in this subsection (5), a taxpayer shall demonstrate to the office that the taxpayer and any of its employees who will be installing heat pump technology or thermal energy networks:

(I)  Are licensed as required by the state;


(II)  Are knowledgeable of and agree to follow the relevant system

requirements set forth in subsections (2)(a), (2)(c.5), (2)(g), (2)(h), (2)(i), (2)(m), (2)(n), (2)(p), and (2)(q) of this section;

(III)  Repealed.


(III.5)  Have received training pursuant to the guidelines issued by the office

pursuant to subsection (7) of this section;

(IV)  Will, where applicable, ensure that all piping for a split system is

installed by technicians certified to the NITC R78 brazing procedure and trained in the safe handling of flammable refrigerants; and

(V)  Will meet any additional standards established by the office in its

guidelines.

(b)  The office shall, in a sufficiently timely manner to allow the department

to process returns claiming the income tax credit allowed in this section, annually provide a secure electronic copy of the list described in subsection (5)(a) of this section to the department that includes the social security number or Colorado account number and federal employer identification number of each eligible taxpayer.

(c)  The office shall maintain a current copy of the list on its website.


(d) (I)  Every eligible taxpayer shall keep and maintain for a period of four

years such books and records as may be necessary to determine that:

(A)  It is an eligible taxpayer;


(B)  It and any of its employees who will be installing heat pump technology

or thermal energy networks meet the requirements described in subsection (5)(a) of this section;

(C)  The credit it claimed pursuant to this section was for the installation of

heat pump technology or thermal energy networks in this state; and

(D)  The amount of the credit was properly calculated under subsection (3) of

this section.

(II) (A)  The office shall periodically examine a sample of the eligible

taxpayers on the list described in this subsection (5) to substantiate that the eligible taxpayers are meeting the office's standards and properly claiming the credit allowed by this section. Every eligible taxpayer shall produce the books and records described in subsection (5)(d)(I) of this section for examination at any time by the office.

(B)  If the office determines that an eligible taxpayer is no longer meeting the

standards, the office shall notify the taxpayer in writing that they are no longer eligible, remove the ineligible taxpayer from the list, update the list on its website, and promptly notify the department in writing of its decision.

(C)  If the office determines that a taxpayer was not eligible for all or part of

the credit claimed, the office shall notify the department in writing of its decision. The department shall issue the taxpayer a notice of deficiency for the unpaid tax owed, together with applicable penalties and interest, and proceed to collect the deficiency in the same manner as other tax deficiencies.

(6)  The office shall maintain a database of any information necessary to

evaluate the effectiveness of the tax credit allowed in this section in meeting the purpose set forth in subsection (1)(a) of this section, and shall provide such information, and any other information that may be needed, to the state auditor as part of the state auditor's evaluation of this tax expenditure pursuant to section 39-21-305.

(7)  The office may establish guidelines to implement this section. All

guidelines established by the office must be posted on the office's website.

(8)  If a credit authorized by this section exceeds the income tax due on the

income of the eligible taxpayer for the taxable year, the excess credit may not be carried forward and must be refunded to the eligible taxpayer or the installer.

(9)  This section is repealed, effective December 31, 2038.


Source: L. 2023: Entire section added, (HB 23-1272), ch. 167, p. 792, � 8,

effective May 11. L. 2024: (2)(a)(I)(B), (2)(a)(III), (2)(g)(III), (2)(g)(IV), (2)(p)(III), (2)(q)(III), and (5)(a)(III) repealed, (2)(a)(I)(C), (2)(g)(I)(C), (2)(g)(I)(D), (2)(p)(I)(C), (2)(p)(I)(D), (2)(q)(I)(C), (2)(q)(I)(D), IP(3)(c)(I), (3)(d)(II), (3)(e), (5)(a)(II), (5)(a)(V), and (5)(d)(II)(A) amended, and (2)(a)(I)(D), (2)(a)(I)(E), (2)(c.5), (2)(d.5), (2)(g)(I)(E), (2)(i.5), (2)(p)(I)(E), (2)(q)(I)(E), and (5)(a)(III.5) added, (SB 24-214), ch. 191, p. 1103, � 18, effective May 17.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in HB 23-1272, see section 1

of chapter 167, Session Laws of Colorado 2023.


C.R.S. § 39-22-567

39-22-567. Tax credit for investments in fixed capital assets for a shared quantum facility - tax preference performance statement - legislative declaration - definitions - report - repeal. (1) Tax preference performance statement. In accordance with section 39-21-304 (1), which requires each bill that creates a new tax expenditure to include a tax preference performance statement as part of a statutory legislative declaration, the general assembly finds and declares that:

(a)  The general legislative purposes of the tax credit allowed by this section

are:

(I)  To induce certain designated behavior by taxpayers; and


(II)  To improve industry competitiveness;


(b)  The specific legislative purpose of the tax credit allowed by this section

is to induce a qualified applicant to invest in fixed capital assets to create a hub that is a shared quantum facility that accomplishes translational research and incubation, low-volume manufacturing and fabrication and rapid prototyping in a laboratory environment and to provide related services and workforce development to support the development of quantum businesses and the quantum ecosystem in the state; and

(c)  The general assembly and the state auditor shall measure the

effectiveness of the credit in achieving the purposes specified in subsections (1)(a) and (1)(b) of this section based on the information reported by the office pursuant to subsection (11) of this section.

(2)  Definitions. As used in this section, unless the context otherwise

requires:

(a)  Consortium means a group of nonprofit or for-profit entities, or both,

that are jointly making qualifying investments in an eligible project to create and operate a shared quantum facility. A consortium may include one or more members exempt from tax pursuant to section 39-22-112.

(b)  Department means the department of revenue.


(c)  Eligible project means a capital project undertaken in the state to

create a shared quantum facility for which a qualified applicant makes qualifying investments and that is approved by the office in accordance with the policies, procedures, and guidelines for the implementation and administration of the tax credit allowed by this section adopted by the office pursuant to subsection (12) of this section.

(d)  Office means the Colorado office of economic development created in

section 24-48.5-101.

(e) (I)  Qualified applicant means a nonprofit or for-profit entity that submits

an application for the reservation and issuance of tax credits to the office pursuant to this section. An applicant may be a consortium as set forth in subsection (4) of this section.

(II)  A qualified applicant includes a person that is exempt from taxation

pursuant to section 39-22-112.

(f) (I)  Qualifying fixed capital assets means:


(A)  Land in this state;


(B)  Buildings, fixtures, and other structural components of buildings in this

state for which the qualified applicant is allowed a deduction for depreciation pursuant to section 167 of the internal revenue code, including purchasing or constructing a facility, renovating a facility, making tenant improvements, funding a capital lease, capitalized labor, construction, and installation costs;

(C)  Tangible personal property acquired for use exclusively in this state for

which the qualified applicant is allowed a deduction for depreciation pursuant to section 167 of the internal revenue code, including furniture, fixtures and equipment such as outfitting an office, laboratory machines, refrigeration, HVAC systems, piping, measuring, monitoring and instrumentation equipment, fabrication machines, tools and equipment, and any hardware and software developed by third parties necessary for quantum technology applications; and

(D)  Computer software acquired for use exclusively in this state for which

the qualified applicant is allowed a deduction for depreciation pursuant to section 167 of the internal revenue code.

(II)  Qualifying fixed capital assets is limited to property acquired,

constructed, reconstructed, or erected as part of a coordinated plan to create a shared quantum facility.

(III)  For purposes of this subsection (2)(f), if a qualified applicant is not

subject to federal income tax, the qualified applicant is deemed to be allowed a deduction for depreciation if such a deduction would have been allowed were the qualified applicant subject to federal income tax.

(IV)  Qualifying fixed capital assets shall be acquired, constructed,

reconstructed, or erected where possible by a certified contractor on a certified contractor list that is obtained from the Colorado department of labor and employment and that contains the information specified in section 40-3.2-105.6 (3)(a).

(g)  Qualifying investment means the amount paid by a qualified applicant

to acquire, construct, reconstruct, or erect qualifying fixed capital assets to the extent such amount is required to be capitalized pursuant to the internal revenue code or such amount is allowed to be deducted under section 179 of the internal revenue code. Qualifying investment includes an amount capitalized by a lessee of qualifying fixed capital assets for a lease that is treated as a sale for federal income tax purposes.

(h)  Quantum business means a private for-profit trade or business or

nonprofit organization that has quantum technology as a key part of its business model or organizational purpose, including but not limited to manufacturing, testing, production, research and development, or enhancement of hardware or software to perform or use quantum technology as a key input or output of its business model, and companies that produce goods or services that are key inputs for other quantum business.

(i)  Shared quantum facility means a primary place in the state where an

applicant performs activities and provides economic benefits related to supporting quantum businesses and the quantum ecosystem.

(3)  Credit allowed. (a)  Subject to the provisions of subsection (3)(c) of this

section, for income tax years commencing on or after January 1, 2025, but prior to January 1, 2033, a qualified applicant is allowed a credit against the income taxes imposed by this article 22 for placing an eligible project in service in an amount specified on the credit certificate issued by the office pursuant to subsection (7) of this section.

(b)  To claim the credit allowed pursuant to this section, the qualified

applicant must submit an application for a tax credit reservation as specified in subsection (5) of this section, place the eligible project in service prior to January 1, 2031, obtain a tax credit certificate from the office as specified in subsection (7) of this section, and, once issued by the office, file the tax credit certificate with the qualified applicant's income tax return as specified in subsection (8) of this section.

(c)  The tax credit created in this section is not allowed to any qualified

applicant unless a Colorado-based entity receives a multimillion dollar federal grant from the economic development administration for the regional technology and innovation program or a comparable federal grant program. The office shall notify the department if a grant specified in this subsection (3)(c) is received.

(4)  Consortium as qualified applicant - tax matters representative. If a

qualified applicant is a consortium:

(a)  The basis of the credit allowed by this section includes the aggregate

qualifying investment by all the members of the consortium as described in subsection (7)(a)(II) of this section.

(b)  Whether the applicant performs the activities and provides the economic

benefits related to quantum business is based upon the activities performed by and the benefits provided by all the members of the consortium.

(c)  The members of the consortium shall designate one member to be the tax

matters representative. The tax matters representative shall disclose to the office that it is the tax matters representative acting on behalf of the consortium. The tax matters representative shall also disclose to the office the name and taxpayer identification number of each member of the consortium.

(d)  The tax matters representative is responsible for representing and

binding the consortium with respect to all issues affecting the credit, including submitting the application for a tax credit reservation, representing the consortium before the office with respect to the application, notifying the office that the eligible project has been placed in service, submitting proof of compliance, submitting ongoing compliance reports, submitting any other report or document required by the office or the department, adjudicating any disputes, and taking any other action required of a qualified applicant by this section. The acts of the tax matters representative are binding upon all members of the consortium.

(e)  The office shall issue a tax credit certificate to, and in the name of, the

tax matters representative. The tax matters representative shall file the return and claim the full amount of the tax credit pursuant to subsection (8) of this section. The department shall pay any amount refunded pursuant to subsection (9) of this section to the tax matters representative.

(f)  If the credit allowed by this section is recaptured pursuant to subsection

(10) of this section, the tax matters representative shall add the recaptured credit, plus any applicable penalties and interest, to its return. Nevertheless, every member of the consortium is jointly and severally liable for any resulting deficiency.

(5)  Application submission and review for tax credit reservation. (a)  An

applicant may submit an application for a tax credit reservation to the office on or after January 1, 2024, but no later than December 31, 2025; except that, if the federal government has not announced the grant recipient described in subsection (3)(c) of this section by June 30, 2025, the office may extend the application deadline to no more than six months after an announcement that a Colorado-based entity has received the grant described in subsection (3)(c) of this section. The application shall include a project plan for a shared quantum facility.

(b)  The office shall review all submitted applications for a tax credit

reservation to:

(I)  Determine whether the applicant is a qualified applicant;


(II)  Determine whether the application for a tax credit reservation is

complete and includes a plan to make investments in qualifying fixed capital assets for the creation of a shared quantum facility;

(III)  Make a preliminary determination whether the project plan for a shared

quantum facility is for an eligible project based on the policies and procedures developed by the office pursuant to subsection (12) of this section; and

(IV)  Determine whether the eligible project is entitled to a tax credit

reservation as specified in subsection (6) of this section.

(c)  The office shall make the determinations specified in subsection (5)(b) of

this section within ninety days of the date the office receives the complete application for a tax credit reservation.

(d)  If the office determines that an application for a tax credit reservation is

incomplete or that it is unable to make the determination specified in subsection (5)(b) of this section, the office shall notify the applicant in writing of the office's decision and may remove the application for a tax credit reservation from the review process.

(e)  As part of the application review process required pursuant to subsection

(5)(b) of this section, the office may request clarifications and modifications to the application.

(f)  The office may include performance requirements and criteria that a

qualified applicant is required to satisfy before the office will issue a tax credit reservation pursuant to subsection (6) of this section or a tax credit certificate pursuant to subsection (7) of this section. The office must document in writing any requirements created pursuant to this subsection (5)(f).

(6)  Tax credit reservation. (a)  Based on the factors specified in subsection

(6)(d) of this section, the office may determine that a qualified applicant is entitled to a tax credit reservation in accordance with the provisions of this section. The office shall issue tax credit reservations subject to the limitations set forth in this subsection (6) and in accordance with the policies and procedures established pursuant to subsection (12) of this section.

(b)  If the office reserves a tax credit for the benefit of a qualified applicant,

the office shall notify the qualified applicant in writing of the reservation and the amount reserved. The reservation of a tax credit by the office for a qualified applicant does not entitle the qualified applicant to issuance of a credit certificate until the qualified applicant complies with all the other requirements specified in this section for the issuance of the tax credit. When the office approves a tax credit reservation, the office may also impose additional requirements, which a qualified applicant shall satisfy as part of completing the qualifying investment, before a tax credit certificate is issued to the qualified applicant.

(c) (I)  Subject to the limitations in this subsection (6)(c), if approved, the

office may issue a tax credit reservation to a qualified applicant for an eligible project in an amount equal to the qualified applicant's estimated qualifying investment.

(II)  The aggregate amount of all fixed asset investment tax credit

reservations that the office may issue pursuant to this section must not exceed forty-four million dollars.

(III)  The office may establish policies and procedures to cap the total amount

of any tax credit reservation issued to a qualified applicant pursuant to this subsection (6).

(d)  In making the final determination of which project plan to issue tax

reservations to pursuant to this subsection (6), the office may prioritize a project plan that:

(I)  Is submitted by a qualified applicant that is a consortium that includes the

following or is submitted by a qualified applicant that is not a consortium and that collaborates with the following:

(A)  A nonprofit entity created by institutions of higher education of high

research activity, classified as R1 universities, led by a public R1 university with a demonstrated history of quantum-related research and investment in Colorado; and

(B)  A nonprofit entity that has received a substantial federal award for the

purposes of cultivating and expanding a quantum-related ecosystem within Colorado;

(II)  Is submitted by a qualified applicant that demonstrates an ability to meet

application requirements designated by the office, including:

(A)  The submission of a budget for the project plan that includes the sources

of funding for the project and anticipated uses of the funding;

(B)  The submission of an explanation for the ways in which the shared

quantum facility will be used and how it will benefit the quantum industry in this state; and

(C)  The submission of a community benefits plan developed by a nonprofit

entity described in subsection (6)(d)(I)(B) of this section, through engagement with the community surrounding the shared quantum facility and labor organizations;

(III)  Is submitted by a qualified applicant that:


(A)  Demonstrates that the project plan is agreed upon by the entities

described in subsections (6)(d)(I)(A) and (6)(d)(I)(B) of this section;

(B)  Demonstrates an intent to equitably and effectively distribute the tax

credits or the refund proceeds of the tax credit;

(C)  Demonstrates an intent to leverage the proceeds of the refundable tax

credit pursuant to this section for the purpose of creating and financing a shared quantum facility to accomplish the goals specified in subsection (1)(b) of this section;

(D)  Includes a summary of any third-party resources apart from the tax

credits allowed pursuant to this section that will be used to create or finance the shared quantum facility; and

(E)  Includes a proposed collaboration plan that outlines the operational and

governance plan for the shared quantum facility;

(IV)  Proposes a suitable location for the shared quantum facility; and


(V)  Is made by a qualified applicant that is a newly created nonprofit

organization dedicated to the purpose of promoting the quantum ecosystem and its commercial growth.

(e)  As part of the tax credit reservation process pursuant to this subsection

(6), the office may request clarifications or modifications to the application submitted pursuant to subsection (5) of this section.

(f)  The applicant, at the applicant's own risk, may begin making investments

in qualifying fixed capital assets before a tax credit reservation is awarded to the qualified applicant pursuant to this subsection (6). If a tax credit reservation application is approved for a qualified applicant, investments in qualifying fixed capital assets that the qualified applicant made up to twelve months before the date the tax credit reservation was submitted may be included in the calculation of qualifying fixed capital assets for the purpose of determining the amount of the tax credit certificate issued pursuant to subsection (7) of this section.

(7)  Proof of compliance - audit of qualifying investments certification -

issuance of tax credit certificate. (a) (I) After a qualified applicant completes a project or a phase of a project, the qualified applicant shall notify the office that the project or phase of the project has been placed in service and shall certify the types and amount of the qualifying investments and how the investments were used in an eligible project, after which the office shall make a final determination as to whether the project is an eligible project. The applicant shall include a review of the certification by a licensed certified public accountant that is not affiliated with the qualified applicant that aligns with office policies for certification of qualifying investments. The applicant shall also certify and provide documents demonstrating that the applicant satisfied any additional requirements imposed by the office pursuant to subsections (6) and (12) of this section.

(II)  Qualifying investment expenditures that are eligible for the tax credit

allowed pursuant to this section may be made by the applicant, members of a consortium, if applicable, or other entities contracted to make the expenditures on behalf of the applicant or members of a consortium as part of a coordinated plan to create the shared quantum facility. The source of money for the qualifying investment expenditures that are eligible for the tax credit can be from any source of money that the applicant or members of a consortium or other entities have available for making the investments.

(III)  Within ninety days after receipt of the complete documentation required

in subsection (7)(a)(I) of this section from the qualified applicant, the office shall review the qualified applicant's documentation of certified qualifying investments, determine whether the documentation satisfies the project plan and other requirements, and, if the office determines that the documentation satisfies the project plan and other requirements, the office shall issue a tax credit certificate for the lesser of the amount specified in the tax credit reservation issued to the qualified applicant pursuant to subsection (6) of this section or the amount of the qualifying investment.

(b)  If there are any unreserved amounts of tax credits available under

subsection (6) of this section, and if the amount of certified qualifying investments incurred by the qualified applicant would have resulted in the qualified applicant being issued a tax credit certificate that exceeds the amount of the tax credit reservation issued to the qualified applicant, the qualified applicant may apply to the office for the issuance of an additional tax credit certificate in an amount equal to the difference between the amount that would have been issued as a result of the certified qualifying investments if that amount was not limited to the amount of the tax credit reservation pursuant to subsection (7)(a)(III) of this section and the amount of the tax credit reservation by submitting an application in a form and manner determined by the office. The office shall review the application as specified in subsection (5) of this section and, if approved, shall issue a separate tax credit certificate awarding the qualified applicant the additional credit.

(c)  The first application for tax credit issuance may include qualifying

investments for the entire eligible project or just the initial phase and must be submitted by the qualified applicant no later than December 31, 2028.

(d)  A qualified applicant may submit additional applications for tax credit

issuance pursuant to this subsection (7) as the qualified applicant completes additional phases of the project that are placed in service. The qualified applicant may submit such applications through December 31, 2030, and up to the amount of tax credits reserved by the applicant.

(8)  Filing tax credit certificate with income tax return. (a)  To claim the

credit authorized by this section, a qualified applicant shall file the tax credit certificate issued by the office pursuant to subsection (7) of this section with the qualified applicant's state income tax return. If the qualified applicant is exempt from tax pursuant to section 39-22-112 (1), the qualified applicant shall file a return pursuant to section 39-22-601 (7)(b). The amount of the tax credit that a qualified applicant may claim pursuant to this section is the amount stated on the tax credit certificate.

(b)  A qualified applicant may not use a tax credit certificate issued pursuant

to this subsection (8) before the income tax year that begins on or after January 1, 2026, but must use the tax credit certificate before the last income tax year that commences before January 1, 2033.

(c)  A tax credit certificate issued to a partnership, a limited liability company

taxed as a partnership, or multiple owners of a property must be passed through to the partners, members, or owners, including any nonprofit entity that is a partner, member, or owner, respectively, on a pro rata basis or pursuant to an executed agreement among the partners, members, or owners documenting an alternate distribution method.

(9)  Refundability. (a)  Except as otherwise provided in subsection (9)(b) of

this section, not more than the aggregate of twenty-four million dollars of credits to be issued to all qualified applicants pursuant to this section may be claimed by the qualified applicants in the taxable year in which the eligible project is placed in service. If the qualified applicants are issued more than an aggregate of twenty-four million dollars in credits pursuant to this section, not more than twenty million dollars of the total amount of credits to be issued may be claimed in any single future taxable year; except that credits may not be claimed for any income tax year that begins on or after January 1, 2033.

(b)  If the amount of the credit allowed to be claimed in the applicable

taxable year pursuant to this section exceeds the amount of income taxes otherwise due on the income of the qualified applicant in the income tax year for which the credit is being claimed, or the qualified applicant is a person who is exempt from taxation pursuant to section 39-22-112 (1), one hundred percent of the amount of the credit that is allowed to be claimed for the applicable tax year that is not used as an offset against income taxes in the income tax year is refunded to the qualified applicant.

(10)  Compliance monitoring and recapture. (a)  Except as provided in

subsection (10)(b) of this section, if, during the compliance period, the qualified applicant sells, transfers, abandons, or repurposes a substantial portion of the qualifying fixed capital assets for which the qualified applicant was allowed a credit pursuant to this section, or otherwise ceases to operate the shared quantum facility in this state, the office shall notify the qualified applicant and the department that the credit allowed in this section is disallowed. The qualified applicant shall add the full amount of the credit that was actually used to offset the qualified applicant's income tax or refunded to the qualified applicant to its return as a recaptured credit for the taxable year in which the credit is disallowed pursuant to this subsection (10).

(b)  The potential increase in tax required pursuant to subsection (10)(a) of

this section does not apply if:

(I)  All or part of the shared quantum facility experiences a casualty loss and

if the qualifying fixed capital assets lost are restored within a reasonable period established by the office;

(II)  Solely by reason of the disposition of land, a building, a structure, or a

facility, or an interest therein, the shared quantum facility is relocated within this state to a property approved by the office; or

(III)  A qualifying fixed capital asset is replaced or upgraded in the normal

course of its use.

(c) (I)  The office shall establish reporting requirements to monitor

compliance with this subsection (10), including requirements regarding the reporting of a disposition of a building, structure, or facility by the qualified applicant.

(II)  If a dispute arises about whether a building, structure, or facility is a

shared quantum facility, the office shall adjudicate the dispute and notify the department of the resolution.

(III)  Notwithstanding section 39-21-107 (2), if a building, structure, or facility,

or an interest therein, is disposed of during any taxable year during the compliance period, and thereafter the building, structure, or facility or any replacement for the building, structure, or facility is not a shared quantum facility, then:

(A)  The qualified applicant shall add the full amount of the credit to its

return as a recaptured credit for the taxable year in which the credit is disallowed pursuant to this subsection (10) notwithstanding the disposition of the building, structure, or facility;

(B)  The statutory period for the assessment of any deficiency with respect to

the disallowed credit must not expire before the expiration of three years from the date the office is notified, in such a manner as the office determines, that the project is not an eligible project; and

(C)  The department shall assess any deficiency before the expiration of such

three-year period together with any applicable interest and penalty imposed pursuant to this article 22.

(d)  As used in this subsection (10), unless the context otherwise requires,

compliance period means the period of fifteen years following the taxable year in which the qualified applicant placed the eligible project or the initial phase of the eligible project in service.

(11)  Reporting. (a)  No later than December 31, 2027, and, notwithstanding

the requirement in section 24-1-136 (11)(a)(I), no later than December 31 of each two years thereafter through 2033, the office shall provide a written report to the general assembly and shall further make the report available to the public. In connection with tax credits issued pursuant to this section, the report must include:

(I)  A description of each eligible project placed in service;


(II)  A description of the use or uses of the eligible project;


(III)  The number and quality of jobs supported in the quantum industry as a

result of the eligible project;

(IV)  The number of quantum businesses that have been supported through

the eligible project;

(V)  An overview of the types of intellectual property that have been

advanced through the eligible project; and

(VI)  The amount of federal money that has been awarded to the eligible

facility.

(b)  The office shall, in a sufficiently timely manner to allow the department

to process returns claiming the income tax credit allowed in this section, provide the department with an electronic report of each qualified applicant to which the office issues a tax credit certificate for the preceding tax year that includes the following information:

(I)  The qualified applicant's name;


(II)  The amount of the credit; and


(III)  The qualified applicant's social security number or the qualified

applicant's Colorado account number and federal employer identification number.

(12)  Policies and procedures. (a)  The office may create and modify policies,

procedures, and guidelines as necessary to further implement the tax credits to be claimed for the completion of eligible projects pursuant to this section and shall solicit advice from the department and quantum industry participants in creating and modifying such policies, procedures, and guidelines.

(b)  With respect to making the preliminary determination as to whether a

project plan is a plan for an eligible project pursuant to subsection (5)(b)(III) of this section, the office shall develop standards that include, but are not limited to:

(I)  Performance standards and guidelines for a shared quantum facility;


(II)  A detailed cost estimate for the project plan;


(III)  Evidence of site control of the site where the project will occur; and


(IV)  The financing or funding that is available for the project plan.


(c)  With respect to making the preliminary determination as to whether a

project plan is a plan for an eligible project pursuant to subsection (5)(b)(III) of this section, the office shall consider job quality standards and guidelines for the shared quantum facility that adhere to the Good Jobs Principles established by the United States department of labor and United States department of commerce.

(13)  Repeal. This section is repealed, effective December 31, 2050.


Source: L. 2024: Entire section added, (HB 24-1325), ch. 273, p. 1782, � 2,

effective May 28.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in HB 24-1325, see section 1

of chapter 273, Session Laws of Colorado 2024.


C.R.S. § 39-26-707

39-26-707. Food, meals, beverages, and packaging - definitions. (1) The following shall be exempt from taxation under the provisions of part 1 of this article 26:

(a)  All sales of food purchased with food stamps. For the purposes of this

subsection (1)(a), food has the same meaning as provided in 7 U.S.C. sec. 2012, as such section exists on October 1, 1987, or is thereafter amended.

(b)  All sales of food purchased with funds provided by the special

supplemental food program for women, infants, and children, as provided for in 42 U.S.C. sec. 1786. For the purposes of this paragraph (b), food shall have the same meaning as provided in 42 U.S.C. sec. 1786, as such section exists on October 1, 1987, or is thereafter amended.

(c)  Any sale of any article to a retailer or vendor of food, meals, or beverages,

which article is to be furnished to a consumer or user for use with articles of tangible personal property purchased at retail, if a separate charge is not made for the article to the consumer or user, if such article becomes the property of the consumer or user, together with the food, meals, or beverages purchased, and if a tax is paid on the retail sale as required by section 39-26-104 (1)(a) or (1)(e); except that, on or after March 1, 2010, any such article that is nonessential to the consumer or user, as determined by rules of the department of revenue promulgated in accordance with article 4 of title 24, C.R.S., shall be subject to state sales taxation;

(d)  Any sale of any container or bag to a retailer or vendor of food, meals, or

beverages, which container or bag is to be furnished to a consumer or user for the purpose of packaging or bagging articles of tangible personal property purchased at retail, if a separate charge is not made for the container or bag to the consumer or user, if such container or bag becomes the property of the consumer or user, together with the food, meals, or beverages purchased, and if a tax is paid on the retail sale as required by section 39-26-104 (1)(a) or (1)(e); except that, on and after March 1, 2010, any such container or bag that is nonessential to the consumer or user, as determined by rules of the department of revenue promulgated in accordance with article 4 of title 24, C.R.S., shall be subject to state sales taxation;

(e)  Commencing January 1, 1980, all sales of food; and


(f) (I) (A)  On and after July 1, 2016, all sales of food, food products, snacks,

beverages, and meals provided for consumption by residents on the premises of a retirement community;

(B)  On and after July 1, 2016, all sales to a retirement community of food,

food products, snacks, beverages, and meals for purposes of a sale described in sub-subparagraph (A) of this subparagraph (I);

(C)  On and after July 1, 2016, all sales of any container, bag, or article used by

or furnished to a consumer for the purpose of packaging, bagging, or use with food, food products, snacks, beverages, and meals provided for consumption by residents on the premises of a retirement community; and

(D)  On and after July 1, 2016, all sales to a retirement community of any

container, bag, or article used by or furnished to a consumer for purposes of a sale described in sub-subparagraph (A) of this subparagraph (I).

(II)  For purposes of this paragraph (f), food includes prepared salads, salad

bars, and packaged and unpackaged cold sandwiches.

(1.5) (a)  Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (e) of subsection (1) of

this section, on and after May 1, 2010, sales of candy and soft drinks shall be subject to state sales taxation.

(b)  For the purposes of this subsection (1.5):


(I)  Candy means a preparation of sugar, honey, or other natural or artificial

sweeteners in combination with chocolate, fruit, nuts, or other ingredients or flavorings in the form of bars, drops, or pieces. Candy shall not include any preparation containing flour and shall require no refrigeration.

(II)  Soft drinks means nonalcoholic beverages that contain natural or

artificial sweeteners. Soft drinks do not include beverages that contain milk or milk products, soy, rice, or similar milk substitutes, or greater than fifty percent of vegetable or fruit juice by volume.

(2)  The following shall be exempt from taxation under the provisions of part

2 of this article 26:

(a)  Effective January 1, 1980, the storage, use, or consumption of food or

meals that are provided to employees of the places described in section 39-26-104 (1)(e), if such are provided to such employees at no charge or at a reduced charge;

(b)  The storage, use, or consumption of any article by a retailer or vendor of

food, meals, or beverages, which article is to be furnished to a consumer or user for use with articles of tangible personal property purchased at retail, if a separate charge is not made for the article to the consumer or user, if the article becomes the property of the consumer or user, together with the food, meals, or beverages purchased, and if a tax is paid on the retail sale as required by section 39-26-104 (1)(a) or (1)(e); except that, on and after March 1, 2010, any such article stored, used, or consumed that is nonessential to the end consumer or user, as determined by rules of the department of revenue promulgated in accordance with article 4 of title 24, C.R.S., shall be subject to state use taxation;

(c)  The storage, use, or consumption of any container or bag by a retailer or

vendor of food, meals, or beverages, which container or bag is to be furnished to a consumer or user for the purpose of packaging or bagging articles of tangible personal property purchased at retail, if a separate charge is not made for the container or bag to the consumer or user, if the container or bag becomes the property of the consumer or user, together with the food, meals, or beverages purchased, and if a tax is paid on the retail sale as required by section 39-26-104 (1)(a) or (1)(e); except that, on and after March 1, 2010, any such container or bag stored, used, or consumed that is nonessential to the end consumer or user, as determined by rules of the department of revenue promulgated in accordance with article 4 of title 24, C.R.S., shall be subject to state use taxation;

(d) (I)  Effective January 1, 1980, the storage, use, or consumption of food as

defined in section 39-26-102 (4.5); except that, on and after May 1, 2010, the storage, use, or consumption of candy and soft drinks shall be subject to state use taxation.

(II)  For the purposes of this paragraph (d):


(A)  Candy means a preparation of sugar, honey, or other natural or artificial

sweeteners in combination with chocolate, fruit, nuts, or other ingredients or flavorings in the form of bars, drops, or pieces. Candy shall not include any preparation containing flour and shall require no refrigeration.

(B)  Soft drinks means nonalcoholic beverages that contain natural or

artificial sweeteners. Soft drinks do not include beverages that contain milk or milk products, soy, rice, or similar milk substitutes, or greater than fifty percent of vegetable or fruit juice by volume.

(e) (I) (A)  On and after July 1, 2016, the storage, use, or consumption of food,

food products, snacks, beverages, and meals provided for consumption by residents on the premises of a retirement community;

(B)  On and after July 1, 2016, the storage, use, or consumption by a

retirement community of food, food products, snacks, beverages, and meals for purposes of a sale described in sub-subparagraph (A) of subparagraph (I) of paragraph (f) of subsection (1) of this section;

(C)  On and after July 1, 2016, the storage, use, or consumption of any

container, bag, or article used by or furnished to a consumer for the purpose of packaging, bagging, or use with food, food products, snacks, beverages, and meals provided for consumption by residents on the premises of a retirement community; and

(D)  On and after July 1, 2016, the storage, use, or consumption by a

retirement community of any container, bag, or article used by or furnished to a consumer for purposes of a sale described in sub-subparagraph (A) of subparagraph (I) of paragraph (f) of subsection (1) of this section.

(II)  For purposes of this paragraph (e), food includes prepared salads, salad

bars, and packaged and unpackaged cold sandwiches.

(f)  The storage, use, or consumption of all food purchased with food stamps.

For purposes of this subsection (2)(f), food has the same meaning as provided in 7 U.S.C. sec. 2012, as such section exists on October 1, 1987, or is thereafter amended.

(g)  The storage, use, or consumption of all food purchased with funds

provided by the special supplemental food program for women, infants, and children, as provided for in 42 U.S.C. sec. 1786. For the purposes of this subsection (2)(g), food has the same meaning as provided in 42 U.S.C. sec. 1786, as such section exists on October 1, 1987, or is thereafter amended.

(2.5)  For purposes of this section, retirement community means:


(a)  An assisted living residence as defined in section 25-27-102 (1.3), C.R.S.;


(b)  An independent living facility designed and operated specifically to serve

as the primary residence for persons aged fifty-five or older that provides meals and other services to residents as part of a comprehensive fee, including a facility that qualifies as housing for older persons as defined in section 24-34-502 (7)(b) and a life care institution subject to article 49 of title 11; or

(c)  A nursing care facility licensed under the authority of section 25-1.5-103

(1)(a)(I)(A), C.R.S., that provides services to persons who, due to physical condition, mental condition, or disability, require continuous or regular inpatient nursing care.

(3)  The department of revenue may promulgate rules, in accordance with

article 4 of title 24, C.R.S., to provide a means by which a person who sells candy or soft drinks at retail may, if necessary, reasonably estimate the amount of sales taxes due on such candy and soft drinks. For any return made prior to August 1, 2010, a person who sells candy or soft drinks at retail shall not be liable for any interest or other penalty imposed as a result of an error made in connection with the elimination of the exemption from state sales tax for sales of candy and soft drinks, as defined in paragraph (b) of subsection (1.5) of this section, by House Bill 10-1191, enacted in 2010.

(4)  For any return made prior to June 1, 2010, a person who sells or stores,

uses, or consumes items described in paragraphs (c) and (d) of subsection (1) and paragraphs (b) and (c) of subsection (2) of this section that are nonessential to the end consumer or user shall not be liable for any interest or other penalty imposed as a result of an error made in connection with the elimination of the exemption for such nonessential items from state sales and use tax by House Bill 10-1194, enacted in 2010.

Source: L. 2004: Entire part added with relocations, p. 1020, � 2, effective

July 1. L. 2009: (2)(a) amended, (SB 09-121), ch. 421, p. 2338, � 2, effective June 4. L. 2010: (1)(c), (1)(d), (2)(b), and (2)(c) amended and (4) added, (HB 10-1194), ch. 10, p. 58, � 1, effective February 24; (1.5) and (3) added and (2)(d) amended, (HB 10-1191), ch. 7, p. 45, �� 1, 2, effective February 24; (2)(a) amended, (HB 10-1422), ch. 419, p. 2121, � 175, effective August 11. L. 2016: (1)(f), (2)(e), and (2.5) added, (HB 16-1187), ch. 205, p. 733, � 2, effective June 1. L. 2017: (2.5)(b) amended, (SB 17-226), ch. 159, p. 591, � 11, effective August 9. L. 2021: IP(1) and (1)(a) amended, (HB 21-1155), ch. 109, p. 434, � 5, effective May 7; IP(2) amended and (2)(f) and (2)(g) added, (HB 21-1177), ch. 55, p. 228, � 1, effective September 7.

Editor's note: (1)  The provisions of this section are similar to several former

provisions of �� 39-26-114 and 39-26-203 as they existed prior to 2004. For a detailed comparison, see the comparative tables located in the back of the index.

(2)  Subsection (4) was originally enacted as subsection (3) in House Bill 10-1194 but has been renumbered on revision for ease of location.


Cross references: For the legislative declaration in HB 16-1187, see section 1

of chapter 205, Session Laws of Colorado 2016.


C.R.S. § 39-26-714

39-26-714. Vending machines - definitions. (1) (a) Every vendor selling individual items of personal property through vending machines shall pay a sales tax pursuant to section 39-26-106 (2)(b) on the personal property sold in excess of fifteen cents through the vending machines unless the sale is otherwise exempt under the provisions of this part 7.

(b)  To be eligible for the exemption provided for in this subsection (1), each

vendor shall:

(I)  Be licensed under section 39-26-103;


(II)  Maintain a record of the identification number, ownership, location, and

disposition of every vending machine used by the vendor in his or her operation as a vendor;

(III)  Within sixty days after commencing business as such vendor, submit to

the department of revenue an accurate list containing the information required under subparagraph (II) of this paragraph (b) and submit such list annually thereafter on January 1, commencing in 1971;

(IV)  Make application to the department of revenue for identification

numbers to be affixed to every such vending machine, in accordance with rules promulgated by the executive director of the department of revenue;

(V)  Remit a fee of ten cents per machine with the application submitted

under subparagraph (IV) of this paragraph (b), to defray the expenses of the department of revenue in furnishing the identification numbers; except that the executive director of the department of revenue by rule or as otherwise provided by law may reduce the amount of the fee if necessary pursuant to section 24-75-402 (3), C.R.S., to reduce the uncommitted reserves of the fund to which all or any portion of the fee is credited. After the uncommitted reserves of the fund are sufficiently reduced, the executive director by rule or as otherwise provided by law may increase the amount of the fee as provided in section 24-75-402 (4), C.R.S.

(c)  Any unregistered vending machine found being used for retail sales at

any place in this state without the prescribed identification number affixed thereto may be seized without warrant by the department of revenue, its agents, or employees or by any peace officer when directed or requested by the department. At the time of seizure, written notice of seizure shall be given to the proprietor or person in charge of the business, or to the agents or employees of the proprietor or person in charge of the business, where the vending machine is seized. The department shall also give notice by first-class mail as set forth in section 39-21-105.5 to the person whose name and mailing address appear on the machine. The department shall not be required to seize and confiscate any unregistered vending machine or assess a penalty when there is reason to believe that the owner is not intentionally evading the tax imposed by this article.

(d)  In addition to any other penalty provided by law, the department of

revenue is authorized to assess and collect a penalty of twenty-five dollars for each unregistered vending machine being operated in this state.

(e)  Upon proof of ownership, the department of revenue shall deliver to the

owner any vending machine seized under paragraph (c) of this subsection (1) after payment of the twenty-five-dollar penalty and seizure costs, if the owner is liable therefor, and upon registration of the machine. At the expiration of sixty days after the date of notice, any unregistered vending machine and the contents therein still in the possession of the department may be sold at public sale to the highest bidder, but, prior to any such sale, ten days' notice of the sale shall be given by first-class mail as set forth in section 39-21-105.5 to those entitled to notice under paragraph (c) of this subsection (1).

(2)  On and after January 1, 2000, all sales and purchases of food, as defined

in section 39-26-102 (4.5), by or through vending machines shall be exempt from taxation under the provisions of part 1 of this article; except that, on and after May 1, 2010, sales and purchases of candy and soft drinks by or through vending machines shall be subject to state sales taxation. Absent an express provision in the contract to the contrary, any vending machine contract that references the price at which products shall be sold from a vending machine shall be interpreted to include any applicable sales tax as an addition to the referenced price.

(3)  On and after January 1, 2000, the storage, use, or consumption of food, as

defined in section 39-26-102 (4.5), purchased by or through vending machines shall be exempt from taxation under the provisions of part 2 of this article; except that, on and after May 1, 2010, the storage, use, or consumption of candy and soft drinks purchased by or through vending machines shall be subject to state use taxation.

(4)  For the purposes of this section:


(a)  Candy means a preparation of sugar, honey, or other natural or artificial

sweeteners in combination with chocolate, fruit, nuts, or other ingredients or flavorings in the form of bars, drops, or pieces. Candy shall not include any preparation containing flour and shall require no refrigeration.

(b)  Soft drinks means nonalcoholic beverages that contain natural or

artificial sweeteners. Soft drinks do not include beverages that contain milk or milk products, soy, rice, or similar milk substitutes, or greater than fifty percent of vegetable or fruit juice by volume.

(5)  The department of revenue shall promulgate rules, in accordance with

article 4 of title 24, C.R.S., to provide a means by which a person who sells candy or soft drinks purchased by and through vending machines may, if necessary, reasonably estimate the amount of sales taxes due on such candy and soft drinks. For any return made prior to August 1, 2010, a person who sells candy or soft drinks at retail shall not be liable for any interest or other penalty imposed as a result of an error made in connection with the elimination of the exemption from state sales tax for sales of candy and soft drinks, as defined in subsection (4) of this section, by House Bill 10-1191, enacted in 2010.

Source: L. 2004: Entire part added with relocations, p. 1027, � 2, effective

July 1. L. 2010: (2) and (3) amended and (4) and (5) added, (HB 10-1191), ch. 7, p. 46, � 3, effective February 24.

Editor's note: The provisions of this section are similar to several former

provisions of �� 39-26-114 and 39-26-203 as they existed prior to 2004. For a detailed comparison, see the comparative tables located in the back of the index.


C.R.S. § 39-26-715

39-26-715. Fuel and oil - definitions. (1) (a) The following are exempt from taxation under the provisions of part 1 of this article:

(I)  All commodities that are taxed under the provisions of article 27 of this

title; and all commodities that are taxed under said provisions and the tax is refunded; and all sales and purchases of aviation fuel upon which no Colorado sales tax was in fact collected and retained prior to July 1, 1963; except that aviation fuel used in turbo-propeller or jet engine aircraft and upon which a sales tax was collected prior to January 1, 1989, shall not be exempt.

(II)  On and after June 10, 2016, all sales and purchases of electricity, coal,

wood, gas, fuel oil, or coke sold for residential use. Residential use is presumed when a utility company charges a residential utility rate and such utility company may conclusively rely on such presumption. For purposes of this subparagraph (II):

(A)  Gas includes natural, manufactured, and liquefied petroleum gas.


(B)  Residence means a separate dwelling in a multiunit apartment,

condominium, townhouse, or mobile trailer home park, or a separate single-unit dwelling, that is either billed under a single utility meter or a master utility meter and either charged at a residential, commercial, or other nonresidential utility rate. Residence includes minor buildings associated with the residence that are billed under the residential utility meter, such as a shed, garage, or barn.

(C)  Residential use means the use of electricity, coal, wood, gas, fuel oil, or

coke for domestic purposes, including powering lights, refrigerators, stoves, water heaters, space heaters, air conditioners, or other domestic items that require power or fuel in a residence.

(III)  All sales of dyed diesel.


(b)  Based upon reports submitted by retailers pursuant to the provisions of

part 1 of this article, the department of revenue shall compile a monthly report showing the amount of sales taxes collected on aviation fuel used in turbo-propeller or jet engine aircraft during the previous month by each retailer. The monthly report shall be transmitted to the aeronautics division created in section 43-10-103, C.R.S., for use by the division in distributing moneys in the aviation fund in accordance with section 43-10-110, C.R.S.

(2)  The following are exempt from taxation under the provisions of part 2 of

this article 26:

(a) (I)  The storage, use, or consumption of gasoline that is taxed under the

provisions of part 1 of article 27 of this title 39 and all gasoline that is taxed under said provisions and the tax on which is refunded; except that aviation fuel used in turbo-propeller or jet engine aircraft and upon which a tax was collected pursuant to the provisions of part 2 of this article 26 prior to January 1, 1989, shall not be exempt.

(II)  Based upon reports submitted by users or consumers pursuant to the

provisions of part 2 of this article, the department of revenue shall compile a monthly report showing the amount of use taxes collected on aviation fuel used in turbo-propeller or jet engine aircraft during the previous month by each user or consumer. The monthly report shall be transmitted to the aeronautics division created in section 43-10-103, C.R.S., for use by the division in distributing moneys in the aviation fund in accordance with section 43-10-110, C.R.S.

(b) (I)  The storage, use, or consumption of electricity, coal, coke, fuel oil,

steam, nuclear fuel, or gas for use in processing, manufacturing, mining, refining, irrigation, building construction, telegraph, telephone, and radio communication, street and railroad transportation services, and all industrial uses.

(II) and (III)  Repealed.


(c)  On and after June 10, 2016, the storage, use, or consumption of electricity,

coal, wood, gas, fuel oil, or coke sold for residential use. Residential use is presumed when a utility company charges a residential utility rate and such utility company may conclusively rely on such presumption. For purposes of this paragraph (c):

(I)  Gas includes natural, manufactured, and liquefied petroleum gas.


(II)  Residence means a separate dwelling in a multiunit apartment,

condominium, townhouse, or mobile trailer home park, or a separate single-unit dwelling, that is either billed under a single utility meter or a master utility meter and either charged at a residential, commercial, or other nonresidential utility rate. Residence includes minor buildings associated with the residence that are billed under the residential utility meter, such as a shed, garage, or barn.

(III)  Residential use means the use of electricity, coal, wood, gas, fuel oil, or

coke for domestic purposes, including powering lights, refrigerators, stoves, water heaters, space heaters, air conditioners, or other domestic items that require power or fuel in a residence.

(d)  The storage, use, or consumption of dyed diesel.


(3)  In any case in which a sales tax has been imposed under part 1 of this

article on lubricating oil used other than in motor vehicles, the purchaser shall be entitled to a refund equal to the amount of the state sales tax paid on that portion of the sale price that is attributable to the federal excise tax imposed on the sale of such lubricating oil. In any case in which a use tax has been imposed under part 2 of this article on lubricating oil used other than in motor vehicles, the payer of such tax is entitled to a refund equal to the amount of such use tax paid on that portion of the amount upon which the use tax was imposed that is attributable to the federal excise tax paid on such lubricating oil. The refund allowed under this subsection (3) shall be paid by the executive director of the department of revenue upon receiving evidence that the purchaser has received under section 6424 of the federal Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended, a refund of the federal excise tax paid on the sale of such lubricating oil. The claim for a refund shall be made upon such forms as shall be prescribed and furnished by the executive director, which forms shall contain such information as the executive director may prescribe.

(4)  As used in this section, dyed diesel has the same meaning as set forth

in section 39-27-101 (8).

Source: L. 2004: Entire part added with relocations, p. 1029, � 2, effective

July 1. L. 2010: (2)(b) amended, (HB 10-1190), ch. 6, p. 42, � 2, effective February 24. L. 2015: IP(1)(a) and IP(2) amended and (1)(a)(III), (2)(d), and (4) added, (HB 15-1012), ch. 55, p. 133, � 2, effective March 26. L. 2016: (1)(a)(II) and (2)(c) amended, (HB 16-1457), ch. 315, p. 1274, � 2, effective June 10. L. 2021: IP(2) and (2)(a)(I) amended, (HB 21-1158), ch. 119, p. 456, � 1, effective September 7.

Editor's note: (1)  The provisions of this section are similar to several former

provisions of �� 39-26-114 and 39-26-203 as they existed prior to 2004. For a detailed comparison, see the comparative tables located in the back of the index.

(2)  Subsection (2)(b)(III) provided for the repeal of subsections (2)(b)(II) and

(2)(b)(III), effective July 1, 2012. (See L. 2010, p. 42.)

Cross references: (1)  For the legislative declaration in HB 15-1012, see

section 1 of chapter 55, Session Laws of Colorado 2015.

(2)  For the legislative declaration in HB 16-1457, see section 1 of chapter 315,

Session Laws of Colorado 2016.


C.R.S. § 39-26-732

39-26-732. Heat pump systems - tax preference performance statement - legislative declaration - definitions - repeal. (1) (a) The general assembly hereby finds and declares that:

(I)  The general assembly has committed to reduce greenhouse gases

through numerous policy and regulatory measures to meet the goals established in 2019;

(II)  Great quantities of emissions are released in the traditional process of

heating and cooling private sector commercial and residential buildings;

(III)  There is great potential for businesses and individuals in the state to

reduce greenhouse gas emissions generated in the heating and cooling of commercial and residential buildings by installing heat pump systems and heat pump water heaters, which reduce net greenhouse gas emissions;

(IV)  Providing a sales and use tax exemption for heat pump systems and heat

pump water heaters will encourage businesses and individuals to purchase and use heat pump systems and heat pump water heaters rather than traditional heating and cooling methods; and

(V)  The purchase and use of heat pump systems and heat pump water

heaters will benefit public health in the heating and cooling of homes and businesses and take advantage of latent heat sources and available renewable power during low demand periods.

(b)  In accordance with section 39-21-304 (1), which requires each bill that

creates a new tax expenditure to include a tax preference performance statement as part of a statutory legislative declaration, the general assembly hereby finds and declares that the purposes of the tax expenditure created in subsection (3) of this section are to:

(I)  Induce certain designated behavior by taxpayers, specifically the

purchase and use of heat pump systems and heat pump water heaters; and

(II)  Contribute to the state's effort to achieve its climate goals.


(c)  The general assembly and the state auditor shall measure the

effectiveness of the exemption in achieving the purposes specified in subsection (1)(b) of this section based on the number of heat pump systems and heat pump water heaters sold and used in the state. The Colorado energy office shall provide the state auditor with any available information that would assist the state auditor's measurement.

(2)  As used in this section, unless the context otherwise requires:


(a) (I)  Air-source heat pump system means a system that:


(A)  Is certified pursuant to the federal environmental protection agency's

energy star program;

(B)  Has a variable speed compressor;


(C)  Is listed in the air-conditioning, heating, and refrigeration institute

directory of certified product performance as a matched system; and

(D)  Is installed by a licensed contractor, plumber, or employee of a gas utility

in accordance with the national electrical code and the manufacturer's specifications.

(II)  Air-source heat pump system may include an electric resistance

heating element or a dual fuel system for supplemental heat so long as:

(A)  The air-source heat pump is used as the primary source of a building's

heat and is designed to supply at least eighty percent of total annual heating for the building;

(B)  The system is capable of distributing produced heat to all conditioned

areas of the building;

(C)  The dual fuel system has a furnace with an annual fuel utilization

efficiency rating of ninety percent or higher;

(D)  All piping for a split system is installed by technicians certified to the

NITC R78 brazing procedure; and

(E)  The system is installed by technicians that are trained on the safe

handling of flammable refrigerants.

(III)  Air-source heat pump system includes mechanical and electrical

equipment central to the operation of an air-source heat pump, including an upgraded electrical panel if necessary.

(b) (I)  Ground-source heat pump system means a system that:


(A)  Is certified to the international organization for standardization's latest

standards;

(B)  Is installed by a licensed contractor, plumber, or employee of a gas utility

in accordance with the national electric code and manufacturer's specifications;

(C)  Conforms to all applicable municipal, state, and federal codes, standards,

regulations, and certifications;

(D)  Has blowers that are variable speed, high-efficiency motors that meet or

exceed efficiency levels listed in the national electrical manufacturers association MG1-1993 publication; and

(E)  Complies with all state and local drinking water guidelines and

regulations and public water system requirements.

(II)  Ground-source heat pump system may include a dual fuel system so

long as:

(A)  The ground-source heat pump is used as the primary source of a

building's heat and is designed to supply at least eighty percent of total annual heating for the building;

(B)  The system is capable of distributing produced heat to all conditioned

areas of the building;

(C)  The furnace has an annual fuel utilization efficiency rating of ninety

percent or higher;

(D)  All piping for a split system is installed by technicians certified to the

NITC R78 brazing procedure; and

(E)  The system is installed by technicians that are trained on the safe

handling of flammable refrigerants.

(III)  Ground-source heat pump system includes mechanical and electrical

equipment central to the operation of a ground-source heat pump, including an upgraded electrical panel if necessary.

(IV)  Ground-source heat pump system may include a heat exchanger for

water heating.

(c)  Heat pump system means an air-source heat pump system, ground-source heat pump system, water-source heat pump system, combined water-source

and air-source heat pump system, or variable refrigerant flow heat pump system.

(d) (I)  Heat pump water heater means an electric water heater that uses

heat pump technology to transfer heat from the surrounding air to water in a tank and that is certified pursuant to the federal environmental protection agency's energy star program.

(II)  Heat pump water heater may include:


(A)  An electric resistance heating element; and


(B)  Mechanical and electrical equipment central to the operation of a heat

pump water heater, including an upgraded electrical panel if necessary.

(e) (I)  Water-source heat pump system means a system that:


(A)  Is certified to the international organization for standardization's latest

standards;

(B)  Is installed by a licensed contractor, plumber, or employee of a gas or

wastewater utility in accordance with the national electric code and manufacturer's specifications;

(C)  Conforms to all applicable municipal, state, and federal codes, standards,

regulations, and certifications;

(D)  Has blowers that are variable speed, high-efficiency motors that meet or

exceed efficiency levels listed in the national electrical manufacturers association MG1-1993 publication; and

(E)  Complies with all state and local drinking water guidelines and

regulations and public water system and wastewater system requirements.

(II)  Water-source heat pump system may include a dual fuel system so long

as:

(A)  The water-source heat pump is used as the primary source of a building's

heat and is designed to supply at least eighty percent of the total annual heating for the building;

(B)  The system is capable of distributing produced heat to all conditioned

areas of the building;

(C)  The furnace has an annual fuel utilization efficiency rating of ninety

percent or higher;

(D)  All piping for a split system is installed by technicians certified to the

NITC R78 brazing procedure; and

(E)  The system is installed by technicians who are trained in the safe

handling of flammable refrigerants.

(III)  Water-source heat pump system includes mechanical and electrical

equipment central to the operation of a water-source heat pump.

(f) (I)  Variable refrigerant flow heat pump system means a system that:


(A)  Is certified to the international organization for standardization's latest

standards;

(B)  Is installed by a licensed contractor, plumber, or employee of a gas or

wastewater utility in accordance with the national electric code and manufacturer's specifications;

(C)  Conforms to all applicable municipal, state, and federal codes, standards,

regulations, and certifications;

(D)  Has blowers that are variable speed, high-efficiency motors that meet or

exceed efficiency levels listed in the national electrical manufacturers association MGI-1993 publication; and

(E)  Complies with all state and local drinking water guidelines and

regulations and public water system and wastewater system requirements.

(II)  Variable refrigerant flow system may include a dual fuel system so long

as:

(A)  The variable refrigerant flow system is used as the primary source of a

building's heat and is designed to supply at least eighty percent of the total annual heating for the building;

(B)  The system is capable of distributing produced heat to all conditioned

areas of the building;

(C)  The furnace has an annual fuel utilization efficiency rating of ninety

percent or higher;

(D)  All piping for a split system is installed by technicians certified to the

NITC R78 brazing procedure; and

(E)  The system is installed by technicians who are trained in the safe

handling of flammable refrigerants.

(III)  Variable refrigerant flow system includes mechanical and electrical

equipment central to the operation of a variable refrigerant flow system.

(3)  On and after January 1, 2023, but before January 1, 2024, subject to the

provisions of subsection (4) of this section, all sales, storage, and use of heat pump systems and heat pump water heaters that are used in commercial or residential buildings are exempt from taxation under parts 1 and 2 of this article 26.

(4) (a) (I)  To be eligible for the sales and use tax exemption pursuant to this

section, the purchaser of a heat pump system or heat pump water heater shall certify, as specified in subsection (4)(b) of this section, that all necessary mechanical, plumbing, and electrical work performed in connection with the installation of a heat pump system or heat pump water heater in a new or existing industrial, commercial, or multifamily residential building containing twenty thousand square feet or more of conditioned floor space will be performed by a contractor on the certified contractor list created pursuant to section 40-3.2-105.6 (3)(a), or by employees of a utility, subject to state licensing requirements and all applicable state and local rules, codes, and standards.

(II)  The requirements of this subsection (4)(a) do not apply to the installation

of a heat pump system or heat pump water heater that is limited to in-unit work in a multifamily building or unit and that is initiated by the owner or tenant of the multifamily building or unit.

(b)  The purchaser shall certify, in a form and manner to be determined by the

department of revenue, that the heat pump system or heat pump water heater will be installed in accordance with the provisions of subsection (4)(a) of this section, if applicable.

(5)  This section is repealed, effective January 1, 2027.


Source: L. 2022: Entire section added, (SB 22-051), ch. 333, p. 2352, � 4,

effective August 10. L. 2023: (3) and (5) amended, (HB 23-1272), ch. 167, p. 808, � 12, effective May 11.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in HB 23-1272, see section 1

of chapter 167, Session Laws of Colorado 2023.


C.R.S. § 4-9-102

4-9-102. Definitions and index of definitions. (a) In this article 9:

(1)  Accession means goods that are physically united with other goods in

such a manner that the identity of the original goods is not lost.

(2)  Account, except as used in account for, account statement,

account to, commodity account in subsection (a)(14) of this section, customer's account, deposit account in subsection (a)(29) of this section, on account of, and statement of account, means a right to payment of a monetary obligation, whether or not earned by performance, (i) for property that has been or is to be sold, leased, licensed, assigned, or otherwise disposed of; (ii) for services rendered or to be rendered; (iii) for a policy of insurance issued or to be issued; (iv) for a secondary obligation incurred or to be incurred; (v) for energy provided or to be provided; (vi) for the use or hire of a vessel under a charter or other contract; (vii) arising out of the use of a credit or charge card or information contained on or for use with the card; or (viii) as winnings in a lottery or other game of chance operated or sponsored by a state, governmental unit of a state, or person licensed or authorized to operate the game by a state or governmental unit of a state. The term includes controllable accounts and health-care-insurance receivables. The term does not include (i) chattel paper; (ii) commercial tort claims; (iii) deposit accounts; (iv) investment property; (v) letter-of-credit rights or letters of credit; (vi) rights to payment for money or funds advanced or sold, other than rights arising out of the use of a credit or charge card or information contained on or for use with the card; or (vii) rights to payment evidenced by an instrument.

(3)  Account debtor means a person obligated on an account, chattel paper,

or general intangible. The term does not include persons obligated to pay a negotiable instrument, even if the negotiable instrument evidences chattel paper.

(4)  Accounting, except as used in accounting for, means a record:


(A)  Signed by a secured party;


(B)  Indicating the aggregate unpaid secured obligations as of a date not

more than thirty-five days earlier or thirty-five days later than the date of the record; and

(C)  Identifying the components of the obligations in reasonable detail.


(5)  Agricultural lien means an interest in farm products:


(A)  Which secures payment or performance of an obligation for:


(i)  Goods or services furnished in connection with a debtor's farming

operation; or

(ii)  Rent on real property leased by a debtor in connection with its farming

operation;

(B)  Which is created by statute in favor of a person that:


(i)  In the ordinary course of its business furnished goods or services to a

debtor in connection with a debtor's farming operation; or

(ii)  Leased real property to a debtor in connection with the debtor's farming

operation; and

(C)  Whose effectiveness does not depend on the person's possession of the

personal property.

(6)  As-extracted collateral means:


(A)  Oil, gas, minerals, or other substances of value that may be extracted

from the earth that are subject to a security interest that:

(i)  Is created by a debtor having an interest in the minerals or such other

substances before extraction; and

(ii)  Attaches to the minerals or such other substances as extracted; or


(B)  Accounts arising out of the sale at the wellhead or minehead of oil, gas,

minerals, or other substances of value that may be extracted from the earth in which the debtor had an interest before extraction.

(7)  Repealed.


(7.3)  Assignee, except as used in assignee for benefit of creditors, means

a person (i) in whose favor a security interest that secures an obligation is created or provided for under a security agreement, whether or not the obligation is outstanding or (ii) to which an account, chattel paper, payment intangible, or promissory note has been sold. The term includes a person to which a security interest has been transferred by a secured party.

(7.5)  Assignor means a person that (i) under a security agreement creates

or provides for a security interest that secures an obligation or (ii) sells an account, chattel paper, payment intangible, or promissory note. The term includes a secured party that has transferred a security interest to another person.

(8)  Bank means an organization that is engaged in the business of banking.

The term includes savings banks, savings and loan associations, credit unions, and trust companies.

(8.5)  Business day means any day other than Saturday, Sunday, or a state

of Colorado or federal legal holiday.

(9)  Cash proceeds means proceeds that are money, checks, deposit

accounts, or the like.

(10)  Certificate of title means a certificate of title with respect to which a

statute provides for the security interest in question to be indicated on the certificate as a condition or result of the security interest's obtaining priority over the rights of a lien creditor with respect to the collateral. The term includes another record maintained as an alternative to a certificate of title by the governmental unit that issues certificates of title if a statute permits the security interest in question to be indicated on the record as a condition or result of the security interest's obtaining priority over the rights of a lien creditor with respect to the collateral.

(11)  Chattel paper means:


(A)  A right to payment of a monetary obligation secured by specific goods, if

the right to payment and security agreement are evidenced by a record; or

(B)  A right to payment of a monetary obligation owed by a lessee under a

lease agreement with respect to specific goods and a monetary obligation owed by the lessee in connection with the transaction giving rise to the lease, if:

(i)  The right to payment and lease agreement are evidenced by a record; and


(ii)  The predominant purpose of the transaction giving rise to the lease was

to give the lessee the right to possession and use of the goods. The term does not include a right to payment arising out of a charter or other contract involving the use or hire of a vessel or a right to payment arising out of the use of a credit or charge card or information contained on or for use with the card.

(12)  Collateral means the property subject to a security interest or

agricultural lien. The term includes:

(A)  Proceeds to which a security interest attaches;


(B)  Accounts, chattel paper, payment intangibles, and promissory notes that

have been sold; and

(C)  Goods that are the subject of a consignment.


(13)  Commercial tort claim means a claim arising in tort with respect to

which:

(A)  The claimant is an organization; or


(B)  The claimant is an individual and the claim:


(i)  Arose in the course of the claimant's business or profession; and


(ii)  Does not include damages arising out of personal injury to or the death of

an individual.

(14)  Commodity account means an account maintained by a commodity

intermediary in which a commodity contract is carried for a commodity customer.

(15)  Commodity contract means a commodity futures contract, an option

on a commodity futures contract, a commodity option, or another contract if the contract or option is:

(A)  Traded on or subject to the rules of a board of trade that has been

designated as a contract market for such a contract pursuant to federal commodities laws; or

(B)  Traded on a foreign commodity board of trade, exchange, or market, and

is carried on the books of a commodity intermediary for a commodity customer.

(16)  Commodity customer means a person for which a commodity

intermediary carries a commodity contract on its books.

(17)  Commodity intermediary means a person that:


(A)  Is registered as a futures commission merchant under federal

commodities law; or

(B)  In the ordinary course of its business provides clearance or settlement

services for a board of trade that has been designated as a contract market pursuant to federal commodities law.

(18)  Communicate means:


(A)  To send a written or other tangible record;


(B)  To transmit a record by any means agreed upon by the persons sending

and receiving the record; or

(C)  In the case of transmission of a record to or by a filing office, to transmit

a record by any means prescribed by filing-office rule.

(19)  Consignee means a merchant to which goods are delivered in a

consignment.

(20)  Consignment means a transaction, regardless of its form, in which a

person delivers goods to a merchant for the purpose of sale and:

(A)  The merchant:


(i)  Deals in goods of that kind under a name other than the name of the

person making delivery;

(ii)  Is not an auctioneer; and


(iii)  Is not generally known by its creditors to be substantially engaged in

selling the goods of others;

(B)  With respect to each delivery, the aggregate value of the goods is one

thousand dollars or more at the time of delivery;

(C)  The goods are not consumer goods immediately before delivery; and


(D)  The transaction does not create a security interest that secures an

obligation.

(21)  Consignor means a person that delivers goods to a consignee in a

consignment.

(22)  Consumer debtor means a debtor in a consumer transaction.


(22.5)  Consumer deposit account means a deposit account held in the

name of one or more natural persons and used by him, her, or them primarily for personal, family, or household purposes.

(23)  Consumer goods means goods that are used or bought for use

primarily for personal, family, or household purposes.

(24)  Consumer-goods transaction means a consumer transaction in which:


(A)  An individual incurs an obligation primarily for personal, family, or

household purposes; and

(B)  A security interest in consumer goods secures the obligation.


(25)  Consumer obligor means an obligor who is an individual and who

incurred the obligation as part of a transaction entered into primarily for personal, family, or household purposes.

(26)  Consumer transaction means a transaction in which (i) an individual

incurs an obligation primarily for personal, family, or household purposes, (ii) a security interest secures the obligation, and (iii) the collateral is held or acquired primarily for personal, family, or household purposes. The term includes consumer-goods transactions.

(27)  Continuation statement means an amendment of a financing

statement which:

(A)  Identifies, by its file number, the initial financing statement to which it

relates; and

(B)  Indicates that it is a continuation statement for, or that it is filed to

continue the effectiveness of, the identified financing statement.

(27.5)  Controllable account means an account evidenced by a controllable

electronic record that provides that the account debtor undertakes to pay the person that has control under section 4-12-105 of the controllable electronic record.

(27.7)  Controllable payment intangible means a payment intangible

evidenced by a controllable electronic record that provides that the account debtor undertakes to pay the person that has control under section 4-12-105 of the controllable electronic record.

(28)  Debtor means:


(A)  A person having an interest, other than a security interest or other lien, in

the collateral, whether or not the person is an obligor;

(B)  A seller of accounts, chattel paper, payment intangibles, or promissory

notes; or

(C)  A consignee.


(29)  Deposit account means a demand, time, savings, passbook, or similar

account maintained with a bank. The term does not include investment property or accounts evidenced by an instrument.

(30)  Document means a document of title or a receipt of the type

described in section 4-7-201 (b).

(31)  Repealed.


(32)  Encumbrance means a right, other than an ownership interest, in real

property. The term includes mortgages and other liens on real property.

(33)  Equipment means goods other than inventory, farm products, or

consumer goods.

(34)  Farm products means goods, other than standing timber, with respect

to which the debtor is engaged in a farming operation and which are:

(A)  Crops grown, growing, or to be grown, including:


(i)  Crops produced on trees, vines, and bushes; and


(ii)  Aquatic goods produced in aquacultural operations;


(B)  Livestock, born or unborn, including aquatic goods produced in

aquacultural operations;

(C)  Supplies used or produced in a farming operation; or


(D)  Products of crops or livestock in their unmanufactured states.


(35)  Farming operation means raising, cultivating, propagating, fattening,

grazing, or any other farming, livestock, or aquacultural operation.

(36)  File number means the number assigned to an initial financing

statement pursuant to section 4-9-519 (a).

(37)  Filing office means an office designated in section 4-9-501 as the

place to file a financing statement.

(38)  Filing-office rule means a rule adopted pursuant to section 4-9-526.


(39)  Financing statement means a record or records composed of an initial

financing statement and any filed record relating to the initial financing statement.

(40)  Fixture filing means the filing of a financing statement covering goods

that are or are to become fixtures and satisfying section 4-9-502 (a) and (b). The term includes the filing of a financing statement covering goods of a transmitting utility which are or are to become fixtures.

(41)  Fixtures means goods that have become so related to particular real

property that an interest in them arises under real property law.

(42)  General intangible means any personal property, including things in

action, other than accounts, chattel paper, commercial tort claims, deposit accounts, documents, goods, instruments, investment property, letter-of-credit rights, letters of credit, money, and oil, gas, or other minerals before extraction. The term includes controllable electronic records, payment intangibles, and software.

(43)  Good faith means honesty in fact and the observance of reasonable

commercial standards of fair dealing.

(44)  Goods means all things that are movable when a security interest

attaches. The term includes (i) fixtures, (ii) standing timber that is to be cut and removed under a conveyance or contract for sale, (iii) the unborn young of animals, (iv) crops grown, growing, or to be grown, even if the crops are produced on trees, vines, or bushes, and (v) manufactured homes. The term also includes a computer program embedded in goods and any supporting information provided in connection with a transaction relating to the program if (i) the program is associated with the goods in such a manner that it customarily is considered part of the goods, or (ii) by becoming the owner of the goods, a person acquires a right to use the program in connection with the goods. The term does not include a computer program embedded in goods that consist solely of the medium in which the program is embedded. The term also does not include accounts, chattel paper, commercial tort claims, deposit accounts, documents, general intangibles, instruments, investment property, letter-of-credit rights, letters of credit, money, or oil, gas, or other minerals before extraction.

(45)  Governmental unit means a subdivision, agency, department, county,

parish, municipality, or other unit of the government of the United States, a state, or a foreign country. The term includes an organization having a separate corporate existence if the organization is eligible to issue debt on which interest is exempt from income taxation under the laws of the United States.

(46)  Health-care-insurance receivable means an interest in or claim under

a policy of insurance that is a right to payment of a monetary obligation for health-care goods or services provided or to be provided.

(47)  Instrument means a negotiable instrument or any other writing that

evidences a right to the payment of a monetary obligation, is not itself a security agreement or lease, and is of a type that in the ordinary course of business is transferred by delivery with any necessary indorsement or assignment. The term does not include (i) investment property; (ii) letters of credit; (iii) writings that evidence a right to payment arising out of the use of a credit or charge card or information contained on or for use with the card; or (iv) writings that evidence chattel paper.

(48)  Inventory means goods, other than farm products, which:


(A)  Are leased by a person as lessor;


(B)  Are held by a person for sale or lease or to be furnished under a contract

of service;

(C)  Are furnished by a person under a contract of service; or


(D)  Consist of raw materials, work in process, or materials used or consumed

in a business.

(49)  Investment property means a security, whether certificated or

uncertificated, security entitlement, securities account, commodity contract, or commodity account.

(50)  Jurisdiction of organization, with respect to a registered organization,

means the jurisdiction under whose law the organization is organized.

(51)  Letter-of-credit right means a right to payment or performance under

a letter of credit, whether or not the beneficiary has demanded or is at the time entitled to demand payment or performance. The term does not include the right of a beneficiary to demand payment or performance under a letter of credit.

(52)  Lien creditor means:


(A)  A creditor that has acquired a lien on the property involved by

attachment, levy, or the like;

(B)  An assignee for benefit of creditors from the time of assignment;


(C)  A trustee in bankruptcy from the date of the filing of the petition; or


(D)  A receiver in equity from the time of appointment.


(53)  Manufactured home means a structure, transportable in one or more

sections, which, in the traveling mode, is eight body feet or more in width or forty body feet or more in length, or, when erected on site, is three hundred twenty or more square feet, and which is built on a permanent chassis and designed to be used as a dwelling with or without a permanent foundation when connected to the required utilities, and includes the plumbing, heating, air-conditioning, and electrical systems contained therein. The term includes any structure that meets all of the requirements of this paragraph (53) except the size requirements and with respect to which the manufacturer voluntarily files a certification required by the United States secretary of housing and urban development and complies with the standards established under Title 42 of the United States Code.

(54)  Manufactured-home transaction means a secured transaction:


(A)  That creates a purchase-money security interest in a manufactured

home, other than a manufactured home held as inventory; or

(B)  In which a manufactured home, other than a manufactured home held as

inventory, is the primary collateral.

(54.5)  Money has the meaning in section 4-1-201 (b)(23), but does not

include a deposit account.

(55)  Mortgage means a consensual interest in real property, including

fixtures, which secures payment or performance of an obligation.

(56)  New debtor means a person that becomes bound as debtor under

section 4-9-203 (d) by a security agreement previously entered into by another person.

(57)  New value means (i) money, (ii) money's worth in property, services, or

new credit, or (iii) release by a transferee of an interest in property previously transferred to the transferee. The term does not include an obligation substituted for another obligation.

(58)  Noncash proceeds means proceeds other than cash proceeds.


(59)  Obligor means a person that, with respect to an obligation secured by

a security interest in or an agricultural lien on the collateral, (i) owes payment or other performance of the obligation, (ii) has provided property other than the collateral to secure payment or other performance of the obligation, or (iii) is otherwise accountable in whole or in part for payment or other performance of the obligation. The term does not include issuers or nominated persons under a letter of credit.

(60)  Original debtor, except as used in section 4-9-310 (c), means a person

that, as debtor, entered into a security agreement to which a new debtor has become bound under section 4-9-203 (d).

(61)  Payment intangible means a general intangible under which the

account debtor's principal obligation is a monetary obligation. The term includes a controllable payment intangible.

(62)  Person related to, with respect to an individual, means:


(A)  The spouse of the individual;


(B)  A brother, brother-in-law, sister, or sister-in-law of the individual;


(C)  An ancestor or lineal descendant of the individual or the individual's

spouse; or

(D)  Any other relative, by blood or marriage, of the individual or the

individual's spouse who shares the same home with the individual.

(63)  Person related to, with respect to an organization, means:


(A)  A person directly or indirectly controlling, controlled by, or under

common control with the organization;

(B)  An officer or director of, or a person performing similar functions with

respect to, the organization;

(C)  An officer or director of, or a person performing similar functions with

respect to, a person described in subparagraph (A) of this paragraph (63);

(D)  The spouse of an individual described in subparagraph (A), (B), or (C) of

this paragraph (63); or

(E)  An individual who is related by blood or marriage to an individual

described in subparagraph (A), (B), (C), or (D) of this paragraph (63) and shares the same home with the individual.

(64)  Proceeds, except as used in section 4-9-609 (b), means the following

property:

(A)  Whatever is acquired upon the sale, lease, license, exchange, or other

disposition of collateral;

(B)  Whatever is collected on, or distributed on account of, collateral;


(C)  Rights arising out of collateral;


(D)  To the extent of the value of collateral, claims arising out of the loss,

nonconformity, or interference with the use of, defects or infringement of rights in, or damage to, the collateral; or

(E)  To the extent of the value of collateral and to the extent payable to the

debtor or the secured party, insurance payable by reason of the loss or nonconformity of, defects or infringement of rights in, or damage to, the collateral.

(65)  Promissory note means an instrument that evidences a promise to pay

a monetary obligation, does not evidence an order to pay, and does not contain an acknowledgment by a bank that the bank has received for deposit a sum of money or funds.

(66)  Proposal means a record signed by a secured party which includes the

terms on which the secured party is willing to accept collateral in full or partial satisfaction of the obligation it secures pursuant to sections 4-9-620, 4-9-621, and 4-9-622.

(67)  Reserved.


(68)  Public organic record means a record that is available to the public for

inspection and is:

(A)  A record consisting of the record initially filed with or issued by a state or

the United States to form or organize an organization and any record filed with or issued by the state or the United States that amends or restates the initial record;

(B)  An organic record of a business trust consisting of the record initially

filed with a state and any record filed with the state that amends or restates the initial record, if a statute of the state governing business trusts requires that the record be filed with the state; or

(C)  A record consisting of legislation enacted by the legislature of a state or

the congress of the United States that forms or organizes an organization, any record amending the legislation, and any record filed with or issued by the state or the United States that amends or restates the name of the organization.

(69)  Repealed.


(70)  Reserved.


(71)  Pursuant to commitment, with respect to an advance made or other

value given by a secured party, means pursuant to the secured party's obligation, whether or not a subsequent event of default or other event not within the secured party's control has relieved or may relieve the secured party from its obligation.

(72)  Record, except as used in for record, of record, record or legal

title, and record owner, means information that is inscribed on a tangible medium or which is stored in an electronic or other medium and is retrievable in perceivable form.

(73)  Registered organization means an organization formed or organized

solely under the law of a single state or the United States by the filing of a public organic record with, the issuance of a public organic record by, or the enactment of legislation by the state or the United States. The term includes a business trust that is formed or organized under the law of a single state if a statute of the state governing business trusts requires that the business trust's organic record be filed with the state.

(74)  Secondary obligor means an obligor to the extent that:


(A)  The obligor's obligation is secondary; or


(B)  The obligor has a right of recourse with respect to an obligation secured

by collateral against the debtor, another obligor, or property of either.

(75)  Secured party means:


(A)  A person in whose favor a security interest is created or provided for

under a security agreement, whether or not any obligation to be secured is outstanding;

(B)  A person that holds an agricultural lien;


(C)  A consignor;


(D)  A person to which accounts, chattel paper, payment intangibles, or

promissory notes have been sold;

(E)  A trustee, indenture trustee, agent, collateral agent, or other

representative in whose favor a security interest or agricultural lien is created or provided for; or

(F)  A person that holds a security interest arising under section 4-2-401, 4-2-505, 4-2-711 (3), 4-2.5-508 (5), 4-4-210, or 4-5-117.5.


(76)  Security agreement means an agreement that creates or provides for

a security interest.

(77)  Repealed.


(78)  Software means a computer program and any supporting information

provided in connection with a transaction relating to the program. The term does not include a computer program that is included in the definition of goods.

(79)  State means a state of the United States, the District of Columbia,

Puerto Rico, the United States Virgin Islands, or any territory or insular possession subject to the jurisdiction of the United States.

(80)  Supporting obligation means a letter-of-credit right or secondary

obligation that supports the payment or performance of an account, chattel paper, a document, a general intangible, an instrument, or investment property.

(81)  Repealed.


(82)  Termination statement means an amendment of a financing statement

which:

(A)  Identifies, by its file number, the initial financing statement to which it

relates; and

(B)  Indicates either that it is a termination statement or that the identified

financing statement is no longer effective.

(83)  Transmitting utility means a person primarily engaged in the business

of:

(A)  Operating a railroad, subway, street railway, or trolley bus;


(B)  Transmitting communications electrically, electromagnetically, or by

light;

(C)  Transmitting goods by pipeline or sewer; or


(D)  Transmitting or producing and transmitting electricity, steam, gas, or

water.

(b)  Control as provided in section 4-7-106 and the following definitions in

other articles apply to this article 9:

ApplicantSection 4-5-102.


BeneficiarySection 4-5-102.


BrokerSection 4-8-102.


Certificated securitySection 4-8-102.


CheckSection 4-3-104.


Clearing corporationSection 4-8-102.


Contract for saleSection 4-2-106.


Controllable electronic recordSection 4-12-102.


CustomerSection 4-4-104.


Entitlement holderSection 4-8-102.


Financial assetSection 4-8-102.


Holder in due courseSection 4-3-302.


Issuer (with respect to a letter of credit or


letter-of-credit right)Section 4-5-102.


Issuer (with respect to a security)Section 4-8-201.


Issuer (with respect to documents of title)Section 4-7-102.


LeaseSection 4-2.5-103.


Lease agreementSection 4-2.5-103.


Lease contractSection 4-2.5-103.


Leasehold interestSection 4-2.5-103.


LesseeSection 4-2.5-103.


Lessee in ordinary course of businessSection 4-2.5-103.


LessorSection 4-2.5-103.


Lessor's residual interestSection 4-2.5-103.


Letter of creditSection 4-5-102.


MerchantSection 4-2-104.


Negotiable instrumentSection 4-3-104.


Nominated personSection 4-5-102.


NoteSection 4-3-104.


Proceeds of a letter of creditSection 4-5-114.


Protected purchaserSection 4-8-303.


ProveSection 4-3-103.


Qualifying purchaserSection 4-12-102.


SaleSection 4-2-106.


Securities accountSection 4-8-501.


Securities intermediarySection 4-8-102.


SecuritySection 4-8-102.


Security certificateSection 4-8-102.


Security entitlementSection 4-8-102.


Uncertificated securitySection 4-8-102.


(c)  Article 1 of this title contains general definitions and principles of

construction and interpretation applicable throughout this article.

Source: L. 2001: Entire article R&RE, p. 1313, � 1, effective July 1. L. 2002:

IP(a)(5) and (a)(46) amended, p. 937, � 1, effective August 7. L. 2004: (a)(77) amended, p. 1187, � 5, effective August 4. L. 2006: (a)(30) and (b) amended, p. 498, � 33, effective September 1. L. 2007: (b) amended, p. 376, � 30, effective August 3. L. 2012: (a)(7)(B), (a)(10), (a)(68), and (a)(73) amended and (a)(65) and (a)(66) added, (HB 12-1262), ch. 170, p. 595, � 1, effective July 1, 2013, and (a)(69)(B) added by revision, (HB 12-1262), ch. 170, pp. 595, 609, �� 1, 18. L. 2023: IP(a), (a)(2), (a)(3), (a)(4)(A), (a)(11), (a)(42), (a)(47), (a)(61), (a)(66), and (b) amended, (a)(7), (a)(31), (a)(77), and (a)(81) repealed, and (a)(7.3), (a)(7.5), (a)(27.5), (a)(27.7), and (a)(54.5) added, (SB 23-090), ch. 136, p. 539, � 42, effective August 7.

Editor's note: (1)  The provisions of this section are similar to provisions of

several former sections as they existed prior to 2001. For a detailed comparison, see the comparative tables located in the back of the index.

(2)  Colorado legislative change: Colorado substituted the phrase Oil, gas,

minerals, or other substances of value that may be extracted from the earth for the phrase Oil, gas, or other minerals in subsection (a)(6) and added subsection (a)(8.5). Colorado added clause (ii) in subsection (a)(11), added subsection (a)(22.5), added the phrase except as used in section 4-9-310 (c), in subsection (a)(60), and added the phrase except as used in section 4-9-609 (b), in subsection (a)(64). Colorado reserved three definitional subsections, (a)(65) through (a)(67); all subsequent definitions are numbered correspondingly different from the uniform act. Colorado did not adopt the definition of a public finance transaction.

(3)  Subsections (65) and (66) are similar to subsections (68) and (69),

respectively, as they existed prior to 2012.

(4)  Subsection (a)(69)(B) provided for the repeal of subsection (69), effective

July 1, 2013. (See L. 2012, pp. 595, 609.)

Cross references: For offenses relating to account, see � 18-5-502.

C.R.S. § 40-1-102

40-1-102. Definitions. As used in articles 1 to 7 of this title 40, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1)  Alternative fuel vehicle means any automobile, truck, motor bus, boat,

airplane, train, tractor, or other type of motorized off-highway equipment or other self-propelled device or vessel that is capable of moving itself or being moved from place to place utilizing, in whole or in part, liquefied petroleum gas, natural gas, electricity, or a combination of natural gas and electricity as transportation fuel, whether or not the vehicle is used in agricultural, commercial, domestic, or industrial operations.

(1.1)  Behind-the-meter thermal renewable source means a technology

through which a utility customer accesses a renewable heating or cooling source to serve the customer's electric or heating needs for one or more end uses, including water heating, space heating or cooling, or industrial processes.

(1.2) (a)  Beneficial electrification means converting the energy source of a

customer's end use from a nonelectric fuel source to a high-efficiency electric source, or avoiding the use of nonelectric fuel sources in new construction or industrial applications, if the result of the conversion or avoidance is to:

(I)  Reduce net greenhouse gas emissions over the lifetime of the conversion

or avoidance; and

(II)  Reduce societal costs or provide for more efficient utilization of grid

resources.

(b)  Beneficial electrification does not include:


(I)  Retail distributed generation, as defined in section 40-2-124 (1)(a)(VIII); or


(II)  An energy storage system, as defined in section 40-2-130 (2)(a).


(1.3)  Certificate of completion means an attestation that an

interconnection customer submits to a public utility to confirm that a retail distributed generation resource has been properly inspected or otherwise certified to meet the safe operation requirements of a local government's building code enforcement authority.

(1.4)  Charge includes any consideration, however denominated, paid or

provided by a retail cooperative electric association to a wholesale electric cooperative in connection with an agreement by which the retail cooperative electric association terminates a wholesale electric service contract with the wholesale electric cooperative.

(1.5)  Commission means the public utilities commission of the state of

Colorado.

(2)  Commissioner means one of the members of the commission.


(3) (a)  Common carrier means:


(I)  Every person directly or indirectly affording a means of transportation, or

any service or facility in connection therewith, within this state by motor vehicle or other vehicle whatever by indiscriminately accepting and carrying passengers for compensation; and

(II)  Every person affording a means of transportation within this state by

railroad by indiscriminately accepting and carrying for compensation passengers or property.

(b)  Common carrier does not include a motor carrier that provides

transportation not subject to regulation pursuant to section 40-10.1-105, a motor carrier that is subject to part 3, 4, 5, or 7 of article 10.1 of this title 40, a transportation network company, as defined in section 40-10.1-602 (3), or a transportation network company driver, as defined in section 40-10.1-602 (4).

(4)  Compensation means any money, property, service, or thing of value

charged or received, or to be charged or received, whether directly or indirectly.

(5) (a)  Cost-effective, with reference to a natural gas or electric demand-side management program, a beneficial electrification program, or any measure

related to either a demand-side management or beneficial electrification program, means having a benefit-cost ratio greater than one.

(b)  In calculating the benefit-cost ratio, the benefits must include, in a base

case, the following, as applicable:

(I)  The utility's avoided generation, transmission, distribution, capacity, and

energy costs;

(II)  The valuation of avoided greenhouse gas emissions, calculated as the

social cost of carbon dioxide in accordance with sections 40-3.2-106 and 40-3.2-107 and the social cost of methane in accordance with section 40-3.2-107, as separate items in the cost-benefit calculation; and

(III)  Other costs or benefits as determined by the commission.


(c)  In calculating the benefit-cost ratio, the costs must include utility and

participant expenditures for the following, as applicable:

(I)  Program design, administration, evaluation, advertising, and promotion;


(II)  Customer education;


(III)  Incentives and discounts;


(IV)  Capital costs; and


(V)  Operation and maintenance expenses.


(d)  In addition to the base case analysis of cost-effectiveness described in

subsection (5)(b) of this section, a utility may provide a case that does not include the social costs of methane and carbon dioxide.

(6)  Demand-side management programs or DSM programs means any of

the following programs or combination of programs:

(a)  Energy efficiency, including weatherization and insulation;


(b)  Conservation;


(c)  Load management;


(d)  Beneficial electrification, as defined in subsection (1.2) of this section; and


(e)  Demand response programs.


(6.5)  Disproportionately impacted community has the meaning set forth in

section 24-4-109 (2)(b)(II).

(7)  Education program means a program, including, but not limited to, an

energy audit, that contributes indirectly to a cost-effective demand-side management program. Education programs shall not be subject to independent cost-effectiveness requirements.

(8)  Full service customer means a residential or commercial customer that

purchases natural gas or electric supply from an investor-owned utility.

(8.2)  Interconnection agreement means an agreement between a public

utility and an interconnection customer to interconnect a retail distributed generation resource to the utility system.

(8.3) (a)  Interconnection customer means an entity that proposes to

interconnect a retail distributed generation resource on the distribution system of a public utility.

(b)  Interconnection customer includes an affiliate or a subsidiary of a

public utility that proposes to interconnect a retail distributed generation resource to the public utility's system.

(8.5)  Meter collar adapter means a device that is installed between the

electric meter and the meter socket box on a utility customer's premises and that has electrical connection points both electrically upstream and electrically downstream of the meter.

(9)  Net present value of revenue requirements means the current worth of

the expected stream of future revenue requirements associated with a particular resource portfolio, expressed in dollars in the year the plan is filed. To determine the current worth of the expected stream of future revenue requirements, a discount rate at the utility's weighted average cost of capital shall be applied to the expected stream of future revenue requirements.

(10)  Person means any individual, firm, partnership, corporation, company,

association, joint stock association, and other legal entity.

(11)  Renewable energy means useful electrical, thermal, or mechanical

energy converted directly or indirectly from resources of continuous energy flow or that are perpetually replenished and whose utilization is sustainable indefinitely. The term includes, without limitation, sunlight, the wind, geothermal energy, hydrodynamic forces, and organic matter available on a renewable basis such as forest residues, agricultural crops and wastes, wood and wood wastes, animal wastes, livestock operation residue, aquatic plants, and municipal wastes.

(12)  Technical support document means the 2016 technical support

document of the federal interagency working group on social cost of greenhouse gases, entitled Technical Update of the Social Cost of Carbon for Regulatory Impact Analysis Under Executive Order 12866.

Source: L. 13: p. 464, � 2. L. 15: p. 393, � 1. C.L. � 2912. CSA: C. 137, � 2. CRS

53: � 115-1-2. C.R.S. 1963: � 115-1-2. L. 69: p. 927, � 1. L. 79: (3) amended, p. 1561, � 28, effective June 20. L. 80: (3) amended, p. 742, � 1, effective June 30. L. 84: (3) amended, p. 1051, � 2, effective April 12. L. 85: (3) amended, p. 1307, � 2, effective May 29. L. 94: (6) added, p. 611, � 2, effective April 8. L. 95: (3) amended, p. 1209, � 21, effective May 31. L. 96: (3) amended, p. 143, � 1, effective April 8. L. 2004: (3)(b) amended, p. 905, � 31, effective May 21. L. 2007: (5) and (6) amended and (7) to (11) added, p. 982, � 1, effective May 22. L. 2011: (3)(a)(I) and (3)(b) amended, (HB 11-1198), ch. 127, p. 418, � 11, effective August 10. L. 2012: (1) amended and (1.5) added, (HB 12-1258), ch. 147, p. 529, � 1, effective August 8. L. 2014: (3)(b) amended, (SB 14-125), ch. 323, p. 1408, � 1, effective June 5. L. 2018: IP and (3)(b) amended, (HB 18-1320), ch. 363, p. 2164, � 1, effective August 8. L. 2020: (1.3) added, (HB 20-1225), ch. 94, p. 372, � 2, effective March 27. L. 2021: (8.5) added, (SB 21-261), ch. 280, p. 1617, � 2, effective June 21; (1.1) added and (5) and (6) amended, (HB 21-1238), ch. 330, p. 2131, � 2, effective September 7; (1.2) and (12) added and (5)(a) amended, (SB 21-246), ch. 283, p. 1676, � 3, effective September 7. L. 2023: (6.5) added, (HB 23-1233), ch. 245, p. 1333, � 19, effective May 23; (1.3) amended and (1.4), (8.2), and (8.3) added, (SB 23-016), ch. 165, p. 743, � 15, effective August 7.

Editor's note: Amendments to subsection (5) by HB 21-1238 and SB 21-246

were harmonized.

Cross references: (1)  For further definition of common carriers, see � 40-9-102.


(2)  For the legislative declaration contained in the 1994 act amending this

section, see section 1 of chapter 102, Session Laws of Colorado 1994. For the legislative declaration in HB 20-1225, see section 1 of chapter 94, Session Laws of Colorado 2020. For the legislative declaration in SB 21-261, see section 1 of chapter 280, Session Laws of Colorado 2021. For the legislative declaration in HB 21-1238, see section 1 of chapter 330, Session Laws of Colorado 2021. For the legislative declaration in SB 21-246, see section 1 of chapter 283, Session Laws of Colorado 2021. For the legislative declaration in HB 23-1233, see section 1 of chapter 245, Session Laws of Colorado 2023.


C.R.S. § 40-2-132.5

40-2-132.5. Distribution system planning - grant program - cash fund - requirements - study - staffing - labor - cost recovery - virtual power plant program - undergrounding of power lines - report - rules - legislative declaration - definitions - repeal. (1) Legislative declaration. (a) The general assembly finds that:

(I)  Distribution system planning requirements for investor-owned utilities

were established by Senate Bill 19-236, enacted in 2019;

(II)  The commission's distribution system planning rules and plans

established pursuant to Senate Bill 19-236, enacted in 2019, have provided a forum for planning the distribution system in order to support state policy goals based on current information about utility systems and proactive planning, although considerable work remains and customers are increasingly challenged by distribution system constraints;

(III)  Colorado has goals of cost-effectively and reliably reducing greenhouse

gas emissions from transportation, electricity generation, building heating and cooling, water heating, and industrial fuel uses. To affordably and reliably reduce emissions from these uses as well as to meet federal, state, regional, and local air quality and decarbonization targets, standards, plans, and regulations, the state will need to rapidly shift customer end uses from fossil fuels to a cleaner electrical grid, which will drive a large increase in electricity demand.

(IV)  Consumer demand for distributed energy resources, electric vehicles,

and beneficial electrification measures is expected to increase dramatically given state incentives and new rebates and incentives in the federal Inflation Reduction Act of 2022, Pub.L. 117-169;

(V)  Customer demand for electric power may start exceeding qualifying

retail utility capacity on the distribution system in certain locations;

(VI)  To affordably and reliably meet federal, state, regional, and local air

quality and decarbonization targets, standards, plans, and regulations, the state's electricity distribution systems must be substantially and strategically upgraded, new customers must be able to connect to the electrical distribution system, and existing customers must have their service levels promptly upgraded;

(VII)  The state has an urgent need to increase its supply of affordable and

infill housing, requiring both new electrical distribution capacity and the prompt connection of new affordable housing to the distribution system;

(VIII)  Improved and proactive distribution system planning to reduce delays

and meet building, affordable housing, and transportation electrification needs in an affordable and reliable manner is critical to protect Coloradans from the worst impacts of climate change, including extreme heat or cold, drought, and wildfires;

(IX)  Electrifying transportation and buildings may put downward pressure on

rates by spreading fixed costs over more kilowatt-hours of usage so long as demand and supply can be dynamically integrated in ways that encourage utility investment in an affordable and reliable system that optimizes the use of grid assets;

(X)  Constraints in the capacity of the electrical distribution system can limit

the ability of an individual customer to cost-effectively and reliably interconnect distributed energy resources and energize beneficial electrification and transportation electrification resources; and

(XI)  Virtual power plants can offer the potential to cost-effectively and

reliably increase the grid value of distributed energy resources, limit costs for incorporating distributed energy resources, and increase the operational efficiency of the distribution system.

(b)  The general assembly further finds that:


(I)  A modern electric distribution system should take into account the need

for improved resilience and safety due to the increased occurrence of extreme weather events and climate-related wildfire risk;

(II)  Undergrounding power lines can significantly help in avoiding the risk of

wildfires and power outages due to strong winds, severe storms, and dry conditions; and

(III)  It is in the public interest that all ratepayers of a qualifying retail utility,

including those who do not live in a jurisdiction with a franchise agreement, have nondiscriminatory and equal access to the opportunity to benefit from investments in undergrounding power lines.

(c)  The general assembly therefore determines and declares that:


(I)  It is a matter of state urgency to ensure that there is sufficient capacity on

the distribution system to affordably and reliably meet Colorado's decarbonization goals and support consumer demand for retail distributed generation and beneficial electrification measures consistent with their benefit to the electrical grid;

(II)  When determining where to make undergrounding conversion

expenditures, a qualifying retail utility should not, as a policy or course of business, discriminate against jurisdictions that do not have franchise agreements with the qualifying retail utility; and

(III)  A qualifying retail utility should establish programs for nonfranchised

areas to have the same benefit under the same or similar terms as offered to areas that have franchise agreements with the qualifying retail utility.

(2)  Definitions. As used in this section, unless the context otherwise

requires:

(a)  Affordable housing means affordable housing that:


(I)  Has received loans, grants, equity, bonds, or tax credits from any source

to support the creation, preservation, or rehabilitation of affordable housing that, as a condition of funding, encumbers the property with a restricted use covenant or similar recorded agreement to ensure affordability; or has been income-restricted under a local inclusionary zoning ordinance or other regulation or program;

(II)  Restricts or limits maximum rental or sale price for households of a given

size at a given area median income, as established annually by the United States department of housing and urban development; and

(III)  Ensures occupancy by low- to moderate-income households for a

specified period detailed in a restrictive use covenant or similar recorded agreement.

(b)  Apprentice has the meaning set forth in section 8-15.7-101 (1).


(c)  Automated distributed resource management system means a category

of technologies that manage distributed generation or load and that may be used to reduce or eliminate the need for system upgrades to the distribution system, customer service connection, or electrical infrastructure on the customer side of the service meter. These technologies include:

(I)  Automated load management technologies;


(II)  Certified power control systems; and


(III)  Smart inverters.


(d)  Certified power control system means software or hardware serving as

the interface of an automated distributed resource management system that can curtail the import and export of electricity, that has electricity import and export control set points, and that has been certified by a nationally recognized testing laboratory.

(e)  Department means the department of labor and employment.


(f)  DER aggregator means a company or an organization that controls,

monitors, and manages aggregated distributed energy resources to ensure performance of the aggregated distributed energy resources in a qualifying virtual power plant.

(g)  Distributed energy resources or DER includes distributed generation,

energy storage systems, electric vehicles, microgrids, fuel cells, and demand-side management measures, including energy efficiency, demand response, and demand flexibility that are deployed at the distribution grid level on either the customer or utility side of the meter.

(h)  Distribution activities means:


(I)  Capital investment and operations and maintenance expenses associated

with equipment upgrades, repair and replacement programs, conductor replacements, conductor installations, pole repair and replacement, overhead rebuilds, inspection, modeling, asset data gathering, defect corrections, and major line rebuilds; and

(II)  Similar activities and investments, including information and operational

technology investments, with the objective of enhancing the distribution system to meet state decarbonization goals and federal, state, regional, and local air quality and decarbonization targets, standards, plans, and regulations.

(i) (I)  Energization or energize means connecting new customer load to

the electrical grid or upgrading electrical capacity to provide upgraded service to an existing customer, including establishing adequate electrical capacity to provide for the required service.

(II)  Energization or energize does not include activities related to

interconnecting distributed generation.

(j)  Energization time period means the elapsed time period beginning when

the qualifying retail utility receives a substantially complete energization project application and ending when the electrical service is installed and energized.

(k)  Flexible interconnection or energization tariff means a set of rules and

requirements for expeditiously energizing new load or interconnecting a distributed energy resource to a qualifying retail utility's distribution system and includes an agreement for curtailing the import or export of electricity from and to the distribution system.

(l)  Fund means the Colorado lineworker apprenticeship grant program cash

fund created in subsection (3)(h)(I) of this section.

(m)  Grant program means the grant program created pursuant to

subsection (3)(a) of this section.

(n)  Hosting capacity means the amount of distributed energy resources or

transportation or beneficial electrification that can be interconnected or energized to the qualifying retail utility's distribution system at a given time and at a given location under existing electrical grid conditions and that can operate without adversely impacting safety, power quality, reliability, or other operational criteria and without requiring system upgrades. Hosting capacity may be expressed in terms of a load or generation profile.

(o)  Hybrid facility means a facility that has more than one device of

different technology types for the production, storage, or consumption of electricity that are located on the same site and have a single point of interconnection to the utility distribution system.

(p)  Infill housing means the development of housing within existing

development patterns, as delineated by census urban areas established by the most recent federal decennial census.

(q)  Non-wires alternatives means the strategic deployment of distributed

energy resources by a qualifying retail utility or a third party and associated control or aggregation of systems and technologies intended to cost-effectively defer or avoid the need for major distribution grid projects.

(r)  Office means the Colorado energy office created in section 24-38.5-101

(1).

(s)  Office of future of work means the office of future of work created in

section 8-15.8-103.

(t)  Performance-based compensation means a financial payment that is

made to a qualified DER aggregator or passed through a DER aggregator to eligible customers participating in a VPP operated by that DER aggregator and that is provided based on the performance of a qualified virtual power plant during a qualified virtual power plant event.

(u)  Phased interconnection or energization agreement means an

agreement between a qualifying retail utility and a customer to provide certain levels of electrical service capacity on a guaranteed timeline in exchange for the customer participating in the qualifying retail utility's flexible interconnection or energization tariff while necessary grid upgrades are being completed.

(v)  Prosumer means a customer of a qualifying retail utility that

participates in a commission-approved virtual power plant program.

(w)  Qualified aggregator means a DER aggregator that has control over

prosumer resources and has the demonstrated technical capability to dispatch distributed energy resources at required capacity levels when called upon by a qualifying retail utility using available technology, such as metering, telemetry, control software measurement and verification, and financial settlements.

(x)  Qualifying distribution activity recovery means distribution activities for

which the commission approves recovery through the grid modernization adjustment clause.

(y)  Qualifying retail utility means an investor-owned electric utility serving

five hundred thousand customers or more.

(z)  State apprenticeship agency has the meaning set forth in section 8-15.7-101 (16).


(aa)  System upgrades means the additions, modifications, and system

upgrades to a qualifying retail utility's distribution or commission-jurisdictional transmission system, including customer-driven upgrades necessary to interconnect distributed energy resources, energize or service-connect transportation and beneficial electrification measures, or facilitate service connections to affordable housing or infill housing.

(bb)  Virtual power plant or VPP means a commission-approved program

that achieves the collective management of dispatchable demand or distributed energy resources connected to the utility distribution grid.

(3)  Grant program - report - cash fund - repeal. (a)  The office of future of

work, in coordination with the office, shall create a grant program for lineworker apprenticeship programs to expand apprenticeship programs registered with the United States department of labor's office of apprenticeship or the state apprenticeship agency.

(b)  The office of future of work shall create a competitive application

process through which the office of future of work selects eligible registered apprenticeship programs as grant recipients.

(c)  A grant recipient must satisfy, at a minimum, the following criteria:


(I)  The grant recipient must train apprentices as transmission or distribution

lineworkers on construction projects and related installations; and

(II)  The grant recipient must match the grant award with actual or in-kind

resources.

(d)  The office of future of work shall offer grants for the following purposes:


(I)  Funding for training materials or software, apprenticeship tools and

supplies, and hands-on training equipment or technology upgrades to expand registered apprenticeship programs that instruct transmission or distribution lineworkers; and

(II)  Additional staffing to expand instruction capacity of registered

apprenticeship programs to instruct transmission or distribution lineworkers.

(e)  The office of future of work shall reserve at least fifty percent of the

grant funding for grants that are directed toward programs that are organized as a multiemployer registered apprenticeship program organized through a joint apprenticeship training committee.

(f)  The office of future of work shall encourage the primary applicant for a

grant to include a diverse set of co-applicants, which may include trade associations, employers, labor union organizations, public utilities, accredited institutions of higher education, state-accredited community colleges, or other co-applicants that can advance the goals of allowing apprentices to reach full journeyworker status as a utility transmission or distribution lineworker.

(g)  The office of future of work shall:


(I)  Publish the grant application no later than January 1, 2025;


(II)  Develop performance expectations for grant recipients, which may

contemplate the termination of a grant recipient's participation in the grant program if the grant recipient fails to satisfy the performance expectations;

(III)  Require grant recipients to annually report data to the office of future of

work, which must include, at a minimum, a detailed statement of the grant recipient's allocation of grant money received pursuant to the grant program, including administration costs; and

(IV)  Beginning in 2026, and in each year thereafter, submit a report

compiling the data received pursuant to subsection (3)(g)(III) of this section to the business, labor, and technology committee of the senate and the business affairs and labor committee of the house of representatives, or any successor committees.

(h) (I)  The Colorado lineworker apprenticeship grant program cash fund is

created in the state treasury. The fund consists of gifts, grants, and donations and any money that the general assembly may appropriate or transfer to the fund. The state treasurer shall credit all interest and income derived from the deposit and investment of money in the fund to the fund. Money in the fund is continuously appropriated to the department for allocation to the office of future of work for the purposes of administering the grant program pursuant to this subsection (3). The office of future of work may seek, accept, and expend gifts, grants, or donations from private or public sources for the purposes of administering the grant program pursuant to this subsection (3).

(II) (A)  On July 1, 2024, the state treasurer shall transfer eight hundred

thousand dollars from the general fund to the fund.

(B)  This subsection (3)(h)(II) is repealed, effective July 1, 2026.


(i)  This subsection (3) is repealed, effective July 1, 2028.


(4)  Near-term actions - interconnection and energization backlogs -

identification of hosting capacity - cost recovery. (a) Qualifying retail utilities shall upgrade the state's electrical distribution systems as needed and in time to affordably and reliably support the achievement of the state's beneficial and transportation electrification and decarbonization goals and support implementation of federal, state, regional, and local air quality and decarbonization targets, standards, plans, and regulations.

(b)  To promptly, affordably, and reliably interconnect and energize new

customers and comply with the obligation to serve without substantial delay, a qualifying retail utility shall:

(I)  Commence a data collection process to inform future energization

timelines. The commission may open or use an existing miscellaneous proceeding to accept information collected by the qualifying retail utility and from other stakeholders.

(II)  Meet the interconnection deadlines specified in section 40-2-135 and

commission rules;

(III)  Adopt the following cost caps, which cost caps must remain in effect

until the commission completes the rule-making described in subsection (6) of this section:

(A)  For distributed generation systems that are twenty-five kilowatts or less,

adopt a cap of no more than three hundred dollars for an individual customer's responsibility for interconnection costs for a customer-caused upgrade of the qualifying retail utility's distribution system, so long as the costs above the cap remain recoverable by the qualifying retail utility;

(B)  For residential customers energizing transportation electrification or

beneficial electrification, not require the customer to pay for the costs of associated distribution system upgrades, so long as the costs remain recoverable by the qualifying retail utility; and

(C)  For affordable housing developments, cap the costs for interconnection

or energization for a project-caused upgrade of the qualifying retail utility's distribution system at a level of three hundred dollars per residential unit of affordable housing, so long as costs above the cap remain recoverable by the qualifying retail utility;

(IV)  Propose, and the commission shall authorize, modify, or deny in a manner

consistent with the public interest, the use of an optional flexible interconnection or energization tariff or phased interconnection or energization agreement by a customer as an alternative to a system upgrade that would otherwise be required by the qualifying retail utility in response to the customer's request to interconnect or energize a distributed energy resource; and

(V)  Establish a procedure for customers with a hybrid facility to complete the

interconnection and energization processes through a single application.

(c)  A qualifying retail utility shall identify interconnection and load hosting

capacity for DERs, including beneficial electrification and transportation electrification, for disproportionately impacted communities within its service territory.

(d) (I)  Prior to the establishment of the grid modernization adjustment clause,

a qualifying retail utility shall recover the forecasted investments placed in service and expenses incurred for distribution activities during the period beginning on May 22, 2024, and ending on December 31, 2025, consistent with this section.

(II)  Cost recovery must occur through the transmission cost adjustment

clause or another existing adjustment clause, subject to:

(A)  A one-half percent retail rate impact cap on an annualized basis for 2024;

and

(B)  A one and one-fourth percent retail rate impact cap on an annualized

basis for 2025.

(III)  Within thirty days after May 22, 2024, a qualifying retail utility shall file

an advice letter with the commission identifying the distribution activities for recovery, including the revenue requirement for the distribution activities and a return at the qualifying retail utility's most recently approved weighted average cost of capital, for the period beginning on May 22, 2024, and ending on December 31, 2024, to be included in the transmission cost adjustment clause or an existing adjustment clause with an effective date within sixty days after May 22, 2024.

(IV)  On or before November 1, 2024, a qualifying retail utility shall file an

advice letter with the commission identifying the distribution activities for recovery, including the revenue requirement for the distribution activities and a return at the qualifying retail utility's most recently approved weighted average cost of capital, for the period beginning January 1, 2025, and ending December 31, 2025, to be included in the transmission cost adjustment clause or an existing adjustment clause with an effective date of January 1, 2025.

(V)  The amounts recovered pursuant to this subsection (4)(d) are subject to a

true-up with any positive or negative balance credited to customers or recovered by the qualifying retail utility in the subsequent year and with the financing cost for the transmission cost adjustment clause or the applicable existing adjustment clause applied to the positive or negative balances. All amounts recovered are subject to a prudence review by the commission through either a standalone prudence review proceeding or in a base rate proceeding.

(VI)  In addition to the amounts recovered pursuant to this subsection (4)(d), a

qualifying retail utility may spend and recover through the transmission cost adjustment clause or another existing adjustment clause the revenue requirement associated with up to an additional one hundred fifty million dollars in investment to order equipment to advance distribution activities, such as power transformers, service transformers, capacitor banks, switch cabinets, and feeder cables, as long as the investments are prudently incurred for the purposes of achieving economies of scale, addressing supply chain concerns, or other similar purposes.

(5)  Long-term actions - distribution system plan requirements - approval

by commission - staffing requirements - labor requirements - report. (a) A qualifying retail utility shall file distribution system plans pursuant to section 40-2-132, subject to review, approval, modification, or denial by the commission, to create sufficient hosting capacity across its electrical distribution system to affordably and reliably support the implementation of the following:

(I)  Federal, state, regional, and local air quality and decarbonization targets,

standards, plans, and regulations;

(II)  The transportation, affordable housing, new infill housing, and building

electrification policies of state and local law, including:

(A)  The rules adopted by the air quality control commission related to

greenhouse gas emission reductions from light-duty and heavy-duty motor vehicles; and

(B)  The rules adopted by the air quality control commission pursuant to

section 25-7-142 or local building performance standards;

(III)  State agency, local agency, and local government plans and

requirements related to housing, economic development, critical facilities, transportation, and building electrification;

(IV)  Enforceable and funded federal, state, regional, and local policies, plans,

goals, incentives, or requirements designed to increase access to distributed energy resources, electrified transportation, and building electrification in disproportionately impacted communities; and

(V)  The qualifying retail utility's approved renewable energy standard plan,

clean heat plan, beneficial electrification plan, demand-side management plan, gas infrastructure plan, and transportation electrification plan required by this title 40.

(b)  In developing distribution system plans pursuant to section 40-2-132,

consistent with state-level recognized best practices for community outreach, a qualifying retail utility shall consult with and provide opportunities for meaningful engagement and education through multilingual and culturally relevant outreach to disproportionately impacted communities.

(c) (I)  As part of a distribution system plan proceeding, a qualifying retail

utility shall present at least two future planning scenarios with corresponding investments to show different future states of the distribution system.

(II)  In determining the distribution capacity necessary to meet projected load

growth and distributed energy resource expansion, including to affordably and reliably support implementation of applicable targets, standards, plans, and regulations described in subsection (5)(a) of this section, a qualifying retail utility shall incorporate a scenario that incorporates load and managed generation flexibility that may increase system capacity utilization, reduce the need for system upgrades, and lower system costs.

(III)  In determining to which portions of the distribution system to propose

system upgrades to affordably and reliably support the implementation of the applicable targets, standards, plans, and regulations described in subsection (5)(a) of this section, a qualifying retail utility shall prioritize capacity investments in areas of its distribution system that are at or near their hosting capacity limits or that are projected to have energization loads that cannot be met without a system upgrade. A qualifying retail utility shall prioritize system upgrades targeted at improving infrastructure for income-qualified or disproportionately impacted communities with residential capacity constraints.

(IV)  Specific to reliability investments, a qualifying retail utility shall

prioritize investments for disproportionately impacted communities based on reliability information provided in the qualifying retail utility's quality of service plan.

(d)  In evaluating a qualifying retail utility's distribution system plans, the

commission shall evaluate whether the distribution system plan:

(I)  Establishes a long-term distribution system plan, which must cover at

least five years, that includes timelines and budgets to create sufficient hosting capacity across the qualifying retail utility's electrical distribution system to affordably and reliably support the implementation of the applicable targets, standards, plans, and regulations described in subsection (5)(a) of this section;

(II)  Includes the identification of specific distribution investments needed to

strategically support the applicable targets, standards, plans, and regulations described in subsection (5)(a) of this section over the planning period, which must cover at least five years, with increased specificity in the first two years of the planning period;

(III)  Includes detailed mapping of distribution hosting capacity with

appropriate safeguards to protect critical infrastructure, as determined by the commission;

(IV)  Includes a process to identify and evaluate infill housing loads;


(V)  Includes proposed, unless already informed or satisfied by commission

rules, standardized, quantifiable, and transparent processes and timelines within the planning period for formal load and generation interconnection and energization requests, so long as the qualifying retail utility is not required to include energization timelines as part of its first distribution system plan filed after May 22, 2024;

(VI)  Includes proposed actions to facilitate programs for:


(A)  The competitive acquisition of cost-effective non-wires alternatives to

defer or avoid identified system distribution infrastructure projects, subject to investment thresholds in commission rules;

(B)  Load and generation flexibility, including interruptible programs, with

due consideration given to programs proposed or approved in other commission proceedings; and

(C)  Other alternatives to system upgrades, which may include automated

distributed resource management systems;

(VII)  Includes adequate reporting and system mapping to implement the

proposed plan and programs, as well as:

(A)  To the extent available at the time of the distribution system plan filing,

the average, median, and standard deviation time between receiving a formal application for interconnection or energization and energizing the electrical service; constraints and obstacles to each type of interconnection or energization, such as funding limitations, qualified staffing availability, or equipment availability; and any other information required by the commission; and

(B)  If the interconnection and energization time periods exceed any

established, commission-approved average target energization time periods, as determined in a qualifying retail utility's distribution system plan proceeding, or if the qualifying retail utility has a substantial number of interconnection or energization applications that exceed any established commission-approved maximum target energization time periods, a strategy for meeting the target energization time periods in the future; and

(VIII)  Includes documentation demonstrating progress toward

implementation of previously approved distribution system plans.

(e)  The distribution system plan must include a performance-based

framework, which must consist of:

(I)  Applicable interconnection timelines;


(II)  Applicable energization timelines, so long as:


(A)  The energization timelines are not applicable to the first distribution

system plan filed after May 22, 2024;

(B)  In the second distribution system plan filed after May 22, 2024,

measurement of any energization timelines must commence upon submission by the customer of a formal load request, and any performance-based framework must only include the steps in the energization process that are the sole responsibility of the qualifying retail utility;

(C)  Any energization timelines in a performance-based framework must

account for extenuating circumstances, as demonstrated by the qualifying retail utility, that do not result in any finding of noncompliance by the commission for the qualifying retail utility;

(D)  Any energization timelines and performance requirements do not include

conceptual capacity checks or other informational evaluations that may precede a formal load request; and

(E)  The qualifying retail utility must be required to track and collect data on

steps and outcomes that may precede the formal energization process, and the commission may consider this data in updating any performance-based energization timeline requirements in the third distribution system plan filed after May 22, 2024; and

(III)  Reasonable and cost-effective targets measured in megawatts for

flexible load and demand management, so long as:

(A)  A general target-setting framework must be evaluated in the first

distribution system plan filed after May 22, 2024, and further developed through other planning processes, including subsequent distribution system plans, electric resource plans, and demand-side management plans; and

(B)  The targets are applicable in the second distribution system plan filed

after May 22, 2024, and subsequent distribution system plans.

(f) (I)  A qualifying retail utility shall include in its distribution system plan a

detailed analysis of its current qualified staffing level and future required qualified staffing level for each job classification needed to achieve the policies and requirements of this section. The analysis of workforce needs must include review of both the anticipated needs of future utility employees as well as the anticipated needs for workforce acquired through third-party utility and construction contractors. Adequate staffing includes engineering and programming staff necessary to oversee the timely interconnection of distributed energy resources, energization of electrified end uses, and energization of new service connections to the qualifying retail utility's distribution system.

(II)  The commission shall review whether each qualifying retail utility has

adequate qualified staffing needed to achieve the policies and requirements of this section. The analysis of adequate staffing must be considered in a qualifying retail utility's distribution system plan proceeding.

(g)  A qualifying retail utility shall ensure that, in any construction, expansion,

or maintenance of distribution projects undertaken as a part of the distribution system plan, all labor is performed either by the employees of the qualifying retail utility or by qualified contractors, or both, and that, except as otherwise provided in subsection (5)(i) of this section, a qualifying retail utility shall not use a contractor unless:

(I)  The contractor is chosen from a list of qualified contractors prepared and

updated at least annually by the department; and

(II)  The contractor's employees have access to an apprenticeship program

registered with the United States department of labor's office of apprenticeship or the state apprenticeship agency; except that this apprenticeship program requirement does not apply to:

(A)  The design, planning, or engineering of the facilities;


(B)  Management functions to operate the facilities; or


(C)  Any work performed in response to a warranty claim.


(h)  To qualify pursuant to subsection (5)(g)(I) of this section, an

apprenticeship program must certify to the qualifying retail utility that:

(I)  Its curriculum includes requirements for the completion of:


(A)  At least seven thousand hours of on-the-job training to achieve

journeyman lineman status, with at least six hundred fifty of those hours spent working on energized power lines at voltages of at least six hundred volts; and

(B)  A class in electric transmission and distribution offered by the federal

occupational safety and health administration known as the OSHA ET&D ten-hour training and comprising content substantially equivalent to that of the OSHA 10 class offered during calendar year 2021; and

(II)  Supervision of apprentices meets the following standards:


(A)  Apprentices must work under the supervision of a journeyman-level

worker at all times; and

(B)  The ratio of apprentices to journeymen linemen does not exceed two to

one when working on distribution projects for both energized and nonenergized work.

(i)  The request for proposal for any contract work on facilities subject to this

section must be submitted to the list of qualified contractors described in subsection (5)(g)(I) of this section for at least sixty days. If none of the contractors on the list submits a qualifying bid within sixty days, then the entity procuring the work may solicit bids from contractors that are not on the list but otherwise qualify under the terms of the request for proposal so long as those terms include compliance with all applicable laws and regulations related to safety.

(j)  Notwithstanding section 24-1-136 (11)(a)(I), two years after the approval of

any distribution system plan, and every two years thereafter, a qualifying retail utility shall prepare a report and submit the report to the general assembly and the commission outlining progress toward the objectives set forth in this section, including progress toward meeting the hosting capacity needs in disproportionately impacted communities identified pursuant to subsection (4)(c) of this section. The progress reports must be posted on the qualifying retail utility's website and the commission's website.

(6)  Longer-term requirements - rules. (a)  Following the adjudication and

final commission decision on a qualifying retail utility's first distribution system plan filing after May 22, 2024, the commission shall open a rule-making, for a qualifying retail utility, to consider and establish:

(I)  Target average and maximum energization timelines;


(II)  Any necessary updates to existing interconnection rules;


(III)  Rules for interconnection, energization, and electrification of end uses in

new construction homes, particularly regarding time frames for responding to cost projection requests, the reliability of utility cost estimates, and reasonable construction schedules; and

(IV)  Maximum individual customer cost caps or fees for interconnection or

energization of resources of all sizes to help defray or eliminate the costs of interconnecting new distributed generation or energizing transportation or beneficial electrification load to the electrical grid. The rules, where appropriate, should specifically exempt income-qualified customers from payment of system upgrade fees.

(b)  The rule-making described in subsection (6)(a) of this section may set

different fees based on the inclusion of technologies or agreements to reduce system costs, including flexible interconnection or energization tariffs and automated distributed resource management systems.

(c)  The commission's consideration of the rule-making proceeding described

in subsections (6)(a) and (6)(b) of this section must conclude in a time that is sufficient to allow the qualifying retail utility to file its second distribution system plan after May 22, 2024.

(7)  Cost recovery - grid modernization adjustment clause. (a)  A qualifying

retail utility shall recover, on an annual basis, projected distribution activities through a grid modernization adjustment clause established as part of the qualifying retail utility's first distribution system plan application after May 22, 2024, so long as the grid modernization adjustment clause continues in effect through subsequent distribution system plans.

(b) (I)  Within the distribution system plan, a qualifying retail utility shall

propose, and the commission shall evaluate, whether the projected distribution activities and corresponding budgets strategically benefit or advance the applicable targets, standards, plans, and regulations described in subsection (5)(a) of this section or state energy policy goals, including greenhouse gas emission reductions, beneficial electrification, increased reliability, and increased resiliency, and the commission shall allow grid modernization adjustment clause recovery for such approved distribution activities.

(II)  If the commission finds that the projected distribution activities and

corresponding budgets affordably and strategically benefit or advance the goals described in subsection (7)(b)(I) of this section, the distribution activities are qualifying distribution activity recovery and recovery must occur through the grid modernization adjustment clause in a manner consistent with this section.

(III)  For projected distribution activities and corresponding budgets that the

commission finds do not benefit or advance the goals described in subsection (7)(b)(I) of this section, recovery may occur through the grid modernization adjustment clause if the qualifying retail utility meets the criteria established in the performance-based framework approved by the commission pursuant to subsection (5)(e) of this section through the distribution system planning process.

(c) (I)  The grid modernization adjustment clause is subject to annual

adjustments, which are effective on January 1 of each year.

(II)  A qualifying retail utility shall make a grid modernization adjustment

clause advice letter filing with the commission annually, and no later than November 1 of each year, with an effective date of January 1 of the subsequent year, which must include the qualifying distribution activity recovery and other distribution activities approved pursuant to subsection (7)(b) of this section for the next twelve months, including a return at the qualifying retail utility's most recently approved weighted average cost of capital.

(III)  The grid modernization adjustment clause must be reduced to the extent

that any prudently incurred costs being recovered through the grid modernization adjustment clause have already been included in the qualifying retail utility's base rates as a result of the commission's final order in a rate case, and recovered qualifying distribution activity recovery is subject to a true-up with any positive or negative balance credited to customers or recovered by the qualifying retail utility in the subsequent year and an appropriate financing cost applied to the positive or negative balances.

(d)  Recovery through the grid modernization adjustment clause must not

apply to wholesale customers with rates under federal jurisdiction or customers that do not take distribution service from the qualifying retail utility.

(8)  Virtual power plant program. (a)  No later than February 1, 2025, a

qualifying retail utility shall create and file with the commission an application to implement a virtual power plant program, including a tariff for performance-based compensation for a qualified virtual power plant.

(b)  A virtual power plant program implemented pursuant to subsection (8)(a)

of this section:

(I)  Must define the goals of the virtual power plant program and consider the

role that virtual power plants can play in modeling and meeting system needs in the resource planning process and eligibility requirements for DER aggregators and technologies;

(II)  Must establish a requirement for a DER aggregator to participate in a

virtual power plant as a qualified aggregator, including communication, dispatch, measurement and verification, and settlement of performance-based compensation;

(III)  May set a cap for individual resource capacity and minimum aggregation

capacity for participation in the virtual power plant program;

(IV)  Must have provisions for the enrollment of prosumers by DER

aggregators;

(V)  Must have requirements for a DER aggregator to participate in a virtual

power plant tariff, including requirements for the measurements of distributed energy resources associated with the virtual power plant;

(VI)  Must have requirements for a standard tariff or tariffs to set

performance requirements and performance-based compensation for the DER aggregator, which requirements must include:

(A)  A requirement that otherwise eligible customers must participate in the

tariff or tariffs through a DER aggregator, regardless of the customer's electricity service rate; and

(B)  A requirement to explore the costs and benefits of setting the tariff

requirements and compensation for a period of five years, after which DER aggregators may be required to transition to different tariff requirements and compensation;

(VII)  Must have streamlined and reasonable data requirements for the

participation of qualified aggregators, prosumers, or otherwise eligible customers in the virtual power plant program;

(VIII)  Must provide that prosumers or otherwise eligible customers must not

be disqualified from participation in a commission-approved virtual power plant program or performance-based compensation due to receipt of other incentives, including up-front incentives or performance payments for energy, capacity, or other grid services that are distinct from the virtual power plant;

(IX)  Must provide that prosumers or otherwise eligible customers are not

compensated for the provision of the same service more than once;

(X)  Must require that DER aggregators adhere to all relevant interconnection

rules, tariffs, and applicable qualifying retail utility procedures to ensure the safe operation of virtual power plants within the distribution system;

(XI)  Must prescribe the method for setting performance-based

compensation. The virtual power plant program may make use of tariff riders to reflect standard and additional values provided by certain resources, locations, times, or grid conditions. To the extent applicable, the performance-based compensation methodology must reflect the full value of services, which may include:

(A)  Local and system peak demand reduction;


(B)  Clean peak service;


(C)  Voltage support and other ancillary services;


(D)  The avoidance or deferral of electric or gas transmission or distribution

upgrades or capacity expansion;

(E)  Locational value as revealed by a grid needs assessment or participation

in non-wires alternatives identified in the qualifying retail utility's distribution system plan;

(F)  The use of telemetry for settlement; and


(G)  Other functions that the commission determines are supportive of

efficient planning and operation of the electrical grid; and

(XII)  Must allow a qualifying retail utility to serve as a DER aggregator so

long as the tariff or access to necessary data does not provide the utility a competitive advantage over third-party aggregators.

(c)  As part of the tariff application, the commission shall consider whether it

is appropriate to set different performance-based compensation and requirements for different technologies or services.

(d)  Any tariff filed by a qualifying retail utility pursuant to subsection (8)(a)

of this section must include, at a minimum, the following terms for the commission to approve, modify, or deny the tariff:

(I)  Minimum and maximum numbers of grid events for which the qualifying

retail utility may dispatch the virtual power plant;

(II)  Months of the year that grid events can occur;


(III)  Days of the week that grid events can occur;


(IV)  Times of day that grid events can occur;


(V)  The maximum duration of grid events; and


(VI)  Minimum advance notification requirements of grid events.


(e)  Nothing in this section affects a qualifying retail utility's net metering

program required by section 40-2-124 for energy that is exported outside of a commission-approved virtual power plant program.

(f)  A qualifying retail utility shall recover costs to facilitate a virtual power

plant program, including foundational technology costs or investments, operations and maintenance expenses, operating technology costs or investments, and information technology costs or investments, through the grid modernization adjustment clause.

(g) (I)  In order to participate in a virtual power plant program under this

section, an individual energy storage project put out to bid by the project owner after June 30, 2024, with a usable energy capacity of one megawatt or higher is subject to the requirements of sections 24-92-304, 24-92-305, 24-92-306, and 24-92-307.

(II)  The DER aggregator administering the VPP shall file an affidavit under

penalty of perjury with the commission stating that all energy storage systems with a usable energy capacity of one megawatt or higher participating in the VPP are in compliance with this section.

(III)  The commission may ask the qualifying retail utility to get additional

information or documentation from the DER aggregator if the commission deems it necessary to ensure compliance with this section.

(IV)  After the initial filing of the affidavit with the commission, if a DER

aggregator adds an individual additional storage system capacity of one megawatt or higher, the DER aggregator shall file another affidavit with the commission.

(h)  Unless implemented in another proceeding, the commission shall

determine whether to direct a qualifying retail utility to propose a competitive solicitation for virtual power plants that may operate in conjunction with the tariff-based virtual power plant program in evaluating the approval of the tariff.

(9)  Underground conversion and community benefit programs - plans -

definition. (a) By January 1, 2025, a qualifying ret


C.R.S. § 40-2-138

40-2-138. Projects for the production of clean hydrogen - proceeding - hydrogen hub projects - rules - reports - definitions. (1) As used in this section, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a)  Clean hydrogen means:


(I)  Green hydrogen, as defined in section 40-3.2-108 (2)(j); or


(II)  Hydrogen that is produced through a process that results in lifecycle

greenhouse gas emissions rates that are within the lifecycle greenhouse gas emissions rate ranges set forth in 26 U.S.C. secs. 45V (b)(2)(C) and 45V (b)(2)(D), as amended.

(b) (I)  Clean hydrogen project means a project that results in the

production of clean hydrogen by an investor-owned utility.

(II)  Clean hydrogen project may include pipelines, electrolyzers,

environmental controls, monitoring equipment, dedicated renewable energy sources for electrolysis, the purchase of clean hydrogen from third parties, and an upgrade to a turbine at an electric generating station if that upgrade is part of a state or federal application for a regional clean hydrogen hub under 42 U.S.C. sec. 16161a.

(c)  Cumulative impacts means the incremental effects of a clean hydrogen

project on the environment, including effects on air quality, water quality, water resource availability, climate, and public health, that a clean hydrogen project has when added to the impacts from other past, present, and reasonably foreseeable future development of any type on the relevant area, including an airshed or watershed, as determined by rule by the commission, or on a disproportionately impacted community.

(d)  Disproportionately impacted community has the meaning set forth in

section 24-4-109 (2)(b)(II).

(e) (I)  Hard to decarbonize end use means industrial uses that include:


(A)  The generation of heat of at least one hundred fifty degrees Celsius for

industrial purposes; and

(B)  Addition as feedstock for industrial purposes, including manufacture of

steel, ammonia, fertilizer, and chemicals.

(II)  Hard to decarbonize end use does not include the direct use of

hydrogen for residential or commercial heating.

(f)  Hydrogen hub project means a project that is part of an application for

federal funding by a partnership of regulated utilities, private partners, and companies and may include state or federal government agencies in collaboration with other states that is designed to utilize available federal funds and tax credits, which may include the production, transport, and use of clean hydrogen.

(g)  Lifecycle greenhouse gas emissions rate means lifecycle greenhouse

gas emissions, as defined in 26 U.S.C. sec. 45V (c)(1)(A), as amended, measured in accordance with any applicable federal internal revenue service regulations or guidance.

(h)  Office means the Colorado energy office created in section 24-38.5-101.


(i)  Qualified use means the use of clean hydrogen in the state for:


(I)  Hard to decarbonize end uses;


(II)  The operation of a heavy-duty motor vehicle, as defined in section 25-7.5-102 (11); and


(III)  Aviation.


(2)  The commission shall initiate an investigatory proceeding, no later than

September 1, 2023, to consider:

(a)  The potential for clean hydrogen projects operated by investor-owned

utilities subject to regulation by the commission to contribute to meeting the greenhouse gas emission reduction goals described in section 25-7-102 (2)(g), including lifecycle greenhouse gas emissions rates, with a preference for qualified uses;

(b)  The impact of clean hydrogen projects on the emission of air pollutants

other than greenhouse gases and human health;

(c)  Potential markets for clean hydrogen in Colorado;


(d)  The impact of clean hydrogen production on water quality and quantity in

Colorado;

(e)  The potential impacts of pipeline leakage and best practices for

mitigation;

(f)  The potential for the development of clean hydrogen to help create or

sustain jobs in Colorado, including utility jobs;

(g)  The cost, capabilities, and market availability of clean hydrogen

technologies, including pipeline investments;

(h)  The appropriate roles for investor-owned utilities in the production, sale,

or use of clean hydrogen, including considering whether costs may be recovered from ratepayers;

(i)  The potential impact of investor-owned utility investments in a clean

hydrogen project on ratepayers, including on bills, rates, and rate stability, and options for avoiding potential cross-subsidization and cost shifting across rate classes;

(j)  Principles and requirements for any tariffs for the sale of clean hydrogen

to third parties, including principles and requirements to ensure that costs arising from the development, production, transport, and delivery of the clean hydrogen under those tariffs are not borne by customers who do not take service from those tariffs;

(k)  The process and data necessary and available to implement a

requirement for the adoption of methods for:

(I)  The measurement of lifecycle greenhouse gas emissions rates, including

for hourly matching of electricity used;

(II)  The tracking of the deployment of new renewable energy resources or

use of curtailed renewable energy to meet electricity requirements for production of clean hydrogen in the same load balancing area; and

(III)  The commission to determine when at least two hundred megawatts of

electrolyzers are operational in the state;

(l)  The process and data necessary for an investor-owned utility to conduct a

cumulative impact analysis of a clean hydrogen project and any process necessary to avoid adverse cumulative impacts on disproportionately impacted communities, if any, which may include the commission considering:

(I)  The time frame over which a cumulative impact analysis should be

conducted;

(II)  The geographical scope of a cumulative impact analysis; and


(III)  Whether the cumulative impact analysis should be compared to

alternative projects;

(m)  Requirements for any application for a clean hydrogen project, in

addition to the requirements described in subsection (3)(a)(VI) of this section and subject to subsections (4) and (5) of this section;

(n)  Any data or information necessary or available to evaluate a clean

hydrogen project against alternative projects, including how to measure, track, and report lifecycle greenhouse gas emissions rates, cumulative impacts, and the cumulative impacts and individual impacts on jobs, local economic benefits, and water use by clean hydrogen projects under the commission's jurisdiction;

(o)  Opportunities to encourage non-utility production of clean hydrogen in

Colorado, including opportunities for an investor-owned utility to propose a tariff for the sale of renewable energy that would otherwise be curtailed; and

(p)  Any other relevant issues that the commission determines are necessary

to consider.

(3) (a)  No later than December 1, 2024, unless the office files a notice with

the commission stating that the federal department of energy has extended or otherwise altered the deadline regarding funding for a hydrogen hub project, the commission shall adopt rules that:

(I)  Unless the commission determines that investor-owned utilities should

not develop clean hydrogen projects for cost recovery from ratepayers, establish requirements for the presentation of a clean hydrogen project to the commission for the commission's approval;

(II)  Establish requirements for lifecycle greenhouse gas emissions rate

accounting for clean hydrogen projects;

(III)  Address the appropriate role of investor-owned utilities in the

production, sale, and use of clean hydrogen, including whether and how costs may be recovered from ratepayers and appropriate treatment of revenues from clean hydrogen sales;

(IV)  Address how investor-owned utilities may use competitive solicitations

in a clean hydrogen project and any limitations for the use of competitive solicitations to develop the clean hydrogen project;

(V)  Establish a requirement that any planned or potential use for the clean

hydrogen in buildings or gas distribution systems of an investor-owned utility be proposed to and approved by the commission through a clean heat plan, as defined in section 40-3.2-108 (2)(b); and

(VI)  Address what is required in an application by an investor-owned utility

for a clean hydrogen project, subject to subsections (4) and (5) of this section, including:

(A)  A comparison of a clean hydrogen project to alternative projects,

including an analysis of the costs and benefits of the clean hydrogen project compared to alternative projects;

(B)  A description of how the investor-owned utility will measure and track

the annual and cumulative lifecycle greenhouse gas emissions rates and the emission of other air pollutants in accordance with the rules adopted pursuant to subsection (3)(a)(II) of this section;

(C)  A description of how the investor-owned utility will: Minimize the

lifecycle greenhouse gas emissions rates of the clean hydrogen project, conduct leak detection throughout the life of the clean hydrogen project, and conduct a cumulative impact analysis of the clean hydrogen project;

(D)  An assessment of the annual water volume that will be used in the clean

hydrogen project, including the source of water to be used;

(E)  A description of any planned uses, including potential end uses by the

investor-owned utility's customers, of the clean hydrogen produced through the clean hydrogen project, with a preference for qualified uses;

(F)  A description of any planned sales of clean hydrogen to non-utility

customers, with a preference for qualified uses;

(G)  A description of the proposed method of cost recovery for the clean

hydrogen project, including information regarding which rate classes will cover the costs of the clean hydrogen project;

(H)  A description of the total revenue requirement for the clean hydrogen

project;

(I)  A description of the rate and bill impacts of the clean hydrogen project;


(J)  A description of any tariffs for the sale of clean hydrogen produced by the

clean hydrogen project;

(K)  A proposal for the allocation of revenues received from the sale of clean

hydrogen produced by the clean hydrogen project to non-utility customers among customers and the investor-owned utility, including which party bears the risk that the amount of revenue anticipated from the clean hydrogen project is not ultimately received;

(L)  A cumulative impact analysis framework; and


(M)  If the investor-owned utility plans to use a competitive solicitation

process as part of the clean hydrogen project, a description of how the planned competitive solicitation process will be used and in what circumstances the process will be used.

(b) (I)  The rules adopted by the commission pursuant to subsection (3)(a)(II)

of this section must include requirements for:

(A)  The matching of electrolyzer energy consumption with electricity

production on an hourly basis, if the technology is available;

(B)  Identifying the applicable energy source, if the investor-owned utility is

reporting the energy source as resulting in zero emissions for clean hydrogen production and demonstrating that the electricity used to produce clean hydrogen comes from renewable energy that would otherwise have been curtailed or not delivered to load or from new zero carbon generation that began production no more than thirty-six months before the start of the operations of the electrolyzer; and

(C)  The deliverability of renewable energy used by the electrolyzer into the

same load balancing area as the electrolyzer.

(II)  The commission shall make the rules adopted by the commission

pursuant to subsection (3)(a)(II) of this section effective no later than January 1, 2028, or no later than one year after the deployment of hydrogen electrolyzers in the state exceeds two hundred megawatts, whichever is earlier.

(c) (I)  In developing the rules pursuant to subsection (3)(a) of this section, the

commission shall consider the potential for federal funding for clean hydrogen projects and that clean hydrogen projects implemented by investor-owned utilities may be necessary to secure federal funding.

(II)  In developing the rules pursuant to subsection (3)(a)(II) of this section, the

commission shall consider what information and market mechanisms are necessary and available for hydrogen producers to comply with the rules. If the federal internal revenue service issues guidance that meets or exceeds the rules, the commission shall adopt rules that comply with the guidance.

(d)  If the office files the notice described in subsection (3)(a) of this section

with the commission, the commission shall coordinate with the office to determine an appropriate date for the adoption of the rules described in subsection (3)(a) of this section.

(4) (a)  The commission shall allow an investor-owned utility to present to the

commission a stand-alone application for a clean hydrogen project for which an investor-owned utility has applied for federal funding as part of a hydrogen hub project at any time before June 1, 2024, unless the office files a notice with the commission stating that the federal department of energy has extended or otherwise altered the deadline regarding funding for a hydrogen hub project. The application may only address elements of a hydrogen hub project that are not located in the Denver metropolitan area.

(b)  The application process described in subsection (4)(a) of this section

must be consistent with the requirements of subsection (3) of this section. An investor-owned utility seeking approval of a clean hydrogen project pursuant to subsection (4)(a) of this section shall also demonstrate that a time-sensitive review of the investor-owned utility's application is necessary based on the timing requirements for obtaining necessary funding, not including tax credits, from, or a partnership with, a federal or state agency for the acquisition of necessary facilities and that the funding or partnership cannot be accomplished through any pending or future electric resource planning process.

(c)  If the funding or partnership described in subsection (4)(b) of this section,

including any associated contracts, awards, or timing requirements, allows for competitive solicitations as part of the development of the clean hydrogen project, the commission may direct the investor-owned utility to issue a solicitation to acquire the necessary projects or facilities for the clean hydrogen project. The commission shall review any approved competitive solicitation process and bids received prior to the investor-owned utility's acquisition of the necessary facilities for the clean hydrogen project. An investor-owned utility that filed the clean hydrogen project application pursuant to subsection (4)(a) of this section may submit a bid in response to a solicitation pursuant to this subsection (4)(c).

(5) (a)  In reviewing, approving, denying, or amending an application pursuant

to this section, the commission shall consider, at a minimum:

(I)  Whether it is in the public interest for an investor-owned utility to invest in

the elements of the clean hydrogen project as set forth in the application;

(II)  The potential contribution of the clean hydrogen project in meeting the

greenhouse gas emission reduction goals described in section 25-7-102 (2)(g), including lifecycle greenhouse gas emissions rates;

(III)  The impacts of the clean hydrogen project compared to alternative

projects, including:

(A)  Rate and bill impacts;


(B)  The impacts on rate stability; and


(C)  Any other impacts identified by the commission pursuant to this

subsection (5)(a);

(IV)  The use of competitive solicitations, if any;


(V)  If the clean hydrogen project contemplates the sale of clean hydrogen,

the potential for cross-subsidization and cost shifting across rate classes;

(VI)  The impacts of the clean hydrogen project on the utility workforce in the

state, including the use of best value employment metrics pursuant to section 40-2-129;

(VII)  The impacts of the clean hydrogen project on a community's tax base

and revenues;

(VIII)  The uses of the clean hydrogen produced by the clean hydrogen

project, with a preference for qualified uses;

(IX)  The public health and safety impacts of the clean hydrogen project; and


(X)  The availability of federal funding for the clean hydrogen project.


(b)  The commission shall review any clean hydrogen project application

submitted pursuant to this section in accordance with any applicable electric resource planning rules.

(c)  In reviewing, approving, denying, or amending an application pursuant to

this section, if the clean hydrogen project is proposed to be sited in an area that would affect a disproportionately impacted community, the commission shall weigh the applicant's cumulative impacts analysis and determine whether, on balance, the clean hydrogen project will have a positive effect on the disproportionately impacted community. Any proposal that will have net negative cumulative impacts on any disproportionately impacted community must be denied. The commission's determination must include a plain language summary of its determination.

(6)  Notwithstanding any provision of this section to the contrary, an investor-owned utility shall provide notice to the commission of any application for federal

funding as part of a hydrogen hub project, including:

(a)  Any hydrogen hub project milestones;


(b)  A description of any deadlines for submission of materials to support the

application, including whether any additional filings will be required; and

(c)  To the extent known or consistent with any requirements or limitations of

the federal department of energy or any related joint memorandums of understanding or other contracts entered into by the investor-owned utility and the state, information regarding when funding awards will be determined.

(7) (a)  An investor-owned utility that operates a clean hydrogen project

approved pursuant to this section shall submit to the commission an annual report that shows:

(I)  The lifecycle greenhouse gas emissions rates from the clean hydrogen

project;

(II)  The greenhouse gas emissions from the clean hydrogen project;


(III)  Any emission of other air pollutants from the clean hydrogen project;


(IV)  The water use of the clean hydrogen project;


(V)  Production volumes and sales of hydrogen, including types of customers

and uses;

(VI)  Project development and cost updates for projects with cost recovery

from ratepayers; and

(VII)  Net cumulative impact updates for projects located in

disproportionately impacted communities.

(b)  If the clean hydrogen project includes the production and the use or

consumption of clean hydrogen by the investor-owned utility, the investor-owned utility shall report the lifecycle greenhouse gas emissions rates of the clean hydrogen project separately by each production facility and use.

(c)  The annual report must include information that allows the office to make

the verifications required pursuant to section 39-22-557 (4)(a)(II).

Source: L. 2023: Entire section added, (HB 23-1281), ch. 237, p. 1270, � 2,

effective August 7.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in HB 23-1281, see section 1

of chapter 237, Session Laws of Colorado 2023.


C.R.S. § 40-20-302

40-20-302. Definitions. As used in this part 3, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1)  Accident has the meaning set forth in 49 CFR 225.5.


(2)  Class I railroad has the meaning set forth in 49 U.S.C. sec. 20102 (1).


(3)  Class II railroad has the meaning set forth in 49 U.S.C. sec. 20102 (1).


(4)  Class III railroad has the meaning set forth in 49 U.S.C. sec. 20102 (1).


(5)  Community rail safety advisory committee means the community rail

safety advisory committee created in section 40-20-312.

(5.5)  Corrective action means an activity conducted to ensure that a

railroad track, a car, a locomotive, crossing equipment, signal equipment, or other facility of a railroad is in good condition and that a train runs safely and smoothly.

(6)  Defect includes, but is not limited to, hot wheel bearings, hot wheels,

deficient bearings detected through acoustic means, dragging of equipment, excessive height, excessive weight, a shifted load, a loose hose, improper rail temperature, or a deficient wheel condition.

(7)  Disproportionately impacted community has the meaning set forth in

section 24-4-109 (2)(b)(II).

(8)  Dragging equipment detector means an electronic device or other

technology that monitors a passing train to actively detect and alert operators of the train of the existence of any objects dragging from the train.

(8.5)  Environmentally critical area means an area or feature that is of

significant ecological value, including a:

(a)  Stream corridor;


(b)  Headwater;


(c)  Wetland;


(d)  Federal, state, or locally designated public land or natural area site;


(e)  Natural heritage priority site;


(f)  Habitat of endangered or threatened species;


(g)  Large area of a contiguous open space or forest;


(h)  Steep slope;


(i)  Geological heritage site; or


(j)  Groundwater recharge area.


(9)  Repealed.


(10)  Hazardous material has the meaning set forth in 49 CFR 171.8.


(11)  Highway-rail crossing means:


(a)  The point at which any public highway is or will be constructed across the

tracks or other facilities of a railroad at, above, or below grade;

(b)  The point at which the tracks or other facilities of a railroad are or may be

constructed across any public highway at, above, or below grade;

(c)  The point at which any public pathway is or will be constructed across

private tracks on which any railroad may operate at, above, or below grade; or

(d)  The point at which private tracks over which any railroad may operate are

or will be constructed across any public pathway at, above, or below grade.

(12)  Hot bearings detector means an infrared detector located along

railroad tracks to detect and alert the operators of a passing train to any overheating of a train's bearings, axles, or wheels.

(13)  Incident has the meaning set forth in 49 CFR 225.5.


(14)  Main line means a segment or route of railroad tracks of any railroad

over which five million or more gross tons of railroad traffic is transported annually as documented in timetables filed with the federal railroad administration pursuant to 49 CFR 217.7. Main line does not include tourist, scenic, historic, or excursion operations as defined in 49 CFR 238.5.

(15)  Passenger rail system has the meaning set forth in section 32-22-102

(9).

(16)  Pathway crossing means:


(a)  The point at which any public pathway is or will be constructed across the

tracks or other facilities of a railroad at, above, or below grade;

(b)  The point at which any tracks or other facilities of a railroad are or will be

constructed across any public pathway at, above, or below grade;

(c)  The point at which any public pathway is or will be constructed across

private tracks over which any railroad may operate at, above, or below grade; or

(d)  The point at which private tracks over which any railroad may operate are

or will be constructed across any public pathway at, above, or below grade.

(17)  Public crossing means a highway-rail crossing or pathway crossing

where the highway or pathway on both sides of the crossing is under the jurisdiction of or is maintained by a state or local road authority and is open to public travel.

(18)  Public utilities commission or commission means the public utilities

commission created in section 40-2-101.

(19)  Rail industry safety advisory committee means the rail industry safety

advisory committee created in section 40-20-313.

(20)  Railroad means a person providing railroad transportation.


(21)  Railroad transportation means any form of nonhighway ground

transportation that runs on rails or electromagnetic guideways. Railroad transportation does not include rapid transit operations, public transportation, rail fixed guideway operations, or commuter passenger rail that:

(a)  Is in an urban or a suburban area; and


(b)  Is not connected to a general or an interstate railroad system.


(22)  Siding has the meaning set forth in 49 CFR 218.93.


(23)  Train means a locomotive unit or locomotive units, with or without

cars, that require an air brake test pursuant to 49 CFR 232 and 49 CFR 238.

(23.5)  Vulnerable environmental corridor means a continuous system of

open space that serves as a key linkage point for habitat and species, including wildlife or ecological corridors.

(24)  Wayside detector means an electronic device or a series of connected

devices that monitors a passing train to determine whether the train has a defect, including a hot bearings detector and a dragging equipment detector.

Source: L. 2024: Entire part added, (HB 24-1030), ch. 161, p. 747, � 1, effective

July 1. L. 2025: (5.5), (8.5), and (23.5) added and (9) amended, (SB 25-162), ch. 420, p. 2371, � 2, effective June 4.

Editor's note: (1)  For the amendments to subsection (9) in SB 25-162 in

effect from June 4, 2025, to July 1, 2025, see chapter 420, Session Laws of Colorado 2025. (L. 2025, p. 2371.)

(2)  Subsection (9)(b) provided for the repeal of subsection (9), effective July

1, 2025. (See L. 2025, p. 2371.)

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in SB 25-162, see section 1

of chapter 420, Session Laws of Colorado 2025.


C.R.S. § 40-3-121

40-3-121. Natural gas cost causation study - commission proceeding - reporting - repeal. (Repealed)

Source: L. 2023: Entire section added, (SB 23-291), ch. 163, p. 716, � 4,

effective August 7.

Editor's note: Subsection (3) provided for the repeal of this section, effective

September 1, 2025. (See L. 2023, p. 716.)

ARTICLE 3.2

Air Quality Improvement Costs

PART 1

GENERAL PROVISIONS

40-3.2-101.  Legislative declaration. The general assembly hereby finds,

determines, and declares that cost-effective natural gas and electricity demand-side management programs will save money for consumers and utilities and protect Colorado's environment. The general assembly further finds, determines, and declares that providing funding mechanisms to encourage Colorado's public utilities to reduce emissions or air pollutants and to increase energy efficiency are matters of statewide concern and that the public interest is served by providing such funding mechanisms. Such efforts will result in an improvement in the quality of life and health of Colorado citizens and an increase in the attractiveness of Colorado as a place to live and conduct business.

Source: L. 98: Entire article added, p. 1050, � 3, effective July 1. L. 2007:

Entire section amended, p. 984, � 2, effective May 22.

40-3.2-101.5.  Definitions. As used in this article 3.2, unless the context

otherwise requires:

(1)  Air quality improvement costs means the incremental life-cycle costs

including capital, operating, maintenance, fuel, and financing costs incurred or to be incurred by a public utility at electric generating facilities located in Colorado. To account for the timing differences between various costs and revenue recovery, life-cycle costs shall be calculated using net present value analysis.

Source: L. 2025: Entire section added with relocations, (SB 25-275), ch. 377,

p. 2106, � 323, effective August 6.

Editor's note: This section is similar to � 40-3.2-102 (2) as it existed prior to

2025.

40-3.2-102.  Recovery of air quality improvement costs. (1)  A public utility

shall be entitled to fully recover from its retail customers the air quality improvement costs that it prudently incurs as a result of a voluntary agreement entered into pursuant to part 12 of article 7 of title 25, C.R.S., after July 1, 1998, except as provided in subsection (7) of this section.

(2)  Repealed.


(3)  Upon application by a public utility for cost recovery, the commission

shall determine an appropriate method of cost recovery that assures full cost recovery for the public utility. The air quality improvement costs recovered by the public utility shall not cause an average rate impact greater than the equivalent of one and one-half mills per kilowatt hour in any period, nor shall such costs exceed a total of two hundred eleven million dollars calculated using 1998 net present value dollars. The air quality improvement costs for a generating facility shall be recovered over a period of fifteen years or less.

(4)  Any revenues a public utility receives from transferring, selling, banking,

or otherwise using allowances established under Title IV of the federal Clean Air Act or under any other trading program of regional or national applicability shall be credited to the public utility's customers to offset air quality improvement costs if such revenues are a result of a voluntary agreement entered into under part 12 of article 7 of title 25, C.R.S.

(5)  To the extent that a voluntary agreement entered into under part 12 of

article 7 of title 25, C.R.S., does not increase the public utility's electric generating capacity, the voluntary agreement shall not be subject to any restrictions that arise from the commission's integrated resources planning rules.

(6)  The commission shall assure that any future industry restructuring does

not adversely affect the ability of the public utility to recover its air quality improvement costs. Nothing in this section shall prevent the commission from considering the appropriate value, including market value, of a public utility's generation assets in any future industry restructuring proceeding.

(7) (a)  If a public utility's wholesale sales are subject to regulation by the

federal energy regulatory commission and the public utility sells power on the wholesale market from generating facilities that are subject to a voluntary agreement under part 12 of article 7 of title 25, C.R.S., the public utilities commission shall determine whether to assign a portion of the air quality improvement costs to be recovered from the public utility's wholesale customers. The public utilities commission may assign a portion of the air quality improvement costs to the public utility's wholesale customers to the extent that such portion of such cost recovery does not conflict with the public utility's wholesale contracts entered into prior to April 1, 1998.

(b)  If the public utilities commission assigns a portion of the public utility's

air quality improvement costs to be recovered from the public utility's wholesale customers, the public utility may apply to the federal energy regulatory commission for recovery, effective on the date of filing, of the portion of costs assigned to the public utility's wholesale customers. The public utilities commission shall permit the public utility to recover the portion of costs assigned to the public utility's wholesale customers from its retail customers pending the federal energy regulatory commission's approval of recovery from the public utility's wholesale customers.

(c)  Notwithstanding paragraph (b) of this subsection (7), if the public utility

fails to apply to the federal energy regulatory commission within six months after the public utilities commission's final order assigning a portion of the air quality improvement costs to the public utility's wholesale customers or fails to make a diligent, good faith effort to persuade the federal energy regulatory commission to approve the cost recovery from the public utility's wholesale customers, the public utility shall not be entitled to recover said portion of the costs from its retail customers.

(d)  All revenues that a public utility receives from its wholesale customers

for air quality improvement costs shall be credited as an offset to the air quality improvement costs charged to the public utility's retail customers.

Source: L. 98: Entire article added, p. 1050, � 3, effective July 1. L. 2025: (2)

repealed, (SB 25-275), ch. 377, p. 2109, � 336, effective August 6.

Editor's note: Subsection (2) was relocated to � 40-3.2-101.5 in 2025.


40-3.2-103.  Gas distribution utility demand-side management programs -

recovery of costs - reports. (1) Commencing in 2022 and no less frequently than every four years thereafter, each investor-owned gas distribution utility, also referred to in this section as a gas utility, shall file an application to open a DSM strategic issues proceeding to develop energy savings targets to be achieved by the gas utility, taking into account its potential for cost-effective demand-side management as well as Colorado's greenhouse gas reduction goals. The commission shall, as part of approving a gas utility's gas DSM strategic issues application, also develop an estimated DSM budget commensurate with natural gas savings targets, funding and cost-recovery mechanisms, and a financial bonus structure for DSM programs implemented by a gas utility.

(2)  As part of the development of targets, mechanisms, and a bonus

structure required by subsection (1) of this section, the commission shall:

(a)  Adopt an estimated budget for DSM program expenditures

commensurate with the energy savings targets established by the commission;

(b)  Establish DSM program energy savings targets that are consistent with

achieving the greenhouse gas reduction targets in section 25-7-102 (2)(g), take into consideration new clean energy technologies as contemplated by section 40-2-123, and reflect the maximum cost-effective and achievable natural gas savings potential for the gas utility consistent with the needs of its full-service customers;

(c) (I) (A)  Adopt procedures for allowing gas utilities to recover their

prudently incurred costs of DSM programs without having to file a rate case. Such costs shall include, but are not limited to, facility investments; rebates; interest rate buy-downs; incremental labor costs, employee benefits, carrying costs, and employee-related administrative costs; and other administrative costs. All such costs shall be recovered through a cost adjustment mechanism that is set on an annual basis, or more frequently if deemed appropriate.

(B)  Labor costs shall reflect, and the commission shall require, compliance

with all applicable labor standards set forth in section 40-3.2-105.5.

(II)  Cost adjustment procedures shall give gas utilities the option of

obtaining cost recovery either through expensing DSM program expenditures or adding them to base rates, with an amortization period to be determined by the commission. In addition, such procedures shall provide that cost recovery for programs directed at residential customers are to be collected from residential customers only and that cost recovery for programs directed at nonresidential customers are to be collected from nonresidential customers only.

(d)  Adopt a bonus structure to reward gas utilities for investments in cost-effective DSM programs. For each year of operation, the bonus shall be capped at

twenty-five percent of the expenditures or twenty percent of the net economic benefits of the DSM programs, whichever amount is lower. The amount of the bonus awarded each year shall be determined based on the extent to which the gas utility has achieved the targets established by the commission in accordance with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this subsection (2). The bonus shall not count against a gas utility's authorized rate of return or be considered in rate proceedings.

(e)  Consider the fact that implementing the new DSM programs may require

a phase-in period before a gas utility is able to achieve the funding level determined by the commission pursuant to paragraph (a) of this subsection (2). A gas utility that implements a new DSM program in phases shall be eligible to receive a bonus under the bonus structure adopted pursuant to paragraph (d) of this subsection (2) during its phase-in period.

(f)  Not adopt any measure authorizing a financial penalty against a gas

utility that fails to meet the targets in any particular year.

(2.5)  For gas utilities with fewer than two hundred fifty thousand full-service

customers, the commission may establish energy savings targets, a budget for gas DSM program expenditures, funding and cost-recovery mechanisms, and a financial bonus structure in the same proceeding in which the utility's gas DSM program plan is submitted for approval.

(3)  After the development of the targets, mechanisms, and bonus structure

as described in subsection (1) of this section, each gas utility shall:

(a) (I)  Develop gas DSM program plans designed to meet or exceed the

energy savings targets established by the commission.

(II)  Gas DSM program plans may be combined with electric DSM program

plans, beneficial electrification plans, or other plans that reduce energy consumption or greenhouse gas emissions. Except as otherwise provided in subsections (3)(a)(III) and (3)(a)(IV) of this section, one or more of the gas DSM programs or measures, representing an aggregate total of at least twenty-five percent of overall residential gas DSM program expenditures, including expenditures serving income-qualified households, must be targeted to residential customers in income-qualified households.

(III)  In the case of a gas utility with fewer than fifty thousand full-service

customers, and except as otherwise provided in subsection (3)(a)(IV) of this section, one or more of the gas DSM programs or measures, representing an aggregate total of at least fifteen percent of overall residential gas DSM program expenditures, including expenditures serving income-qualified households, must be targeted to residential customers in income-qualified households.

(IV)  On or after January 1, 2026, the commission may commence proceedings

to adjust the percentage specified in subsection (3)(a)(II) or (3)(a)(III) of this section in light of changed circumstances, so long as the resulting percentages represent a significant portion of gas DSM program expenditures and continue to make progress toward achievement of Colorado's energy efficiency and greenhouse gas emission reduction goals.

(b)  In implementing approved DSM programs, use reasonable efforts to

maximize energy savings consistent with the annual energy efficiency budget.

(3.5) (a)  To meet the energy savings targets established by the commission

in accordance with this section, gas utilities shall consider including incentives for customers to utilize behind-the-meter thermal renewable sources. The commission shall not prohibit gas utilities from offering programs or incentives that encourage customers to replace gas-fueled appliances with efficient electric appliances.

(b)  The commission shall not require the removal of gas-fueled appliances or

equipment from an existing structure nor ban the installation of gas service lines to any new structure.

(4)  In implementing DSM programs, gas utilities may spend a

disproportionate share of total expenditures on one or more classes of customers.

(5) (a)  The commission shall authorize each gas utility to recover money

spent for education programs, impact and process evaluations, and program planning related to natural gas DSM programs offered by the gas utility without having to show that such expenditures, on an independent basis, are cost-effective. The commission may limit the amount spent for these activities.

(b) (I)  Upon petition by a regulated gas utility, the commission shall remove

disincentives to the implementation of effective gas DSM programs through the adoption of a rate adjustment mechanism that ensures that the revenue per customer approved by the commission in a general rate case proceeding is recovered by the gas utility without regard to the quantity of natural gas actually sold by the gas utility after the date the rate took effect. The commission shall separately calculate, for the rate class or classes to which a rate adjustment mechanism applies, the regulatory disincentives removed through that mechanism and collected or refunded by the gas utility through a tariff rider.

(II)  Removing disincentives through a rate adjustment mechanism adopted

pursuant to subsection (5)(b)(I) of this section does not preclude a gas utility from receiving a bonus pursuant to subsection (2)(d) of this section.

(III)  The commission shall not reduce a gas utility's return on equity based

solely on approval of a rate adjustment mechanism adopted pursuant to subsection (5)(b)(I) of this section.

(6) (a)  Gas utilities shall submit annual reports to the commission, as

determined by the commission by rule. The annual report shall describe the gas utility's DSM programs and shall document program expenditures, energy savings impacts and the techniques used to estimate these impacts, the estimated cost-effectiveness of program expenditures, and any other information the commission may require.

(b)  The commission shall review each report submitted pursuant to

paragraph (a) of this subsection (6) and shall determine the level of bonus, if any, that the gas utility is eligible to collect on the basis of the information included in the report. The commission's determination shall be made within three months after receiving the report. Any such bonus shall be authorized as a supplement to the cost adjustment mechanism or alternative mechanism approved by the commission and shall be applied over a twelve-month period after approval of the bonus.

(7)  Gas utilities may continue DSM programs that were in existence on or

before May 22, 2007, and shall not be required to obtain approval from the commission for such programs.

(8)  This section shall not be construed to extend the commission's authority

to any nonregulated utility businesses or affiliates of a gas utility.

Source: L. 2007: Entire section added, p. 984, � 3, effective May 22. L. 2021:

(1), IP(2), (2)(a), (2)(b), (2)(c)(I), (3), and (5) amended and (2.5) and (3.5) added, (HB 21-1238), ch. 330, p. 2133, � 4, effective September 7.

Cross references: (1)  For the definition of DSM programs, see � 40-1-102.


(2)  For the legislative declaration in HB 21-1238, see section 1 of chapter

330, Session Laws of Colorado 2021.

40-3.2-104.  Electricity utility demand-side management programs - rules -

annual report - definition. (1) It is the policy of the state of Colorado that a primary goal of electric utility least-cost resource planning is to minimize the net present value of revenue requirements. The commission may adopt rules as necessary to implement this policy.

(2) (a)  The commission shall establish energy savings and peak demand

reduction goals to be achieved by an investor-owned electric utility, taking into account the utility's cost-effective demand-side management potential, the need for electricity resources, the benefits of demand-side management investments, and other factors as determined by the commission.

(b)  The energy savings and peak demand reduction goals must be at least

five percent of the utility's retail system peak demand, measured in megawatts, in the base year and at least five percent of the utility's retail energy sales, measured in megawatt-hours, in the base year. The base year is 2006. The goals shall be met in 2018, counting savings in 2018 from demand-side management measures installed starting in 2006. The commission may establish interim goals and may revise the goals as it deems appropriate.

(c)  Commencing January 1, 2019, the energy savings and peak demand

reduction goals must be at least five percent of the utility's retail system peak demand, measured in megawatts, in the base year and at least five percent of the utility's retail energy sales, measured in megawatt-hours, in the base year. The base year is 2018. The goals shall be met in 2028, counting savings in 2028 from demand-side management measures installed starting in 2019. The commission may establish interim goals and may revise the goals as it deems appropriate.

(3)  The commission shall permit electric utilities to implement cost-effective

electricity DSM programs to reduce the need for additional resources that would otherwise be met through a competitive acquisition process.

(4)  The commission shall ensure that utilities develop and implement DSM

programs that give all classes of customers an opportunity to participate and shall give due consideration to the impact of DSM programs on nonparticipants and on low-income customers.

(5)  The commission shall allow an opportunity for a utility's investments in

cost-effective DSM programs to be more profitable to the utility than any other utility investment that is not already subject to special incentives. In complying with this subsection (5), the commission shall consider, without limitation, the following incentive mechanisms, which shall take into consideration the performance of the DSM program:

(a)  An incentive to allow a rate of return on demand-side management

investments that is higher than the utility's rate of return on other investments;

(b)  An incentive to allow the utility to accelerate the depreciation or

amortization period for demand-side management investments;

(c)  An incentive to allow the utility to retain a portion of the net economic

benefits associated with a DSM program for its shareholders;

(d)  An incentive to allow the utility to collect the costs of DSM programs

through a cost adjustment clause;

(e)  Other incentive mechanisms that the commission deems appropriate.


(6)  Each investor-owned electric utility shall submit an annual report to the

commission describing the DSM programs implemented by the electric utility in the previous year. The report shall document the following:

(a)  Program expenditures, including incentive payments;


(b)  Peak demand and energy savings impacts and the techniques used to

estimate those impacts;

(c)  Avoided costs and the techniques used to estimate those costs;


(d)  The estimated cost-effectiveness of the DSM programs;


(e)  The net economic benefits of the DSM programs; and


(f)  Any other information required by the commission.


(7)  For purposes of this section, electric utility or utility means investor-owned utility.


Source: L. 2007: Entire section added, p. 984, � 3, effective May 22; (7)

added, p. 1172, � 3, effective May 23. L. 2017: (2) amended, (HB 17-1227), ch. 209, p. 813, � 1, effective August 9. L. 2020: (5)(a) and (5)(b) amended, (HB 20-1402), ch. 216, p. 1059, � 72, effective June 30.

Cross references: For the definition of DSM programs, see � 40-1-102.


40-3.2-104.3.  Eliminating incentives for gas service to properties - gas line

extension allowances - exemptions - definitions. (1) As used in this section, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a)  Applicant means a person that requests natural gas service and that

owns the real property requiring the service. Applicant includes a developer, builder, legal entity, or other person that has legal authority over the property.

(b)  Dual-fuel utility means a utility that offers its customers both electric

and gas service.

(c)  Gas utility means a gas utility that the commission regulates with

respect to rates and charges.

(d)  Line extension allowance means a bundle of costs that includes

construction allowances for new service lines, meters, and other infrastructure associated with the addition of a new customer to a gas utility's distribution system.

(2) (a)  A gas utility shall not provide an applicant an incentive, including a

line extension allowance, to establish gas service to a property.

(b)  The commission may require a dual-fuel utility to provide its customers

that receive gas and electric service from the utility with relevant information regarding options for switching to high-efficiency electric space heating or water heating, including:

(I)  A list of appliances for which the utility provides incentives or rebates; and


(II)  For existing or prospective customers that are government entities, a

cost-benefit analysis of electrification options that includes up-front and lifetime costs, which analysis must take into account available incentives and rebates and use a reasonable cost that reflects gas price volatility.

(c)  On or before December 31, 2023, each gas utility shall file with the

commission an updated tariff to reflect the removal of any incentives for an applicant to establish gas service to a property.

(d)  Notwithstanding subsection (2)(c) of this section, a utility may exempt

from the updated tariff any applicant that:

(I)  Has already submitted an application that has been approved or is

pending as of August 7, 2023;

(II)  Can demonstrate or attest that the applicant has submitted a permit

application to the local government with permitting authority in the location of the property and that the application is either approved or pending as of August 7, 2023; or

(III)  Can demonstrate or attest that the applicant has submitted to a local

government a site development plan or plat that is either approved or pending as of August 7, 2023; except that an applicant that has submitted a site development plan or plat for which a permit application to the local government has not been approved on or before December 31, 2024, is not exempt.

Source: L. 2023: Entire section added, (SB 23-291), ch. 163, p. 717, � 5,

effective August 7.

40-3.2-104.4.  Colorado energy office gas investment asset depreciation

study - third-party evaluation - commission rules. (1) (a) On or before July 1, 2024, the Colorado energy office created in section 24-38.5-101 (1) shall contract with an independent third party to evaluate the risk of stranded or underutilized natural gas infrastructure investments and the annual projected rate impact on ratepayers.

(b)  The evaluation must take into account:


(I)  Any projected decline in gas sales;


(II)  The decline in the number of gas customers; and


(III)  Measures to achieve the greenhouse gas emission reduction goals set

forth in section 25-7-102 (2)(g).

(c)  The independent third party shall conduct an analysis of, and include

policy recommendations related to, the potential impacts of stranded or underutilized natural gas infrastructure on utility employees who work for, or contract workers who perform work for, investor-owned gas utilities. In conducting the study, the independent third party shall consult with appropriate labor organizations that represent utility employees who work for, and contract workers who perform work for, investor-owned gas utilities and other relevant stakeholders.

(2)  After the independent third-party evaluation described in subsection (1)

of this section is completed, the Colorado energy office shall submit a written copy of the findings and conclusions of the evaluation to the commission. The commission shall review the evaluation and consider whether any changes to rules or depreciation schedules are warranted.

(3) (a)  An investor-owned gas utility shall provide as part of any gas

infrastructure plan, or as otherwise directed by the commission, a map showing system-wide locations, ages, and materials or types of gas distribution system pipes, consistent with 49 CFR 191 and section 40-2-115 (1)(d).

(b)  As part of the filing, the investor-owned gas utility shall also provide

information about pipes that may need to be upgraded or replaced within ten years after the date that the utility files the plan, unless otherwise directed by the commission.

(c)  The commission shall ensure that the content of the map provided to the

commission and sharing procedures are in compliance with the parameters related to critical infrastructure reporting standards of the California Institute for Energy and Environment, or its successor organization, and the safety and system integrity standards of the American Petroleum Institute, or its successor organization.

(d) (I)  An investor-owned gas utility may designate any map or associated

information provided pursuant to this subsection (3) as containing critical infrastructure information. If the commission determines that the designated map or associated information does not contain critical infrastructure information, the investor-owned gas utility may appeal the commission's determination in a court of competent jurisdiction by filing the appeal within ten days after the commission's determination.

(II)  If the commission determines that the disclosure of the designated map

or associated information may expose or create vulnerability to critical infrastructure facilities or systems, the commission:

(A)  Shall limit access to the designated map or associated information to

individuals at state agencies that are parties to the proceeding in which the map or associated information was provided; and

(B)  Except as provided in subsection (3)(d)(II)(A) of this section, shall not

provide the designated map or associated information to any persons and may order the investor-owned gas utility to provide a public redacted version of the map or associated information that includes a general description of the information without detailed location information.

(III)  A custodian, as defined in section 24-72-202 (1.1), shall not release a map

or associated information for which the commission has limited access pursuant to subsection (3)(d)(II) of this section in response to any request to inspect public records pursuant to the Colorado Open Records Act, part 2 of article 72 of title 24.

Source: L. 2023: Entire section added, (SB 23-291), ch. 163, p. 718, � 5,

effective August 7.

40-3.2-104.5.  Customer disconnection from investor-owned gas utility

service - rules. (1) An investor-owned gas utility shall not penalize or charge a fee to a customer that voluntarily terminates gas service. Once a customer has terminated the investor-owned utility's gas service, the utility shall not continue to charge the customer any fees. Any costs associated with termination shall be considered part of general distribution system investments and are eligible for cost recovery.

(2)  The commission may adopt rules to establish standards for a customer's

voluntary disconnection from an investor-owned gas utility's gas distribution system. If the commission adopts the disconnection rules, the commission must consider:

(a)  The health and safety risks related to the customer no longer using the

gas distribution system;

(b)  The cost effectiveness of the method of disconnection;


(c)  The use of, or requiring the installation of, shut-off valves or pipeline caps

as an option in lieu of potentially more cost-prohibitive excavation or construction activities to remove existing gas infrastructure;

(d)  The impact on staffing, including any requirements and procedures for

utility employees and contract workers;

(e)  The impact on critical repairs, scheduled maintenance, leak mitigation,

and other related activities; and

(f)  Any other consideration that the commission deems appropriate.


(3)  Nothing in this section shall be construed to mean that a utility cannot

charge an individual customer for excavation or construction activities to remove existing gas infrastructure if the customer has declined the more cost-effective methods to disconnect service.

Source: L. 2023: Entire section added, (SB 23-291), ch. 163, p. 720, � 5,

effective August 7.

40-3.2-104.6.  Commission study on beneficial electrification - repeal.

(Repealed)

Source: L. 2023: Entire section added, (SB 23-291), ch. 163, p. 721, � 5,

effective August 7.

Editor's note: Subsection (4) provided for the repeal of this section, effective

September 1, 2025. (See L. 2023, p. 721.)

40-3.2-105.  Reporting requirement. (Repealed)


Source: L. 2007: Entire section added, p. 984, � 3, effective May 22. L. 2017:

Entire section repealed, (SB 17-044), ch. 4, p. 8, � 6, effective August 9.

40-3.2-105.5.  Labor standards for gas DSM projects. (1)  This section

applies to all necessary plumbing, mechanical, and electrical work performed in connection with a project undertaken pursuant to a gas DSM program under this article 3.2 and for which a customer of an investor-owned utility applies for a rebate directly from the utility.

(2)  When practicable, the utility may assign its own employees to perform

the work, subject to state licensing requirements and all applicable state and local rules, codes, and standards.

(3) (a)  The utility shall make use of a list, referred to in this section as the

certified contractor list, containing the names and contact information of:

(I)  Qualified contractors that participate in apprenticeship programs that:


(A)  Are registered with the United States department of labor's office of

apprenticeship or with a state apprenticeship agency recognized by the United States department of labor; and

(B)  Have been providing training for at least six months; and


(II)  Qualified mechanical, electrical, and plumbing contractors that

participate in apprenticeship programs meeting the standards specified in section 24-92-115 (1)(a)(II).

(b)  The Colorado department of labor and employment shall oversee the

compilation of the certified contractor list through one of the following methods:

(I)  Directing the state apprenticeship agency recognized by the United

States department of labor, if available, to assemble the information; or

(II)  Establish an application process whereby contractors would apply for

inclusion in the list and provide evidence, in a form satisfactory to the department, that each applicant meets the criteria set forth in subsection (3)(a) of this section.

(c)  The utility shall publish the certified contractor list on its website and

include or reference the list in all of the utility's relevant marketing material for gas DSM programs.

(d)  In addition to the certified contractor list, each investor-owned gas utility

shall require its residential customers to use licensed plumbing and electrical contractors that perform the type of work appropriate to residential gas DSM installations for participation in gas DSM programs where a rebate is paid directly to the customer after the installation is complete and the customer uses a contractor.

(4)  The following requirements apply to gas DSM projects in new or existing

buildings:

(a)  For plumbing, mechanical, or electrical projects undertaken by a

commercial or industrial customer in a building that contains twenty thousand square feet or more of conditioned floor space and for which a rebate is to be provided directly to the customer as part of a gas DSM program, the utility shall condition payment of the rebate on the customer's exclusive use of contractors from the certified contractor list unless the work is done by employees of the utility.

(b) (I)  For plumbing, mechanical, or electrical projects that involve energy

efficiency improvements to central building systems in a multifamily building that contains twenty thousand square feet or more of conditioned floor space and for which a rebate is to be provided directly to the building owner as part of a gas DSM program, the utility shall condition payment of the rebate on the building owner's exclusive use of contractors that participate in apprenticeship programs registered with the United States department of labor's office of apprenticeship or with a state apprenticeship agency recognized by the United States department of labor for any necessary plumbing or electrical work. If the contractor chosen by the customer is not on the certified contractor list, the utility shall require another method of verifying compliance with this subsection (4)(b).

(II)  This subsection (4)(b) does not apply to a gas DSM project that is limited

to in-unit work in a multifamily building, as undertaken by the owner or tenant of the multifamily building or unit.

(5) (a)  For a plumbing, mechanical, or electrical project in a new or existing

industrial, commercial, or multifamily residential building that contains twenty thousand square feet or more of conditioned floor space and for which a rebate is to be provided directly to the building owner as part of a gas DSM program, a utility shall not issue any rebates or incentives unless the lead general contractor performing the work for the project signs a notarized affidavit under penalty of perjury stating that all of the requirements of this section have been met and provides the signed affidavit to the sponsoring utility. The affidavit must:

(I)  Identify the contractors or subcontractors that will be used for all

mechanical, sheet metal, fire suppression, sprinkler fitting, electrical, and plumbing work required on the project;

(II)  Certify that all firms identified participate in apprenticeship programs

registered with the United States department of labor's employment and training administration or state apprenticeship agencies recognized by the United States department of labor and have a proven record of graduating apprentices as follows:

(A)  Beginning July 1, 2021, through June 30, 2026, a minimum of fifteen

percent of its apprentices for at least three of the past five years;

(B)  Beginning July 1, 2026, through June 30, 2031, a minimum of twenty

percent of its apprentices for at least three of the past five years; and

(C)  Beginning July 1, 2031, and each year thereafter, a minimum of thirty

percent of its apprentices for at least three of the past five years; and

(III)  Supply supporting documentation from the United States department of

labor's office of apprenticeship or state apprenticeship agency verifying the information provided in the certification specified in subsection (1)(a)(II) of this section.

(b)  The utility must maintain a database of the information contained in the

affidavit for each project awarded a rebate or incentive.

(c)  This subsection (5) does not apply to a gas DSM program that is limited to

in-unit work in a multifamily building, as undertaken by the owner or tenant of the multifamily building or unit.

(6) (a)  To ensure compliance with the requirements of subsection (5) of this

section, the general contractor or other firm to which the contract is awarded must agree to provide additional documentation to the participating utility offering the rebate or incentive regarding the requirements for affected apprenticeship training programs specified in subsection (5)(a) of this section.

(b)  If the utility offering the rebate or incentive determines that a

mechanical, electrical, or plumbing subcontractor has willfully falsified documentation or willfully misrepresented its qualifications as required to comply with this section in the contract, the utility shall direct the contractor to terminate the subcontractor contract immediately, and the subcontractor shall immediately be removed from the public project. The utility may also debar the offending subcontractors from future participation in rebates or incentive programs established under this section.

(c)  If, after issuing a rebate or incentive pursuant to this section, a utility

determines that a contractor or subcontractor has willfully violated any requirement of this section, the utility may demand a full refund of the rebate or incentive with reasonable penalties and interest and may pursue any remedy provided by law.

(d)  A utility must maintain a list of contractors and subcontractors that have

willfully falsified documentation or willfully misrepresented their qualifications or that are debarred from receiving future rebates or incentives and make that list available to their customers on its website.

(7) (a)  The utility that offers the rebate or incentive pursuant to this section

must establish periodic audits of the qualifying rebates that represent the highest two percent of rebates issued by dollar amount at least every three years to ensure that the contractors or subcontractors maintain compliance with this section.

(b)  If the audit determines that there were willful violations of this section,

the utility may demand a full refund of the rebate or incentive with reasonable penalties and interest and may pursue any remedy provided by law.

Source: L. 2021: Entire section added, (HB 21-1238), ch. 330, p. 2135, � 5,

effective September 7. L. 2023: (3)(a)(I)(A), (3)(b)(I), and (4)(b)(I) amended, (SB 23-051), ch. 37, p. 151, � 36, effective March 23; (5), (6), and (7) added, (SB 23-292), ch. 247, p. 1362, � 7, effective January 1, 2024.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in HB 21-1238, see section 1

of chapter 330, Session Laws of Colorado 2021.

40-3.2-105.6.  Labor standards for beneficial electrification projects. (1)

This section applies to all necessary mechanical, plumbing, and electrical work performed in connection with a project undertaken pursuant to a beneficial electrification program under this article 3.2 and for which a customer of an investor-owned electric utility applies for a rebate directly from the utility.

(2)  When practicable, the utility may assign its own employees to perform

the work, subject to state licensing requirements and all applicable state and local rules, codes, and standards.

(3) (a)  The utility shall obtain from the Colorado department of labor and

employment and shall make use of a list, referred to in this section as the certified contractor list, containing the names and contact information of:

(I)  Qualified contractors that participate in apprenticeship programs that are

registered with the United States department of labor's office of apprenticeship or with a state apprenticeship agency recognized by the United States department of labor; and

(II)  Qualified mechanical, electrical, and plumbing contractors that meet the

graduation standards specified in section 24-92-115 (1)(a)(II).

(b)  The utility shall publish the certified contractor list on its website and

include or reference the list in all of the utility's relevant marketing material for beneficial electrification programs.

(c)  As a condition for customer participation in beneficial electrification

programs where a rebate is paid directly to the customer after installation is complete, each investor-owned electric utility shall require its residential customers to verify that they used licensed electricians and plumbers or properly supervised apprentices on all plumbing and electrical work performed by a contractor on residential installations that qualify for a beneficial electrification rebate.

(4)  The following requirements apply to beneficial electrification projects in

new or existing industrial, commercial, or multifamily residential buildings:

(a)  For plumbing, mechanical, or electrical projects undertaken by a

commercial or industrial customer in a building that contains twenty thousand square feet or more of conditioned floor space and for which a rebate is to be provided directly to the customer as part of a beneficial electrification program, the utility shall condition payment of the rebate on the customer's exclusive use of contractors from the certified contractor list unless the work is done by employees of the utility.

(b) (I)  For plumbing, mechanical, or electrical projects that involve the

beneficial electrification of central building systems in a multifamily building that contains twenty thousand square feet or more of conditioned floor space and for which a rebate is to be provided directly to the building owner as part of a beneficial electrification program, the utility shall condition payment of the rebate on the building owner's exclusive use of contractors that participate in apprenticeship programs registered with the United States department of labor's office of apprenticeship or with a state apprenticeship agency recognized by the United States department of labor for any necessary plumbing or electrical work. If the contractor chosen by the building owner is not on the certified contractor list, the utility shall require another method of verifying compliance with this subsection (4)(b).

(II)  This subsection (4)(b) does not apply to a beneficial electrification project

that is limited to in-unit work in a multifamily building, as undertaken by the owner or tenant of the multifamily building or unit.

(5) (a)  For a beneficial electrification project in a new or existing industrial,

commercial, or multifamily residential building that contains twenty thousand square feet or more of conditioned floor space and for which a rebate is to be provided directly to the building owner as part of the beneficial electrification program, a utility shall not issue any rebates or incentives unless the lead general contractor performing the work for the project signs a notarized affidavit under penalty of perjury stating that all of the requirements of this section have been met and provides the signed affidavit to the sponsoring utility. The affidavit must:

(I)  Identify the contractors or subcontractors that will be used for all

mechanical, sheet metal, fire suppression, sprinkler fitting, electrical, and plumbing work required on the project;

(II)  Certify that all firms identified participate in apprenticeship programs

registered with the United States department of labor's office of apprenticeship or state apprenticeship agencies recognized by the United States department of labor and have a proven record of graduating apprentices as follows:

(A)  Beginning July 1, 2021, through June 30, 2026, a minimum of fifteen

percent of its apprentices for at least three of the past five years;

(B)  Beginning July 1, 2026, through June 30, 2031, a minimum of twenty

percent of its apprentices for at least three of the past five years; and

(C)  Beginning July 1, 2031, and each year thereafter, a minimum of thirty

percent of its apprentices for at least three of the past five years; and

(III)  Supply supporting documentation from the United States department of

labor's office of apprenticeship or state apprenticeship agency verifying the information provided in the certification specified in subsection (1)(a)(II) of this section.

(b)  The utility must maintain a database of the information contained in the

affidavit for each project awarded a rebate or incentive.

(c)  This subsection (5) does not apply to a beneficial electrification project

that is limited to in-unit work in a multifamily building, as undertaken by the owner or tenant of the multifamily building or unit.

(6) (a)  To ensure compliance with the requirements of subsection (5) of this

section, the general contractor or other firm to which the contract is awarded must agree to provide additional documentation to the participating utility offering the rebate or incentive regarding the requirements for affected apprenticeship training programs specified in subsection (5)(a) of this section.

(b)  If the utility offering the rebate or incentive determines that a

mechanical, electrical, or plumbing subcontractor has willfully falsified documentation or willfully misrepresented its qualifications as required to comply with this section in the contract, the utility shall direct the contractor to terminate the subcontractor contract immediately, and the subcontractor must immediately be removed from the public project. The utility may debar the offending subcontractors from future participation in rebate or incentive programs established under this section.

(c)  If, after issuing a rebate or incentive pursuant to this section, a utility

determines that a contractor or subcontractor has willfully violated any requirement of this section, the utility may demand a full refund of the rebate or incentive with reasonable penalties and interest and may pursue any remedy provided by law.

(d)  A utility shall maintain a list of contractors and subcontractors that have

willfully falsified documentation or willfully misrepresented their qualifications or that are debarred from receiving future rebates or incentives and make that list available to their customers on its website.

(7) (a)  The utility that offers the rebate or incentive pursuant to this section

must establish periodic audits of the qualifying rebates that represent the highest two percent of rebates issued by dollar amount at least every three years to ensure that the contractors or subcontractors maintain compliance with this section.

(b)  If the audit determines that there were willful violations of this section,

the utility may demand a full refund of the rebate or incentive with reasonable penalties and interest and may pursue any remedy provided by law.

Source: L. 2021: Entire section added, (SB 21-246), ch. 283, p. 1677, � 5,

effective September 7. L. 2023: (3)(a)(I) and (4)(b)(I) amended, (SB 23-051), ch. 37, p. 152, � 37, effective March 23; (5), (6), and (7) added, (SB 23-292), ch. 247, p. 1364, � 8, effective January 1, 2024.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in SB 21-246, see section 1

of chapter 283, Session Laws of Colorado 2021.

40-3.2-105.7.  Labor standards for state thermal energy network and

thermal energy system projects - definitions. (1) Any thermal energy network or thermal energy system project that an agency of government or a state institution of higher education procures and that is a public project must comply with:

(a)  The apprenticeship utilization requirements set forth in section 24-92-115

if the estimated contract cost for the public project is one million dollars or more; and

(b)  Part 2 of article 92 of title 24 concerning prevailing wages for public

projects if the estimated contract cost for the public project is five hundred thousand dollars or more.

(2)  Any thermal energy network or thermal energy system plumbing and

electrical work performed in the state shall:

(a)  Be performed by licensed plumbers, licensed electricians, or supervised

apprentices at a ratio no greater than three apprentices for each licensed master or journeyworker plumber or master or journeyman electrician, as required pursuant to section 12-115-115 (1) or 12-155-124 (1); and

(b)  Be installed in compliance with

C.R.S. § 40-8-105

40-8-105. Authority of commission unaffected. Except as provided in section 40-8-101 (2), nothing in this article shall affect the authority of the public utilities commission, as otherwise provided by law, to determine the manner in which overcharges by a public utility shall be returned to the customers of that utility.

Source: L. 90: Entire section added, p. 1761, � 4, effective May 31.

ARTICLE 8.5

Unclaimed Utility Deposits

40-8.5-101.  Legislative declaration. In enacting this article 8.5, the general

assembly finds and declares that there is a need to make distributions of money to provide aid and assistance to the indigent, the elderly, and persons with disabilities, who do not otherwise have the financial resources to meet their heating and other energy needs. The general assembly further finds and declares that the low-income energy assistance program of the department of human services is the most appropriate entity to determine those most in need of such aid and assistance. Therefore, this article 8.5 authorizes the legislative commission on low-income energy and water assistance to establish a fund from which to collect and distribute money to accomplish the goals set forth in this section. The money for the fund must be funded in part by unclaimed utility deposits.

Source: L. 90: Entire article added, p. 1758, � 1, effective May 31. L. 93: Entire

section amended, p. 1671, � 90, effective July 1. L. 94: Entire section amended, p. 2719, � 304, effective July 1. L. 2021: Entire section amended, (HB 21-1105), ch. 488, p. 3508, � 18, effective September 7.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration contained in the 1994 act

amending this section, see section 1 of chapter 345, Session Laws of Colorado 1994.

40-8.5-102.  Applicability. (1)  This article 8.5 applies to any electric or gas

utility, as defined by section 40-8.5-103; except that this article 8.5 applies only to those cooperative electric associations, as defined by section 40-9.5-102, that notify the commission that they elect to come under this article 8.5.

(2)  Except as provided in section 40-8.5-106, this article 8.5 does not apply

to municipally owned utilities.

Source: L. 90: Entire article added, p. 1758, � 1, effective May 31. L. 2025:

Entire section amended, (SB 25-068), ch. 55, p. 233, � 1, effective August 6.

40-8.5-103.  Definitions. As used in this article 8.5, unless the context

otherwise requires:

(1)  Commission means the legislative commission on low-income energy

and water assistance established in section 40-8.5-103.5.

(2)  Deposit means money deposited by a subscriber with a utility to secure

payment for services or any other amount which is paid in advance for electric or gas utility services to be furnished.

(3) (a)  Electric utility means every electrical corporation operating for the

purpose of supplying electricity to the public for domestic, mechanical, or public uses and includes every public utility supplying electricity; except that this definition includes only those cooperative electric associations that notify the commission that they elect to come under this article 8.5.

(b)  Electric utility does not include a municipally owned utility.


(4)  Gas utility means every gas corporation operating for the purpose of

supplying gas to the public for domestic, mechanical, or public uses and includes every public utility supplying gas; except that this definition excludes municipally owned utilities.

(4.5)  Organization has the meaning set forth in section 40-8.7-103 (4).


(5) (a)  Unclaimed moneys means:


(I)  Deposits, including any interest thereon, less any lawful deductions or

amounts owed to a utility, that the utility has been directed to return to the subscriber by an administrative or judicial order or that is due the subscriber through the utility's security or construction deposit policy and that remains unclaimed by the subscriber for more than two years;

(II)  Money which shall be deemed unclaimed and presumed abandoned when

left with the utility for more than two years after termination of the services for which the deposit or advance was made or for more than two years after the deposit becomes payable and the utility has made reasonable efforts to locate the owner of the unclaimed moneys or distribution is attempted pursuant to a final order of an administrative agency or judicial body having jurisdiction to establish the terms and conditions of such deposit or advance.

(b)  This term shall not include credits to existing subscribers through cost-adjustment mechanisms, and this term shall not include unclaimed patronage

capital held by cooperative electric associations.

Source: L. 90: Entire article added, p. 1758, � 1, effective May 31. L. 2021: IP

and (1) amended and (4.5) added, (HB 21-1105), ch. 488, p. 3496, � 4, effective September 7. L. 2025: (3) and (4) amended, (SB 25-068), ch. 55, p. 233, � 2, effective August 6.

40-8.5-103.5.  Commission created - duties.


(1) (a)  Repealed.


(b)  Commencing May 1, 2022, there is created the legislative commission on

low-income energy and water assistance in the Colorado energy office. The Colorado energy office shall staff the commission as needed.

(2)  Repealed.


(3) (a) (I)  Beginning May 1, 2022, the commission is composed of seven

members including:

(A)  A representative of the department of human services created in section

26-1-105;

(B)  A representative of the Colorado energy office created in section 24-38.5-101;


(C)  A representative of the organization; and


(D)  Four members appointed by the governor, each to serve a term of four

years; except that the governor shall select two of the initially appointed members to serve a two-year term.

(II)  The governor shall make initial appointments to the commission pursuant

to this subsection (3)(a) on or before April 30, 2022, for terms starting on May 1, 2022.

(b)  Of the four members appointed by the governor:


(I)  One member must have received low-income energy assistance or

represent an entity that serves a population eligible for low-income energy assistance;

(II)  One member must represent an electric utility or a combined electric and

natural gas utility;

(III)  One member must represent a natural gas utility or a combined electric

and natural gas utility; and

(IV)  One member must represent a water utility.


(c)  Any interim appointment necessary to fill a vacancy that has occurred by

any reason other than expiration of term is for the remainder of the term of the individual member whose office has become vacant.

(d)  In the event of a tie vote of the commission, the matter being voted upon

fails.

(4)  The governor may remove any appointed commission member for cause,

including for misconduct, incompetence, or neglect of duty.

(5)  A commission member is immune from liability in any civil action brought

against the member for acts occurring while acting in the capacity of a commission member if the member was acting in good faith, made reasonable efforts to obtain the facts of the matter as to which action was taken, and acted in the reasonable belief that the action taken was warranted by the facts.

(6)  The commission shall:


(a)  With respect to any federal department of energy grant award for the

Colorado energy office weatherization assistance program, serve as the policy advisory council to the Colorado energy office, in accordance with 10 CFR 440.17;

(b)  Serve as an advisory council to any Colorado water utilities that provide

or seek to provide water assistance and efficiency programs to their customers; and

(c)  Pursuant to section 40-8.7-108 (3), review the annual budget allocations

that the organization develops and submits to the commission for review regarding the organization's use of the energy assistance system benefit charge collected pursuant to section 40-8.7-104 (2.5). If the commission does not approve the organization's annual budget allocation, the commission may require the organization to modify the allocation. Until the commission approves a budget allocation submitted by the organization, the most recently approved budget allocation remains in effect.

Source: L. 90: Entire article added, p. 1759, � 1, effective May 31. L. 93: (1)

amended, p. 2071, � 31, effective July 1. L. 94: (1) amended, p. 2719, � 305, effective July 1. L. 2008: (4) added, p. 1333, � 5, effective May 27. L. 2012: (4)(b) amended, (HB 12-1315), ch. 224, p. 981, � 51, effective July 1. L. 2020: (1) amended, (SB 20-136), ch. 70, p. 298, � 52, effective September 14. L. 2021: Entire section amended, (HB 21-1105), ch. 488, p. 3496, � 5, effective September 7.

Editor's note: Subsection (1)(a)(II) provided for the repeal of subsection (1)(a)

and subsection (2)(b) provided for the repeal of subsection (2), effective May 1, 2022. (See L. 2021, pp. 3496, 3497.)

Cross references: For the legislative declaration contained in the 1994 act

amending subsection (1), see section 1 of chapter 345, Session Laws of Colorado 1994. For the legislative declaration in SB 20-136, see section 1 of chapter 70, Session Laws of Colorado 2020.

40-8.5-104.  Commencement of program - establishment of system for

distribution of moneys to eligible recipients. The commission shall establish a fund through a nonprofit corporation established for the purpose of collecting and distributing moneys to eligible recipients, who shall be designated by the administrator of the low-income energy assistance program in the department of human services, for use in the payment of electric and gas utility bills for services received.

Source: L. 90: Entire article added, p. 1760, � 1, effective May 31. L. 93: Entire

section amended, p. 2071, � 32, effective July 1. L. 94: Entire section amended, p. 2720, � 306, effective July 1.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration contained in the 1994 act

amending this section, see section 1 of chapter 345, Session Laws of Colorado 1994.

40-8.5-105.  Eligibility. The department of human services shall promulgate

rules and regulations establishing the criteria for eligibility for recipients of assistance pursuant to this article, which criteria shall be based in part on household size and income and the energy costs of the household residence for the preceding year.

Source: L. 90: Entire article added, p. 1760, � 1, effective May 31. L. 94: Entire

section amended, p. 2720, � 307, effective July 1.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration contained in the 1994 act

amending this section, see section 1 of chapter 345, Session Laws of Colorado 1994.

40-8.5-106.  Unclaimed deposits. (1)  Unclaimed deposits shall be paid by

the electric and gas utilities into the fund designated by the commission pursuant to section 40-8.5-104.

(2)  A municipally owned utility:


(a)  May elect to pay unclaimed deposits into either the fund designated by

the commission pursuant to section 40-8.5-104 or into a fund designated by the governing body of the municipally owned utility to accomplish the goals set forth in this article 8.5; and

(b)  Shall define unclaimed deposits in a manner consistent with the

definition of unclaimed moneys set forth in section 40-8.5-103 (5).

Source: L. 90: Entire article added, p. 1760, � 1, effective May 31. L. 93: Entire

section amended, p. 2072, � 33, effective July 1. L. 2025: Entire section amended, (SB 25-068), ch. 55, p. 234, � 3, effective August 6.

40-8.5-107.  Disbursement of moneys. The nonprofit corporation designated

by the commission pursuant to section 40-8.5-104 shall disburse moneys to the state department of human services to make energy assistance payments on behalf of or to persons determined by the department to be eligible for such assistance in accordance with section 40-8.5-105.

Source: L. 90: Entire article added, p. 1760, � 1, effective May 31. L. 91: Entire

section amended, p. 1901, � 2, effective July 1. L. 94: Entire section amended, p. 2720, � 308, effective July 1.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration contained in the 1994 act

amending this section, see section 1 of chapter 345, Session Laws of Colorado 1994.

ARTICLE 8.7

Low-income Energy Assistance

40-8.7-101.  Short title. This article shall be known and may be cited as the

Low-income Energy Assistance Act.

Source: L. 2005: Entire article added, p. 478, � 1, effective May 5.


40-8.7-102.  Legislative declaration. (1)  The general assembly hereby finds,

determines, and declares that, in order to serve the best interests of the citizens of Colorado and, in particular, to aid low-income citizens of Colorado, there is a need for an energy assistance program to collect an optional low-income energy assistance contribution from utility customers in Colorado.

(2)  The general assembly further finds that the most efficient way to support

such a program is for gas and electric utilities to provide the opportunity for each utility customer to contribute an optional amount on the customer's billing statement for low-income energy assistance that will be displayed monthly on the utility bill until the customer indicates otherwise and that the moneys collected shall be most economically and equitably disbursed through a system in which the contributions collected by electric utilities and gas utilities are transmitted to energy outreach Colorado.

(3)  The general assembly further finds that, although municipal and special

district water utilities are not regulated by the public utilities commission, allowing all water utilities to participate in a water assistance program on a voluntary basis will provide an efficient means for some water utilities to provide financial assistance to their customers in low-income households.

Source: L. 2005: Entire article added, p. 478, � 1, effective May 5. L. 2021: (3)

added, (HB 21-1105), ch. 488, p. 3499, � 6, effective September 7.

40-8.7-103.  Definitions. As used in this article 8.7, unless the context

otherwise requires:

(1)  Alternative energy assistance program means a program operated by a

municipally owned electric and gas utility or cooperative electric association that is not part of the energy assistance program established pursuant to this article.

(2)  Customer means the named holder of an individually metered account

upon which charges for electricity, gas, or water are paid to a utility or water utility. Customer does not include a customer that receives electricity or gas for the sole purpose of reselling the electricity or gas to others.

(3)  Energy assistance program or program means the low-income energy

assistance program created by section 40-8.7-104 and designed to provide financial assistance, residential energy efficiency, and energy conservation assistance.

(3.3)  Energy assistance system benefit charge or charge means the

charge that investor-owned utilities doing business in Colorado collect from their customers on a monthly basis pursuant to section 40-8.7-104 (2.5).

(4)  Organization means energy outreach Colorado, a Colorado nonprofit

corporation, formerly known as the Colorado energy assistance foundation.

(4.7)  Public utilities commission or commission means the public utilities

commission created in section 40-2-101.

(5)  Remittance device means the section of a customer's utility billing

statement that is returned to the utility company for payment.

(6)  Utility means a corporation, association, partnership, cooperative

electric association, or municipally owned entity that provides retail electric service or retail gas service to customers in Colorado. Utility does not mean a propane company.

(7)  Water utility means a water corporation or municipal water provider

that provides retail water or wastewater service to customers in Colorado.

Source: L. 2005: Entire article added, p. 479, � 1, effective May 5. L. 2006: (1)

amended, p. 1509, � 61, effective June 1. L. 2021: IP and (2) amended and (3.3), (4.7), and (7) added, (HB 21-1105), ch. 488, p. 3499, � 7, effective September 7.

40-8.7-104.  Energy assistance program - creation - energy assistance

contribution - energy assistance system benefit charge. (1) There is hereby created the low-income energy assistance program to collect and disburse an optional energy assistance contribution and an energy assistance system benefit charge in Colorado in accordance with this article 8.7.

(2)  Except as otherwise provided in this article 8.7, every utility doing

business in Colorado shall participate in the energy assistance program and provide the opportunity for utility customers to make an optional energy assistance contribution on the monthly remittance device on their utility billing statement. Each utility shall provide the opportunity for customers to donate the optional energy assistance contribution as provided in section 40-8.7-105 (2).

(2.5) (a)  Except as provided in subsections (2.5)(b) and (2.5)(c) of this section,

commencing with a customer's billing statement covering electric or gas usage in the month of October 2021, every investor-owned utility doing business in Colorado shall collect a monthly energy assistance system benefit charge from each of its utility customers pursuant to section 40-8.7-105.5 (1).

(b) (I)  For each month that an investor-owned utility collects the monthly

energy assistance system benefit charge, the utility shall include on its customers' billing statements a conspicuous notification in both English and Spanish that substantially complies with the following language:

If you're struggling to pay your utility bills, you might qualify for exemption from a monthly charge related to energy assistance and be eligible for utility bill payment assistance. Please call 1-866-HEAT-HELP to see if you qualify.

(II)  The organization shall notify each investor-owned utility of any customer

of the investor-owned utility who is exempted from payment of the charge by virtue of having received direct utility bill payment assistance from the organization in the previous twelve months.

(III)  Each investor-owned utility shall review readily available information it

has received from the state department of human services and the organization to determine which customers have received any direct utility bill payment assistance from the state department or the organization in the previous twelve months and, as a result, are eligible for exemption from payment of the charge.

(IV)  Upon receiving notification from the organization pursuant to subsection

(2.5)(b)(II) of this section or upon its own determination that a customer is eligible for exemption from the charge, an investor-owned utility shall remove the charge from the customer's monthly billing statements for the succeeding twelve months.

(c)  For each month that an investor-owned utility collects the monthly

energy assistance system benefit charge, the utility shall include on its customers' billing statements within its explanation of charges a phone number or email address through which a customer may opt out of paying the monthly energy assistance system benefit charge.

(3)  Any reasonable costs that a utility incurs in connection with the program,

including the initial costs of setting up the collection mechanism and reformatting its billing systems to solicit the optional contribution and to impose and collect the charge, shall be reimbursed from the money collected for the program. The utility must submit a calculation of the amount of money to be reimbursed to the public utilities commission for its approval of prudently incurred costs. The reimbursed amounts must be transmitted to the utilities before the remaining money is distributed to the organization.

Source: L. 2005: Entire article added, p. 479, � 1, effective May 5. L. 2021:

Entire section amended, (HB 21-1105), ch. 488, p. 3499, � 8, effective September 7.

40-8.7-104.3.  Water assistance program - creation - water assistance

contribution. (1) (a) On and after September 7, 2021, a water utility doing business in Colorado may participate in a water assistance program created and managed by the organization to provide water utility bill payment assistance to low-income households. A water utility's voluntary participation in the water assistance program will provide a water utility customer with an opportunity to make an optional contribution on the customer's monthly or quarterly remittance device on the water utility billing statement.

(b) (I)  A water utility participating in the water assistance program shall

provide the opportunity for its customers to donate the contribution described in subsection (1)(a) of this section in accordance with the check-off mechanism set forth in section 40-8.7-105 (2).

(II)  Section 40-8.7-105 (1), (3), (4), and (5) does not apply to a water utility's

participation in the water assistance program.

(2)  A water utility may create its own water assistance program to meet its

customers' water assistance needs. In determining eligibility for assistance, a water utility may adopt the criteria specified in section 40-3-106 (1)(d) or alternative criteria as determined by the water utility.

(3)  A water utility participating in the organization's water assistance

program pursuant to subsection (1) of this section or creating its own water assistance program pursuant to subsection (2) of this section may seek reimbursement for any reasonable costs that it incurs in connection with the program, including initial costs of setting up the collection mechanism and reformatting its billing systems to solicit an optional contribution.

(4)  The organization shall use the money collected from each water utility

pursuant to this section to help finance direct water utility bill payment assistance to low-income households served by that water utility.

Source: L. 2021: Entire section added, (HB 21-1105), ch. 488, p. 3501, � 9,

effective September 7.

40-8.7-105.  Customer opt-in provision. (1)  The public utilities commission

shall determine the mechanism for an opt-in provision whereby the energy assistance contributions described in section 40-8.7-104 will be collected from those customers who give notice of their intent to participate in the energy assistance program.

(2)  Each utility shall solicit voluntary donations through a check-off

mechanism displayed on the monthly remittance device. Recommended check-off categories of five dollars, ten dollars, twenty dollars, and other amount shall be displayed.

(3)  Once a customer voluntarily opts into the program, the appropriate

contribution shall be assessed on a monthly basis until the customer notifies the utility of his or her desire to remove the contribution. Each utility shall establish procedures to notify customers about their ability to cancel any voluntary contribution.

(4)  Once the utility customer opts into the program, the energy assistance

contribution shall appear as a separate line item and shall be identified in the billing statement as a contribution. The line item shall identify the optional low-income contribution, state the amount of the optional contribution, and be included in the total amount due.

(5)  In accordance with article 4 of title 24 C.R.S., on or before November 1,

2005, the public utilities commission shall initiate at least one rule-making proceeding to accomplish the following:

(a)  Establish a program whereby customers will be solicited to contribute a

flat amount on the monthly remittance device on the utility billing statement;

(b)  Encourage each utility to provide notification, where feasible, to

customers participating in the program about the customer's ability to continue to contribute when the customer changes his or her address within the service territory;

(c)  Require the utility to make additional efforts to inform utility customers

about the program to ensure that adequate notice of the opt-in provision is given to all customers;

(d)  In addition to notification on the monthly remittance device on the billing

statement, require each utility to notify its customers about the opt-in provision prior to September 1, 2006, and require each utility to provide clear, periodic notice of the opt-in provision at least twice per year through bill inserts, in a statement on the bill or envelope, or in other utility communication pieces or through an alternative method approved by the commission. The costs of the insert and any other notification efforts will be considered in the utility's cost of service.

(e)  Require each utility to consider the most cost-effective method possible

when implementing the program; and

(f)  Ensure that there is a mechanism for customers who make electronic

payments to the utility to remove the optional charge from their monthly payments.

Source: L. 2005: Entire article added, p. 480, � 1, effective May 5.


40-8.7-105.5.  Energy assistance system benefit charge - repeal. (1) (a)  On

and after October 1, 2021, and except as provided in section 40-8.7-104 (2.5)(b), each investor-owned energy utility shall include on its customers' monthly bills a flat energy assistance system benefit charge that a customer is assessed to help finance the low-income energy assistance program.

(b) (I)  Except as provided in subsection (1)(b)(III) of this section, the monthly

energy assistance system benefit charge is seventy-five cents for electric service provided and seventy-five cents for natural gas service provided.

(II)  Repealed.


(III)  Commencing October 1, 2023, the monthly energy assistance system

benefit charge shall be adjusted in accordance with changes in the United States department of labor's bureau of labor statistics consumer price index for Denver-Aurora-Lakewood for all items and all urban consumers, or its successor index.

(2)  Each investor-owned utility shall use the most cost-effective method for

implementing the program.

(3)  This section is repealed, effective January 1, 2029.


Source: L. 2021: Entire section added, (HB 21-1105), ch. 488, p. 3502, � 10,

effective September 7. L. 2025: (1)(b)(I) amended, (SB 25-300), ch. 428, p. 2459, � 66, effective August 6.

Editor's note: Subsection (1)(b)(II)(B) provided for the repeal of subsection

(1)(b)(II), effective September 1, 2023. (See L. 2021, p. 3502.)

40-8.7-106.  Municipally owned gas, electric, and gas and electric utilities

and cooperative electric associations. (1) If a municipally owned gas, electric, or gas and electric utility or a cooperative electric association operates an alternative energy assistance program to support its low-income customers with their home energy needs, then the governing body of the municipally owned gas, electric, or gas and electric utility or cooperative electric association may self-certify its alternative energy assistance program and, upon self-certification, shall have no obligations under this article. The municipally owned utility or cooperative electric association shall submit a statement to the organization that such utility or cooperative electric association has an alternative energy assistance program. In order for such utility or cooperative electric association to self-certify, such alternative energy assistance program shall meet the following criteria:

(a)  The amount and method for funding of the program shall be determined

by the governing body.

(b)  Program moneys shall be collected and distributed in a manner and under

eligibility criteria determined by the governing body for the purpose of residential energy assistance to customers who are challenged with paying energy bills for financial reasons, including to seniors on fixed incomes, individuals with disabilities, and low-income individuals.

(2)  If the governing body of a municipally owned gas, electric, or gas and

electric utility or a cooperative electric association determines that the service area of such utility or cooperative has a limited number of people who qualify for energy assistance, such utility or cooperative electric association may be exempt from the obligations of this article.

(3)  If a municipally owned gas, electric, or gas and electric utility or

cooperative electric association has not self-certified an alternative energy assistance program pursuant to subsection (1) of this section or has not exempted itself pursuant to subsection (2) of this section, such utility or cooperative electric association shall collect an optional energy assistance charge from its customers as provided in section 40-8.7-104 (1) and (2) or pursuant to a procedure approved by the governing municipal utility or cooperative, which procedure shall be designed to notify all customers at least twice each year of the option to contribute by means of a monthly energy assistance charge and shall provide a convenient means for customers to exercise that option. In such circumstances, the governing body of such utility or cooperative shall determine the disposition and delivery of the optional energy assistance charge that it collects on the following basis:

(a)  The governing body may elect to deliver the optional charge that it

collects to the organization for distribution in accordance with this article.

(b)  If the governing body does not make such election pursuant to paragraph

(a) of this subsection (3), the energy assistance moneys collected shall be distributed under eligibility criteria determined by the governing body for the purpose set forth in paragraph (b) of subsection (1) of this section.

(4)  A municipally owned gas, electric, or gas and electric utility or

cooperative electric association may provide funding for energy assistance to the organization by using a source of funding other than the optional customer contribution on each bill. If the amount of such assistance approximates the amount reasonably expected to be collected from an optional charge on customer bills, a municipal utility or cooperative need not certify its own program pursuant to subsection (1) of this section and need not collect an optional energy assistance charge but shall be entitled to participate in the organization's program.

(5)  Any reasonable costs that a municipally owned gas, electric, or gas and

electric utility or cooperative electric association incurs in connection with the program, including the initial costs of setting up the collection mechanism, may be reimbursed at the discretion of the governing body from the energy assistance moneys collected.

Source: L. 2005: Entire article added, p. 481, � 1, effective May 5.


40-8.7-107.  Disposition of contributions and charges. (1)  Each utility

collecting optional energy assistance contributions pursuant to section 40-8.7-104 (2) and each water utility collecting optional contributions pursuant to section 40-8.7-104.3 (1) shall transfer the money collected to the organization on the following schedule:

(a)  For the moneys collected during the period of January 1 to March 31 of

each year, the utility shall transfer the collected moneys to the organization before May 1 of such year;

(b)  For the moneys collected during the period of April 1 to June 30 of each

year, the utility shall transfer the collected moneys to the organization before August 1 of such year;

(c)  For moneys collected during the period of July 1 to September 30 of each

year, the utility shall transfer the collected moneys to the organization before November 1 of such year; and

(d)  For moneys collected during the period of October 1 to December 31 of

each year, the utility shall transfer the collected moneys to the organization before February 1 of the next year.

(1.5) (a)  An investor-owned utility collecting the energy assistance system

benefit charge pursuant to section 40-8.7-104 (2.5) shall transfer the money collected in accordance with the schedule established in subsection (1) of this section.

(b)  Except as provided in section 40-8.7-108 (2)(b), the organization shall use

the money collected from each investor-owned utility pursuant to section 40-8.7-104 (2.5) to help finance direct utility bill payment assistance and energy retrofits provided to low-income households within that investor-owned utility's service territory or within the service territory of an affiliated investor-owned utility.

(c)  Notwithstanding section 40-3-114, a utility regulated by the public

utilities commission may use funds collected from its customers for the purpose of complying with a statutory requirement to finance low-income energy assistance programs.

(2)  Each utility shall provide the organization with a summary of how the

moneys collected were generated, including the number of customers participating in the program.

(3)  The organization shall pay the public utilities commission from the

moneys transferred to the organization pursuant to subsection (1) of this section for any administrative costs incurred pursuant to this article.

Source: L. 2005: Entire article added, p. 482, � 1, effective May 5. L. 2021:

IP(1) amended and (1.5) added, (HB 21-1105), ch. 488, p. 3502, � 11, effective September 7.

40-8.7-108.  Energy outreach Colorado - administration of energy

assistance contributions and the system benefit charge. (1) The organization shall hold and administer all money collected for energy assistance pursuant to this article 8.7 delivered to it by the utilities pursuant to section 40-8.7-107 in a separately identifiable account, which shall be restricted to the purposes set forth in this article 8.7. The organization shall maintain its books and records pertaining to the energy assistance contributions and the energy assistance system benefit charge in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles and, in addition, shall maintain records adequate to identify the money collected by each utility. If the organization commingles the money collected and delivered with other assets of the organization for investment purposes, the organization shall maintain accurate accounts of the investment money and shall credit or charge a pro rata portion of all investment earnings, gains, or losses to the account that holds the optional energy assistance collections and energy assistance system benefit charges.

(2) (a)  Except as provided in subsection (2)(b) of this section, the organization

shall use the money collected from the optional energy assistance contributions and the energy assistance system benefit charge to provide low-income energy assistance and to improve energy efficiency. The organization shall pay the financial assistance money to each utility as vendor payments. The organization shall not use the money for propane, gas, or electric assistance for customers whose propane, gas, electric, or gas and electric companies or cooperative electric associations do not participate in the program. The organization may use up to five percent of the money collected for administration of the energy assistance program in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles; however, the organization shall not use any money collected from the energy assistance system benefit charge to pay employee salaries or bonuses.

(b)  In accordance with the payment amounts reflected in the organization's

budget prepared pursuant to subsection (3)(b) of this section and approved by the legislative commission on low-income energy and water assistance pursuant to section 40-8.5-103.5 (6)(c), the organization shall transmit a portion of the money collected from the energy assistance system benefit charge to the state treasurer, and the state treasurer shall credit that amount to the supplemental utility assistance fund created in section 26-2-307 (2)(a) for use by the department of human services in accordance with section 26-2-307 (1).

(3) (a) (I)  Subject to the allocation requirements set forth in subsections

(3)(a)(II) and (3)(a)(III) of this section, the organization shall, on an annual basis, develop a budget for the energy assistance program to determine the allocation of the money collected from the optional energy assistance contributions and the energy assistance system benefit charge, with not more than fifty percent of the total amount allocated to direct utility bill payment assistance. To improve and increase enrollment in the utility assistance programs, the budget must include an allocation of at least two percent of the money collected from the charge to be used to engage the assistance of community-based organizations that are active in outreach to, engagement of, and education for income-qualified communities, communities of color, and immigrant communities to help provide outreach and education about the utility assistance programs. The organization shall submit a copy of the budget to the Colorado energy office for its review.

(II)  Subject to subsection (3)(a)(IV) of this section, before the organization

begins allocating an amount of the money collected from the energy assistance system benefit charge to be credited to the supplemental utility assistance fund created in section 26-2-307 (2)(a), the organization, after allocating at least two percent of the money collected to community outreach as described in subsection (3)(a)(I) of this section, shall:

(A)  If the projected amount collected in the federal fiscal year, as

determined by the organization by April 30, will not exceed ten million dollars, allocate forty percent to the Colorado energy office created in section 24-38.5-101 for its weatherization assistance program and retain forty-five percent for the organization's energy assistance programs, with the legislative commission on low-income energy and water assistance, referred to in this subsection (3)(a) as the legislative commission, determining the allocation of the remaining money between the two entities pursuant to its budget approval authority under section 40-8.5-103.5 (6)(c); and

(B)  If the projected amount collected in the federal fiscal year, as

determined by the organization by April 30, will exceed ten million dollars, allocate forty-five percent to the Colorado energy office for its weatherization assistance program and retain forty-five percent for the organization's energy assistance programs, with the legislative commission determining the allocation of the remaining money between the two entities pursuant to its budget approval authority.

(III)  Subject to subsection (3)(a)(IV) of this section, once the organization

begins allocating an amount of the money collected from the energy assistance system benefit charge to be credited to the supplemental utility assistance fund created in section 26-2-307 (2)(a), the organization, after allocating money for the supplemental utility assistance fund and for community outreach as described in subsection (3)(a)(I) of this section, shall:

(A)  If the projected amount collected in the federal fiscal year, as

determined by the organization by April 30, will not exceed ten million dollars, allocate forty percent to the Colorado energy office for its weatherization assistance program and retain forty-five percent for the organization's energy assistance programs, with the legislative commission determining the allocation of the remaining money between the two entities pursuant to its budget approval authority under section 40-8.5-103.5 (6)(c); and

(B)  If the projected amount collected in the federal fiscal year, as

determined by the organization by April 30, will exceed ten million dollars, allocate forty-five percent to the Colorado energy office for its weatherization assistance program and retain forty-five percent for the organization's energy assistance programs, with the legislative commission determining the allocation of the remaining money between the two entities pursuant to its budget approval authority.

(IV)  If any money allocated to the Colorado energy office or retained by the

organization is not expended in the year for which it was allocated, the legislative commission may take that unexpended money into consideration in allocating money in the following year's budget pursuant to this subsection (3)(a).

(b)  As part of the budget developed pursuant to subsection (3)(a) of this

section, the organization shall calculate the amount of money from the energy assistance system benefit charge to transmit to the state treasurer pursuant to subsection (2)(b) of this section and the amount of the fuel assistance payments that the department of human services makes in accordance with section 26-2-307 (1).

Source: L. 2005: Entire article added, p. 483, � 1, effective May 5. L. 2021:

Entire section amended, (HB 21-1105), ch. 488, p. 3503, � 12, effective September 7.

40-8.7-108.5.  Energy outreach Colorado - administration of water

assistance contributions. (1) The organization shall hold and administer all money collected for water assistance pursuant to this article 8.7 delivered to it by water utilities pursuant to section 40-8.7-107 in a separately identifiable account, which shall be restricted to the purposes set forth in this article 8.7. The organization shall maintain its books and records pertaining to the water assistance contributions in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles and, in addition, shall maintain records adequate to identify the money collected by each water utility. If the organization commingles the money collected and delivered with other assets of the organization for investment purposes, the organization shall maintain accurate accounts of the investment money and shall credit or charge a pro rata portion of all investment earnings, gains, or losses to the account that holds the water assistance collections.

(2)  The organization shall use the water assistance contributions to provide

low-income water assistance. The organization shall pay the financial assistance money to each participating water utility as vendor payments. The organization shall not use the money for water assistance for customers whose water utility does not participate in the program. The organization may use up to five percent of the money collected for administration of the water assistance program in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles.

(3)  The organization shall, on an annual basis, develop a budget for the water

assistance program to determine the allocation of the water assistance contributions collected under this article 8.7.

Source: L. 2021: Entire section added, (HB 21-1105), ch. 488, p. 3505, � 13,

effective September 7.

40-8.7-109.  Low-income energy assistance program - eligibility. (1)  The

organization shall provide energy assistance to individuals and organizations in Colorado. Individuals eligible for low-income energy assistance shall be current or prospective utility customers who:

(a)  Are certified by the department of human services as qualified to receive

financial assistance payments;

(b)  Are citizens or legal residents of the United States and residents of

Colorado; and

(c)  Have a monthly household gross income at or below one hundred eighty-five percent of the federal poverty line.


(2)  The department of human services shall periodically recertify an

individual's eligibility to receive low-income energy assistance.

(3)  In providing low-income energy assistance, the organization shall give

priority to households where one or more persons are recipients of:

(a)  An old age pension as set forth in section 26-2-111 (2), C.R.S.;


(b)  Aid to the needy disabled as set forth in section 26-2-111 (4), C.R.S.;


(c)  Aid to the blind as set forth in section 26-2-111 (5), C.R.S.;


(d)  Supplemental social security disability benefits under 42 U.S.C. sec. 1396

et seq.; or

(e)  Colorado works program assistance as set forth in section 26-2-706.6,

C.R.S.

(4)  When installing energy retrofits as part of providing low-income energy

assistance, the organization and the Colorado energy office shall prioritize maximizing customer savings, reducing emissions, and improving indoor air quality.

Source: L. 2005: Entire article added, p. 483, � 1, effective May 5. L. 2008:

Entire section amended, p. 1801, � 23, effective July 1; (3)(e) amended, p. 1978, � 27, effective January 1, 2009. L. 2010: (1)(c) amended, (HB 10-1422), ch. 419, p. 2124, � 183, effective August 11. L. 2021: (4) added, (HB 21-1105), ch. 488, p. 3506, � 14, effective September 7.

Editor's note: Subsection (1)(e), amended by Senate Bill 08-177, was

renumbered as subsection (3)(e) and harmonized with House Bill 08-1227, effective January 1, 2009.

40-8.7-110.  Reports. (1)  The organization shall submit a written report to the

general assembly, the legislative audit committee, and the office of the state auditor on or before March 31 of each year covering the immediately preceding calendar year. The report must include:

(a)  An itemized account of the money received by the organization from each

utility for the low-income energy assistance program, including:

(I)  The money received from customers' optional energy assistance

contributions pursuant to section 40-8.7-104 (2); and

(II)  The money received from customers' monthly energy assistance system

benefit charges pursuant to section 40-8.7-104 (2.5), including information regarding the money received from each investor-owned utility and the money the organization has spent in each investor-owned utility's service territory or within the service territory of an affiliated investor-owned utility;

(a.5)  An itemized account of the money received by the organization from

each participating water utility for the organization's water assistance program pursuant to section 40-8.7-104.3;

(b)  For the low-income energy assistance program and the water assistance

program:

(I)  The amount of money distributed, the type of assistance provided, the

geographic area of the state served, and an itemization of the programs through which the money is expended;

(II)  The number of low-income households served, by utility or water utility

and by type of assistance provided;

(III)  An audited financial statement from the organization; and


(IV)  A summary of how the money collected was generated, including the

number of customers participating in the program.

(1.5)  To the extent applicable, the organization shall include in the report the

information required by subsections (1)(b)(I) and (1)(b)(II) of this section for money received from the Colorado energy office pursuant to section 40-8.7-112 (2)(a).

(2)  The organization shall post the report on its public website so that it is

available to the public for review.

(3)  Repealed.


(4)  Notwithstanding section 24-1-136 (11)(a)(I), the Colorado energy office

shall submit a written report to the general assembly, the legislative audit committee, and the office of the state auditor on or before March 31 of each year covering the immediately preceding calendar year. The report must include an itemized account of the money that the office received from the energy assistance system benefit charge collected pursuant to section 40-8.7-104 (2.5) for use for its weatherization assistance program, including information on the amount of money distributed, the type of assistance provided, and the geographic areas of the state served. The office shall post the report on its public website.

Source: L. 2005: Entire article added, p. 484, � 1, effective May 5. L. 2006:

(1.5) added, p. 6, � 2, effective February 3. L. 2008: (1.5) amended, p. 1874, � 15, effective June 2. L. 2012: (1.5) amended, (HB 12-1315), ch. 224, p. 981, � 52, effective July 1. L. 2020: (3) added, (HB 20-1412), ch. 113, p. 472, � 2, effective June 22. L. 2021: (1), (1.5), and (2) amended and (4) added, (HB 21-1105), ch. 488, p. 3506, � 15, effective September 7.

Editor's note: Subsection (3)(b) provided for the repeal of subsection (3),

effective January 1, 2022. (See L. 2020, p. 472.)

Cross references: For the legislative declaration in HB 20-1412, see section 1

of chapter 113, Session Laws of Colorado 2020.

40-8.7-111.  Jurisdiction of the public utilities commission. Nothing in this

article shall be construed to expand or alter the jurisdiction of the public utilities commission.

Source: L. 2005: Entire article added, p. 484, � 1, effective May 5.


40-8.7-112.  Department of human services low-income energy assistance

fund - energy outreach Colorado low-income energy assistance fund - Colorado energy office low-income energy assistance fund - creation - definitions - repeal. (1) There is hereby created in the state treasury the department of human services low-income energy assistance fund, which shall be administered by the dep


C.R.S. § 40-9-102

40-9-102. Definitions. As used in sections 40-9-101 to 40-9-105, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1)  Common carriers also includes express companies, private freight car

lines, and pipe lines.

(2)  Railroad includes all bridges used or operated in connection with any

railroad; all the roads in use by any corporation operating a railroad, whether owned or operated under a contract, agreement, or lease; all switches, spurs, tracks, and terminal facilities of every kind used or necessary in transportation of persons or property; all freight depots, yards, and grounds used or necessary in the transportation of persons or property; and all freight depots, yards, and grounds, used or necessary in the transportation or delivery of any of said property.

(3)  Transportation includes all cars, and all other vehicles and

instrumentalities and facilities of a shipment or carriage, irrespective of ownership or of any contract, express or implied, for the use thereof, and all service in connection with the receipt, delivery, elevation, and transfer in transit, ventilation, refrigeration or icing, demurrage, storing, or handling of property transported. It is the duty of every common carrier, subject to the provisions of sections 40-9-101 to 40-9-105, to provide such transportation upon reasonable request therefor, and to establish through routes and just and reasonable rates applicable thereto, and to provide a sufficient number of cars and a reasonable time schedule for trains.

Source: L. 07: p. 532, � 2. R.S. 08: � 5446. L. 10: p. 46, � 2. C.L. � 2979. CSA:

C. 29, � 2. CRS 53: � 115-12-2. C.R.S. 1963: � 115-12-2.


C.R.S. § 42-14-105

42-14-105. Idling. (1) Standard. The owner or operator of a covered vehicle shall not cause or permit the vehicle to idle for more than five minutes within any sixty-minute period except as authorized by subsection (2) of this section.

(2)  Exemptions. Subsection (1) of this section does not apply to an idling,

covered vehicle:

(a)  When it remains motionless because of highway traffic, an official traffic

control device or signal, or at the direction of a law enforcement officer;

(b)  When the driver is operating defrosters, heaters, or air conditioners or is

installing equipment only to prevent a safety or health emergency, and not for rest periods;

(c)  In the case of a law enforcement, emergency, public safety, or military

vehicle, or any other vehicle used to respond to an emergency, when it is responding to an emergency or being used for training for an emergency, and not for the convenience of the vehicle operator;

(d)  When necessary for required maintenance, servicing, or repair of the

vehicle;

(e)  During a local, state, or federal inspection verifying that the equipment is

in good working order if required for the inspection;

(f)  During the operation of power take-off equipment if necessary for

operating work-related mechanical or electrical equipment;

(g)  In the case of an armored vehicle, when a person is inside the vehicle to

guard its contents or during the loading or unloading of the vehicle;

(h)  In the case of a passenger bus, when idling for up to five minutes in any

sixty-minute period to maintain passenger comfort while nondriver passengers are on board;

(i)  When used to heat or cool a sleeper berth compartment during a rest or

sleep period at a safety rest area as defined under 23 CFR 752.3, fleet trucking terminal, commercial truck stop, or state-designated location designed to be a driver's rest area;

(j)  When used to heat or cool a sleeper berth compartment during a rest or

sleep period at a location where the vehicle is legally permitted to park and that is at least one thousand feet from residential housing, a school, a daycare facility, a hospital, a senior citizen center, or a medical outpatient facility providing primary, specialty, or respiratory care;

(k)  When idling for up to twenty minutes in any sixty-minute period if the

ambient temperature is less then ten degrees; or

(l)  For a critical service or a utility provider, when performing the functions of

the provider's duties.

Source: L. 2011: Entire article added, (HB 11-1275), ch. 215, p. 943, � 2,

effective July 1. L. 2024: (2)(j) and (2)(k) amended and (2)(l) added, (HB 24-1341), ch. 132, p. 477, � 3, effective August 7.


C.R.S. § 44-10-203

44-10-203. State licensing authority - rules - repeal. (1) [Editor's note: This version of the introductory portion to subsection (1) is effective until January 5, 2026.] Permissive rule-making. Rules promulgated pursuant to section 44-10-202 (1)(c) may include the following subjects:

(1) [Editor's note: This version of the introductory portion to subsection (1) is

effective January 5, 2026.] Permissive rule-making. Rules adopted pursuant to section 44-10-202 (1)(c) may include the following subjects:

(a)  Labeling guidelines concerning the total content of THC per unit of

weight;

(b)  Control of informational and product displays on licensed premises;


(c) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (1)(c) is effective until January 5,

2026.] Records to be kept by licensees and the required availability of the records;

(c) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (1)(c) is effective January 5,

2026.] Records to be kept by licensees and the required availability of the records. The records required to be kept may include the following:

(I)  Child resistance certificates;


(II)  Testing records;


(III)  Certificates of analysis or other records demonstrating the composition

of raw ingredients used in vaporizers or pressured metered dose inhalers;

(IV)  Recall records;


(V)  Adverse health events;


(VI)  Corrective action and preventive action records;


(VII)  Documentation required to demonstrate valid responsible vendor

designation;

(VIII)  Standard operating procedures;


(IX)  Transfer records to account for regulated marijuana transactions;


(X)  Expiration date testing and use-by-date testing;


(XI)  Patient records; and


(XII)  Advertising records.


(d)  Permitted economic interests issued prior to January 1, 2020, including a

process for a criminal history record check, a requirement that a permitted economic interest applicant submit to and pass a criminal history record check, a divestiture, and other agreements that would qualify as permitted economic interests;

(e)  Specifications of duties of officers and employees of the state licensing

authority;

(f)  Instructions for local licensing authorities and law enforcement officers;


(g)  Requirements for inspections, investigations, searches, seizures,

forfeitures, and such additional activities as may become necessary from time to time;

(h)  Prohibition of misrepresentation and unfair practices;


(i)  Marijuana research and development licenses, including application

requirements; renewal requirements, including whether additional research projects may be added or considered; conditions for license revocation; security measures to ensure marijuana is not diverted to purposes other than research or diverted outside of the regulated marijuana market; the amount of plants, useable marijuana, marijuana concentrates, or marijuana products a licensee may have on its premises; licensee reporting requirements; the conditions under which marijuana possessed by medical marijuana licensees may be donated to marijuana research and development licensees or transferred to a nonmetric-based research facility; provisions to prevent contamination; requirements for destruction or transfer of marijuana after the research is concluded; and any additional requirements;

(j)  A definition for disproportionate impacted area to the extent relevant

state of Colorado data exists, is available, and is used for the purpose of determining eligibility for a social equity licensee;

(j.3)  The documentation a natural person applying to be a social equity

licensee must provide and the documentation verification the state licensing authority performs;

(j.5) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (1)(j.5) is effective until January

5, 2026.] The implementation of contingency plans pursuant to sections 44-10-502 (10) and 44-10-602 (14), including the definition of outdoor cultivation, adverse weather event, or adverse natural occurrence and the process, procedures, requirements, and restrictions for contingency plans; and

(j.5) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (1)(j.5) is effective January 5,

2026.] The implementation of contingency plans pursuant to sections 44-10-502 (10) and 44-10-602 (14), including the definition of outdoor cultivation, adverse weather event, or adverse natural occurrence and the process, procedures, requirements, and restrictions for contingency plans;

(k)  Such other matters as are necessary for the fair, impartial, stringent, and

comprehensive administration of this article 10;

(l) [Editor's note: Subsection (1)(l) is effective January 5, 2026.] Development

of individual identification cards for:

(I)  Controlling beneficial owners;


(II)  Passive beneficial owners; or


(III)  Individuals who handle or transport regulated marijuana on behalf of

entities licensed pursuant to this article 10.

(m) [Editor's note: Subsection (1)(m) is effective January 5, 2026.]

Requirements for medical marijuana products manufacturers or retail marijuana products manufacturers to use an approved licensed premises and approved equipment to manufacture and prepare products not infused with regulated marijuana for the purpose of quality control and research and development in the formulation of regulated marijuana products.

(2) [Editor's note: This version of the introductory portion to subsection (2) is

effective until January 5, 2026.] Mandatory rule-making. Rules promulgated pursuant to section 44-10-202 (1)(c) must include the following subjects:

(2) [Editor's note: This version of the introductory portion to subsection (2) is

effective January 5, 2026.] Mandatory rule-making. Rules adopted pursuant to section 44-10-202 (1)(c) must include the following subjects:

(a)  Procedures consistent with this article 10 for the issuance, renewal,

suspension, and revocation of licenses to operate medical marijuana businesses and retail marijuana businesses;

(b)  Subject to the limitations contained in section 16 (5)(a)(II) of article XVIII

of the state constitution and consistent with this article 10, a schedule of application, licensing, and renewal fees for medical marijuana businesses and retail marijuana businesses;

(c) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (2)(c) is effective until January 5,

2026.] Qualifications for licensure pursuant to this article 10, including but not limited to the requirement for a fingerprint-based criminal history record check for all controlling beneficial owners, passive beneficial owners, managers, contractors, employees, and other support staff of entities licensed pursuant to this article 10;

(c) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (2)(c) is effective January 5,

2026.] Qualifications for initial licensure pursuant to this article 10, including the requirement for a fingerprint-based criminal history record check for all controlling beneficial owners and passive beneficial owners of entities licensed pursuant to this article 10 and name-based judicial record checks for employees of regulated marijuana businesses;

(d) (I)  Establishment of a marijuana and marijuana products independent

testing and certification program for marijuana business licensees, within an implementation time frame established by the department, requiring licensees to test marijuana and hemp products to ensure, at a minimum, that products sold for human consumption by persons licensed pursuant to this article 10 do not contain contaminants that are injurious to health and to ensure correct labeling.

(II)  Testing may include analysis for microbial and residual solvents and

chemical and biological contaminants deemed to be public health hazards by the Colorado department of public health and environment based on medical reports and published scientific literature.

(III) (A)  If test results indicate the presence of a substance determined to be

injurious to health, the medical marijuana or retail marijuana licensee shall immediately quarantine the products and notify the state licensing authority. The state licensing authority shall give the licensee an opportunity to remediate or decontaminate the product if the test indicated the presence of a microbial. If the licensee is unable to remediate or decontaminate the product, the licensee shall document and properly destroy the adulterated product. If the licensee is able to remediate or decontaminate the product and the product passes retesting, the licensee need not provide an additional label that would otherwise not be required for a product that passed initial testing.

(B)  If retail marijuana or retail marijuana product test results indicate the

presence of quantities of a substance determined to be injurious to health, including pesticides, the state licensing authority shall give the licensee an opportunity to retest the retail marijuana or retail marijuana product.

(C)  If two additional tests of the retail marijuana or retail marijuana product

do not indicate the presence of quantities of any substance determined to be injurious to health, the product may be used or sold by the retail marijuana licensee.

(IV) (A)  Testing must also verify THC potency representations and

homogeneity for correct labeling and provide a cannabinoid profile for the regulated marijuana product.

(B)  An individual retail marijuana piece of ten milligrams or less that has

gone through process validation is exempt from continued homogeneity testing.

(C)  Homogeneity testing for one hundred milligram servings of retail

marijuana may utilize validation measures.

(V)  The state licensing authority shall determine an acceptable variance for

potency representations and procedures to address potency misrepresentations. The state licensing authority shall determine an acceptable variance of at least plus or minus fifteen percent for potency representations and procedures to address potency misrepresentations.

(VI)  The state licensing authority shall determine the protocols and

frequency of regulated marijuana testing by licensees.

(VII)  A state, local, or municipal agency shall not employ or use the results of

any test of regulated marijuana or regulated marijuana products conducted by an analytical laboratory that is not certified pursuant to this subsection (2)(d)(VII) for the particular testing category or that is not accredited to the International Organization for Standardization/International Electrotechnical Commission 17025:2005 standard, or any subsequent superseding standard, in that field of testing. Starting January 1, 2018, a state, local, or municipal agency may use or employ the results of any test of regulated marijuana or regulated marijuana products conducted on or after January 1, 2018, by an analytical laboratory that is certified pursuant to this subsection (2)(d)(VII) for the particular testing category or is accredited pursuant to the International Organization for Standardization/International Electrotechnical Commission 17025:2005 standard, or any subsequent superseding standard, in that field of testing.

(VIII)  On or before January 1, 2019, the state licensing authority shall require

a medical marijuana testing facility or retail marijuana testing facility to be accredited by a body that is itself recognized by the International Laboratory Accreditation Cooperation in a category of testing pursuant to the International Organization for Standardization/International Electrotechnical Commission 17025:2005 standard, or a subsequent superseding standard, in order to receive certification or maintain certification; except that the state licensing authority may by rule establish conditions for providing extensions to a newly licensed medical marijuana testing facility or retail marijuana testing facility for a period not to exceed twelve months or a medical marijuana testing facility or retail marijuana testing facility for good cause as defined by rules promulgated by the state licensing authority, which must include but may not be limited to when an application for accreditation has been submitted and is pending with a recognized accrediting body.

(IX)  The state licensing authority shall promulgate rules that prevent

redundant testing of marijuana and marijuana concentrate, including, but not limited to, potency testing of marijuana allocated to extractions, and residual solvent testing of marijuana concentrate when all inputs of the marijuana concentrate have passed residual solvent testing pursuant to this subsection (2)(d).

(e) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (2)(e) is effective until January

5, 2026.] Security requirements for any premises licensed pursuant to this article 10, including, at a minimum, lighting, physical security, video, and alarm requirements, and other minimum procedures for internal control as deemed necessary by the state licensing authority to properly administer and enforce this article 10, including biennial reporting requirements for changes, alterations, or modifications to the premises;

(e) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (2)(e) is effective January 5,

2026.] Security requirements for any premises licensed pursuant to this article 10. The security requirements must include, at a minimum, lighting, physical security, video, and alarm requirements; other minimum procedures for internal control as deemed necessary by the state licensing authority to properly administer and enforce this article 10; procedures for requiring written requests and providing licensees at least seventy-two hours to respond to requests to obtain copies of surveillance recordings created and maintained by the licensee; and biennial reporting requirements for changes, alterations, or modifications to the premises. Surveillance requirements for video recording areas of the licensed premises must include the following requirements:

(I)  Each point of ingress and egress to the exterior of the licensed premises

must be surveilled;

(II)  Points of sale with coverage of the customer or patient and occupational

licensee completing the sale must be surveilled;

(III)  Areas of the licensed premises where shipping and receiving of

regulated marijuana occurs, test batches are collected, and regulated marijuana waste is destroyed must be surveilled; and

(IV)  Delivery vehicle surveillance;


(f)  Labeling requirements for regulated marijuana and regulated marijuana

products sold by a medical marijuana business or retail marijuana business that are at least as stringent as those imposed by section 25-4-1614 (3)(a) and include but are not limited to:

(I)  Warning labels;


(II)  Amount of THC per serving and the number of servings per package for

regulated marijuana products;

(III)  A universal symbol indicating that the package contains marijuana; and


(IV)  Potency of the regulated marijuana and regulated marijuana products;


(g)  Health and safety regulations and standards for the manufacture of

regulated marijuana products and the cultivation of regulated marijuana, including procedures for the embargo and destruction of regulated marijuana in accordance with section 44-10-207;

(h)  Regulation of the storage of, warehouses for, and transportation of

regulated marijuana and regulated marijuana products, including procedures for the administrative hold of regulated marijuana and regulated marijuana products pursuant to section 44-10-207, including establishing the following standards and processes to resolve administrative holds in a timely manner:

(I)  Defining circumstances for the issuance of an administrative hold, which

circumstances must be based on objectives related to preventing the destruction of evidence, preventing diversion, or addressing a threat to public safety;

(II)  Reasonable time frames and actions for the expedient resolution of an

administrative hold issued to preserve evidence and standards by which the state licensing authority would have reasonable grounds to extend an administrative hold due to the nature of the investigation or a threat to public safety;

(III)  Reasonable expectations and timelines for notices of administrative

holds and subsequent processes; and

(IV)  Processes allowing a licensee to destroy any regulated marijuana or

regulated marijuana products that are subject to an administrative hold when the need to preserve evidence has subsided;

(i)  Sanitary requirements for medical marijuana businesses and retail

marijuana businesses, including but not limited to sanitary requirements for the preparation of regulated marijuana products;

(j)  The reporting and transmittal of monthly sales tax payments by medical

marijuana stores and retail marijuana stores and any applicable excise tax payments by retail marijuana cultivation facilities;

(k)  Authorization for the department to have access to licensing information

to ensure sales, excise, and income tax payment and the effective administration of this article 10;

(l)  Compliance with, enforcement of, or violation of any provision of this

article 10, section 18-18-406.3 (7), or any rule promulgated pursuant to this article 10, including procedures and grounds for denying, suspending, fining, restricting, or revoking a state license issued pursuant to this article 10;

(m)  Establishing a schedule of penalties and procedures for issuing and

appealing citations for violation of statutes and rules and issuing administrative citations;

(n)  Medical marijuana transporter licensed businesses and retail marijuana

transporter licensed businesses, including requirements for drivers, including obtaining and maintaining a valid Colorado driver's license; insurance requirements; acceptable time frames for transport, storage, and delivery; requirements for transport vehicles; requirements for deliveries; and requirements for licensed premises;

(o)  Medical marijuana business operator licenses and retail marijuana

business operator licensees, including the form and structure of allowable agreements between operators and the medical or retail marijuana business;

(p)  Unescorted visitors in limited access areas;


(q)  Temporary appointee registrations issued pursuant to section 44-10-401

(3), including occupational and business registration requirements; application time frames; notification requirements; issuance, expiration, renewal, suspension, and revocation of a temporary appointee registration; and conditions of registration;

(r)  Requirements for a centralized distribution permit for medical marijuana

cultivation facilities or retail marijuana cultivation facilities issued pursuant to section 44-10-502 (6) or 44-10-602 (7), including but not limited to permit application requirements and privileges and restrictions of a centralized distribution permit;

(s)  Requirements for issuance of co-location permits to a marijuana research

and development licensee authorizing co-location with a medical marijuana products manufacturer or retail marijuana products manufacturer licensed premises, including application requirements, eligibility, restrictions to prevent cross-contamination and to ensure physical separation of inventory and research activities, and other privileges and restrictions of permits;

(t) (I)  Development of individual identification cards for individuals working in

or having unescorted access to the limited access areas of the licensed premises of a medical marijuana business or retail marijuana business, including a fingerprint-based criminal history record check as may be required by the state licensing authority prior to issuing a card;

(II)  This subsection (2)(t) is repealed, effective January 5, 2026.


(u)  Identification of state licensees and their controlling beneficial owners,

passive beneficial owners, managers, and employees;

(v)  The specification of acceptable forms of picture identification that a

medical marijuana store or retail marijuana store may accept when verifying a sale, including but not limited to government-issued identification cards;

(w)  State licensing procedures, including procedures for renewals,

reinstatements, initial licenses, and the payment of licensing fees;

(x) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (2)(x) is effective until January

5, 2026.] The conditions under which a licensee is authorized to transfer fibrous waste to a person for the purpose of producing only industrial fiber products. The conditions must include contract requirements that stipulate that the fibrous waste will only be used to produce industrial fiber products; record-keeping requirements; security measures related to the transport and transfer of fibrous waste; requirements for handling contaminated fibrous waste; and processes associated with handling fibrous waste. The rules must not require licensees to alter fibrous waste from its natural state prior to transfer.

(x) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (2)(x) is effective January 5,

2026.] The conditions under which a licensee is authorized to transfer fibrous waste to a person for the purpose of producing only industrial fiber products. The conditions must include contract requirements that stipulate that the fibrous waste will only be used to produce industrial fiber products; security measures related to the transport and transfer of fibrous waste; requirements for handling contaminated fibrous waste; and processes associated with handling fibrous waste. The rules must not require licensees to alter fibrous waste from its natural state before transfer.

(y)  Requiring that edible regulated marijuana products be clearly

identifiable, when practicable, with a standard symbol indicating that they contain marijuana and are not for consumption by children. The symbols promulgated by rule of the state licensing authority must not appropriate signs or symbols associated with another Colorado business or industry;

(z)  Requirements to prevent the sale or diversion of retail marijuana and

retail marijuana products to persons under twenty-one years of age;

(aa)  The implementation of an accelerator program including but not limited

to rules to establish requirements for social equity licensees operating on the same licensed premises or on separate premises possessed by an accelerator-endorsed licensee. The state licensing authority's rules establishing an accelerator program may include requirements for severed custodianship of regulated marijuana products, protections of the intellectual property of a social equity licensee, incentives for accelerator-endorsed licensees, and additional requirements if a person applying for an accelerator endorsement has less than two years' experience operating a licensed facility pursuant to this article 10. An accelerator-endorsed licensee is not required to exercise the privileges of its license on the premises where a social equity licensee operates. The state licensing authority's implementation of an accelerator program is extended from July 1, 2020, to January 1, 2021.

(bb) [Editor's note: This version of the introductory portion to subsection

(2)(bb) is effective until January 5, 2026.] Conditions under which a licensee is authorized to collect marijuana consumer waste and transfer it to a person for the purposes of reuse or recycling in accordance with all requirements established by the department of public health and environment pertaining to waste disposal and recycling. The conditions must include:

(bb) [Editor's note: This version of the introductory portion to subsection

(2)(bb) is effective January 5, 2026.] The conditions under which a licensee is authorized to collect marijuana consumer waste and transfer it to a person for the purposes of reuse or recycling in accordance with all requirements established by the department of public health and environment pertaining to waste disposal and recycling. The conditions must include:

(I)  That the person receiving marijuana consumer waste from a licensee is, to

the extent required by law, registered with the department of public health and environment;

(II) (A)  Record-keeping requirements;


(B)  This subsection (2)(bb)(II) is repealed, effective January 5, 2026.


(III)  Security measures related to the collection and transfer of marijuana

consumer waste;

(IV)  Health and safety requirements, including requirements for the handling

of marijuana consumer waste; and

(V)  Processes associated with handling marijuana consumer waste, including

destruction of any remaining regulated marijuana in the marijuana consumer waste.

(cc)  Requirements for a transition permit for medical marijuana cultivation

facilities or retail marijuana cultivation facilities issued pursuant to section 44-10-313 (13)(c), including but not limited to permit application requirements and restrictions of a transition permit;

(dd) [Editor's note: This version of the introductory portion to subsection

(2)(dd) is effective until January 5, 2026.] Requirements for medical marijuana and medical marijuana products delivery as described in section 44-10-501 (11) and section 44-10-505 (5) and retail marijuana and retail marijuana products delivery as described in sections 44-10-601 (13) and 44-10-605 (5), including:

(dd) [Editor's note: This version of the introductory portion to subsection

(2)(dd) is effective January 5, 2026.] Requirements for medical marijuana and medical marijuana products delivery as described in sections 44-10-501 (11) and 44-10-505 (5) and retail marijuana and retail marijuana products delivery as described in sections 44-10-601 (13) and 44-10-605 (5), including:

(I)  Qualifications and eligibility requirements for licensed medical marijuana

stores, retail marijuana stores, medical marijuana transporters, and retail marijuana transporters applying for a medical marijuana delivery permit;

(II)  Training requirements for personnel of medical marijuana stores, retail

marijuana stores, medical marijuana transporters, and retail marijuana transporters that hold a medical marijuana or retail marijuana delivery permit who will deliver medical marijuana or medical marijuana products or retail marijuana or retail marijuana products pursuant to this article 10 and requirements that medical marijuana stores, retail marijuana stores, medical marijuana transporters, and retail marijuana transporters be considered to have a responsible vendor designation pursuant to section 44-10-1201 prior to conducting a delivery;

(III)  Procedures for proof of medical marijuana registry and age identification

and verification;

(IV)  Security requirements;


(V) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (2)(dd)(V) is effective until

January 5, 2026.] Delivery vehicle requirements, including requirements for surveillance;

(V) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (2)(dd)(V) is effective January 5,

2026.] Delivery vehicle requirements;

(VI) (A)  Record-keeping requirements;


(B)  This subsection (2)(dd)(VI) is repealed, effective January 5, 2026.


(VII)  Limits on the amount of medical marijuana and medical marijuana

products and retail marijuana and retail marijuana products that may be carried in a delivery vehicle and delivered to a patient or parent or guardian or individual, which cannot exceed limits placed on sales at licensed medical marijuana stores;

(VIII)  Limits on the amount of retail marijuana and retail marijuana products

that may be carried in a delivery vehicle and delivered to an individual, which cannot exceed limits placed on sales at retail marijuana stores;

(IX)  Inventory tracking system requirements, which include the ability to

determine the amount of medical marijuana a patient has purchased that day in real time by searching a patient registration number;

(X)  Health and safety requirements for medical marijuana and medical

marijuana products delivered to a patient or parent or guardian and for retail marijuana and retail marijuana products delivered to an individual;

(XI)  Confidentiality requirements to ensure that persons delivering medical

marijuana and medical marijuana products or retail marijuana and retail marijuana products pursuant to this article 10 do not disclose personal identifying information to any person other than those who need that information in order to take, process, or deliver the order or as otherwise required or authorized by this article 10, title 18, or title 25;

(XII)  An application fee and annual renewal fee for the medical marijuana

delivery permit and the retail marijuana delivery permit. The amount of the fee must reflect the expected costs of administering the medical marijuana delivery permit and the retail marijuana delivery permit and may be adjusted by the state licensing authority to reflect the permit's actual direct and indirect costs.

(XIII)  The permitted hours of delivery of medical marijuana and medical

marijuana products and retail marijuana and retail marijuana products;

(XIV) (A)  Requirements for areas where medical marijuana and medical

marijuana products or retail marijuana and retail marijuana products orders are stored, weighed, packaged, prepared, and tagged, including requirements that medical marijuana and medical marijuana products or retail marijuana and retail marijuana products cannot be placed into a delivery vehicle until after an order has been placed and that all delivery orders must be packaged on the licensed premises of a medical marijuana store or retail marijuana store or its associated state licensing authority-authorized storage facility as defined by rule after an order has been received.

(B)  By January 1, 2027, the state licensing authority shall promulgate rules

that do not require licensees to use radio frequency identification technology to track regulated marijuana in seed-to-sale tracking system requirements established by rule.

(XV)  Payment methods, including but not limited to the use of gift cards and

prepayment accounts;

(ee) (I) (A)  Ownership and financial disclosure procedures and requirements

pursuant to this article 10;

(B)  Records a medical marijuana business or retail marijuana business is

required to maintain regarding its controlling beneficial owners, passive beneficial owners, and indirect financial interest holders that may be subject to disclosure at renewal or as part of any other investigation following initial licensure of a medical marijuana business or retail marijuana business;

(C)  Procedures and requirements for findings of suitability pursuant to this

article 10, including fees necessary to cover the direct and indirect costs of any suitability investigation;

(D)  Procedures and requirements concerning the divestiture of the beneficial

ownership of a person found unsuitable by the state licensing authority;

(E)  Procedures, processes, and requirements for transfers of ownership

involving a publicly traded corporation, including but not limited to mergers with a publicly traded corporation, investment by a publicly traded corporation, and public offerings;

(F)  Designation of persons that by virtue of common control constitute

controlling beneficial owners;

(G)  Modification of the percentage of owner's interests that may be held by a

controlling beneficial owner and passive beneficial owner;

(H)  Designation of persons that qualify for an exemption from an otherwise

required finding of suitability; and

(I)  Designation of indirect financial interest holders and qualified institutional

investors.

(II)  Rules promulgated pursuant to this subsection (2)(ee) must not be any

more restrictive than the requirements expressly established under this article 10.

(ff)  The implementation of marijuana hospitality and retail marijuana

hospitality and sales business licenses, including but not limited to:

(I)  General insurance liability requirements;


(II)  A sales limit per transaction for retail marijuana and retail marijuana

products that may be sold to a patron of a retail marijuana hospitality and sales business; except that the sales limit established by the state licensing authority must not be an amount less than one gram of retail marijuana flower, one-quarter of one gram of retail marijuana concentrate, or a retail marijuana product containing not more than ten milligrams of active THC;

(III)  Restrictions on the type of any retail marijuana or retail marijuana

product authorized to be sold, including that the marijuana or product be meant for consumption in the licensed premises of the business;

(IV)  Prohibitions on activity that would require additional licensure on the

licensed premises, including but not limited to sales, manufacturing, or cultivation activity;

(V)  Requirements for marijuana hospitality businesses and retail marijuana

hospitality and sales businesses operating pursuant to section 44-10-609 or 44-10-610 in a retail food business;

(VI)  Requirements for marijuana hospitality businesses and retail marijuana

hospitality and sales business licensees to destroy any unconsumed marijuana or marijuana products left behind by a patron; and

(VII)  Rules to ensure compliance with section 42-4-1305.5;


(gg) [Editor's note: This version of the introductory portion to subsection

(1)(gg) is effective until January 5, 2026.] For marijuana hospitality businesses that are mobile, regulations including but not limited to:

(gg) [Editor's note: This version of the introductory portion to subsection

(1)(gg) is effective January 5, 2026.] For marijuana hospitality businesses that are mobile, regulations including:

(I)  Registration of vehicles and proper designation of vehicles used as mobile

licensed premises;

(II) (A)  Surveillance cameras inside the vehicles;


(B)  This subsection (2)(gg)(II) is repealed, effective January 5, 2026.


(III)  Global positioning system tracking and route logging in an established

route manifest system;

(IV)  Compliance with section 42-4-1305.5;


(V)  Ensuring activity is not visible outside of the vehicle; and


(VI)  Proper ventilation within the vehicle;


(hh)  The circumstances that constitute a significant physical or geographic

hardship as used in section 44-10-501 (13);

(ii)  Effective January 1, 2023, requirements for medical and retail marijuana

concentrate to promote consumer health and awareness, which shall include a recommended serving size, visual representation of one recommended serving, and labeling requirements and may include a measuring device that may be used to measure one recommended serving;

(jj)  Allowing a person to operate a licensed medical marijuana business and a

licensed retail marijuana business at the same location pursuant to section 44-10-313 (14).

(kk) [Editor's note: Subsection (2)(kk) is effective January 5, 2026.] R-and-D

unit limits and requirement, including limits on the number of occupational licensees that may receive R-and-D units from an employer, a requirement that an occupational licensee be designated to receive R-and-D units in the seed-to-sale inventory tracking system, and limits on how many R-and-D units may be evaluated by an occupational licensee.

(3)  In promulgating rules pursuant to this section, the state licensing

authority may seek the assistance of the department of public health and environment when necessary before promulgating rules on the following subjects:

(a)  Signage, marketing, and advertising, including but not limited to a

prohibition on mass-market campaigns that have a high likelihood of reaching persons under eighteen years of age for medical marijuana and have a high likelihood of reaching persons under twenty-one years of age for retail marijuana and other such rules that may include:

(I)  Allowing packaging and accessory branding;


(II)  Prohibiting health or physical benefit claims in advertising,

merchandising, and packaging;

(III)  Prohibiting unsolicited pop-up advertising on the internet;


(IV)  Prohibiting banner ads on mass-market websites;


(V)  Prohibiting opt-in marketing that does not permit an easy and permanent

opt-out feature;

(VI)  Prohibiting marketing directed toward location-based devices, including

but not limited to cellular phones, unless the marketing is a mobile device application installed on the device by the owner of the device who is eighteen years of age or older for medical marijuana and twenty-one years of age or older for retail marijuana and includes a permanent and easy opt-out feature;

(VII)  Prohibiting advertising and marketing by a medical marijuana business

that is specifically directed at persons who are under twenty-one years of age; and

(VIII)  Requirements that any advertising or marketing specific to medical

marijuana concentrate or retail marijuana concentrate include a notice regarding the potential risks of medical marijuana concentrate or retail marijuana concentrate overconsumption;

(b)  A prohibition on the sale of regulated marijuana and regulated marijuana

products unless the product is:

(I)  Packaged in packaging meeting requirements established by the state

licensing authority similar to the federal Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970, 15 U.S.C. sec. 1471 et seq., as amended; and

(II)  Placed in an opaque and resealable exit package or container meeting

requirements established by the state licensing authority at the point of sale prior to exiting the store;

(c)  The safe and lawful transport of regulated marijuana and regulated

marijuana products between the licensed business and testing laboratories;

(d)  A standardized marijuana serving size amount for edible retail marijuana

products that does not contain more than ten milligrams of active THC, designed only to provide consumers with information about the total number of servings of active THC in a particular retail marijuana product, not as a limitation on the total amount of THC in any particular item; labeling requirements regarding servings for edible retail marijuana products; and limitations on the total amount of active THC in a sealed internal package that is no more than one hundred milligrams of active THC;

(e)  Prohibition on or regulation of additives to any regulated marijuana

product, including but not limited to those that are toxic, designed to make the product more addictive, designed to make the product more appealing to children, or misleading to consumers, but not including common baking and cooking items;

(f)  Permission for a local fire department to conduct an annual fire

inspection of a medical marijuana cultivation facility or retail marijuana cultivation facility;

(g)  A prohibition on the production and sale of edible regulated marijuana

products that are in the distinct shape of a human, animal, or fruit. Geometric shapes and products that are simply fruit flavored are not considered fruit. Products in the shape of a marijuana leaf are permissible. Nothing in this subsection (3)(g) applies to a company logo.

(h)  A requirement that every medical marijuana store and retail marijuana

store post, at all times and in a prominent place at every point of sale, a warning that has a minimum height of three inches and a width of six inches and that reads:

Warning: Using marijuana, in any form, while you are pregnant or breastfeeding passes THC to your baby and may be harmful to your baby. There is no known safe amount of marijuana use during pregnancy or breastfeeding.

(4)  Equivalency. Rules promulgated pursuant to section 44-10-202 (1)(c)

must also include establishing the equivalent of one ounce of retail marijuana flower in various retail marijuana products, including retail marijuana concentrate. Prior to promulgating the rules required by this subsection (4), the state licensing authority may contract for a scientific study to determine the equivalency of marijuana flower in retail marijuana products, including retail marijuana concentrate.

(5)  Statewide class system cultivation facility rules - medical marijuana. (a)

The state licensing authority shall create a statewide licensure class system for medical marijuana cultivation facility licenses. The classifications may be based upon square footage of the facility; lights, lumens, or wattage; lit canopy; the number of cultivating plants; other reasonable metrics; or any combination thereof. The state licensing authority shall create a fee structure for the licensure class system.

(b) (I)  The state licensing authority may establish limitations on medical

marijuana production through one or more of the following methods:

(A)  Placing or modifying a limit on the number of licenses that it issues, by

class or overall, but in placing or modifying the limits, the state licensing authority shall consider the reasonable availability of new licenses after a limit is established or modified;

(B)  Placing or modifying a limit on the amount of production permitted by a

medical marijuana cultivation facility license or class of licenses based upon some reasonable metric or set of metrics, including but not limited to those items detailed in subsection (5)(a) of this section, previous months' sales, pending sales, or other reasonable metrics as determined by the state licensing authority; and

(C)  Placing or modifying a limit on the total amount of production by medical

marijuana cultivation facility licensees in the state collectively, based upon some reasonable metric or set of metrics including but not limited to those items detailed in subsection (5)(a) of this section, as determined by the state licensing authority.

(II)  When considering any such limitations, the state licensing authority shall:


(A)  Consider the total current and anticipated demand for medical marijuana

and medical marijuana products in Colorado;

(B)  Consider any other relevant factors; and


(C)  Attempt to minimize the market for unlawful marijuana; and


(c)  The state licensing authority may adopt rules that limit the amount of

medical marijuana inventory that a medical marijuana store may have on hand. If the state licensing authority adopts a limitation, the limitation must be commercially reasonable and consider factors including a medical marijuana store's sales history and the number of patients who are registered at a medical marijuana store as their primary store.

(6)  Statewide class system cultivation facility rules - retail marijuana. (a)

The state licensing authority shall create a statewide licensure class system for retail marijuana cultivation facility licenses. The classifications may be based upon square footage of the facility; lights, lumens, or wattage; lit canopy; the number of cultivating plants; other reasonable metrics; or any combination thereof. The state licensing authority shall create a fee structure for the licensure class system.

(b)  The state licensing authority may establish limitations on retail marijuana

production through one or more of the following methods:

(I)  Placing or modifying a limit on the number of licenses that it issues, by

class or overall, but in placing or modifying the limits, the authority shall consider the reasonable availability of new licenses after a limit is established or modified;

(II)  Placing or modifying a limit on the amount of production permitted by a

retail marijuana cultivation facility license or class of licenses based upon some reasonable metric or set of metrics including but not limited to those items detailed in subsection (6)(a) of this section, previous months' sales, pending sales, or other reasonable metrics as determined by the state licensing authority; and

(III)  Placing or modifying a limit on the total amount of production by retail

marijuana cultivation facility licensees in the state collectively, based upon some reasonable metric or set of metrics including but not limited to those items detailed in subsection (6)(a) of this section, as determined by the state licensing authority.

(c)  Notwithstanding anything contained in this article 10 to the contrary, in

considering any such limitations, the state licensing authority, in addition to any other relevant considerations, shall:

(I)  Consider the total current and anticipated demand for retail marijuana

and retail marijuana products in Colorado; and

(II)  Attempt to minimize the market for unlawful marijuana.


(7)  The state licensing authority may deny, suspend, revoke, fine, or impose

other sanctions against a person's license issued pursuant to this article 10 if the state licensing authority finds the person or the person's controlling beneficial owner, passive beneficial owner, or indirect financial interest holder failed to timely file any report, disclosure, registration statement, or other submission required by any state or federal regulatory authority that is related to the conduct of their business.

(8)  The state licensing authority shall treat a metered-dose inhaler the same

as a vaporized delivery device for purposes of regulation and testing.

(9) (a)  The state licensing authority may, by rule, establish procedures for the

conditional issuance of an employee license identification card at the time of application.

(b) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (9)(b) is effective until January

5, 2026.]

(I) The state licensing authority shall base its issuance of an employee license identification card pursuant to this subsection (9) on the results of an initial investigation that demonstrate the applicant is qualified to hold such license. The employee license application for which an employee license identification card was issued pursuant to this subsection (9) remains subject to denial pending the complete results of the applicant's initial fingerprint-based criminal history record check.

(II)  Results of a fingerprint-based criminal history record check that

demonstrate that an applicant possessing an employee license identification card pursuant to this subsection (9) is not qualified to hold a license issued under this article 10 are grounds for denial of the employee license application. If the employee license application is denied, the applicant shall return the employee license identification card to the state licensing authority within a time period that the state licensing authority establishes by rule.

(b) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (9)(b) is effective January 5,

2026.]

(I) The state licensing authority shall base its issuance of an employee license pursuant to this subsection (9) on the results of an initial investigation that demonstrate the applicant is qualified to hold such license. The employee license application for which an employee license was issued pursuant to this subsection (9) remains subject to denial pending the complete results of the applicant's initial name-based judicial record check.

(II)  Results of a name-based judicial record check that demonstrate that an

applicant possessing an employee license pursuant to this subsection (9) is not qualified to hold a license issued under this article 10 are grounds for denial of the employee license application. If the employee license application is denied, the applicant shall return the employee license and identification card to the state licensing authority within a time period that the state licensing authority establishes by rule.

(10) [Editor's note: Subsection (10) is effective January 5, 2026.]

(a) The state licensing authority shall adopt rules to enable a licensee to conduct research and development using R-and-D units when evaluating different flavors and nonmarijuana ingredients.

(b)  Adding flavors or nonmarijuana ingredients is not considered an

additional batch and does not require additional testing if the licensee possesses analysis or documentation evidencing the safety profile of the flavors or nonmarijuana ingredients.

(c)  A licensee shall not transfer R-and-D units to a regulated marijuana store.


Source: L. 2019: Entire article added with relocations, (SB 19-224), ch. 315, p.

2843, � 5, effective January 1, 2020; (2)(ff) and (2)(gg) added, (HB 19-1230), ch. 340, p. 3118, � 14, effective January 1, 2020. L. 2020: (1)(i), (1)(j), and (2)(aa) amended and (1)(k) added, (HB 20-1424), ch. 184, p. 843, � 3, effective September 14. L. 2021: (2)(dd)(IX), (2)(ff)(VII), and (3)(a)(V) amended and (2)(hh), (2)(ii), (3)(a)(VII), and (3)(a)(VIII) added, (HB 21-1317), ch. 313, p. 1916, � 7, effective June 24; (1)(j) amended and (1)(j.5) and (9) added, (HB 21-1301), ch. 304, p. 1826, � 5, effective September 7; (2)(q) amended, (HB 21-1178), ch. 130, p. 524, � 3, effective September 7. L. 2022: (2)(jj) added, (HB 22-1037), ch. 78, p. 391, � 2, effective August 10; (2)(dd)(II) amended, (HB 22-1222), ch. 111, p. 506, � 2, effective January 1, 2023. L.


C.R.S. § 44-10-603

44-10-603. Retail marijuana products manufacturer license - rules - definition. (1) (a) A retail marijuana products manufacturer license may be issued to a person who manufactures retail marijuana products pursuant to the terms and conditions of this article 10.

(b)  A retail marijuana products manufacturer may cultivate its own retail

marijuana if it obtains a retail marijuana cultivation facility license, or it may purchase retail marijuana from a licensed retail marijuana cultivation facility. A retail marijuana products manufacturer shall track all of its retail marijuana from the point it is either transferred from its retail marijuana cultivation facility or the point when it is delivered to the retail marijuana products manufacturer from a licensed retail marijuana cultivation facility to the point of transfer to a licensed retail marijuana store, a licensed retail marijuana products manufacturer, a retail marijuana testing facility, or a licensed retail marijuana cultivation facility with a centralized distribution permit pursuant to section 44-10-602 (7).

(c)  A retail marijuana products manufacturer shall not accept any retail

marijuana purchased from a retail marijuana cultivation facility unless the retail marijuana products manufacturer is provided with evidence that any applicable excise tax due pursuant to article 28.8 of title 39 was paid.

(d)  A retail marijuana products manufacturer shall not:


(I)  Add any marijuana to a food product where the manufacturer of the food

product holds a trademark to the food product's name; except that a retail marijuana products manufacturer may use a trademarked food product if the manufacturer uses the product as a component or as part of a recipe and where the retail marijuana products manufacturer does not state or advertise to the consumer that the final retail marijuana product contains a trademarked food product;

(II)  Intentionally or knowingly label or package a retail marijuana product in a

manner that would cause a reasonable consumer confusion as to whether the retail marijuana product was a trademarked food product; or

(III)  Label or package a product in a manner that violates any federal

trademark law or regulation.

(e)  A retail marijuana products manufacturer may sell retail marijuana and

retail marijuana products to a retail marijuana hospitality and sales business.

(f)  A person must be licensed as a retail marijuana products manufacturer,

including paying the license and application fees, to manufacture potentially intoxicating cannabinoids or intoxicating cannabinoids from retail marijuana to be used as an ingredient or as finished retail marijuana products in accordance with this article 10.

(2) [Editor's note: This version of the introductory portion to subsection (2) is

effective until January 5, 2026.] Retail marijuana products must be prepared on a licensed premises that is used exclusively for the manufacture and preparation of retail marijuana or retail marijuana products and using equipment that is used exclusively for the manufacture and preparation of retail marijuana products; except that, if permitted by the local jurisdiction and subject to rules of the state licensing authority, a retail marijuana products manufacturer licensee may share the same premises as:

(2) [Editor's note: This version of the introductory portion to subsection (2) is

effective January 5, 2026.] Retail marijuana products must be prepared on a licensed premises that is used exclusively for the manufacture and preparation of retail marijuana or retail marijuana products and using equipment that is used exclusively for the manufacture and preparation of retail marijuana products unless permitted by rule adopted by the state licensing authority under section 44-10-203 (1)(m); except that, if permitted by the local jurisdiction and subject to rules of the state licensing authority, a retail marijuana products manufacturer licensee may share the same premises as:

(a)  A medical marijuana products manufacturer licensee so long as a virtual

or physical separation of inventory is maintained;

(b)  A commonly owned marijuana research and development licensee so

long as virtual or physical separation of inventory and research activity is maintained; or

(c)  An accelerator manufacturer licensee if the retail marijuana products

manufacturer has its premises endorsed pursuant to rule before each accelerator manufacturer licensee operates and each accelerator manufacturer licensee is approved to operate on that premises.

(3)  All licensed premises on which retail marijuana products are

manufactured must meet the sanitary standards for retail marijuana product preparation promulgated pursuant to section 44-10-203 (2)(i).

(4) (a)  The retail marijuana product must be sealed and conspicuously

labeled in compliance with this article 10 and any rules promulgated pursuant to this article 10. The labeling of retail marijuana products is a matter of statewide concern.

(b)  The standard symbol requirements as promulgated pursuant to section

44-10-203 (2)(y) do not apply to a multi-serving liquid retail marijuana product, which is impracticable to mark, if the product complies with all statutory and rule packaging requirements for multi-serving edibles and complies with the following enhanced requirements to reduce the risk of accidental ingestion. A multi-serving liquid must:

(I)  Be packaged in a structure that uses a single mechanism to achieve both

child-resistance and accurate pouring measurement of each liquid serving in increments equal to or less than ten milligrams of active THC per serving, with no more than one hundred milligrams of active THC total per package; and

(II)  The measurement component is within the child-resistant cap or closure

of the bottle and is not a separate component.

(5)  Retail marijuana or retail marijuana products may not be consumed on

the premises of a retail marijuana products manufacturer.

(6)  A retail marijuana products manufacturer may provide, except as

required by section 44-10-203 (2)(d), a sample of its products to a facility that has a retail marijuana testing facility license from the state licensing authority for testing and research purposes. A retail marijuana products manufacturer shall maintain a record of what was provided to the testing facility, the identity of the testing facility, and the results of the testing.

(7)  An edible retail marijuana product may list its ingredients and

compatibility with dietary practices.

(8)  A licensed retail marijuana products manufacturer shall package and

label each product manufactured as required by rules of the state licensing authority pursuant to section 44-10-203 (2)(f) and (3)(b).

(9)  All retail marijuana products that require refrigeration to prevent

spoilage must be stored and transported in a refrigerated environment.

(10) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (10) is effective until January 5,

2026.]

(a) A retail marijuana products manufacturer licensee may provide a retail marijuana product sample and a retail marijuana concentrate sample to no more than five managers employed by the licensee for purposes of quality control and product development. A retail marijuana products manufacturer licensee may designate no more than five managers per calendar month as recipients of quality control and product development samples authorized pursuant to this subsection (10)(a).

(b)  A sample authorized pursuant to subsection (10)(a) of this section is

limited to one serving size of an edible retail marijuana product not exceeding ten milligrams of THC and its applicable equivalent serving size of nonedible retail marijuana product per batch as defined in rules promulgated by the state licensing authority and one-quarter gram of retail marijuana concentrate per batch as defined in rules promulgated by the state licensing authority; except that the limit is one-half gram of retail marijuana concentrate if the intended use of the final product is to be used in a device that can be used to deliver retail marijuana concentrate in a vaporized form to the person inhaling from the device.

(c)  A sample authorized pursuant to subsection (10)(a) of this section must be

labeled and packaged pursuant to the rules promulgated pursuant to section 44-10-203 (2)(f) and (3)(b).

(d)  A sample provided pursuant to subsection (10)(a) of this section must be

tracked with the seed-to-sale tracking system. Prior to a manager receiving a sample, a manager must be designated in the seed-to-sale tracking system as a recipient of quality control and product development samples. A manager receiving a sample must make a voluntary decision to be tracked in the seed-to-sale tracking system and is not a consumer pursuant to section 16 (5)(c) of article XVIII of the state constitution. The retail marijuana products manufacturer licensee shall maintain documentation of all samples and shall make the documentation available to the state licensing authority.

(e)  Prior to a manager receiving a sample pursuant to subsection (10)(a) of

this section, a retail marijuana products manufacturer licensee shall provide a standard operating procedure to the manager explaining requirements pursuant to this section and personal possession limits pursuant to section 18-18-406.

(f)  A manager shall not:


(I)  Receive more than a total of eight grams of retail marijuana concentrate

or fourteen individual serving-size edibles or its applicable equivalent in nonedible retail marijuana products per calendar month, regardless of the number of licenses that the manager is associated with; or

(II)  Provide to or resell the sample to another licensed employee, a customer,

or any other individual.

(g)  A retail marijuana products manufacturing licensee shall not:


(I)  Allow a manager to consume the sample on the licensed premises; or


(II)  Use the sample as a means of compensation to a manager.


(h)  The state licensing authority may establish additional inventory tracking

and record keeping, including additional reporting required for implementation. The retail marijuana products manufacturer licensee shall maintain the information required by this subsection (10)(h) on the licensed premises for inspection by the state and local licensing authorities.

(i)  For purposes of this subsection (10) only, manager means an employee

of the retail marijuana products manufacturer who holds a valid key license or associated key license and is currently designated pursuant to state licensing authority rules as the manager of the retail marijuana products manufacturer.

(10) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (10) is effective January 5,

2026.]

(a) A retail marijuana products manufacturer may provide an R-and-D unit to an occupational licensee.

(b)  (Deleted by amendment, L. 2025).


(c)  To provide an R-and-D unit, the R-and-D unit must be:


(I)  Labeled with the universal symbol indicating that the package contains

marijuana, the license number of the facility that produced the R-and-D unit, the batch number, and any required warning statements;

(II)  Labeled to indicate that the R-and-D unit must not be sold or resold;


(III)  Tested in accordance with the rules adopted under section 44-10-203

(2)(d);

(IV)  Packaged in a child-resistant container;


(V)  Tracked with the seed-to-sale inventory tracking system; and


(VI)  Provided for product development or quality control.


(d) to (f)  (Deleted by amendment, L. 2025).


(g)  A retail marijuana products manufacturer licensee shall not:


(I)  Allow an R-and-D unit to be consumed on the licensed premises;


(II)  Use an R-and-D unit as a means of compensation;


(III)  Provide R-and-D units in a manner that would violate section 18-18-406;


(IV)  Require an employee to accept or consume an R-and-D unit;


(V)  Receive compensation for an R-and-D unit; or


(VI)  Provide R-and-D units to an occupational licensee for more than twenty

days in any calendar month.

(h) and (i)  (Deleted by amendment, L. 2025).


(11) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (11) is effective until January 5,

2026.]

(a) A retail marijuana products manufacturer that uses a hemp product as an ingredient in a retail marijuana product shall ensure that the hemp product has passed all testing required by rules promulgated by the state licensing authority pursuant to section 44-10-203 (2)(d). Prior to taking possession of the hemp product, a retail marijuana products manufacturer shall verify that the hemp product passed all testing required for retail marijuana products at a licensed retail marijuana testing facility and that the person transferring the hemp product has received a registration from the department of public health and environment pursuant to section 25-5-426.

(b)  Absent sampling and testing standards established by the department of

public health and environment for the sampling and testing of a hemp product, a person transferring a hemp product to a retail marijuana products manufacturer pursuant to this section shall comply with sampling and testing standards consistent with those established by the state licensing authority pursuant to this article 10. The state licensing authority shall report to the department of public health and environment any investigations or findings in violation of this section by a person registered pursuant to section 25-5-426.

(11) [Editor's note: This version of subsection (11) is effective January 5,

2026.]

(a) A retail marijuana products manufacturer that uses a hemp product as an ingredient in a retail marijuana product shall ensure that the hemp product has passed all testing required by rules adopted by the state licensing authority pursuant to section 44-10-203 (2)(d). Prior to taking possession of the hemp product, a retail marijuana products manufacturer shall verify that the hemp product passed all testing required for retail marijuana products at a licensed retail marijuana testing facility and that the person transferring the hemp product has received a registration from the department of public health and environment pursuant to section 25-5-427.

(b)  Absent sampling and testing standards established by the department of

public health and environment for the sampling and testing of a hemp product, a person transferring a hemp product to a retail marijuana products manufacturer pursuant to this section shall comply with sampling and testing standards consistent with those established by the state licensing authority pursuant to this article 10. The state licensing authority shall report to the department of public health and environment any investigations or findings in violation of this section by a person registered pursuant to section 25-5-427.

(12)  Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, a licensed

retail marijuana products manufacturer may compensate its employees using performance-based incentives, including sales-based performance-based incentives.

(13)  A retail marijuana products manufacturer licensee that hosts an

accelerator manufacturer licensee may, pursuant to rule, provide technical and compliance assistance to an accelerator manufacturer licensee operating on its premises. A retail marijuana products manufacturer licensee that hosts an accelerator manufacturer licensee may, pursuant to rule, provide capital assistance to an accelerator manufacturer licensee operating on its premises.

(14)  A retail marijuana products manufacturer licensee, pursuant to rule and

the state licensing authority discretion, may be eligible for incentives through the department of revenue or the office of economic development and international trade, including but not limited to a reduction in application or license fees.

(15) (a)  After obtaining passing test results required by subsection (6) of this

section, a retail marijuana products manufacturer may transfer retail marijuana that has been extracted and is in a concentrated form to a co-located medical marijuana products manufacturer with at least one identical controlling beneficial owner and change the designation of the retail marijuana that has been extracted and is in a concentrated form to medical marijuana that has been extracted and is in a concentrated form. Pursuant to section 44-10-503 (12)(a), after the medical marijuana products manufacturer enters the designation change into the seed-to-sale tracking system, the product is a medical marijuana product and is the property of the medical marijuana products manufacturer. A product that changed designation pursuant to this subsection (15)(a) shall not be transferred to the originating retail marijuana products manufacturer or any retail marijuana licensee, have its designation changed from a medical marijuana product, or otherwise be treated as a retail marijuana product.

(b)  A transfer and change of designation of retail marijuana that has been

extracted and is in a concentrated form to medical marijuana that has been extracted and is in a concentrated form pursuant to this subsection (15) is not a transaction that results in a right to refund of any retail marijuana excise tax incurred or paid prior to that transfer and change of designation.

Source: L. 2019: Entire article added with relocations, (SB 19-224), ch. 315, p.

2913, � 5, effective January 1, 2020 (see editor's note); (1)(e) added, (HB 19-1230), ch. 340, p. 3121, � 19, effective January 1, 2020. L. 2020: (2)(c), (13), and (14) amended, (HB 20-1424), ch. 184, p. 847, � 9, effective September 14. L. 2021: (2) amended, (HB 21-1178), ch. 130, p. 525, � 7, effective September 7; (15) added, (HB 21-1216), ch. 306, p. 1834, � 4, effective July 1, 2022. L. 2023: (1)(f) added, (SB 23-271), ch. 444, p. 2617, � 8, effective June 7. L. 2024: (11) amended, (SB 24-172), ch. 151, p. 613, � 6, effective August 7. L. 2025: IP(2), (10), and (11) amended, (HB 25-1209), ch. 398, p. 2252, � 13, effective January 5, 2026.

Editor's note: (1)  This section is similar to former � 44-12-404 as it existed

prior to 2020.

(2)  Section 38 of chapter 315 (SB 19-224), Session Laws of Colorado 2019,

provides that the effective date of subsection (11) is July 1, 2020.

(3)  Section 21(1) of chapter 398 (HB 25-1209), Session Laws of Colorado

2025, provides that the act changing this section applies to conduct occurring on or after January 5, 2026.


C.R.S. § 44-3-413

44-3-413. Hotel and restaurant license - definitions - rules. (1) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (2) of this section, a hotel and restaurant license shall be issued to persons selling alcohol beverages in the place where the alcohol beverages are to be consumed, subject to the following restrictions:

(a)  Restaurants shall sell alcohol beverages as provided in this section only

to customers of the restaurant and only if meals are actually and regularly served and provide not less than twenty-five percent of the gross income from sales of food and drink of the business of the licensed premises over any period of time of at least one year.

(b)  Hotels shall sell alcohol beverages as provided in this section only to

customers of the hotel and, except in hotel rooms, only on the licensed premises where meals are actually and regularly served and provide not less than twenty-five percent of the gross income from sales of food and drink of the business of the licensed premises over any period of time of at least one year.

(c)  Any hotel and restaurant licensee who is open for business and selling

alcohol beverages by the drink shall serve meals between the hours of 8 a.m. and 8 p.m. and meals or light snacks and sandwiches after 8 p.m.; except that nothing in this subsection (1)(c) shall be construed to require a licensee to be open for business between the hours of 8 a.m. and 8 p.m.

(d)  A hotel may be designated as a resort complex if it has at least fifty

sleeping rooms and has related sports and recreational facilities located contiguous or adjacent to the hotel for the convenience of its guests or the general public. For purposes of a resort complex only, contiguous or adjacent means within the overall boundaries or scheme of development or regularly accessible from the hotel by its members and guests.

(2) (a)  A resort complex shall designate its principal licensed premises and

additional separate, related facilities that are located contiguous or adjacent to the licensed premises of the resort complex. Each related facility shall be identified by the resort complex at the time of initial licensure or upon license renewal. Each related facility shall also be clearly identified by its geographic location within the overall boundaries of the licensed premises of the resort complex. A resort complex may apply for a resort-complex-related facility permit for each related facility at the time of initial licensure, upon license renewal, or at any time upon application by the resort complex.

(b)  Customers and guests who purchase alcohol beverages at one related

facility are permitted to carry such beverages to other related facilities within the overall licensed premises boundaries of the resort complex.

(c)  Each related facility shall remain at all times under the ownership and

control of the resort complex licensee. Any subletting or transfer of ownership or change of control of a related facility without proper notification and approval by state and local licensing authorities shall be considered a violation of this article 3 and will be cause for the denial, suspension, revocation, or cancellation of the license of the entire resort complex, including all of its related facilities, pursuant to section 44-3-601.

(d)  Except as provided in this subsection (2), for violations of section 44-3-307, and for violations of this article 3 and rules promulgated pursuant to this

article 3 that are intentionally authorized by the ownership or management of a resort complex, each related facility shall be considered separately licensed or permitted for the purpose of application of the sanctions imposed under section 44-3-601.

(e)  For purposes of this subsection (2), related facility means those areas,

as approved by the state and local licensing authorities, that are contiguous or adjacent to the resort hotel and that are owned by or under the exclusive possession and control of the resort complex licensee. Related facilities shall include:

(I)  Those indoor areas or facilities contiguous or adjacent to the licensed

premises of the resort complex that are operated under a separate trade name and are used by resort complex patrons;

(II)  Related outdoor sports and recreation facilities located contiguous or

adjacent to the resort complex that are used by patrons of the resort complex for a fee; and

(III)  Distinct areas or facilities contiguous or adjacent to the resort complex

that are directly related to the resort complex use.

(3) (a)  An institution of higher education, or a person who contracts with the

institution to provide food services, that is licensed under this section may apply to be designated a campus liquor complex at the time of initial licensure or upon license renewal.

(b)  A licensee shall designate its principal licensed premises and additional

separate, related facilities that are located within the campus liquor complex. The licensee may identify each related facility that serves alcohol at the time of initial licensure or upon license renewal. To be approved for a campus liquor complex related facility permit, each related facility must be clearly identified by its geographic location within the boundaries of the campus, including the specific point of service, and each area where alcohol beverages are consumed must be clearly identified by a description and map of the area.

(c)  A licensee may apply for a related facility permit for each related facility

within the campus liquor complex at the time of initial licensure, upon license renewal, or at any time upon application by the licensee.

(d) (I)  To be permitted, each related facility must remain at all times under

the ownership or control of the licensee. A licensee that sublets or transfers ownership of, or changes control of, a related facility without notifying and obtaining approval from state and local licensing authorities violates this article 3, and the violation is grounds for denial, suspension, revocation, or cancellation of the campus liquor complex license and all related facility permits in accordance with section 44-3-601.

(II)  The institution of higher education shall designate a manager for the

campus liquor complex and for each related facility.

(e)  Except as provided in this subsection (3), for violations of this article 3

and rules promulgated under this article 3 that are intentionally authorized by the ownership or management of a related facility, each related facility is deemed separately permitted for the purpose of application of the sanctions authorized under section 44-3-601.

(f)  For purposes of this subsection (3), related facility means those areas

approved by the state and local licensing authorities that are on the campus of the institution of higher education licensed under this section and that are owned by or under the exclusive possession and control of the institution of higher education holding the license. Related facilities include an area or facility operated under a separate trade name.

(4)  Notwithstanding any provision of this article 3 to the contrary, a hotel,

licensed pursuant to this article 3, may:

(a)  Furnish and deliver complimentary alcohol beverages in sealed

containers for the convenience of its guests;

(b)  Sell alcohol beverages provided by the hotel in sealed containers, at any

time, by means of a minibar located in hotel guest rooms, to adult registered guests of the hotel for consumption in guest rooms if the price of the alcohol beverages is clearly posted. For purposes of this section, minibar means a closed container, either nonrefrigerated or refrigerated in whole or in part, access to the interior of which is restricted by means of a locking device that requires the use of a key, magnetic card, or similar device or which is controlled at all times by the hotel.

(c)  Enter into a contract with a lodging facility for the purpose of authorizing

the lodging facility to sell alcohol beverages pursuant to subsection (4)(b) of this section if the lodging facility and hotel share common ownership and are located within one thousand feet of one another. The alcohol beverages that may be sold pursuant to this subsection (4)(c) must be provided by and subject to the control of the licensed hotel. For purposes of this subsection (4)(c), common ownership means a controlling ownership interest that is held by the same person or persons, whether through separate corporations, partnerships, or other legal entities. To determine whether the distance limitation referred to in this subsection (4)(c) is met, the distance from the property line of the land used for the lodging facility to the portion of the hotel licensed under this article 3 shall be measured using the nearest and most direct routes of pedestrian access.

(5)  The state licensing authority shall promulgate rules that prohibit the

placement of a container of alcohol beverages in a minibar if the container has a capacity of more than five hundred milliliters.

(6)  It is the intent of this section to require hotel and restaurant licensees to

maintain a bona fide restaurant business and not a mere pretext of such for obtaining a hotel and restaurant license.

(7) (a)  Except as provided in subsection (7)(b) of this section, every person

selling alcohol beverages as provided in this section shall purchase alcohol beverages only from a wholesaler licensed pursuant to this article 3.

(b) (I)  During a calendar year, a person selling alcohol beverages as provided

in this section may purchase not more than seven thousand dollars' worth of malt, vinous, and spirituous liquors from retailers licensed pursuant to sections 44-3-409, 44-3-410, and 44-4-104 (1)(c). On January 1, 2025, and each January 1 thereafter, the state licensing authority shall adjust the purchase limitation specified in this subsection (7)(b)(I) for inflation and shall publish the adjusted purchase limitation amount on the liquor enforcement division's website.

(II)  A hotel and restaurant licensee shall retain evidence of each purchase of

malt, vinous, or spirituous liquors from a retailer licensed pursuant to section 44-3-409, 44-3-410, or 44-4-104 (1)(c), in the form of a purchase receipt showing the name of the licensed retailer, the date of purchase, a description of the alcohol beverages purchased, and the price paid for the alcohol beverages. The licensee shall retain the receipt and make it available to the state and local licensing authorities at all times during business hours.

(8)  Each hotel and restaurant license shall be granted for specific premises,

and optional premises approved by the state and local licensing authorities, and issued in the name of the owner or lessee of the business.

(9)  Repealed.


(10)  The manager for each hotel and restaurant license, the hotel and

restaurant licensee, or an employee or agent of the hotel and restaurant licensee shall purchase alcohol beverages for one licensed premises only, and the purchases shall be separate and distinct from purchases for any other hotel and restaurant license.

(11) to (13)  Repealed.


(14) (a)  It is unlawful for any owner, part owner, shareholder, or person

interested directly or indirectly in a hotel and restaurant license to conduct, own either in whole or in part, or be directly or indirectly interested in any other business licensed pursuant to this article 3 or article 4 of this title 44.

(b)  Notwithstanding subsection (14)(a) of this section, an owner, part owner,

shareholder, or person interested directly or indirectly in a hotel and restaurant license may conduct, own either in whole or in part, or be directly or indirectly interested in a license described in section 44-3-401 (1)(j) to (1)(t), (1)(v), or (1)(w), 44-3-412 (1), or 44-4-104 (1)(c) or in a financial institution referred to in section 44-3-308 (4).

Source: L. 2018: Entire article added with relocations, (HB 18-1025), ch. 152,

p. 1012, � 2, effective October 1. L. 2019: (7) amended, (SB 19-011), ch. 1, p. 9, � 13, effective January 31. L. 2022: (9) and (11) to (13) repealed and (10) amended, (HB 22-1415), ch. 426, p. 3017, � 2, effective June 7. L. 2024: (7)(b)(I) amended, (SB 24-231), ch. 205, p. 1258, � 16, effective August 7.

Editor's note: This section is similar to former � 12-47-411 as it existed prior

to 2018.


C.R.S. § 44-30-103

44-30-103. Definitions. As used in this article 30, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1)  Adjusted gross proceeds, except with respect to games of poker, means

the total amount of all wagers made by players on limited gaming less all payments to players; and payment to players shall include all payments of cash premiums, merchandise, tokens, redeemable game credits, or any other thing of value. With respect to games of poker, adjusted gross proceeds means any sums wagered in a poker hand that may be retained by the licensee as compensation and are consistent with the minimum and maximum amounts established by the Colorado limited gaming control commission.

(2)  Applicant means any person who has applied for a license or

registration under this article 30 or who has applied for permission to engage in any act or activity that is regulated by this article 30.

(3) (a)  Associated equipment means a device, piece of equipment, or

system used remotely or directly in connection with gaming or any game. The term includes a device, piece of equipment, or system used to monitor, collect, or report gaming transactions data or to calculate adjusted gross proceeds and gaming taxes.

(b)  Associated equipment does not include equipment that meets the

definition of a gaming device or gaming equipment in subsection (13) of this section.

(4)  Associated equipment supplier means a person who imports,

manufactures, distributes, or otherwise provides associated equipment for use in Colorado. The term does not include a person licensed as a slot machine manufacturer or distributor under part 5 of this article 30.

(5)  Bet means an amount placed as a wager in a game of chance or on a

sports event, as defined in section 44-30-1501 (12).

(6)  Blackjack means a banking card game commonly known as 21 or

blackjack in which each player bets against the dealer. The object is to draw cards whose value will equal or approach twenty-one without exceeding that amount and win amounts bet, payable by the dealer, if the player holds cards more valuable than the dealer's cards.

(7)  Certified local government means any local government certified by the

state historic preservation officer pursuant to the provisions of 54 U.S.C. sec. 302503.

(7.5)  Cheating means to alter the selection of criteria that determine:


(a)  The result of a game; or


(b)  The amount or frequency of payment in a game.


(8)  Commission means the Colorado limited gaming control commission.


(9)  Crane game means an amusement machine that, upon insertion of a

coin, bill, token, or similar object, allows the player to use one or more buttons, joysticks, or other controls to maneuver a crane or claw over a nonmonetary prize, toy, or novelty, none of which shall have a cost of more than twenty-five dollars, and then, using the crane or claw, to attempt to retrieve the prize, toy, or novelty for the player.

(10)  Craps means a game played by one or more players against a casino

using two dice, in which players bet upon the occurrence of specific combinations of numbers shown by the dice on each throw.

(11)  Director means the director of the division of gaming.


(12)  Division means the division of gaming.


(13)  Gaming device or gaming equipment means any equipment or

mechanical, electromechanical, or electronic contrivance, component, or machine used remotely or directly in connection with gaming or any game. The term includes a system for processing information that can alter the normal criteria of random selection affecting the operation, or determining the outcome, of a game. The term includes a physical or electronic version of a slot machine, poker table, blackjack table, craps table, roulette table, dice, and the cards used to play poker and blackjack.

(14)  Gaming employee means any person employed by an operator or

retailer hosting gaming to work directly with the gaming portion of the operator's or retailer's business, who shall be eighteen years of age or older and hold a support license. Persons deemed to be gaming employees include:

(a)  Dealers;


(b)  Change and counting room personnel;


(c)  Cashiers;


(d)  Floormen;


(e)  Cage personnel;


(f)  Slot machine repairmen or mechanics;


(g)  Persons who accept or transport gaming revenues;


(h)  Security personnel;


(i)  Shift or pit bosses;


(j)  Floor managers;


(k)  Supervisors;


(l)  Slot machine and slot booth personnel;


(m)  Any person involved in the handling, counting, collecting, or exchanging

of money, property, checks, credit, or any representative of value, including, without limitation:

(I)  Any coin, token, chip, cash premium, merchandise, redeemable game

credits, or any other thing of value; or

(II)  The payoff from any game, gaming, or gaming device;


(n)  Craps table personnel and roulette table personnel; and


(o)  Any other persons that the commission shall by rule determine.


(15)  Gaming license means any license issued by the commission pursuant

to this article 30 that authorizes any person to engage in gaming within the cities of Central, Black Hawk, or Cripple Creek.

(16)  Immediate family means a person's spouse and any children actually

living with the person.

(17)  Key employee means any executive, employee, or agent of a gaming

licensee or sports betting licensee having the power to exercise a significant influence over decisions concerning any part of the operation of the gaming licensee or sports betting licensee.

(18)  Licensed gaming establishment means any premises licensed

pursuant to this article 30 for the conduct of gaming.

(19)  Licensed premises means that portion of any premises licensed for the

conduct of limited gaming. Nothing pursuant to this subsection (19) shall be construed to prohibit the affected local governing authority from otherwise determining the size of any building. In no event shall the licensed premises exceed thirty-five percent of the square footage of any building and no more than fifty percent of any one floor of the building.

(20)  Licensee means any person licensed under this article 30.


(21)  Licensing authority means the Colorado limited gaming control

commission.

(22)  Limited card games and slot machines, limited gaming, or gaming

means physical and electronic versions of slot machines, craps, roulette, and the card games of poker and blackjack authorized by this article 30, as well as such other games as are approved by the voters of Central, Black Hawk, or Cripple Creek at a local election held in each city to control the conduct of gaming in that jurisdiction, and defined and regulated by the commission, each game having a maximum single bet as approved by the voters of Central, Black Hawk, or Cripple Creek at a local election held in each city to control the conduct of gaming in that jurisdiction.

(23)  Operator means any person who places slot machines upon the

person's business premises or any person who, individually or jointly, pursuant to an agreement whereby consideration is paid for the right to place slot machines on another's business premises, engages in the business of placing and operating slot machines on retail premises within the cities of Central, Black Hawk, or Cripple Creek.

(24)  Person means an individual, partnership, business trust, government

or governmental subdivision or agency, estate, association, trust, for-profit corporation, nonprofit corporation, organization, or any other legal entity or a manager, agent, servant, officer, or employee thereof.

(25) (a)  Poker means a card game played by a player or players who are

dealt cards by a dealer. The object of the game is:

(I)  For each player to bet the superiority of such player's hand and win the

other players' bets by either making a bet no other player is willing to match or proving to hold the most valuable cards after all the betting is over; or

(II)  For each player, whether by reason of the skill of the player or application

of the element of chance, or both, to hold a poker hand entitled to a monetary or premium return based upon a publicly available pay schedule.

(b)  In a variation of poker in which there can be more than one winning hand

and the dealer's participation is necessary or desirable to improve the game for players other than the dealer, the dealer may play, but under no circumstances may the dealer place a wager in any game in which he or she is dealing. A game in which the player holding the highest-scoring hand splits his or her winnings with the player holding the lowest-scoring hand does not qualify as a variation of poker in which there can be more than one winning hand for purposes of this subsection (25)(b).

(26)  Repeating gambling offender shall have the same meaning as set

forth in section 18-10-102 (9).

(27)  Retailer means any licensee who maintains gaming at his or her place

of business within the cities of Central, Black Hawk, or Cripple Creek for use and operation by the public.

(28)  Retail space means the area where a retailer's business is principally

conducted.

(29)  Roulette means a game in which a ball is spun on a rotating wheel and

drops into a numbered slot on the wheel, and bets are placed on which slot the ball will come to rest in.

(30) (a)  Slot machine means any mechanical, electrical, video, electronic, or

other device, contrivance, or machine which, after insertion of a coin, token, or similar object, or upon payment of any required consideration whatsoever by a player, is available to be played or operated, and that, whether by reason of the skill of the player or application of the element of chance, or both, may deliver or entitle the player operating the machine to receive cash premiums, merchandise, tokens, or redeemable game credits, or any other thing of value other than unredeemable free games, whether the payoff is made automatically from the machines or in any other manner.

(b)  Slot machine does not include:


(I)  A vintage slot machine model that:


(A)  Was introduced on the market before 1984;


(B)  Does not contain component parts manufactured in 1984 or thereafter;

and

(C)  Is not used for gambling purposes or in connection with limited gaming;

or

(II)  Crane games.


(31)  Slot machine distributor means any person who imports into this state,

or first receives in this state, slot machines, or who sells, leases, for a fixed or flat fee, or distributes slot machines in this state; except that slot machine distributor does not include operators licensed in this state.

(32)  Slot machine manufacturer means any person who designs,

assembles, fabricates, produces, constructs, or otherwise prepares a complete or component part of a slot machine, other than tables or cabinetry; except that slot machine manufacturer does not include licensed operators performing incidental repairs on their own slot machines or slot machines leased or distributed by them. A licensed slot machine manufacturer may sell slot machines, or components of slot machines, of its own manufacture to licensed slot machine distributors or operators. A licensed manufacturer may also import those slot machine parts or components necessary for its manufacturing operations.

(32.5)  Sports betting means placing one or more bets in a sports betting

operation, as defined in section 44-30-1501 (10).

(33)  Suitability or suitable means, in relation to a person, the ability to be

licensed by the commission and, in relation to acts or practices, lawful acts or practices.

(34)  Unsuitability or unsuitable means, in relation to a person, the inability

to be licensed by the commission because of prior acts, associations, or financial conditions, and, in relation to acts or practices, those that violate or would violate the statutes or rules or are or would be contrary to the declared legislative purposes of this article 30.

(35)  Within the cities of Central, Black Hawk, or Cripple Creek means

within the commercial district of any of those cities as specified in section 44-30-105.

Source: L. 2018: Entire article added with relocations, (SB 18-034), ch. 14, p.

169, � 2, effective October 1. L. 2019: (5) and (17) amended and (32.5) added, (HB 19-1327), ch. 347, p. 3210, � 2, effective May 1, 2020. Initiated 2020: (22) amended, Amendment 77, effective May 1, 2021. See L. 2021, p. 4210. L. 2021: (6) amended, (HB 21-1296), ch. 386, p. 2585, � 1, effective June 30. L. 2022: IP(14) amended, (HB 22-1412), ch. 405, p. 2875, � 4, effective August 10. L. 2025: (7.5) added with relocations, (SB 25-275), ch. 377, p. 2108, � 335, effective August 6.

Editor's note: (1)  This section is similar to former � 12-47.1-103 as it existed

prior to 2018.

(2)  Section 16(2) of chapter 347 (HB 19-1327), Session Laws of Colorado

2019, provides that changes to this section take effect May 1, 2020, only if, at the November 2019 statewide election, a majority of voters approve the ballot question submitted pursuant to � 44-30-1514. That ballot question, referred to the registered electors as proposition DD, was approved on November 5, 2019, and was proclaimed by the Governor on December 20, 2019. The vote count for the measure was as follows:

FOR:  800,745


AGAINST:  756,712


(3)  Subsection (22) was amended by Amendment 77, effective May 1, 2021.

The proclamation of the governor was December 31, 2020. The vote count for the measure at the general election held November 3, 2020, was as follows:

FOR:  1,854,153


AGAINST:  1,208,414


(4)  Subsection (7.5) is similar to former � 44-30-821 (2) as it existed prior to

2025.


C.R.S. § 44-30-1202

44-30-1202. Expenditures from the state historical fund - legislative declaration. (1) The general assembly hereby finds and declares that when the voters approved the conduct of limited gaming in the cities of Central, Black Hawk, and Cripple Creek they believed that all money expended from the state historical fund would be used to restore and preserve the historic nature of those cities and other sites and municipalities throughout the state. Together with the limitations contained in section 44-30-1201 on the expenditure of money in the fund that is subject to administration by the state historical society, this section is intended to assure that expenditures from the fund by the society and by the cities of Central, Black Hawk, and Cripple Creek are used for historic restoration and preservation.

(2)  The state historical society shall not expend money from the eighty

percent portion of the state historical fund administered by the society unless they have adopted standards for distribution of grants from that portion of the fund. The standards shall allow for the appropriate use of sustainable solutions such as environmentally sensitive and energy efficient windows, window assemblies, insulating materials, and heating and cooling systems, as long as the use of the sustainable solutions does not adversely affect the appearance or integrity of a historic property. The standards shall further include requirements that assure compliance with the secretary of the interior's standards for treatment of historic properties.

(3)  The governing bodies of the cities of Central, Black Hawk, and Cripple

Creek shall not expend money from their twenty percent portion of the state historical fund unless they have adopted standards for distribution of grants from that portion of the fund. At a minimum, the standards shall include the following:

(a)  Requirements that assure compliance with the secretary of the interior's

standards for treatment of historic properties;

(b)  A requirement that the city is a certified local government, as defined in

section 44-30-103 (7), and that the city's historic preservation commission review and recommend grant awards to the governing body;

(c)  A provision that prohibits a private individual from receiving more than

one grant for the restoration or preservation of the same property within any one-year period;

(d)  A provision that limits grants to property that is located within a national

historic landmark district or within an area listed on the national register of historic places;

(e)  A provision that limits grants for restoration or preservation to structures

that have historical significance because they were originally constructed more than fifty years prior to the date of the application;

(f)  A provision that prohibits issuing a grant to a private individual who does

not own the residential property that is to be restored or preserved;

(g)  A provision that prohibits making grants for more than one year at a time;


(h)  A provision that requires a member of the governing body to disclose any

personal interest in a grant before voting on the application;

(i)  A provision requiring the award of any grant in excess of fifty thousand

dollars for any single residential property to be conditioned upon an agreement to repay the grant upon any sale or transfer of the property within five years of the date the grant is awarded. The amount to be repaid shall equal the amount of the grant less an amount equal to one-sixtieth of the amount of the grant for each full month occurring between the date the grant is awarded and the date of the sale or transfer of the property.

(j)  A provision allowing for the appropriate use of sustainable solutions such

as environmentally sensitive and energy efficient windows, window assemblies, insulating materials, and heating and cooling systems, as long as the use of the sustainable solutions does not adversely affect the appearance or integrity of a historic property.

(4)  The provision contained in subsection (3)(d) of this section that requires

that the governing bodies of the specified cities not expend money from the state historical fund unless they adopt standards that include a provision that limits grants to property that is located within a national historic landmark district or within an area listed on the national register of historic places is not intended to affect the status of the cities as approved sites for limited gaming under section 9 of article XVIII of the state constitution in the event that the status as a historical landmark district or listing on the national register of historic places is not maintained.

(5)  The governing body of a city that is not a certified local government

pursuant to subsection (3)(b) of this section and that receives money from the state historical fund for historic preservation purposes shall not expend the money but instead shall create an independent restoration and preservation commission for the purpose of expending the money in accordance with part 14 of this article 30.

Source: L. 2018: Entire article added with relocations, (SB 18-034), ch. 14, p.

228, � 2, effective October 1.

Editor's note: This section is similar to former � 12-47.1-1202 as it existed

prior to 2018.

PART 13

LOCAL GOVERNMENT LIMITED

GAMING IMPACT FUND


C.R.S. § 44-30-302

44-30-302. Commission - powers and duties - rules. (1) In addition to any other powers and duties set forth in this part 3, and notwithstanding the designation of the Colorado limited gaming control commission under section 44-30-201 as a type 2 entity, the commission nonetheless has the following powers and duties:

(a)  To promulgate the rules governing the licensing, conducting, and

operating of limited gaming and sports betting as it deems necessary to carry out the purposes of this article 30. The director shall prepare and submit to the commission written recommendations concerning proposed rules for this purpose.

(b)  To conduct hearings upon complaints charging violations of this article

30 or rules promulgated pursuant to this article 30, and to conduct any other hearings as may be required by rules of the commission;

(c)  To enter into agreements with the Colorado bureau of investigation and

state and local law enforcement agencies for the conduct of investigation, identification, or registration, or any combination thereof, of licensed operators and employees in licensed premises or in premises containing licensed premises in accordance with the provisions of this article 30, which conduct shall include, but not be limited to, performing background investigations and criminal records checks on an applicant applying for licensure pursuant to the provisions of this article 30 and investigating violations of any provision of this article 30 or of any rule promulgated by the commission pursuant to subsection (1)(a) of this section discovered as a result of the investigatory process or discovered by the department or the commission in the course of conducting its business. Nothing in this section shall prevent or impair the Colorado bureau of investigation or state or local law enforcement agencies from engaging in the activities set forth in this subsection (1)(c) on their own initiative.

(d)  To conduct a continuous study and investigation of limited gaming and

sports betting throughout the state for the purpose of ascertaining any defects in this article 30 or in the rules promulgated pursuant to this article 30 in order to discover any abuses in the administration and operation of the division or any violation of this article 30 or any rule promulgated pursuant to this article 30;

(e)  To formulate and recommend changes to this article 30 or any rule

promulgated pursuant to this article 30 for the purpose of preventing abuses and violations of this article 30 or any of the rules promulgated pursuant to this article 30; to guard against the use of this article 30 and the rules as a cloak for the conducting of illegal activities; and to ensure that this article 30 and the rules shall be in such form and be so administered as to serve the true purpose and intent of this article 30;

(f)  To report immediately to the governor, the attorney general, the speaker

of the house of representatives, the president of the senate, the minority leaders of both houses, and any other state officers as the commission deems appropriate concerning any laws that it determines require immediate amendment to prevent abuses and violations of this article 30 or any rule promulgated pursuant to this article 30 or to remedy undesirable conditions in connection with the administration or the operation of the division, limited gaming, or sports betting;

(g)  To require any special reports from the director that it considers

necessary;

(h)  To issue temporary or permanent licenses to those involved in the

ownership, participation, or conduct of limited gaming or sports betting;

(i)  Upon complaint, or upon its own motion, to levy fines and to suspend or

revoke, licenses that the commission has issued;

(j)  To establish and collect fees and taxes upon persons, licenses, and

gaming devices used in, or participating in, limited gaming or sports betting;

(k)  To obtain all information from licensees and other persons and agencies

that the commission deems necessary or desirable in the conduct of its business;

(l)  To issue subpoenas for the appearance or production of persons, records,

and things in connection with applications before the commission or in connection with disciplinary or contested cases considered by the commission;

(m)  To apply for injunctive or declaratory relief to enforce the provisions of

this article 30 and any rules promulgated pursuant to this article 30;

(n) (I)  Except as otherwise provided in subsection (1)(n)(II) of this section, to

inspect and examine without notice all premises in which limited gaming or sports betting is conducted or where devices or equipment used in those activities are located, manufactured, sold, or distributed, and to summarily seize, remove, and impound, without notice or hearing, from the premises any equipment, devices, supplies, books, or records for the purpose of examination or inspection.

(II)  Subsection (1)(n)(I) of this section does not apply to an owner, operator,

employee, or customer of a simulated gambling device, or of a business offering simulated gambling devices, who:

(A)  Ceased participating in such activity on or before July 1, 2018; and


(B)  Provides clear documentation to the district attorney that a lawful

contract has been entered into for the sale or transfer of all simulated gambling devices connected with the activity to a person by whom, or into a jurisdiction where, the activity is lawful; and consummates the contract by actually selling or transferring the simulated gambling devices within one hundred eighty days after the contract was entered into or after any simulated gambling devices that were seized, confiscated, or forfeited by law enforcement authorities have been returned, whichever occurs later.

(o)  To enter into contracts with any governmental entity to carry out its

duties without compliance with the provisions of the Procurement Code, articles 101 to 112 of title 24. The contracts or formal agreements, or both, are to be based on preestablished commission criteria specifying minimum levels of cooperation and conditions for payment.

(p)  To exercise any other incidental powers as may be necessary to ensure

the safe and orderly regulation of limited gaming and sports betting and the secure collection of all revenues, taxes, and license fees;

(q)  To establish internal control procedures for licensees, including

accounting procedures, reporting procedures, and personnel policies;

(r)  To establish and collect fees for performing background checks on all

applicants for licenses and on all persons with whom the commission or division may agree with or contract with for the providing of goods or services, as the commission deems appropriate;

(s)  To establish and collect fees for performing, or having performed, tests

on equipment and devices to be used in limited gaming or sports betting;

(t)  To establish a field office in Black Hawk, Central City, or Cripple Creek, as

deemed necessary by the commission;

(u)  To demand, at any time when business is being conducted, access to and

inspection, examination, photocopying, and auditing of all papers, books, and records of applicants and licensees, on their premises or elsewhere as practicable and in the presence of the licensee or the licensee's agent, pertaining to the gross income produced by any establishment or activity licensed under this article 30; to require verification of income and all other matters affecting the enforcement of the policies of the commission or any provision of this article 30; and to impound or remove all papers, books, and records of applicants and licensees, without hearing, for inspection or examination;

(v)  To prescribe voluntary alternative methods for the making, filing, signing,

subscribing, verifying, transmitting, receiving, or storing of returns or other documents; and

(w)  To determine whether persons that are not licensed by the commission to

conduct sports betting or limited gaming operations are offering to one or more members of the public, in any city, town, city and county, or county:

(I)  Unlicensed sports betting operations;


(II)  Unlicensed internet sports betting operations; or


(III)  Unlicensed establishments that allow the use of equipment or devices

that qualify as slot machines or are used to play roulette or craps.

(2)  Rules promulgated pursuant to subsection (1) of this section must

include, at a minimum, the following:

(a)  The types of limited gaming and sports betting activities to be conducted

and the rules for those activities;

(b)  The requirements, qualifications, and grounds for the issuance,

revocation, suspension, and summary suspension of all types of permanent and temporary licenses required for the conduct of limited gaming or sports betting;

(c)  Qualifications of persons to hold limited gaming or sports betting

licenses;

(d)  Restrictions upon the times, places, and structures where limited gaming

or sports betting are authorized;

(e)  The ongoing operation of limited gaming or sports betting activities,

including the testing and approval of software or accounting systems used in connection with limited gaming or sports betting;

(f)  The scope and conditions for investigations and inspections into the

conduct of limited gaming or sports betting, the background of licensees and applicants for licenses, the premises where limited gaming or sports betting are authorized, all premises where gaming devices are located, the books and records of licensees, and the sources and maintenance of limited gaming or sports betting devices and equipment;

(g)  Activities that constitute fraud, cheating, or illegal or criminal activities;


(h)  The percentage of the adjusted gross proceeds to be paid by each

licensee to the commission, in addition to license fees and taxes;

(i)  The seizure without notice or hearing of gaming equipment, supplies, or

books and records for the purpose of examination and inspection;

(j)  The disclosure of the complete financial interests of applicants for

licenses or of licensees;

(k)  The issuance or denial of support licenses by the director;


(l)  The granting of certain licenses with special conditions or for limited

periods, or both;

(m)  The establishment of procedures for determining suitability or

unsuitability of persons, acts, or practices;

(n)  The payment of costs incurred in the operation and administration of the

division, and the costs resulting from any contract entered into for consulting or operational services;

(o)  The payment of costs incurred by the Colorado bureau of investigation

and any other agencies for investigations or background checks, which shall be paid by applicants for licenses or by licensees;

(p)  The levying of fines for violations of this article 30 or any rule

promulgated pursuant to this article 30;

(q)  The amount of license fees for all types of licenses issued by the

commission and the division;

(r)  The conditions and circumstances that constitute suitability of persons,

locations, and equipment for gaming or sports betting;

(s)  The types and specifications of all equipment and devices used in or with

limited gaming or sports betting; and

(t)  All other provisions necessary to accomplish the purposes of this article

30.

(3)  Repealed.


Source: L. 2018: (1)(n) amended, (HB 18-1234), ch. 381, p. 2297, � 1, effective

June 6; entire article added with relocations, (SB 18-034), ch. 14, p. 179, � 2, effective October 1. L. 2019: (1)(a), (1)(d), (1)(f), (1)(h), (1)(j), (1)(n)(I), (1)(p), (1)(s), (1)(u), IP(2), (2)(a) to (2)(f), (2)(r), and (2)(s) amended and (3) added, (HB 19-1327), ch. 347, p. 3212, � 8, effective August 2. L. 2022: IP(1), (1)(u), and (1)(v) amended and (1)(w) added, (HB 22-1412), ch. 405, p. 2877, � 14, effective August 10. L. 2024: (3) repealed, (HB 24-1450), ch. 490, p. 3430, � 93, effective August 7.

Editor's note: (1)  This section is similar to former � 12-47.1-302 as it existed

prior to 2018.

(2)  Subsection (1)(n) of this section was numbered as � 12-47.1-302 (1)(n) in

HB 18-1234. That provision was harmonized with and relocated to this section as this section appears in SB 18-034.

PART 4

CONFLICT OF INTEREST


C.R.S. § 44-30-821

44-30-821. Cheating - penalty. (1) It is unlawful for any person, whether he or she is an owner or employee of, or a player in, an establishment, to cheat at any limited gaming activity.

(2)  Repealed.


(3)  Any person issued a license pursuant to this article 30 violating any

provision of this section commits a class 6 felony and shall be punished as provided in section 18-1.3-401, and any other person violating any provision of this section commits a class 2 misdemeanor and shall be punished as provided in section 18-1.3-501.

Source: L. 2018: Entire article added with relocations, (SB 18-034), ch. 14, p.

211, � 2, effective October 1. L. 2021: (3) amended, (SB 21-271), ch. 462, p. 3329, � 792, effective March 1, 2022. L. 2023: (3) amended, (HB 23-1293), ch. 298, p. 1798, � 70, effective October 1. L. 2025: (2) repealed, (SB 25-275), ch. 377, p. 2109, � 336, effective August 6.

Editor's note: (1)  This section is similar to former � 12-47.1-822 as it existed

prior to 2018.

(2)  Subsection (2) was relocated to � 44-30-103 (7.5) in 2025.

C.R.S. § 44-30-824

44-30-824. Use of counterfeit or unapproved chips or tokens or unlawful coins or devices - possession of certain unlawful devices, equipment, products, or materials - penalty. (1) It is unlawful for any licensee, employee, or other person to use counterfeit chips in any limited gaming activity.

(2)  It is unlawful for a person, in playing or using a limited gaming activity

designed to be played with, to receive, or to be operated by chips, tokens, or other wagering instruments approved by the commission or by lawful coin of the United States of America:

(a)  Knowingly to use anything other than chips or tokens approved by the

commission or lawful coin, legal tender of the United States of America, or to use coin not of the same denomination as the coin intended to be used in that limited gaming activity; or

(b)  To use any device or means to violate the provisions of this article 30.


(3)  It is unlawful for any person to possess any device, equipment, or

material that he or she knows has been manufactured, distributed, sold, tampered with, or serviced in violation of the provisions of this article 30.

(4)  It is unlawful for any person, not a duly authorized employee of a licensee

acting in furtherance of his or her employment within an establishment, to have on his or her person or in his or her possession any device intended to be used to violate the provisions of this article 30.

(5)  It is unlawful for any person, not a duly authorized employee of a licensee

acting in furtherance of his or her employment within an establishment, to have on his or her person or in his or her possession while on the premises of any licensed gaming establishment any key or device known to have been designed for the purpose of and suitable for opening, entering, or affecting the operation of any limited gaming activity, drop box, or electronic or mechanical device connected thereto, or for removing money or other contents therefrom.

(6)  Possession of more than one of the devices, equipment, products, or

materials described in this section shall give rise to a rebuttable presumption that the possessor intended to use them for cheating.

(7)  It is unlawful for any person to use or possess while on the premises any

cheating or thieving device, including but not limited to, tools, drills, wires, coins, or tokens attached to strings or wires or electronic or magnetic devices, to facilitate the alignment of any winning combination or to facilitate removing from any slot machine any money or contents thereof, unless the person is a duly authorized gaming employee acting in the furtherance of his or her employment.

(8)  A person violating any provision of this section commits a class 6 felony

and shall be punished as provided in section 18-1.3-401.

Source: L. 2018: Entire article added with relocations, (SB 18-034), ch. 14, p.

213, � 2, effective October 1. L. 2023: (8) amended, (HB 23-1293), ch. 298, p. 1798, � 71, effective October 1.

Editor's note: This section is similar to former � 12-47.1-825 as it existed prior

to 2018.


C.R.S. § 44-30-825

44-30-825. Cheating game and devices - penalty. (1) It is unlawful for a person playing a licensed game in licensed gaming premises to:

(a)  Knowingly conduct, carry on, operate, or deal or allow to be conducted,

carried on, operated, or dealt any cheating or thieving game or device; or

(b)  Knowingly deal, conduct, carry on, operate, or expose for play a physical

or electronic version of a game played with physical or electronic cards or a mechanical device, or any combination of games or devices, that have been marked or tampered with or placed in a condition or operated in a manner that tends to deceive the public or alter the normal random selection of characteristics or the normal chance of the game, or that could determine or alter the result of the game.

(2)  A person violating any provision of this section commits a class 6 felony

and shall be punished as provided in section 18-1.3-401.

Source: L. 2018: Entire article added with relocations, (SB 18-034), ch. 14, p.

214, � 2, effective October 1. L. 2023: (2) amended, (HB 23-1293), ch. 298, p. 1798, � 72, effective October 1.

Editor's note: This section is similar to former � 12-47.1-826 as it existed prior

to 2018.


C.R.S. § 44-30-826

44-30-826. Unlawful manufacture, sale, distribution, marking, altering, or modification of equipment and devices associated with limited gaming - unlawful instruction. (1) It is unlawful to manufacture, sell, or distribute any cards, chips, dice, game, or device that is intended to be used to violate any provision of this article 30.

(2)  It is unlawful to mark, alter, or otherwise modify related equipment or a

limited gaming device in a manner that:

(a)  Affects the result of a wager by determining win or loss; or


(b)  Alters the normal criteria of random selection, that affects the operation

of a game or that determines the outcome of a game.

(3)  It is unlawful for any person to instruct another in cheating or in the use

of any device for that purpose, with the knowledge or intent that the information or use so conveyed may be employed to violate any provision of this article 30.

(4)  Any person issued a license pursuant to this article 30 violating any

provision of this section commits a class 6 felony and shall be punished as provided in section 18-1.3-401, and any other person violating any provision of this section commits a class 2 misdemeanor and shall be punished as provided in section 18-1.3-501. If the person is a repeating gambling offender, the person commits a class 5 felony and shall be punished as provided in section 18-1.3-401.

Source: L. 2018: Entire article added with relocations, (SB 18-034), ch. 14, p.

215, � 2, effective October 1. L. 2021: (4) amended, (SB 21-271), ch. 462, p. 3330, � 795, effective March 1, 2022.

Editor's note: This section is similar to former � 12-47.1-827 as it existed prior

to 2018.


C.R.S. § 44-30-828

44-30-828. Detention and questioning of person suspected of violating article - limitations on liability - posting of notice. (1) Any licensee or an officer, employee, or agent thereof may question any person in the licensee's establishment suspected of violating any of the provisions of this article 30. A licensee or any officer, employee, or agent thereof is not criminally or civilly liable:

(a)  On account of any such questioning; or


(b)  For reporting to the division, commission, or law enforcement authorities

the person suspected of the violation.

(2)  Any licensee or any officer, employee, or agent thereof who has probable

cause to believe that there has been a violation of this article 30 in the licensee's establishment by any person may take that person into custody and detain him or her in the establishment in a reasonable manner and for a reasonable length of time. Such a taking into custody and detention does not render the licensee or the officer, employee, or agent thereof criminally or civilly liable unless it is established by clear and convincing evidence that the taking into custody or detention is unreasonable under all the circumstances.

(3)  A licensee or any officer, employee, or agent thereof is not entitled to the

immunity from liability provided for in subsection (2) of this section unless there is displayed in a conspicuous place in the licensee's establishment a notice in bold-face type clearly legible and in substantially this form:

Any gaming licensee, or any officer, employee, or agent thereof who has probable cause to believe that any person has violated any provision prohibiting cheating in limited gaming may detain that person in the establishment.

Source: L. 2018: Entire article added with relocations, (SB 18-034), ch. 14, p.

216, � 2, effective October 1.

Editor's note: This section is similar to former � 12-47.1-829 as it existed prior

to 2018.


C.R.S. § 6-1-740

6-1-740. Kratom - deceptive trade practice - definitions. (1) As used in this section, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a)  Adulterated means the addition of fentanyl or any other controlled

substance, a synthesized alkaloid or semi-synthesized alkaloid, or another substance prohibited by law.

(b)  Alkaloid fraction means a portion of a plant or plant extract that

contains primarily alkaloid compounds.

(c)  Controlled substance means a substance listed in part 2 of article 18 of

title 18.

(d)  Kratom leaf means the leaf of the Mitragyna speciosa plant, in fresh,

dehydrated, or dried form.

(e)  Kratom leaf extract means the material extracted from a kratom leaf

through the application of a solvent consisting of water, ethanol, food-grade carbon dioxide, or another solvent allowed by federal or state law to be used in the manufacturing of a food ingredient.

(f)  Kratom product means a food or dietary supplement that consists of, or

contains, any part of a kratom leaf, a kratom leaf extract, or any kratom alkaloid, kratom constituent, or kratom metabolite and does not include any synthesized alkaloids or semi-synthesized alkaloids.

(g)  Semi-synthesized alkaloid means an alkaloid or alkaloid derivative

contained in a kratom leaf extract that has been exposed to chemicals or processes that would confer a structural change in the alkaloids, such as oxidation, reduction, and ring opening and closing, resulting in material that has been chemically altered.

(h)  Synthesized alkaloid means an alkaloid or alkaloid derivative of the

kratom leaf that has been created by chemical synthesis or biosynthetic means, including fermentation, recombinant techniques, yeast-derived techniques, and enzymatic techniques, rather than by traditional food preparation techniques such as heating or extracting.

(2)  A person shall not:


(a)  Knowingly prepare, distribute, advertise, sell, or offer to sell a kratom

product:

(I)  That is adulterated;


(II)  To a person under twenty-one years of age;


(III)  That contains a level of 7-hydroxymitragynine in the alkaloid fraction

that is greater than two percent of the alkaloid composition of the kratom product;

(IV)  That is a confection; mimics a candy product; or is manufactured,

packaged, labeled, or distributed in a way that is appealing to children, including in the distinct shape of a human, an animal, or fruit; or

(V)  That is combustible or intended for vaporization;


(b)  Prepare, distribute, advertise, sell, or offer to sell a kratom product that

does not have a label that clearly and conspicuously sets forth on each retail package:

(I)  The name and address for the place of business of the manufacturer or

distributor of the kratom product;

(II)  The full list of ingredients in the kratom product;


(III)  Disclosure and advice:


(A)  Against use by individuals who are under twenty-one years of age,

pregnant, or breastfeeding;

(B)  To consult a health-care professional prior to use;


(C)  That kratom may be habit-forming; and


(D)  That kratom may interact with certain medications, drugs, and controlled

substances;

(IV)  The following statements:


(A)  These statements have not been evaluated by the food and drug

administration. This product is not intended to diagnose, treat, cure, or prevent any disease.; and

(B)  Keep out of reach of children.; and


(V)  Directions for use that include:


(A)  A recommended amount of the kratom product per serving;


(B)  The number of recommended servings per package;


(C)  A recommended number of servings of the kratom product that can be

safely consumed in a twenty-four-hour period; and

(D)  Quantitative declarations of the amount of mitragynine and the amount

of 7-hydroxymitragynine per serving of the kratom product;

(c)  Display or store kratom products in a retail location in a manner that will

allow the products to be accessed by individuals under twenty-one years of age; or

(d)  Manufacture, package, label, or distribute a kratom product that:


(I)  Contains synthesized alkaloids or semi-synthesized alkaloids; or


(II)  Has a level of 7-hydroxymitragynine in the alkaloid fraction that is

greater than two percent of the alkaloid composition of the product.

(3)  A person that conducts the activities described in subsection (2) of this

section engages in a deceptive trade practice.

Source: L. 2025: Entire section added, (SB 25-072), ch. 283, p. 1464, � 2,

effective May 29.

Editor's note: Section 4 of chapter 283 (SB 25-072), Session Laws of

Colorado 2025, provides that the act adding this section applies to conduct occurring on or after May 29, 2025.

Cross references: For the short title (Daniel Bregger Act) in SB 25-072, see

section 1 of chapter 283, Session Laws of Colorado 2025.

PART 8

SWEEPSTAKES AND CONTESTS


C.R.S. § 6-6-103

6-6-103. Collections prohibited - penalty - definition. (1) No sender of any unsolicited goods shall mail or otherwise send to any recipient of such unsolicited goods a bill for such unsolicited goods or any dunning communications.

(2) (a)  The sender of a magazine or other periodical shall cancel a

subscription if any invoice is returned by the recipient marked cancel. Cancellation shall also occur when the recipient gives written notice of cancellation to the sender at the sender's address or at the address of the subscription department printed in the periodical, or, if no such department is listed, at the general business address of the periodical.

(b)  Notice of cancellation may be given by regular mail, and is effective on

the date received by the sender. Notice of cancellation need not take any particular form and is sufficient if it indicates by any form of written expression that the recipient wishes to terminate the subscription. Within sixty days after notice of cancellation for prepaid subscriptions, the sender shall refund to the recipient any amount paid for the subscription less the amount owed by the recipient for any periodicals, together with the postage thereon, if postage has been charged separately, received before the effective date of the notice of cancellation.

(c)  For purposes of this subsection (2), sender means the publisher of a

periodical, any person acting as the agent of such publisher, and any person purporting to act as the agent of such publisher, and a seller of the periodical.

(3)  Violation of this section constitutes a petty offense. Violation of this

section also constitutes a deceptive trade practice in violation of the Colorado Consumer Protection Act, article 1 of this title 6, and is subject to remedies or penalties, or both, pursuant thereto.

Source: L. 75: Entire article added, p. 262, � 1, effective July 14. L. 76: Entire

section amended, p. 297, � 11, effective May 20. L. 93: Entire section amended, p. 1574, � 7, effective July 1. L. 95: Entire section amended, p. 387, � 1, effective July 1. L. 2021: (3) amended, (SB 21-271), ch. 462, p. 3135, � 61, effective March 1, 2022.

Cross references: For the penalty for a petty offense, see � 18-1.3-503.

ARTICLE 6.5

Soil and Hazard Analyses of Residential Construction

6-6.5-101.  Disclosure to purchaser - penalty. (1)  At least fourteen days prior

to closing the sale of any new residence for human habitation, every developer or builder or their representatives shall provide the purchaser with a copy of a summary report of the analysis and the site recommendations. For sites in which significant potential for expansive soils is recognized, the builder or his representative shall supply each buyer with a copy of a publication detailing the problems associated with such soils, the building methods to address these problems during construction, and suggestions for care and maintenance to address such problems.

(2)  In addition to any other liability or penalty, any builder or developer

failing to provide the report or publication required by subsection (1) of this section shall be subject to a civil penalty of five hundred dollars payable to the purchaser.

(3)  The requirements of this section shall not apply to any individual

constructing a residential structure for his own residence.

Source: L. 84: Entire article added, p. 294, � 1, effective July 1.

ENERGY AND WATER CONSERVATION

ARTICLE 7

Residential Building Energy Conservation

6-7-101 to 6-7-106. (Repealed)


Source: L. 2022: Entire article repealed, (HB 22-1362), ch. 301, p. 2188, � 9,

effective June 2.

Editor's note: (1)  This article 7 was added in 1977. For amendments to this

article 7 prior to its repeal in 2022, consult the 2021 Colorado Revised Statutes and the Colorado statutory research explanatory note beginning on page vii in the front of this volume.

(2)  Section 6-7-104 was amended in SB 22-212. Those amendments were

superseded by the repeal of this article 7 in HB 22-1362.

ARTICLE 7.5

Water and Energy Efficiency Standards

Editor's note: This article 7.5 was added in 2014 and was not amended prior

to 2019. It was repealed and reenacted in 2019, resulting in the addition, relocation, or elimination of sections as well as subject matter. For the text of this article 7.5 prior to 2019, consult the 2018 Colorado Revised Statutes and the Colorado statutory research explanatory note beginning on page vii in the front of this volume. Former C.R.S. section numbers are shown in editor's notes following those sections that were relocated.

6-7.5-101.  Legislative declaration. (1)  The general assembly finds and

determines that efficiency standards for certain products sold in Colorado:

(a)  Assure consumers and businesses that such products meet minimum

efficiency performance levels, thus reducing energy and water waste and saving consumers and businesses money on utility bills;

(b)  Protect consumers and businesses against manufacturers who would

otherwise sell, in Colorado, less efficient appliances that they cannot sell in states that have higher standards;

(c)  Save energy and thus reduce pollution and other environmental impacts

associated with the production, distribution, and use of electricity, natural gas, and other fuels;

(d)  Improve electric system reliability and potentially reduce the need for

new energy and water infrastructure based on the resulting energy and water savings;

(e)  Apply to products available at a price equal to or less than noncompliant

products, or available at a minimal cost premium;

(f)  Have saved Coloradans billions of gallons of water since 2014, when

WaterSense standards were enacted for plumbing fixtures, without sacrificing quality or product performance; and

(g)  Contribute to the economy of this state by helping to better balance

supply and demand for both energy and water, thus reducing the upward pressure on prices for electricity, natural gas, and water caused by increased demand. In addition, efficiency standards allow consumers and businesses to use the money they save on utility bills to purchase local goods and services.

(2)  Therefore, the general assembly declares that the adoption of energy

and water efficiency standards in accordance with this article 7.5 is a matter of state and local concern and serves the public interest of the people of Colorado.

Source: L. 2019: Entire article R&RE, (HB 19-1231), ch. 356, p. 3270, � 1,

effective August 2.

6-7.5-102.  Definitions. As used in this article 7.5, unless the context

otherwise requires and except as determined by rule pursuant to section 6-7.5-106 (1):

(1)  Air purifier or room air cleaner means an electric, cord-connected,

portable appliance that has the primary function of removing particulate matter from the air.

(2)  AHRI 1430 means the Air-conditioning, Heating, and Refrigeration

Institute standard for demand flexible electric storage water heaters.

(3)  ANSI means the American National Standards Institute or its successor

organization.

(4)  ANSI/APSP/ICC-14 means the ANSI standard for portable electric spa

energy efficiency.

(5)  ANSI C78.81 means the ANSI standard for Electric Lamps - Double-Capped Fluorescent Lamps - Dimensional and Electrical Characteristics.


(6)  ANSI C78.901 means the ANSI standard for Electric Lamps - Single-Based Fluorescent Lamps - Dimensional and Electrical Characteristics.


(7)  ANSI C79.1 means the ANSI standard for Electric Lamps -

Nomenclature for Glass Bulbs Intended for Use with Electric Lamps.

(8)  APSP means the Association of Pool and Spa Professionals or its

successor organization.

(9)  CCR means the California code of regulations, as amended.


(10)  Check valve means a component that is internal to a spray sprinkler

body and prevents system drainage during periods of nonoperation.

(11)  Cold-temperature fluorescent lamp means a fluorescent lamp that:


(a)  Is not a compact fluorescent lamp;


(b)  Is specifically designed to start at a temperature of twenty degrees

below zero Fahrenheit when used with a ballast conforming to the requirements of ANSI C78.81 and ANSI C78.901; and

(c)  Is expressly designated as a cold-temperature lamp both in markings on

the lamp and in marketing materials such as catalogs, sales literature, and promotional material.

(12)  Commercial dishwasher means a machine designed to clean and

sanitize plates, pots, pans, glasses, cups, bowls, utensils, and trays by applying sprays of detergent solution, with or without blasting media granules, and a sanitizing rinse.

(13)  Commercial fryer means an appliance, including a cooking vessel, in

which:

(a)  Oil is placed to such a depth that the food to be cooked is essentially

supported by displacement of the cooking fluid rather than by the bottom of the vessel; and

(b)  Heat is delivered to the cooking fluid by means of either:


(I)  An immersed electric element or band-wrapped vessel; or


(II)  Heat transfer from gas burners through either the walls of the vessel or

tubes passing through the cooking fluid.

(14)  Commercial hot food holding cabinet means a heated, fully enclosed

compartment with one or more solid or transparent doors designed to maintain the temperature of hot food that has been cooked using a separate appliance. Commercial hot food holding cabinet does not include heated glass merchandising cabinets, drawer warmers, or cook and hold appliances.

(15)  Commercial oven means a chamber designed for heating, roasting, or

baking food by conduction, convection, radiation, or electromagnetic energy.

(16)  Commercial steam cooker means a device with one or more food-steaming compartments in which thermal energy is transferred from the steam to

the food by direct contact. Commercial steam cooker includes countertop models, wall-mounted models, and floor models mounted on a stand, pedestal, or cabinet-style base.

(17)  Compact fluorescent lamp means a fluorescent lamp that includes:


(a)  A tube that is curved or folded to fit the size of a traditional household

light bulb; and

(b)  A compact electronic ballast in the base of the lamp.


(18)  Compensation means money or any other thing of value, regardless of

form, received or to be received by a person for goods or services rendered.

(19)  Computer and computer monitor have the meanings set forth in 20

CCR sec. 1602 (v).

(20)  CTA means the Consumer Technology Association, or a successor

organization.

(21)  Decorative gas fireplace means a vented fireplace, including a unit

that is freestanding, recessed, or zero clearance, or a gas fireplace insert that is:

(a)  Fueled by natural gas or propane;


(b)  Marked or intended for decorative use only; and


(c)  Not equipped with a thermostat or intended for use as a heater.


(22)  Electric storage water heater means a consumer product that:


(a)  Uses electricity to heat domestic potable water;


(b)  Has a nameplate input rating of twelve kilowatts or less;


(c)  Has a rated hot water storage capacity between forty and one hundred

twenty gallons; and

(d)  Delivers hot water at a maximum temperature of less than one hundred

eighty degrees Fahrenheit.

(23) (a)  Electric vehicle supply equipment means conductors, including

ungrounded, grounded, and equipment-grounding conductors; electric vehicle connectors; attachment plugs; and all other fittings, devices, power outlets, or apparatuses installed specifically for the purpose of delivering energy from the wiring of a premises to an electric vehicle.

(b)  Electric vehicle supply equipment does not include a conductor,

connector, or fitting that is part of a vehicle.

(24)  Energy Star program means the federal program authorized by 42

U.S.C. sec. 6294a, as amended.

(25)  Executive director means the executive director of the department of

public health and environment or the executive director's designee.

(26)  Faucet means:


(a)  A public or private lavatory faucet, residential kitchen faucet, or metering

faucet; or

(b)  A replacement aerator for a public or private lavatory faucet or

residential kitchen faucet.

(27)  Flushometer-valve water closet means a type of commercial toilet

that uses a valve for flushing by operation of a handle that discharges a definite quantity of water under pressure directly into the fixture.

(28)  Gas fireplace means a decorative gas fireplace or a heating gas

fireplace.

(29)  Gas log set means a fireplace product designed to be used and

installed in a working masonry or factory-built wood-burning fireplace and vented through a chimney by natural drafting or power venting.

(30)  GPM means gallons per minute.


(31)  Handheld showerhead means a showerhead that is connected to a

flexible hose and can be held or fixed in place for the purpose of spraying water on a bather.

(32)  Heating gas fireplace means a vented fireplace, including a unit that is

freestanding, recessed, or zero clearance or a fireplace insert, that is:

(a)  Fueled by natural gas or propane; and


(b)  Not a decorative gas fireplace.


(33)  High CRI fluorescent lamp means a fluorescent lamp with a color

rendering index of eighty-seven or greater that is not a compact fluorescent lamp.

(34)  ICC means the International Code Council or its successor

organization.

(35)  Impact-resistant fluorescent lamp means a fluorescent lamp that:


(a)  Is not a compact fluorescent lamp;


(b)  Has a coating or equivalent technology that is compliant with NSF/ANSI

51 and is designed to contain the glass if the glass envelope of the lamp is broken; and

(c)  Is designated and marketed for the intended application, with:


(I)  The designation appearing on the lamp packaging; and


(II)  Marketing materials that identify the lamp as being impact-resistant,

shatter-resistant, shatterproof, or shatter-protected.

(36)  Industrial air purifier means an indoor air cleaning device that is:


(a)  Manufactured, advertised, marketed, labeled, and used solely for

industrial purposes;

(b)  Marketed solely through industrial supply outlets or businesses; and


(c)  Prominently labeled as Solely for industrial use. Potential health hazard:

emits ozone.

(37)  Inline residential ventilating fan means a ventilating fan that is located

within the structure of a building and requires ductwork on both the inlet and the outlet.

(38)  Irrigation controller means a standalone controller, an add-on device,

or a plug-in device that is used to operate an automatic irrigation system such as a lawn sprinkler or drip irrigation system designed and intended for nonagricultural purposes. Irrigation controller includes:

(a)  A soil moisture-based irrigation controller that inhibits or allows an

irrigation event based on a reading from a soil moisture sensor mechanism; and

(b)  A weather-based irrigation controller that uses current weather data as a

basis for scheduling irrigation.

(39) (a)  Lamp means a device that emits light and is used to illuminate an

indoor or outdoor space.

(b)  Lamp does not include a heat lamp.


(40)  LED means light-emitting diode.


(41)  Metering faucet means a self-closing faucet that dispenses a specific

volume of water for each actuation cycle and for which the volume or cycle duration may be fixed or adjustable.

(42)  NSF means NSF International, formerly known as the National

Sanitation Foundation.

(43)  NSF/ANSI 51 means the NSF/ANSI 51 standard for food equipment

materials.

(44)  Plumbing fixture means an exchangeable device that connects to a

plumbing system to deliver water or drain water and waste.

(45)  Portable air conditioner means a portable encased assembly, other

than a packaged terminal air conditioner, ductless portable air conditioner, room air conditioner, or dehumidifier, that:

(a)  Delivers cooled, conditioned air to an enclosed space;


(b)  Is powered by single-phase electric current;


(c)  Includes a source of refrigeration;


(d)  May be a single-duct or dual-duct portable air conditioner; and


(e)  May include additional means for air circulation and heating.


(46)  Portable electric spa means a factory-built electric spa or hot tub that

may include any combination of integral controls, water heating, and water circulating equipment.

(47)  Pressure regulator means a device that maintains constant operating

pressure immediately downstream from a spray sprinkler body, given higher pressure upstream of the device.

(48)  Private lavatory faucet means a bathroom faucet that, as installed, is

not in a location that is available to the public, including a lavatory faucet in a private residence.

(49)  Programmable thermostat means a thermostat that:


(a)  Controls a primary heating or cooling system on a daily schedule to

maintain different temperatures during certain times of day and days of the week; and

(b)  Has the capability to maintain zone temperatures between fifty-five

degrees Fahrenheit and eighty-five degrees Fahrenheit.

(50)  PSI means pounds per square inch.


(51)  Public lavatory faucet means a fitting designed and marketed for

installation in a nonresidential bathroom, which bathroom is exposed to walk-in traffic.

(52)  Replacement aerator means an aerator sold as a replacement,

separate from the faucet to which it is intended to be attached.

(53)  Residential building means a structure that is used primarily for living

and sleeping and that is zoned as residential or otherwise subject to residential building codes. For the purposes of residential windows, doors, and skylights, residential building means a building that is three stories or less in height.

(54)  Residential door means a sliding or swinging entry system that is

installed or designed for installation in a vertical wall separating conditioned and unconditioned space in a residential building.

(55)  Residential kitchen faucet means a faucet in a kitchen of a residential

building.

(56)  Residential skylight means a window that is designed for sloped or

horizontal application in the roof of a residential building, the primary purpose of which window is to provide daylight or ventilation. Residential skylight includes a tubular daylighting device.

(57)  Residential ventilating fan means a ceiling-mounted, a wall-mounted,

or an inline residential fan that is designed to be used in a bathroom or a utility room for the purpose of moving air from inside a residential building to the outdoors.

(58) (a)  Residential window means an assembled unit that:


(I)  Consists of a frame that holds one or more pieces of glass or other glazing

material that admits light or air into an enclosure; and

(II)  Is designed for installation at a slope of at least sixty degrees from

horizontal in an external wall of a residential building.

(b)  Residential window includes a transom window but does not include a

residential skylight.

(59)  Showerhead means a device through which water is discharged for a

shower bath. Showerhead includes a handheld showerhead but does not include an emergency showerhead such as a showerhead used in a laboratory or industrial setting.

(60)  Showerhead tub spout diverter combination means a control valve,

tub spout diverter, and showerhead that are sold together as a matched set.

(61)  Smart thermostat means a thermostat that:


(a)  Is enabled for wireless connectivity;


(b)  Allows the user to control home heating and cooling temperature

settings from a computer or from a phone, a tablet, or another computer-enabled device; and

(c)  Can automatically adjust heating and cooling temperature settings based

on user preferences, daily schedules, weather conditions, occupancy, or optimal energy savings.

(62)  Spray sprinkler body means the exterior case or shell of a sprinkler

designed and intended for nonagricultural uses, which case or shell:

(a)  Incorporates a means of connection to the piping system; and


(b)  Is designed to convey water to a nozzle or orifice.


(63)  Tub spout diverter means a device that is designed to divert the flow

of water into a bathtub so the water discharges through a showerhead.

(64)  Tubular daylighting device means a building component that receives

daylight in a rooftop dome and transfers the daylight indoors through a highly reflective tube.

(65)  Urinal means a plumbing fixture that receives liquid body waste and

conveys the waste through a trap seal into a gravity drainage system.

(66)  Water closet means a plumbing fixture that has a water-containing

receptor that receives liquid and solid body waste through an exposed integral trap and conveys the waste into a drainage system. Water closet includes both tank-type and flushometer-valve water closets.

(67)  Water cooler means a freestanding device that consumes energy to

cool or heat, or both cool and heat, potable water. Water cooler includes:

(a)  A cold-only unit that dispenses only cold water;


(b)  A hot-and-cold unit that dispenses both hot and cold water and, in some

models, also room temperature water;

(c)  A cook-and-cold unit that dispenses both room temperature and cold

water;

(d)  A storage-type unit that instantaneously delivers water from a storage

tank within the unit, including point-of-use, dry storage compartment, and bottled water coolers; and

(e)  An on-demand unit that heats water as it is requested, typically within a

few minutes.

(68)  WaterSense-listed plumbing fixture means a plumbing fixture or

plumbing fixture fitting that has been:

(a)  Tested by an accredited third-party certifying body or laboratory in

accordance with the federal environmental protection agency's WaterSense program or a successor program;

(b)  Certified by the body or laboratory as meeting the performance and

efficiency requirements of the WaterSense program; and

(c)  Authorized by the WaterSense program to use its label.


(69)  WaterSense program means the federal program authorized by 42

U.S.C. sec. 6294b.

Source: L. 2019: Entire article R&RE, (HB 19-1231), ch. 356, p. 3271, � 1,

effective August 2. L. 2023: Entire section amended, (HB 23-1161), ch. 285, p. 1689, � 1, effective August 7.

Editor's note: This section is similar to former � 6-7.5-101 as it existed prior to

2019.

6-7.5-103.  Low-efficiency plumbing fixtures. (Repealed)


Source: L. 2019: Entire article R&RE, (HB 19-1231), ch. 356, p. 3277, � 1,

effective August 2. L. 2023: Entire section repealed, (HB 23-1161), ch. 285, p. 1700, � 2, effective August 7.

Editor's note: This section was similar to former � 6-7.5-102 as it existed prior

to 2019.

6-7.5-104.  Scope and applicability. (1)  Subject to subsection (2) of this

section and as further specified in section 6-7.5-105, this article 7.5 applies to the following products sold as new in Colorado:

(a)  Repealed.


(a.3)  Air purifiers;


(a.6)  Cold-temperature fluorescent lamps;


(b)  Commercial dishwashers;


(c)  Commercial fryers;


(d)  Commercial hot food holding cabinets;


(d.5)  Commercial ovens;


(e)  Commercial steam cookers;


(f)  Computers and computer monitors;


(f.2)  Electric storage water heaters;


(f.5)  Electric vehicle supply equipment;


(g)  Faucets;


(h)  Repealed.


(i)  Gas fireplaces;


(j)  High CRI fluorescent lamps;


(j.5)  Impact-resistant fluorescent lamps;


(j.7)  Irrigation controllers;


(k)  Portable air conditioners;


(l)  Portable electric spas;


(l.4)  Residential doors;


(l.6)  Residential skylights;


(m)  Residential ventilating fans;


(m.6)  Residential windows;


(m.8)  Showerheads;


(n)  Spray sprinkler bodies;


(o)  Thermostats;


(o.2)  Tub spout diverters and showerhead tub spout diverter combinations;


(o.4)  Urinals;


(o.6)  Water closets;


(p)  Water coolers; and


(q)  Other products as may be designated by the executive director pursuant

to section 6-7.5-106.

(2)  This article 7.5 does not apply to:


(a)  Products installed in mobile manufactured homes at the time of

construction;

(b)  Products designed expressly for installation and use in recreational

vehicles; or

(c)  Products held in inventory on or before:


(I)  The effective date of the applicable standard for each category of product

set forth in this article 7.5; or

(II)  The effective date for each category of products, as determined by the

executive director by rule pursuant to section 6-7.5-106.

(3)  This article 7.5 is not enforceable against an employee of a contractor

who installs, repairs, or replaces appliances and collects from the customer an amount representing both parts and labor.

(4)  This article 7.5 does not preempt any action of a statutory or home rule

municipality, county, or city and county that prescribes additional or more restrictive water conservation or energy efficiency requirements affecting the sale or use of plumbing fixtures, appliances, or other products if the requirements comply with the standards specified in this article 7.5.

Source: L. 2019: Entire article R&RE, (HB 19-1231), ch. 356, p. 3277, � 1,

effective August 2. L. 2023: (1)(a) and (1)(h) repealed, (1)(a.3), (1)(a.6), (1)(d.5), (1)(f.2), (1)(f.5), (1)(j.5), (1)(j.7), (1)(l.4), (1)(l.6), (1)(m.6), (1)(m.8), (1)(o.2), (1)(o.4), (1)(o.6), (1)(q), and (4) added, and (1)(i), (1)(o), (1)(p), and (2)(c) amended, (HB 23-1161), ch. 285, p. 1700, � 3, effective August 7.

6-7.5-105.  Standards - effective dates - repeal. (1)  On and after August 7,

2023, a person shall not sell any of the following plumbing fixtures in Colorado unless they are WaterSense-listed plumbing fixtures:

(a) (I)  A private lavatory faucet.


(II)  This subsection (1)(a) is repealed, effective January 1, 2026.


(b)  A public lavatory faucet;


(c)  A showerhead;


(d) (I)  A urinal.


(II)  This subsection (1)(d) is repealed, effective January 1, 2026.


(e)  A water closet.


(2)  Repealed.


(3)  On and after January 1, 2021, a person shall not sell, lease, or rent any of

the following new products in Colorado unless the efficiency of the new product meets or exceeds the following efficiency standards, as applicable:

(a)  Commercial dishwashers included in the scope of the Energy Star

program product specification for commercial dishwashers must meet the qualification criteria of that specification.

(b)  Commercial fryers included in the scope of the Energy Star program

product specification for commercial fryers must meet the qualification criteria of that specification.

(c) (I)  Commercial hot food holding cabinets must have a maximum idle

energy rate of forty watts per cubic foot of interior volume, as determined by the idle energy rate-dry test in ASTM standard F2140-11, Test Method for the Performance of Hot Food Holding Cabinets, published by ASTM International, formerly known as the American Society for Testing and Materials. Interior volume must be measured as prescribed in the Energy Star program product specification for commercial hot food holding cabinets, version 2.0.

(II)  This subsection (3)(c) is repealed, effective January 1, 2026.


(d)  Commercial steam cookers must meet the requirements of the Energy

Star program product specification for commercial steam cookers.

(e)  Computers and computer monitors must meet the requirements of

section 1605.3 (v) of title 20 of the CCR, and compliance with those requirements must be as measured in accordance with test methods prescribed in section 1604 (v) of those regulations.

(f)  Faucets, except for metering faucets, must meet the following standards

when tested in accordance with 10 CFR 430, subpart B, appendix S, and compliance with those standards must be established using the Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Water Consumption of Faucets and Showerheads, as in effect on January 3, 2017:

(I)  Residential kitchen faucets and replacement aerators must not exceed a

maximum flow rate of 1.8 GPM at sixty PSI, with optional temporary flow of 2.2 GPM, provided they default to a maximum flow rate of 1.8 GPM at sixty PSI after each use.

(II)  Public lavatory faucets and replacement aerators must not exceed a

maximum flow rate of 0.5 GPM at sixty PSI.

(g)  Repealed.


(h) (I)  High CRI fluorescent lamps must meet the minimum efficacy

requirements contained in 10 CFR 430.32 (n)(4) as in effect on January 3, 2017, as measured in accordance with 10 CFR 430, subpart B, appendix R, Uniform Test Method for Measuring Average Lamp Efficacy (LE), Color Rendering Index (CRI), and Correlated Color Temperature (CCT) of Electric Lamps, as in effect on January 3, 2017.

(II)  This subsection (3)(h) is repealed, effective January 1, 2026.


(i)  Portable electric spas must meet the requirements of ANSI/APSP/ICC-14.


(j)  New residential ventilating fans must meet the fan motor efficacy

qualification criteria of the Energy Star program product specification for residential ventilating fans.

(k) (I)  Spray sprinkler bodies that are not specifically excluded from the

scope of the WaterSense program product specification for spray sprinkler bodies, version 1.0, must include an integral pressure regulator and must meet the water efficiency and performance criteria and other requirements of that specification.

(II)  This subsection (3)(k) is repealed, effective January 1, 2026.


(l)  Repealed.


(m)  Water coolers included in the scope of the Energy Star program product

specification for water coolers must have an on mode with no-water-draw energy consumption less than or equal to the following values as measured in accordance with the test requirements of that program:

(I)  0.16 kilowatt-hours per day for cold-only units and cook and cold units;


(II)  0.87 kilowatt-hours per day for storage-type hot and cold units; and


(III)  0.18 kilowatt-hours per day for on-demand hot and cold units.


(4)  On or after February 1, 2022, the following new products shall not be

sold, leased, or rented in Colorado unless the efficiency of the new product meets or exceeds the following efficiency standards, as applicable:

(a)  Repealed.


(b)  New portable air conditioners must have a combined energy efficiency

ratio (CEER), as measured in accordance with 10 CFR 430, subpart B, appendix CC, Uniform Test Method for Measuring the Energy Consumption of Portable Air Conditioners, as in effect on January 3, 2017, that is greater than or equal to:

1.04 x SACC / (3.7117 x SACC0.6384)

where SACC is the seasonally adjusted cooling capacity in British thermal units per hour.

(5)  On and after January 1, 2026, a person shall not sell, offer to sell, lease, or

offer to lease any of the following new products in Colorado unless the efficiency of the new product meets or exceeds the following efficiency standards, as applicable:

(a)  Air purifiers, except industrial air purifiers, must meet the certification

requirements of the Energy Star program product specification for room air cleaners.

(b)  Commercial hot food holding cabinets must meet the qualification

criteria of the Energy Star program product specification for commercial hot food holding cabinets.

(c)  Commercial ovens included in the scope of the Energy Star program

product specification for commercial ovens must meet the qualification criteria of that specification.

(d)  Electric storage water heaters must have a modular demand response

communications port compliant with AHRI 1430.

(e)  Electric vehicle supply equipment included in the scope of the Energy

Star program product specification for electric vehicle supply equipment must meet the certification criteria of that specification.

(f)  Gas fireplaces must comply with the following requirements:


(I)  Gas fireplaces must be capable of automatically extinguishing any pilot

flame when the main gas burner flame is extinguished or must prevent any ignition source for the main gas burner flame from operating continuously for more than seven days from the last use of the main gas burner;

(II)  Decorative gas fireplaces must have a direct vent or power vent

configuration, unless the decorative gas fireplace is marked for replacement use only or outdoor use only or is a gas log set; and

(III)  Heating gas fireplaces must have a fireplace efficiency of at least fifty

percent when tested in accordance with Canadian Standards Association P.4.1-15, Testing method for measuring fireplace efficiency, as amended or revised.

(g)  High CRI, cold-temperature, and impact-resistant fluorescent lamps

must meet the minimum efficacy requirements contained in 10 CFR 430.32 (n)(4), as measured in accordance with 10 CFR 430, subpart B, appendix R, Uniform Test Method for Measuring Average Lamp Efficacy (LE), Color Rendering Index (CRI), and Correlated Color Temperature (CCT) of Electric Lamps.

(h)  Irrigation controllers must comply with the following requirements:


(I)  Weather-based irrigation controllers included within the scope of the

WaterSense program product specification for weather-based irrigation controllers must meet the water efficiency and performance criteria and other requirements for that specification; and

(II)  Soil moisture-based irrigation controllers included within the scope of the

WaterSense program product specification for soil moisture-based irrigation controllers must meet the water efficiency and performance criteria and other requirements for that specification.

(i)  Private lavatory faucets, tub spout diverters, showerhead tub spout

diverter combinations, and urinals must meet the requirements in 20 CCR sec. 1605.3, as measured in accordance with the test methods prescribed in 20 CCR sec. 1604, as amended.

(j) (I)  Except as otherwise provided in subsection (5)(j)(II) of this section,

residential windows, residential doors, and residential skylights included in the scope of the Energy Star program product specification for residential windows, doors, and skylights must satisfy the northern climate zone qualification criteria of that specification; except that residential windows and doors that are custom designed for a historically designated building and required in order to maintain the historic nature or character of such a building are not required to satisfy such criteria.

(II)  The executive director may consult with the Colorado energy office to

evaluate the standard set forth in subsection (5)(j)(I) of this section for residential windows, residential doors, and residential skylights. If the executive director determines that the standard cannot reasonably be met by manufacturers of residential windows, residential doors, and residential skylights, then the executive director shall set an alternative standard that may be applied instead of the standard set forth in subsection (5)(j)(I) of this section and the executive director shall display the alternative standard on the public website of the Colorado department of public health and environment no later than June 1, 2025. When deciding whether the standard set forth in subsection (5)(j)(I) of this section can reasonably be met, the executive director shall take into account the following factors:

(A)  Impacts on net consumer costs; and


(B)  Supply chain constraints.


(k)  Spray sprinkler bodies that are not specifically excluded from the scope

of the WaterSense program product specification for spray sprinkler bodies must include an integral pressure regulator and a check valve and must meet the water efficiency and performance criteria and other requirements of that specification.

(l)  Thermostats must be programmable thermostats or smart thermostats.


Source: L. 2019: Entire article R&RE, (HB 19-1231), ch. 356, p. 3278, � 1,

effective August 2. L. 2023: (1), IP(3), (3)(a), (3)(b), (3)(c), (3)(d), (3)(h), (3)(i), (3)(j), (3)(k), and IP(3)(m) amended, (2), (3)(g), (3)(l), and (4)(a) repealed, and (5) added, (HB 23-1161), ch. 285, p. 1701, � 4, effective August 7. L. 2024: (5)(j) amended, (SB 24-214), ch. 191, p. 1091, � 4, effective May 17.

6-7.5-106.  New and revised standards - rules. (1)  The executive director

may adopt by rule a more recent version of any standard or test method established in section 6-7.5-105, including any product definition associated with the standard or test method, in order to maintain or improve consistency with other comparable standards in other states, so long as the resulting efficiency is equal to or greater than the efficiency achieved using the prior standard or test method. The executive director shall allow at least a one-year delay between the adoption by rule and the enforcement of any new standard or test method.

(2)  On or before January 1, 2026, and on or before January 1 every five years

thereafter, the executive director shall promulgate rules establishing standards for products that are not described in section 6-7.5-104 or 6-7.5-105 if such standards:

(a)  Would improve energy or water conservation in the state; and


(b)  Exist in at least three other states or are published in finalized form by

the Energy Star program or the WaterSense program.

(3)  After January 1, 2026, the executive director shall allow a one-year grace

period after any standard, standard version, definition, or test method referenced in this article 7.5 is updated, during which time a product may meet either the previous standard or the updated standard, standard version, definition, or test method, as applicable.

Source: L. 2019: Entire article R&RE, (HB 19-1231), ch. 356, p. 3281, � 1,

effective August 2. L. 2023: Entire section amended, (HB 23-1161), ch. 285, p. 1705, � 5, effective August 7.

6-7.5-107.  Protection against repeal of federal standards. (1)  If any of the

energy or water conservation standards issued or approved for publication by the office of the United States secretary of energy as of January 1, 2018, as set forth in 10 CFR 430-431 and promulgated pursuant to the Energy Policy and Conservation Act, Pub.L. 94-163, are withdrawn, repealed, or otherwise voided, the minimum energy or water efficiency level permitted for products previously subject to federal energy or water conservation standards must be the previously applicable federal standards, and no such new product may be sold or offered for sale, lease, or rental in Colorado unless it meets or exceeds such standards.

(2)  This section does not apply to a federal energy or water conservation

standard set aside by a court upon the petition of a person that will be adversely affected by the standard, as provided in 42 U.S.C. sec. 6306 (b).

Source: L. 2019: Entire article R&RE, (HB 19-1231), ch. 356, p. 3281, � 1,

effective August 2.

6-7.5-108.  Utility programs during transition period. (1)  Should one or more

products described in this article 7.5 be subject to withdrawal, repeal, or other actions that declare a federal standard invalid as described in section 6-7.5-107, the public utilities commission shall permit a three-year phaseout for a utility operating energy efficiency programs that create incentives for or otherwise encourage the use of high-efficiency versions of the affected products. This phaseout shall commence on or after the date specified in section 6-7.5-105; shall apply only to energy savings that will be mandated under this article 7.5; shall occur in equal reductions for each transition year; and must permit an orderly adjustment of the appliance or lighting market to ensure that residents and businesses in Colorado are not negatively affected by changes in product selection, business practices, and energy efficiency program opportunities related to the affected appliances or lighting products.

(2)  For products listed in this article 7.5 that are not subject to withdrawal or

repeal, the public utilities commission shall allow at least a one-year transition for utility-sponsored energy efficiency programs starting on or after the date specified in section 6-7.5-105.

Source: L. 2019: Entire article R&RE, (HB 19-1231), ch. 356, p. 3282, � 1,

effective August 2.

6-7.5-109.  Testing, certification, labeling, and enforcement - rules -

verifications of compliance - publication of material incorporated by reference. (1) Unless a product appears in the state appliance standards database maintained by the Northeast Energy Efficiency Partnerships, or a successor organization, or in a public database of compliant products maintained by other states or federal agencies with equivalent or more stringent efficiency standards, manufacturers of products covered by this article 7.5 shall demonstrate that the products comply with this article 7.5 by doing any one or more of the following:

(a)  Submitting test sample results to the executive director, using test

methods and procedures adopted pursuant to this article 7.5;

(b)  Affixing a mark, label, or tag to the product and packaging at the time of

sale or installation that demonstrates compliance with other state or federal agencies that have equivalent or more stringent efficiency standards; or

(c)  Submitting such other proof as the executive director may deem

appropriate to show that the product complies with equivalent or more stringent efficiency standards adopted by other states or federal agencies.

(2)  The executive director may adopt rules as necessary to ensure the proper

implementation and enforcement of this article 7.5.

(3)  On or before January 1, 2026, the executive director shall collect and

make publicly available in written and electronic form the federal rules and other rules and standards referred to in this article 7.5. The executive director shall update the publicly available rules and standards as they may be updated or added in accordance with section 6-7.5-106.

(4)  The executive director shall:


(a)  Verify major retailers' and distributors' compliance with the provisions of

this article 7.5 through online spot-checks, coordination with other states that have similar standards, or both;

(b)  Conduct such verifications at least once before January 1, 2027, and

again at least once before January 1, 2032;

(c)  Deliver a report on the method and findings of the verifications to the

energy and environment committee of the house of representatives and to the transportation and energy committee of the senate, or to any successor committees, and post the report to the department of public health and environment's website within one month after its completion; and

(d)  Deliver any findings of violations to the attorney general.


(5)  On or before January 1, 2026, the executive director shall establish a

process whereby individuals may anonymously report potential violations of this article 7.5 on the department of public health and environment's public website. The executive director shall investigate any reported potential violation and shall report any confirmed violations to the attorney general.

Source: L. 2019: Entire article R&RE, (HB 19-1231), ch. 356, p. 3282, � 1,

effective August 2. L. 2023: IP(1) amended and (3), (4), and (5) added, (HB 23-1161), ch. 285, p. 1706, � 6, effective August 7.

6-7.5-110.  Penalties - civil action by attorney general. (1)  A person shall not

sell or offer to sell any new consumer product that is required to meet a standard established in this article 7.5 but that the person knows does not meet that standard.

(2)  Whenever the attorney general has probable cause to believe that any

person or group of persons has violated or caused another to violate subsection (1) of this section, the attorney general may bring a civil action on behalf of the state to seek the imposition of civil penalties as follows:

(a)  Any person who violates or causes another to violate subsection (1) of this

section shall forfeit and pay a civil penalty of not more than two thousand dollars for each such violation, which amount shall be transferred to the state treasurer to be credited to the energy fund created in section 24-38.5-102.4. For purposes of this subsection (2)(a), a violation constitutes a separate violation with respect to each transaction or online for-sale product listing involved; except that the maximum civil penalty may not exceed five hundred thousand dollars for any related series of violations.

(b)  Any person who violates or causes another to violate any provision of this

article 7.5, where such violation was committed against an elderly person, shall forfeit and pay to the general fund of the state a civil penalty of not more than ten thousand dollars for each such violation. For purposes of this subsection (2)(b), a violation of this section constitutes a separate violation with respect to each elderly person involved.

Source: L. 2019: Entire article R&RE, (HB 19-1231), ch. 356, p. 3282, � 1,

effective August 2. L. 2023: (2)(a) amended, (HB 23-1161), ch. 285, p. 1707, � 7, effective August 7.

ARTICLE 7.7

Standards for Construction Projects

that Receive State Financial Assistance

6-7.7-101.  Legislative declaration. (1)  The general assembly finds that:


(a)  Appliances certified by the Energy Star program meet strict energy

efficiency and performance guidelines set by the federal environmental protection agency and the United States department of energy and can save an estimated twenty to thirty percent more energy than appliances that are not certified by the Energy Star program;

(b)  New building construction projects that use taxpayer dollars to purchase

equipment should ensure that the equipment has lower lifetime costs to operate and maintain;

(c)  Many projects that receive state financial assistance aim to assist

vulnerable lower-income households, and installing appliances certified by the Energy Star program could lower the costs of the energy bills of these households over time; and

(d)  Saving energy is crucial in:


(I)  Avoiding the most serious effects of climate change and preserving

Colorado's way of life, the health of communities, and the natural environment;

(II)  Achieving the statewide greenhouse gas emission reduction goals; and


(III)  Reducing costs for Coloradans.


(2)  The general assembly therefore determines and declares that it is in the

public interest of the health and environment of the state to require that new building construction projects that receive state financial assistance use covered energy-consuming products that are certified by the Energy Star program.

Source: L. 2024: Entire article added, (SB 24-214), ch. 191, p. 1089, � 3,

effective May 17.

6-7.7-102.  Definitions. As used in this article 7.7, unless the context

otherwise requires:

(1)  Covered energy-consuming product means an appliance, device, or

piece of equipment that is:

(a)  Powered by electricity or fuel;


(b)  Designed to perform one or more specific tasks inside a residential or

commercial building, such as cooking, washing, drying, heating, cooling, providing domestic hot water, printing, or digital entertainment; and

(c)  Covered within the scope of the Energy Star program.


(2)  Energy Star program means the federal program authorized by 42

U.S.C. sec. 6294a, as amended.

(3)  Social cost of carbon means the social cost of carbon dioxide emissions

developed by the public utilities commission pursuant to section 40-3.2-106.

(4)  State financial assistance means allocations from the general fund or

other legislative allocations, state taxpayer funds, rebates, grants, or loans provided or administered by the state.

Source: L. 2024: Entire article added, (SB 24-214), ch. 191, p. 1090, � 3,

effective May 17.

6-7.7-103.  Energy-efficiency standards for certain building construction

projects that receive state financial assistance - record retention requirements - waivers - exemptions - standardized resources - enforcement - civil penalties. (1) On and after January 1, 2025, except as set forth in subsection (3) or (4) of this section, recipients of state financial assistance for new building construction projects that include the specification, provision, or purchase of covered energy-consuming products shall use covered energy-consuming products certified by the Energy Star program.

(2)  On and after January 1, 2025, a state agency that provides or administers

state financial assistance for a new building construction project shall:

(a)  Include the requirements of subsection (1) of this section in the state

agency's criteria or guidance for applying for or receiving state financial assistance for new building construction projects;

(b)  Request an attestation signed b

C.R.S. § 8-13-111

8-13-111. Penalty for violation. (Repealed)

Source: L. 27: p. 289, � 3. CSA: C. 97, � 116. CRS 53: � 80-7-17. C.R.S. 1963: �

80-14-14. L. 2000: Entire section repealed, p. 161, � 3, effective March 17.

ARTICLE 13.3

Family and Medical Leave

Cross references: For the legislative declaration contained in the 2009 act

adding this article, see section 1 of chapter 340, Session Laws of Colorado 2009.

PART 1

PARENTAL INVOLVEMENT

8-13.3-101 to 8-13.3-104. (Repealed)


Editor's note: (1)  This part 1 was added in 2009 and was not amended prior to

its repeal in 2015. For the text of this part 1 prior to 2015, consult the 2014 Colorado Revised Statutes and the Colorado statutory research explanatory note beginning on page vii in the front of this volume.

(2)  Section 8-13.3-104 provided for the repeal of this part 1, effective

September 1, 2015. (See L. 2009, p. 1791.)

PART 2

FAMILY AND MEDICAL LEAVE ELIGIBILITY

Editor's note: (1)  Article 13.3 was enacted in 2009 by HB 09-1057 and

included a future repeal for the article in � 8-13.3-104, effective September 1, 2015.

(2)  Part 2 of this article was enacted in 2013 by HB 13-1222 and includes a

future repeal for this part 2 in � 8-13.3-205, effective when certain conditions specified in this part 2 are met.

8-13.3-201.  Short title. This part 2 shall be known and may be cited as the

Family Care Act.

Source: L. 2013: Entire part added, (HB 13-1222), ch. 157, p. 508, �1, effective

August 7.

8-13.3-202.  Definitions. As used in this part 2, unless the context otherwise

requires:

(1)  Civil union has the same meaning as set forth in section 14-15-103 (1),

C.R.S.

(2)  Employee means a person employed by an employer and who is eligible

for FMLA leave.

(3)  Employer has the same meaning as set forth in the FMLA.


(4)  FMLA means the federal Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993,

Pub.L. 103-3, as amended, 29 U.S.C. sec. 2601 et seq.

(5)  FMLA leave means leave from work and all benefits authorized by the

FMLA.

Source: L. 2013: Entire part added, (HB 13-1222), ch. 157, p. 508, �1, effective

August 7.

8-13.3-203.  Family and medical leave - state requirements. (1)  In addition

to the leave to which an employee is entitled under the FMLA, an employee in this state is entitled to FMLA leave to care for a person who has a serious health condition, as that term is defined in the FMLA, if the person:

(a)  Is the employee's partner in a civil union, as defined in section 14-15-103

(5), C.R.S.; or

(b)  Is the employee's domestic partner and:


(I)  Has registered the domestic partnership with the municipality in which the

person resides or with the state, if applicable; or

(II)  Is recognized by the employer as the employee's domestic partner.


(2) (a)  For purposes of confirming an employee's relationship to a person

described in subsection (1) of this section for whom the employee is requesting FMLA leave, the employer may require the employee to provide reasonable documentation or a written statement of family relationship, in accordance with the FMLA.

(b)  An employer may require an employee seeking FMLA leave for a person

described in subsection (1) of this section to submit the same certification as the employer may require under the FMLA.

(3)  FMLA leave taken by an employee pursuant to this section runs

concurrently with leave taken under the FMLA, and this section does not:

(a)  Increase the total amount of leave to which an employee is entitled

during a twelve-month period under the FMLA, this section, or both; and

(b)  Preclude an employer from granting an employee an amount of leave

that exceeds the total amount of leave to which the employee is entitled during a twelve-month period under the FMLA.

Source: L. 2013: Entire part added, (HB 13-1222), ch. 157, p. 509, �1, effective

August 7.

8-13.3-204.  Enforcement. If an employer denies an employee in this state

FMLA leave to care for a person described in section 8-13.3-203 who is not a person for whom the employee would be entitled to leave under the FMLA, or interferes with an employee's exercise of or attempt to exercise his or her right to FMLA leave for persons described in section 8-13.3-203, the employer is subject to damages and equitable relief as specified in the FMLA. An aggrieved employee may bring an action in state court against the employer to recover damages or equitable relief.

Source: L. 2013: Entire part added, (HB 13-1222), ch. 157, p. 509, �1, effective

August 7.

8-13.3-205.  Repeal of part. This part 2 is repealed if the United States

congress enacts and the president signs federal legislation amending the FMLA to permit employees to use FMLA leave for all persons described in section 8-13.3-203. The executive director of the department of labor and employment shall notify the revisor of statutes, in writing, if the condition specified in this section occurs.

Source: L. 2013: Entire part added, (HB 13-1222), ch. 157, p. 510, �1, effective

August 7.

Editor's note: (1)  As of publication date, the revisor of statutes has not

received the notice referred to in this section.

(2) (a)  Effective March 27, 2015, the United States Department of Labor's

Wage and Hour Division revised the regulation defining spouse under the Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993 (FMLA) in light of the U.S. Supreme Court's decision in United States v. Windsor, 570 U.S. 744, 133 S. Ct. 2675, 186 L. Ed. 2d 808 (2013), which held section 3 of the Defense of Marriage Act, 1 U.S.C. section 7, unconstitutional. The applicable regulations, 29 CFR 825.102 and 825.122(b), define spouse to include an individual in a same-sex marriage that was entered into in a state that recognizes such marriages or, if entered into outside of any state, is valid in the place where entered into and could have been entered into in at least one state.

(b)  On March 26, 2015, the U.S. District Court for the Northern District of

Texas, in Texas v. United States, granted a request made by the states of Texas, Arkansas, Louisiana, and Nebraska for a preliminary injunction with respect to the department's final rule revising the regulatory definition of spouse under the FMLA. On June 26, 2015, the district court dissolved the preliminary injunction in light of the Supreme Court's decision in Obergefell v. Hodges, 576 U.S. 644 (2015). For a discussion of Obergefell v. Hodges, see the editor's note for section 31 of article II of the state constitution.

PART 3

FAMILY AND MEDICAL LEAVE IMPLEMENTATION

8-13.3-301 to 8-13.3-305.  (Repealed)


Source: L. 2025: Entire part  repealed, (SB 25-271), ch. 375, p. 2018, � 1,

effective August 6.

Editor's note: This part 3 was added in 2019 and was not amended prior to its

repeal in 2025. For the text of this part 3 prior to 2025, consult the 2024 Colorado Revised Statutes and the Colorado statutory research explanatory note beginning on page vii in the front of this volume.

PART 4

HEALTHY FAMILIES AND WORKPLACES

Law Reviews: For article, Paid Sick Leave Requirements under the Healthy

Families and Workplaces Act, see 49 Colo. Law. 46 (Dec. 2020).

8-13.3-401.  Short title. The short title of this part 4 is the Healthy Families

and Workplaces Act.

Source: L. 2020: Entire part added, (SB 20-205), ch. 294, p. 1443, � 1,

effective July 14.

8-13.3-402.  Definitions. As used in this part 4, unless the context otherwise

requires:

(1)  Director means the director of the division.


(2)  Division means the division of labor standards and statistics in the

department of labor and employment created in section 8-1-103.

(3)  Domestic abuse has the meaning set forth in section 13-14-101 (2).


(4)  Employee has the meaning set forth in section 8-4-101 (5). Employee

does not include an employee as defined in 45 U.S.C. sec. 351 (d) who is subject to the federal Railroad Unemployment Insurance Act, 45 U.S.C. sec. 351 et seq.

(5) (a)  Employer has the meaning set forth in section 8-4-101 (6); except

that the term includes the state and its agencies or entities, counties, cities and counties, municipalities, school districts, and any political subdivisions of the state.

(b)  Employer does not include the federal government.


(6)  Family member means:


(a)  An employee's immediate family member, as defined in section 2-4-401

(3.7);

(b)  A child to whom the employee stands in loco parentis or a person who

stood in loco parentis to the employee when the employee was a minor; or

(c)  A person for whom the employee is responsible for providing or arranging

health- or safety-related care.

(7)  Harassment has the meaning set forth in section 18-9-111.


(8) (a) (I)  Paid sick leave means time off from work that is:


(A)  Compensated at the same hourly rate or salary and with the same

benefits, including health care benefits, as the employee normally earns during hours worked; and

(B)  Provided by an employer to an employee for one or more of the purposes

described in sections 8-13.3-404 to 8-13.3-406.

(II)  As used in subsection (8)(a)(I)(A) of this section:


(A)  Same hourly rate or salary under this part 4 does not include overtime,

bonuses, or holiday pay.

(B)  For employees paid on a commission basis only, same hourly rate or

salary means a rate of no less than the applicable minimum wage.

(C)  For employees paid an hourly, weekly, or monthly wage and also paid on

a commission basis, same hourly rate or salary means the rate of pay equivalent to the employee's hourly, weekly, or monthly wage or the applicable minimum wage, whichever is greater.

(b)  Paid sick leave is wages as defined in section 8-4-101 (14).


(9)  Public health emergency means:


(a)  An act of bioterrorism, a pandemic influenza, or an epidemic caused by a

novel and highly fatal infectious agent, for which:

(I)  An emergency is declared by a federal, state, or local public health

agency; or

(II)  A disaster emergency is declared by the governor; or


(b)  A highly infectious illness or agent with epidemic or pandemic potential

for which a disaster emergency is declared by the governor.

(10)  Retaliatory personnel action means:


(a)  The denial of any right guaranteed under this part 4; or


(b)  Any adverse action against an employee for exercising any right

guaranteed in this part 4, including:

(I)  Any threat, discipline, discharge, suspension, demotion, reduction of

hours, or reporting or threatening to report an employee's suspected citizenship or immigration status or the suspected citizenship or immigration status of a family member of the employee to a federal, state, or local agency; or

(II)  Any sanctions against an employee who is the recipient of public benefits

for rights guaranteed under this part 4; or

(III)  Interference with or punishment for participating in or assisting, in any

manner, an investigation, proceeding, or hearing under this part 4.

(11)  Sexual assault has the meaning set forth in section 18-3-402.


(12)  Successor employer means an employing unit, whether or not an

employing unit at the time of acquisition, that becomes an employer subject to this part 4 because it acquires all of an organization, a trade, or a business or substantially all of the assets of one or more employers subject to this part 4.

(13)  Year means a regular and consecutive twelve-month period as

determined by an employer; except that, for the purposes of section 8-13.3-411, year means a calendar year.

Source: L. 2020: Entire part added, (SB 20-205), ch. 294, p. 1443, � 1,

effective July 14.

8-13.3-403.  Paid sick leave - accrual - carry forward to subsequent year -

comparable leave provided by employer - no payment for unused leave - rules. (1) (a) All employees working in Colorado have the right to paid sick leave as specified in this part 4.

(b)  Repealed.


(c)  Effective January 1, 2022, each employer shall provide each employee

paid sick leave as provided in this section.

(2) (a)  Each employee earns at least one hour of paid sick leave for every

thirty hours worked by the employee; except that an employee is not entitled under this section to earn or use more than forty-eight hours of paid sick leave each year, unless the employer selects a higher limit. An employer may satisfy the accrual requirements of this section by providing the employee with an amount of paid sick leave that meets or exceeds the requirements of this section at the beginning of the year. Nothing in this section discourages or prohibits an employer from providing paid sick leave that accrues at a faster or more generous rate than required by this section. This subsection (2)(a) does not limit the ability of an employee to use paid sick leave as provided in section 8-13.3-405.

(b)  Nothing in this part 4 precludes an employer from providing employees

more paid sick leave than the amounts specified in this subsection (2).

(c)  An employee who is exempt from overtime required in section 8-6-111 (4)

accrues paid sick leave based on the assumption that the employee works forty hours per week. If the employee's normal workweek consists of fewer than forty hours, the employee accrues paid sick leave based upon the number of hours that comprise the employee's normal workweek.

(3) (a)  An employee begins to accrue paid sick leave when employment with

the employer begins and may use accrued paid sick leave as it is accrued.

(b)  Up to forty-eight hours of paid sick leave that an employee accrues in a

year but does not use carries forward to, and may be used in, a subsequent year; except that an employer is not required to allow the employee to use more than forty-eight hours of paid sick leave in a year.

(4)  An employer that has a paid leave policy for its employees may satisfy

the requirements of this section and section 8-13.3-405 and is not required to provide additional paid sick leave to its employees if the employer:

(a)  Makes available to its employees, through its paid leave policy, an

amount of paid leave sufficient to satisfy section 8-13.3-405 and meet the accrual requirements of subsection (2)(a) of this section; and

(b)  Allows its employees to use the paid leave for the same purposes and

under the same conditions as those applicable to paid sick leave under this part 4.

(5) (a)  Except as specified in subsection (5)(b) of this section, and

notwithstanding section 8-4-101 (14)(a)(IV), nothing in this section requires an employer to provide financial or other reimbursement of unused paid sick leave to an employee upon termination, resignation, retirement, or other separation from employment; except that an individual may recover paid sick leave as a remedy for a retaliatory personnel action that prevented the individual from using paid sick leave.

(b)  If an employee separates from employment and is rehired by the same

employer within six months after the separation, the employer shall reinstate any paid sick leave that the employee had accrued but not used during the employee's previous employment with the employer and that had not been converted to monetary compensation to the employee at the time of separation from employment.

(6)  An employer may loan paid sick leave to an employee in advance of

accrual of paid sick leave by the employee.

(7)  If an employee is transferred to a separate division, entity, or location but

remains employed by the same employer, the employee is entitled to all paid sick leave accrued at the prior division, entity, or location and is entitled to use all paid sick leave as provided in this section.

(8)  If a successor employer succeeds an original employer, all employees of

the original employer who remain employed by the successor employer are entitled to all paid sick leave that the employees accrued when employed by the original employer and are entitled to use previously accrued paid sick leave as specified in section 8-13.3-404.

(9)  The division shall promulgate rules regarding compensation and accrual

of paid sick leave for employees employed and compensated on a fee-for-service basis.

Source: L. 2020: Entire part added, (SB 20-205), ch. 294, p. 1445, � 1,

effective July 14.

Editor's note: Subsection (1)(b) provided for the repeal of subsection (1)(b),

effective January 1, 2022. (See L. 2020, p. 1445.)

8-13.3-404.  Use of paid sick leave - purposes - time increments. (1)  An

employer shall allow an employee to use the employee's accrued paid sick leave to be absent from work when:

(a)  The employee:


(I)  Has a mental or physical illness, injury, or health condition that prevents

the employee from working;

(II)  Needs to obtain a medical diagnosis, care, or treatment of a mental or

physical illness, injury, or health condition;

(III)  Needs to obtain preventive medical care; or


(IV)  Needs to grieve, attend funeral services or a memorial, or deal with

financial and legal matters that arise after the death of a family member;

(b)  The employee needs to care for a family member who:


(I)  Has a mental or physical illness, injury, or health condition;


(II)  Needs to obtain a medical diagnosis, care, or treatment of a mental or

physical illness, injury, or health condition; or

(III)  Needs to obtain preventive medical care;


(c)  The employee or the employee's family member has been the victim of

domestic abuse, sexual assault, or harassment and the use of leave is to:

(I)  Seek medical attention for the employee or the employee's family

member to recover from a mental or physical illness, injury, or health condition caused by the domestic abuse, sexual assault, or harassment;

(II)  Obtain services from a victim services organization;


(III)  Obtain mental health or other counseling;


(IV)  Seek relocation due to the domestic abuse, sexual assault, or

harassment; or

(V)  Seek legal services, including preparation for or participation in a civil or

criminal proceeding relating to or resulting from the domestic abuse, sexual assault, or harassment;

(d)  Due to a public health emergency, a public official has ordered closure of:


(I)  The employee's place of business; or


(II)  The school or place of care of the employee's child and the employee

needs to be absent from work to care for the employee's child;

(e)  The employee needs to care for a family member whose school or place

of care has been closed due to inclement weather, loss of power, loss of heating, loss of water, or other unexpected occurrence or event that results in the closure of the family member's school or place of care; or

(f)  The employee needs to evacuate the employee's place of residence due

to inclement weather, loss of power, loss of heating, loss of water, or other unexpected occurrence or event that results in the need to evacuate the employee's residence.

(2)  An employer shall allow an employee to use paid sick leave upon the

request of an employee. The request may be made orally, in writing, electronically, or by any other means acceptable to the employer. When possible, the employee shall include the expected duration of the absence. An employer may provide a written policy that contains reasonable procedures for the employee to provide notice when the use of paid sick leave taken under this section is foreseeable. An employer shall not deny paid sick leave to the employee based on noncompliance with such a policy.

(3)  An employee must use paid sick leave in hourly increments unless the

employee's employer allows paid sick leave to be taken in smaller increments of time.

(4)  An employer shall not require, as a condition of providing paid sick leave

under this part 4, an employee who uses paid sick leave to search for or find a replacement worker to cover the time during which the employee is absent from work.

(5)  When the use of paid sick leave taken under this section is foreseeable,

the employee shall make a good-faith effort to provide notice of the need for paid sick leave to the employee's employer in advance of the use of the paid sick leave and shall make a reasonable effort to schedule the use of paid sick leave in a manner that does not unduly disrupt the operations of the employer.

(6)  Notwithstanding section 8-13.3-405 (4)(b), for paid sick leave of four or

more consecutive work days, an employer may require reasonable documentation that the paid sick leave is for a purpose authorized by this part 4.

Source: L. 2020: Entire part added, (SB 20-205), ch. 294, p. 1447, � 1,

effective July 14. L. 2023: (1)(a)(II), (1)(a)(III), and (1)(c)(V) amended and (1)(a)(IV), (1)(e), and (1)(f) added, (SB 23-017), ch. 313, p. 1906, � 1, effective August 7.

8-13.3-405.  Additional paid sick leave during a public health emergency.

(1) In addition to paid sick leave accrued under section 8-13.3-403, on the date a public health emergency is declared, each employer in the state shall supplement each employee's accrued paid sick leave as necessary to ensure that an employee may take the following amounts of paid sick leave for the purposes specified in subsection (3) of this section:

(a)  For employees who normally work forty or more hours in a week, at least

eighty hours;

(b)  For employees who normally work fewer than forty hours in a week, at

least the greater of either the amount of time the employee is scheduled to work in a fourteen-day period or the amount of time the employee actually works on average in a fourteen-day period.

(2) (a)  An employer may count an employee's unused accrued paid sick leave

under section 8-13.3-403 toward the supplemental paid sick leave required in subsection (1) of this section.

(b)  An employee may use paid sick leave under this section until four weeks

after the official termination or suspension of the public health emergency.

(3)  An employer shall provide its employees the paid sick leave required in

subsection (1) of this section for the following absences related to a public health emergency:

(a)  An employee's need to:


(I)  Self-isolate and care for oneself because the employee is diagnosed with

a communicable illness that is the cause of a public health emergency;

(II)  Self-isolate and care for oneself because the employee is experiencing

symptoms of a communicable illness that is the cause of a public health emergency;

(III)  Seek or obtain medical diagnosis, care, or treatment if experiencing

symptoms of a communicable illness that is the cause of a public health emergency;

(IV)  Seek preventive care concerning a communicable illness that is the

cause of a public health emergency; or

(V)  Care for a family member who:


(A)  Is self-isolating after being diagnosed with a communicable illness that is

the cause of a public health emergency;

(B)  Is self-isolating due to experiencing symptoms of a communicable illness

that is the cause of a public health emergency;

(C)  Needs medical diagnosis, care, or treatment if experiencing symptoms of

a communicable illness that is the cause of a public health emergency; or

(D)  Is seeking preventive care concerning a communicable illness that is the

cause of a public health emergency;

(b)  With respect to a communicable illness that is the cause of a public

health emergency:

(I)  A local, state, or federal public official or health authority having

jurisdiction over the location in which the employee's place of employment is located or the employee's employer determines that the employee's presence on the job or in the community would jeopardize the health of others because of the employee's exposure to the communicable illness or because the employee is exhibiting symptoms of the communicable illness, regardless of whether the employee has been diagnosed with the communicable illness; or

(II)  Care of a family member after a local, state, or federal public official or

health authority having jurisdiction over the location in which the family member's place of employment is located or the family member's employer determines that the family member's presence on the job or in the community would jeopardize the health of others because of the family member's exposure to the communicable illness or because the family member is exhibiting symptoms of the communicable illness, regardless of whether the family member has been diagnosed with the communicable illness;

(c)  Care of a child or other family member when the individual's child care

provider is unavailable due to a public health emergency, or if the child's or family member's school or place of care has been closed by a local, state, or federal public official or at the discretion of the school or place of care due to a public health emergency, including if a school or place of care is physically closed but providing instruction remotely;

(d)  An employee's inability to work because the employee has a health

condition that may increase susceptibility to or risk of a communicable illness that is the cause of the public health emergency.

(4)  Notwithstanding any other provision in this part 4:


(a)  An employee shall notify the employee's employer of the need for paid

sick leave under this section as soon as practicable when the need for paid sick leave is foreseeable and the employer's place of business has not been closed;

(b)  Documentation is not required to take paid sick leave under this section;

and

(c)  Employees are only eligible for paid sick leave in the amount described in

subsection (1) of this section once during the entirety of a public health emergency even if such public health emergency is amended, extended, restated, or prolonged.

Source: L. 2020: Entire part added, (SB 20-205), ch. 294, p. 1449, � 1,

effective July 14.

8-13.3-406.  Paid sick leave related to COVID-19. (1)  Employers in the state

shall comply with the federal Emergency Paid Sick Leave Act in the Families First Coronavirus Response Act, Pub.L. 116-127.

(2)  On and after July 14, 2020, through December 31, 2020, each employer in

the state, regardless of size, shall provide paid sick leave in the amount and for the purposes provided in the federal Emergency Paid Sick Leave Act in the Families First Coronavirus Response Act, Pub.L. 116-127, to each employee who is not covered under the Emergency Paid Sick Leave Act.

Source: L. 2020: Entire part added, (SB 20-205), ch. 294, p. 1451, � 1,

effective July 14.

8-13.3-407.  Employee rights protected - retaliation prohibited. (1)  An

employee is entitled to:

(a)  Use paid sick leave consistent with this part 4;


(b)  File a complaint or inform any person about an employer's alleged

violation of this part 4;

(c)  Cooperate with the division in its investigation of an alleged violation of

this part 4; and

(d)  Inform any person of the person's potential rights under this part 4.


(2) (a)  An employer shall not take retaliatory personnel action or discriminate

against an employee or former employee because the person has exercised, attempted to exercise, or supported the exercise of rights protected under this part 4, including the right to request or use paid sick leave pursuant to this part 4; the right to file a complaint with the division or court or inform any person about any employer's alleged violation of this part 4; the right to participate in an investigation, hearing, or proceeding or cooperate with or assist the division in its investigations of alleged violations of this part 4; and the right to inform any person of the person's potential rights under this part 4.

(b)  It is unlawful for an employer to count paid sick leave taken by an

employee pursuant to this part 4 as an absence that may lead to or result in discipline, discharge, demotion, suspension, or any other retaliatory personnel action against the employee.

(3)  The protections of this section apply to any person acting in good faith

who alleges a violation of this part 4, even if the allegation is determined to be mistaken.

(4)  The division shall investigate each claim of denial of paid sick leave in

violation of this part 4. The division may investigate claims of retaliation in violation of this part 4.

(5)  If an investigation of employer retaliation or interference with employee

rights yields a determination that:

(a)  Rights of multiple employees have been violated, the violation as to each

employee is a separate violation for purposes of fines, penalties, or other remedies;

(b)  A violation cost an employee the employee's job or pay, the determination

may include an order to reinstate the employee, to pay the employee's lost pay until reinstatement or for a reasonable period if reinstatement is determined not to be feasible, or both.

(6)  Determinations made by the division under this section are appealable

pursuant to section 8-4-111.5 and rules promulgated by the department regarding appeals and strategic enforcement.

Source: L. 2020: Entire part added, (SB 20-205), ch. 294, p. 1451, � 1,

effective July 14.

8-13.3-408.  Notice to employees - penalty - rules. (1)  Each employer shall

notify its employees that they are entitled to paid sick leave, pursuant to rules promulgated by the division. The rules must require the notice to:

(a)  Specify the amount of paid sick leave to which employees are entitled

and the terms of its use under this part 4; and

(b)  Notify employees that employers cannot retaliate against an employee

for requesting or using paid sick leave and that an employee has the right to file a complaint or bring a civil action if paid sick leave is denied by the employer or the employer retaliates against the employee for exercising the employee's rights under this part 4.

(2)  An employer complies with the notice requirements of this section by:


(a)  Supplying each employee with a written notice containing the information

specified in subsection (1) of this section that is in English and in any language that is the first language spoken by at least five percent of the employer's workforce; and

(b)  Displaying a poster created pursuant to subsection (3) of this section in a

conspicuous and accessible location in each establishment where the employer's employees work that contains the information required by subsection (1) of this section in English and in any language that is the first language spoken by at least five percent of the employer's workforce.

(3)  The division shall create and make available to employers posters and

notices that contain the information required by subsection (1) of this section, and employers may use the posters and notices to comply with the requirements of this section.

(4) (a)  An employer who willfully violates subsection (2)(a) or (6) of this

section is subject to a civil fine not to exceed one hundred dollars for each separate violation.

(b)  An employer who willfully violates subsection (2)(b) of this section is

subject to a civil fine not to exceed one hundred dollars.

(c)  The fines collected under this subsection (4) shall be transmitted to the

state treasurer, who shall deposit the fines in the general fund.

(5)  If an employer's business is closed due to a public health emergency or a

disaster emergency due to a public health concern, the notice and posting requirements of this section are waived for the period during which the place of business is closed.

(6)  If an employer does not maintain a physical workplace, or an employee

teleworks or performs work through a web-based platform, the employer shall provide the notice required in this section through electronic communication or a conspicuous posting in the web-based platform.

Source: L. 2020: Entire part added, (SB 20-205), ch. 294, p. 1452, � 1,

effective July 14.

8-13.3-409.  Employer records. (1)  An employer shall retain records for each

employee for a two-year period, documenting hours worked, paid sick leave accrued, and paid sick leave used. Upon appropriate notice and at a mutually agreeable time, the employer shall allow the division access to the records for purposes of monitoring compliance with this part 4.

(2)  If an issue arises as to an employee's right to paid sick leave and the

employer has not maintained or retained adequate records for that employee or does not allow the division reasonable access to the records, the employer shall be presumed to have violated this part 4 unless the employer demonstrates compliance by a preponderance of the evidence.

Source: L. 2020: Entire part added, (SB 20-205), ch. 294, p. 1453, � 1,

effective July 14.

8-13.3-410.  Authority of director - rules. The director may coordinate

implementation and enforcement of this part 4 and adopt rules as necessary for such purposes.

Source: L. 2020: Entire part added, (SB 20-205), ch. 294, p. 1453, � 1,

effective July 14.

8-13.3-411.  Enforcement - judicial review of director's actions. (1)  The

director and the division have jurisdiction over the enforcement of this part 4 and may exercise all powers granted under article 1 of this title 8 to enforce this part 4.

(2)  The division may enforce the requirements of this part 4.


(3)  Pursuant to section 8-1-130, any findings, awards, or orders issued by the

director with respect to enforcement of this part 4 constitute final agency action, and any person affected by such final agency action may seek judicial review as provided in section 24-4-106.

(4) (a)  A person aggrieved by a violation of this part 4 may commence a civil

action in district court no later than two years after the violation occurs. A violation of this part 4 occurs on each occasion that a person is affected by a failure to provide paid sick leave or retaliation related to paid sick leave.

(b) (I)  Repealed.


(II)  Beginning January 1, 2022, an employer who violates this part 4 is liable

for back pay and any other relief as provided by section 8-5-104 (2)(a) and (2)(b).

(c)  If a civil action is commenced under this section, any party to the civil

action may demand a trial by jury.

(d)  Before commencing any civil action under this section, an aggrieved

person must, in accordance with article 4 of this title 8, submit a complaint to the division or make a written demand for compensation or other relief to the employer. An employer has fourteen days to respond after receiving either a notice from the division that a complaint has been filed with the division or a written demand from the aggrieved person for compensation or other relief under this part 4.

(e)  If a person aggrieved by a violation of this part 4 files a civil action to

enforce a judgment made under this section, the court shall waive any filing fee required under article 32 of title 13.

(f)  Nothing in this section prevents an aggrieved person from filing a charge

with the division pursuant to this section.

Source: L. 2020: Entire part added, (SB 20-205), ch. 294, p. 1454, � 1,

effective July 14.

Editor's note: Subsection (4)(b)(I) provided for the repeal of subsection

(4)(b)(I), effective January 1, 2022. (See L. 2020, p. 1454.)

8-13.3-412.  Confidentiality of employee information - definition. (1)  An

employer shall not require disclosure of details relating to domestic violence, sexual assault, or stalking or the details of an employee's or an employee's family member's health information as a condition of providing paid sick leave under this part 4.

(2)  Any health or safety information possessed by an employer regarding an

employee or employee's family member must:

(a)  Be maintained on a separate form and in a separate file from other

personnel information;

(b)  Be treated as confidential medical records; and


(c)  Not be disclosed except to the affected employee or with the express

permission of the affected employee.

(3)  As used in this section, affected employee means the employee:


(a)  About whom the health information pertains or who is the victim of the

domestic abuse, sexual assault, or harassment; or

(b)  Whose family member is the subject of the health information or is the

victim of the domestic abuse, sexual assault, or harassment.

Source: L. 2020: Entire part added, (SB 20-205), ch. 294, p. 1454, � 1,

effective July 14.

8-13.3-413.  Employers encouraged to provide more generous paid sick

leave. (1) Nothing in this part 4 discourages or prohibits an employer from adopting or continuing a paid sick leave policy that is more generous than the paid sick leave policy required by this part 4.

(2)  Nothing in this part 4 diminishes:


(a)  The obligation of an employer to comply with any contract, collective

bargaining agreement, employment benefit plan, or other agreement providing employees with a more generous paid sick leave policy than the paid sick leave policy required by this part 4; or

(b)  The rights, privileges, or remedies of an employee under a collective

bargaining or partnership agreement, employer policy, or employment contract.

(3)  Nothing in this part 4 diminishes the rights of public employees regarding

paid sick leave or the use of paid sick leave as provided in section 24-50-104 (7).

Source: L. 2020: Entire part added, (SB 20-205), ch. 294, p. 1455, � 1,

effective July 14.

8-13.3-414.  Other legal requirements applicable. (1)  This part 4 provides

minimum requirements pertaining to paid sick leave and does not preempt, limit, or otherwise affect the applicability of any other law, regulation, requirement, policy, or standard that provides for a greater amount, accrual, or use by employees of paid sick leave or that extends other protections to employees.

(2)  To the extent allowable and not in conflict with federal law, any paid sick

leave provided to an employee of a federal contractor as required by federal executive order 13706, Establishing Paid Sick Leave for Federal Contractors, as published in 81 Fed. Reg. 67598 (2016), is considered paid sick leave provided under this part 4.

Source: L. 2020: Entire part added, (SB 20-205), ch. 294, p. 1455, � 1,

effective July 14.

8-13.3-415.  Collective bargaining agreements. (1) (a)  With agreement of

the fund trustees, an employer signatory to a multiemployer collective bargaining agreement may fulfill its obligations under this part 4 by making contributions to a multiemployer paid sick leave fund, plan, or program based on the hours each of its employees accrues pursuant to this part 4 while working under the multiemployer collective bargaining agreement, if the fund, plan, or program enables employees to collect paid sick leave from the fund, plan, or program based on hours they have worked under the multiemployer collective bargaining agreement and for the purposes specified under this part 4.

(b)  Employees who work under a multiemployer collective bargaining

agreement into which their employers make contributions as provided in subsection (1)(a) of this section may collect from the paid sick leave fund, plan, or program based on hours they have worked under the multiemployer collective bargaining agreement and for the purposes specified under this part 4.

(2)  This part 4 does not apply to employees covered by a bona fide collective

bargaining agreement in effect on July 14, 2020, if the collective bargaining agreement provides for equivalent or more generous paid sick leave for the employees covered by the collective bargaining agreement.

(3)  For employees covered by a bona fide collective bargaining agreement

that is initially negotiated or negotiated for the next collective bargaining agreement after July 14, 2020, this part 4 does not apply to such employees if the requirements of this part 4 are expressly waived in the collective bargaining agreement and the collective bargaining agreement provides for equivalent or more generous paid sick leave for the employees covered by the collective bargaining agreement.

Source: L. 2020: Entire part added, (SB 20-205), ch. 294, p. 1456, � 1,

effective July 14.

8-13.3-416.  Employer policies. An employer policy adopted or retained must

not diminish an employee's right to paid sick leave under this part 4. Any agreement by an employee to waive the employee's rights under this part 4 is void as against public policy.

Source: L. 2020: Entire part added, (SB 20-205), ch. 294, p. 1456, � 1,

effective July 14.

8-13.3-417.  Severability. If any provision of this part 4 or application thereof

to any person or circumstance is judged invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of this part 4 that can be given effect without the invalid provision or application, and to this end the provisions of this part 4 are declared severable.

Source: L. 2020: Entire part added, (SB 20-205), ch. 294, p. 1456, � 1,

effective July 14.

8-13.3-418.  Employer authorized to take disciplinary action. Nothing in this

part 4 prohibits an employer from taking disciplinary action against an employee who uses paid sick leave provided under this part 4 for purposes other than those described in this part 4.

Source: L. 2020: Entire part added, (SB 20-205), ch. 294, p. 1456, � 1,

effective July 14.

PART 5

PAID FAMILY AND MEDICAL LEAVE INSURANCE

Editor's note: This part 5 was added by Proposition 118, effective upon

proclamation of the governor, December 31, 2020. The vote count for the measure at the general election held November 3, 2020, was as follows:

FOR:  1,804,546


AGAINST:  1,320,386


8-13.3-501.  Short title. This part 5 shall be known and may be cited as the

Paid Family and Medical Leave Insurance Act.

Source: Initiated 2020: Entire part added, Proposition 118, L. 2021, p. 4225,

effective upon proclamation of the Governor, December 31, 2020.

Editor's note: This section was originally numbered as 8-13.3-401 in

Proposition 118 but was renumbered on revision for ease of location.

8-13.3-502.  Purposes and findings. The people of the state of Colorado

hereby find and declare that:

(1)  Workers in Colorado experience a variety of personal and family

caregiving obligations, but it can be difficult or impossible to adequately respond to those needs without access to paid leave.

(2)  Access to paid family and medical leave insurance helps employers in

Colorado by reducing turnover, recruiting workers, and promoting a healthy business climate, while also ensuring that smaller employers can compete with larger employers by providing paid leave benefits to their workers through an affordable insurance program.

(3)  Paid family and medical leave insurance will also provide a necessary

safety net for all Colorado workers when they have personal or family caregiving needs, including low-income workers living paycheck to paycheck who are disproportionately more likely to lack access to paid leave and least able to afford unpaid leave.

(4)  Due to the need to provide paid time off to Colorado workers to address

family and medical needs, such as the arrival of a new child, military family needs, and a personal or a family member's serious health condition, including the effects of domestic violence and sexual assault, it is necessary to create a statewide paid family and medical leave insurance enterprise and to authorize the enterprise to:

(a)  Collect insurance premiums from employers and employees at rates

reasonably calculated to defray the costs of providing the program's leave benefits to workers; and

(b)  Receive and expend revenues generated by the premiums and other

moneys, issue revenue bonds and other obligations, expend revenues generated by the premiums to pay family and medical leave insurance benefits and associated administrative and program costs, and exercise other powers necessary and appropriate to carry out its purposes.

(5)  The fiscal approach of this part 5 has been informed by the experience of

other state family and medical leave insurance programs, modeling based on the Colorado workforce, and input from a variety of stakeholders in Colorado.

(6)  The creation of a statewide paid family and medical leave insurance

enterprise is in the public interest and will promote the health, safety, and welfare of all Coloradans, while also encouraging an entrepreneurial atmosphere and economic growth.

Source: Initiated 2020: Entire part added, Proposition 118, L. 2021, p. 4225,

effective upon proclamation of the Governor, December 31, 2020.

Editor's note: This section was originally numbered as 8-13.3-402 in

Proposition 118 but was renumbered on revision for ease of location.

8-13.3-503.  Definitions. As used in this part 5, unless the context otherwise

requires:

(1)  Application year means the 12-month period beginning on the first day

of the calendar week in which an individual files an application for family and medical leave insurance benefits.

(2)  Average weekly wage means one-thirteenth of the wages paid during

the quarter of the covered individual's base period, as defined in section 8-70-103 (2), or alternative base period, as defined in section 8-70-103 (1.5), in which the total wages were highest. For purposes of calculating average weekly wage, wages include, but are not limited to, salary, wages, tips, commissions, and other compensation as determined by the director by rule.

(3)  Covered individual means any person who:


(a) (I)  Earned at least $2,500 in wages subject to premiums under this part 5

during the person's base period, as defined in section 8-70-103 (2), or alternative base period, as defined in section 8-70-103 (1.5); or

(II)  Elects coverage and meets the requirements of section 8-13.3-514;


(b)  Meets the administrative requirements outlined in this part 5 and in

regulations; and

(c)  Submits an application with a claim for benefits pursuant to section 8-13.3-516 (6)(d).


(4)  Director means the director of the division.


(5)  Division means the division of family and medical leave insurance

created in section 8-13.3-508.

(6)  Domestic violence means any conduct that constitutes domestic

violence as set forth in section 18-6-800.3 (1) or section 14-10-124 or domestic abuse as set forth in section 13-14-101 (2).

(7)  Employee means any individual, including a migratory laborer,

performing labor or services for the benefit of another, irrespective of whether the common-law relationship of master and servant exists. For the purposes of this part 5, an individual primarily free from control and direction in the performance of the labor or services, both under the individual's contract for the performance of the labor or services and in fact, and who is customarily engaged in an independent trade, occupation, profession, or business related to the labor or services performed is not an employee. Employee does not include an employee as defined by 45 U.S.C. section 351 (d) who is subject to the federal Railroad Unemployment Insurance Act, 45 U.S.C. section 351 et seq.

(8) (a)  Employer means any person engaged in commerce or an industry or

activity affecting commerce that:

(I)  Employs at least one person for each working day during each of twenty

or more calendar workweeks in the current or immediately preceding calendar year; or

(II)  Paid wages of one thousand five hundred dollars or more during any

calendar quarter in the preceding calendar year.

(b)  Employer includes:


(I)  A person who acts, directly or indirectly, in the interest of an employer

with regard to any of the employees of the employer;

(II)  A successor in interest of an employer that acquires all of the

organization, trade, or business or substantially all of the assets of one or more employers; and

(III)  The state or a political subdivision of the state.


(c)  Employer does not include the federal government.


(9)  Family and medical leave insurance benefits or benefits means the

benefits provided under the terms of this part 5.

(10)  Family and medical leave insurance program or program means the

program created in section 8-13.3-516.

(11)  Family member means:


(a)  Regardless of age, a biological, adopted or foster child, stepchild or legal

ward, a child of a domestic partner, a child to whom the covered individual stands in loco parentis, or a person to whom the covered individual stood in loco parentis when the person was a minor;

(b)  A biological, adoptive or foster parent, stepparent or legal guardian of a

covered individual or covered individual's spouse or domestic partner or a person who stood in loco parentis when the covered individual or covered individual's spouse or domestic partner was a minor child;

(c)  A person to whom the covered individual is legally married under the laws

of any state, or a domesti


C.R.S. § 8-20-1004

8-20-1004. Rules. The director has the authority to promulgate rules as necessary for the implementation of this part 10.

Source: L. 2008: Entire part added, p. 1022, � 3, effective May 21.

ARTICLE 20.5

Petroleum Storage Tanks

Editor's note: This article was added with relocations in 1995 containing

relocated provisions of some sections formerly located in parts 5, 6, and 7 of article 20 of this title and article 18 of title 25. Former C.R.S. section numbers are shown in editors' notes following those sections that were relocated.

PART 1

ADMINISTRATION

8-20.5-101.  Definitions. As used in this article, unless the context otherwise

requires:

(1)  Abandoned tank means an underground or aboveground petroleum

storage tank that the current tank owner or operator or current property owner did not install, has never operated or leased to another for operation, and had no reason to know was present on the site at the time of site acquisition.

(2) (a)  Aboveground storage tank means any one or a combination of

containers, vessels, and enclosures, including structures and appurtenances connected to them, constructed of nonearthen materials, including but not limited to concrete, steel, or plastic, which provide structural support, used to contain or dispense fuel products and the volume of which, including the pipes connected thereto, is ninety percent or more above the surface of the ground.

(b)  Aboveground storage tank does not include:


(I)  A wastewater treatment tank system that is part of a wastewater

treatment facility;

(II)  Equipment or machinery that contains regulated substances for

operational purposes;

(III) (A)  Farm and residential tanks or tanks used for horticultural or

floricultural operations.

(B)  Nothing in sub-subparagraph (A) of this subparagraph (III), as amended

by House Bill 05-1180, as enacted at the first regular session of the sixty-fifth general assembly, shall be construed as changing the property tax classification of property owned by a horticultural or floricultural operation.

(IV)  Aboveground storage tanks located at natural gas pipeline facilities that

are regulated under state or federal natural gas pipeline acts;

(V)  Aboveground storage tanks associated with natural gas liquids

separation, gathering, and production;

(VI)  Aboveground storage tanks associated with crude oil production,

storage, and gathering;

(VII)  Aboveground storage tanks at transportation-related facilities

regulated by the federal department of transportation;

(VIII)  Aboveground storage tanks used to store heating oil for consumptive

use on the premises where stored;

(IX)  Aboveground storage tanks used to store flammable and combustible

liquids at mining facilities and construction and earthmoving projects, including gravel pits, quarries, and borrow pits where, in the opinion of the director of the division of oil and public safety, tight control by the owner or contractor and isolation from other structures make it unnecessary to meet the requirements of this article;

(X)  Any other aboveground tank excluded by regulation.


(2.5)  Alternative fuel means a motor fuel that combines petroleum-based

fuel products with renewable fuels.

(3)  Closure means the abandonment of an underground storage tank in

place or the removal and disposal of an underground storage tank.

(4)  Department means the department of labor and employment, created

in section 24-1-121, C.R.S.

(5)  Designee means a qualified municipality, city, home rule city, city and

county, county, fire protection district, or any other political subdivision of the state, including a county or district public health agency created pursuant to section 25-1-506, C.R.S., which county or district public health agency is acting under agreement or contract with the department for the implementation of the provisions of this article.

(5.5)  Fee lands means land owned in fee simple within the exterior

boundaries of the Southern Ute Indian reservations in Colorado. Fee land does not mean land owned by an Indian tribe or the federal government or held in trust by the federal government for the use or benefit of an Indian tribe or its members.

(6)  Fuel products means all gasoline, aviation gasoline, diesel, aviation

turbine fuel, jet fuel, fuel oil, biodiesel, biodiesel blends, kerosene, all alcohol blended fuels, gas or gaseous compounds, and other volatile, flammable, or combustible liquids, produced, compounded, and offered for sale or used for the purpose of generating heat, light, or power in internal combustion engines or fuel cells, for cleaning or for any other similar usage.

(7)  Municipality means any city or any town operating under general or

special laws of the state of Colorado or any home rule city or town, the charter or ordinances of which contain no provisions inconsistent with the provisions of part 3 of this article.

(8)  Operator means any person in control of, or having responsibility for,

the operation of an underground or aboveground storage tank.

(9)  Orphan tank means an underground storage tank which is:


(a)  Owned or operated by an unidentified owner as defined in this article; or


(b)  No longer in use and was not closed in accordance with the procedures

required by this article and the property has changed ownership prior to December 22, 1988, and such property is no longer used to dispense fuels.

(10) (a)  Owner means:


(I)  In the case of an underground storage tank in use on or after November 8,

1984, or brought into use after that date, any person who owns an underground storage tank used for the storage, use, or dispensing of regulated substances;

(II)  In the case of an underground storage tank in use before November 8,

1984, but no longer in use on or after November 8, 1984, any person who owned such tank immediately before the discontinuation of its use; or

(III)  Any person who owns an aboveground storage tank.


(b)  For purposes of corrective action for petroleum releases, the term

owner does not include any person who, without participating in the management of an underground storage tank and otherwise not engaged in petroleum production, refining, and marketing, holds indicia of ownership primarily to protect a security interest in or lien on the tank or the property where the tank is located.

(11)  Person means any individual, trust, firm, joint-stock company,

corporation (including a government corporation), partnership, association, commission, municipality, state, county, city and county, political subdivision of a state, interstate body, consortium, joint venture, commercial entity, or the government of the United States.

(12)  Property owner means a person having a legal or equitable interest in

real or personal property that is subject to this article.

(13)  Regulated substance means:


(a)  Any substance defined in section 101 (14) of the federal Comprehensive

Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980, as amended, but not including any substance regulated as a hazardous waste under subtitle C of Title II of the federal Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976, as amended;

(b)  Petroleum, including crude oil, and crude oil or any fraction thereof that is

liquid at standard conditions of temperature and pressure (60 degrees Fahrenheit and 14.7 pounds per square inch absolute);

(c)  Alternative fuel; or


(d)  Renewable fuel.


(14)  Release means any spilling, leaking, emitting, discharging, escaping,

leaching, or disposing of a regulated substance from an underground storage tank into groundwater, surface water, or subsurface soils.

(14.5)  Renewable fuel means a motor vehicle fuel that is produced from

plant or animal products or wastes, as opposed to fossil fuel sources.

(15)  Reportable quantities means quantities of a released regulated

substance which equal or exceed the reportable quantity under the federal Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980, as amended, and petroleum products in quantities of twenty-five gallons or more.

(16)  Tank means a stationary device designed to contain an accumulation

of a regulated substance, constructed primarily of nonearthen materials which provide structural support including, but not limited to, wood, concrete, steel, or plastic.

(17) (a)  Underground storage tank means any one or combination of tanks,

including underground pipes connected thereto, except those identified in paragraph (b) of this subsection (17), that is used to contain an accumulation of regulated substances and the volume of which, including the volume of underground pipes connected thereto, is ten percent or more beneath the surface of the ground.

(b)  Underground storage tank does not include:


(I)  Any farm or residential tank with a capacity of one thousand one hundred

gallons or less used for storing motor fuel for noncommercial purposes;

(II)  Any tank used for storing heating oil for consumptive use on the premises

where stored;

(III)  Any septic tank;


(IV)  Any pipeline facility, including its gathering lines, regulated under the

federal Natural Gas Pipeline Safety Act of 1968, as amended, or the federal Hazardous Liquid Pipeline Safety Act of 1979, as amended, or regulated under Colorado law if such facility is an intrastate facility;

(V)  Any surface impoundment, pit, pond, lagoon, or landfill;


(VI)  Any storm-water or wastewater collection system;


(VII)  Any flow-through process tank;


(VIII)  Any liquid trap or associated gathering lines directly related to oil or

gas production and gathering operations;

(IX)  Any storage tank situated in an underground area, such as a basement,

cellar, mine-working, drift, shaft, or tunnel area, if the tank is situated upon or above the surface of the floor;

(X)  Any pipes connected to any tank described in subparagraphs (I) to (IX) of

this paragraph (b); or

(XI)  Any other underground tank excluded by regulation.


(18)  Upgrade means the addition or retrofit of some systems such as

cathodic protection, lining, modification of the system piping, or spill and overfill controls to improve the ability of a petroleum storage tank system to prevent the release of product.

Source: L. 95: Entire article added, p. 389, � 1, effective July 1. L. 96: (1) and

(2)(b) amended and (17)(b)(XI) added, pp. 710, 711, �� 2, 3, effective May 15. L. 2001: (2)(b)(IX) amended, p. 1125, � 41, effective June 5. L. 2005: (5.5) added, p. 418, � 4, effective July 1; (2)(b)(III) amended, p. 347, � 2, effective August 8; (6) amended, p. 1348, � 21, effective August 8. L. 2007: (2.5) and (14.5) added and (13) amended, p. 1760, �� 3, 4, effective June 1. L. 2008: (5) amended, p. 2051, � 4, effective July 1. L. 2009: (13)(a) amended, (SB 09-292), ch. 369, p. 1939, � 6, effective August 5.

Editor's note: This section is similar to �� 8-20-501, 8-20-601, 8-20-702, and

25-18-102 as they existed prior to 1995.

Cross references: For the federal Comprehensive Environmental Response,

Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980, see Pub.L. 96-510, codified at 42 U.S.C. � 9601 et seq. For the federal Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976, see Pub.L. 94-580, codified at 42 U.S.C. � 6901 et seq. For the federal Natural Gas Pipeline Safety Act of 1968, see Pub.L. 90-481. For the federal Hazardous Liquid Pipeline Safety Act of 1979, see Pub.L. 96-129.

8-20.5-102.  Registration - fees. (1)  Each owner or operator of an

underground or aboveground storage tank shall register such tank with the director of the division of oil and public safety within thirty days after the first day on which the tank is actually used to contain a regulated substance or, in the case of an aboveground storage tank, on or before July 1, 1993, or, thereafter, within thirty days after the first day on which the tank is actually used to contain a regulated substance. Each owner or operator shall renew such registration annually on or before the calendar day and month of initial registration for each year in which the storage tank is in use. An underground storage tank is considered to be in use at all times, except when the tank has been either removed from the ground or permanently closed in accordance with the rules promulgated pursuant to section 8-20.5-202 (1.5) that relate to the closure of such tanks.

(2)  To register or renew registration of an underground or aboveground

storage tank, the owner or operator of the tank shall submit to the director of the division of oil and public safety a completed registration or renewal form and payment of the fee established in subsection (3) of this section. The director of the division of oil and public safety shall provide registration and renewal forms.

(3)  The registration and renewal fee shall be thirty-five dollars for each tank

for each year. The fees collected pursuant to this subsection (3) shall be credited to the petroleum storage tank fund created in section 8-20.5-103.

(4)  The director of the division of oil and public safety shall collect

delinquent registration and renewal fees and assess a penalty of up to twice the amount of such fees and reasonable costs associated with the collection of such fees.

Source: L. 95: Entire article added, p. 392, � 1, effective July 1. L. 2001: (1), (2),

and (4) amended, p. 1125, � 42, effective June 5. L. 2007: (4) amended, p. 386, � 2, effective April 3; (1) amended, p. 981, � 3, effective July 1.

Editor's note: This section is similar to former � 8-20-506 as it existed prior

to 1995.

8-20.5-103.  Petroleum storage tank fund - petroleum cleanup and

redevelopment fund - creation - rules - definition - repeal. (1) There is hereby created in the state treasury the petroleum storage tank fund, which is an enterprise fund. The fund consists of the following:

(a)  Registration and annual renewal fees collected from owners or operators

of aboveground and underground storage tanks pursuant to section 8-20.5-102 (3);

(b)  Repealed.


(c)  Fees collected pursuant to section 8-20.5-102 (4);


(d)  Surcharge funds collected pursuant to section 8-20-206.5;


(e)  Moneys reimbursed to the department in payment for costs incurred in

the investigation of a release and performance of corrective action pursuant to section 8-20.5-209;

(f)  Any moneys appropriated to the fund by the general assembly;


(g)  Any moneys granted to the department from a federal agency for

administration of the underground storage tank program; and

(h)  Moneys from bonds issued pursuant to subsection (8) of this section.


(2) (a)  The moneys in the petroleum storage tank fund and all interest earned

on moneys in the fund shall not be credited or transferred to the general fund at the end of the fiscal year.

(b)  Repealed.


(3)  The money in the petroleum storage tank fund is continuously

appropriated to the division of oil and public safety; except that the expenditure of money for the purposes specified in subsections (3)(b), (3)(f), and (3)(g) of this section is subject to annual appropriation by the general assembly. The fund shall be used for:

(a)  Petroleum corrective action purposes and third-party liability where the

costs exceed the minimum financial responsibility requirements of the owner or operator provided for in section 8-20.5-206; except that moneys from the fund may not be used for initial abatement and corrective action regarding fuels that are especially prepared and sold for use in aircraft or railroad equipment or locomotives;

(b)  Administrative costs, limited each year to the amount of the registration

fee stated in section 8-20.5-102, including costs for contract services and costs related to the delegation of duties to units of local government which are incurred by the department of labor and employment in carrying out administrative responsibilities pursuant to this article;

(c)  Any costs related to the abatement of fire and safety hazards as ordered

by the director of the division of oil and public safety pursuant to section 8-20.5-208 (3);

(d)  Investigation of releases or suspected releases and performance of

corrective action for petroleum releases by the department or its designated agent pursuant to section 8-20.5-209;

(e)  Any federal program pertaining to petroleum underground storage tanks,

which program requires state-matching dollars;

(f) (I)  Costs related to petroleum storage tank facility inspections and meter

calibrations.

(II)  This subsection (3)(f) is repealed, effective September 1, 2033.


(g)  Administrative costs necessary for the implementation of this article and

section 8-20-206.5.

(3.5) (a)  Moneys in the petroleum storage tank fund may be used as

incentives to underground or aboveground storage tank owners and operators for significant operational compliance or to upgrade existing systems. The director of the division of oil and public safety shall promulgate rules to implement this subsection (3.5).

(b)  As used in this subsection (3.5), significant operational compliance

means that an owner or operator of an underground or aboveground storage tank is in full compliance with all of the requirements of this article and, through one or more best management practices that are not otherwise required, has prevented or reduced the threat of a release to the environment.

(3.7)  The director of the division of oil and public safety may annually

transfer up to five hundred thousand dollars from the petroleum storage tank fund to the petroleum cleanup and redevelopment fund.

(4)  Appropriations of moneys out of the fund for the purpose of initial

abatement response or for corrective action purposes in the cleanup of releases shall be used only for those stated purposes and shall not be used for any administrative costs incurred by the department. Any amounts used for initial abatement response or for corrective action purposes shall be reported annually to the general assembly and the joint budget committee.

(5)  Subject to section 8-20.5-104, the fund shall be available only to those

underground and aboveground storage tanks owners or operators who are in compliance with the provisions of section 8-20.5-209 and regulations promulgated pursuant to sections 8-20.5-202 and 8-20.5-302.

(6)  Moneys in the petroleum storage tank fund shall not be used:


(a)  Repealed.


(b)  To fund any programs that are not specifically stated within this section.


(7) (a)  Subject to sections 8-20.5-206 (6) and 8-20.5-303 (6), owners and

operators of underground and aboveground storage tanks on fee lands shall be eligible for access to the fund if the tank owner or operator:

(I)  Has registered such tanks pursuant to section 8-20.5-102 and paid the

surcharges imposed by section 8-20-206.5;

(II)  Can demonstrate that the owner or operator is in compliance with the

rules promulgated pursuant to sections 8-20.5-202 and 8-20.5-302; and

(III)  Can demonstrate that the owner or operator has complied with sections

8-20.5-209 and 8-20.5-304 and any other rules, policies, and procedures of the department concerning corrective action.

(b)  Underground and aboveground storage tank owners and operators who

have been denied access to the fund prior to July 1, 2005, based upon a determination that the tanks are on fee lands, are eligible to reapply for reimbursement from the fund if the application is filed prior to December 31, 2005, and is not barred by settlement or other agreement.

(c)  Nothing in this subsection (7) shall be construed to modify the

department's authority to regulate operation of or corrective action for underground and aboveground storage tanks on fee lands.

(7.5)  Repealed.


(8)  The executive director of the department is authorized to issue bonds to

reimburse assessment and corrective action costs to remediate petroleum contamination. The petroleum storage tank committee may temporarily raise such bonding limits in the event of extraordinary circumstances or environmental conditions.

(9) (a)  There is hereby created in the state treasury the petroleum cleanup

and redevelopment fund, which is referred to in this subsection (9) as the redevelopment fund. The redevelopment fund's sources of revenue are:

(I)  Civil penalties collected pursuant to section 8-20.5-107;


(II)  Any public or private gifts, grants, or donations to the redevelopment

fund received by the department;

(III)  Any legislative appropriations made to the redevelopment fund;


(IV)  Earned interest, which the state treasurer shall deposit in the

redevelopment fund; and

(V)  Money transferred from the petroleum storage tank fund pursuant to

subsection (3.7) of this section.

(b) (I)  The department may use revenues in the redevelopment fund for

administration, investigation, abatement action, and preparing and implementing corrective action plans for petroleum releases not covered by the petroleum storage tank fund if, in the opinion of the director of the division of oil and public safety, such actions would enhance environmental protection and beneficial use of the property affected by the releases. The revenues in the redevelopment fund:

(A)  Remain in the fund and shall neither be credited nor transferred to the

general fund at the end of any fiscal year;

(B)  Are exempt from section 24-75-402, C.R.S.; and


(C)  Are continuously appropriated to the division of oil and public safety for

the purposes stated in this section and are not subject to annual appropriation by the general assembly; except that the uses of the fund for the department's costs in administering this subsection (9) are subject to annual appropriation by the general assembly.

(II)  Subject to the availability of money in the redevelopment fund, the

maximum amount payable from the redevelopment fund for any single corrective action plan must not exceed fifty percent of the eligible cleanup costs or five hundred thousand dollars, whichever is less.

(c)  Repealed.


(d)  The division of oil and public safety shall promulgate rules to implement

this subsection (9).

(e)  Repealed.


(f) (I)  Notwithstanding any provision of this subsection (9) to the contrary, on

June 30, 2025, the state treasurer shall transfer seven hundred thousand dollars from the redevelopment fund to the general fund.

(II)  This subsection (9)(f) is repealed, effective July 1, 2026.


Source: L. 95: Entire article added, p. 393, � 1, effective July 1. L. 2000: (3)(f)

and (6) added, p. 1383, �� 1, 2, effective May 30. L. 2001: (3)(c) amended, p. 1126, � 43, effective June 5. L. 2002: (2) amended, p. 150, � 2, effective March 27; (3)(f) amended, p. 950, � 1, effective August 7. L. 2003: (3)(g) added and (6)(a) repealed, p. 2665, �� 3, 2, effective June 5. L. 2005: IP(1) amended and (1)(h) and (8) added, p. 1326, �� 1, 2, effective July 1; (7) added, p. 416, � 1, effective July 1. L. 2007: IP(3), (3)(a), and (3)(f)(II) amended, p. 387, � 3, effective April 3; (3.5) added, p. 980, � 1, effective July 1. L. 2010: (3)(f)(II) amended, (HB 10-1185), ch. 82, p. 276, � 2, effective August 11. L. 2013: IP(1) amended, (1)(b) repealed, and (9) added, (HB 13-1252), ch. 247, p. 1196, � 1, effective May 18. L. 2014: (9)(b)(I) amended, (HB 14-1334), ch. 370, p. 1762, � 1, effective June 6. L. 2015: (3.5) added, (HB 15-1299), ch. 162, p. 494, � 1, effective August 5. L. 2016: (2)(b) repealed, (HB 16-1408), ch. 153, p. 472, � 26, effective July 1; IP(3) and (3)(f)(II) amended, (HB 16-1044), ch. 1, p. 1, � 2, effective August 10. L. 2020: (7.5) and (9)(e) added, (HB 20-1406), ch. 178, p. 810, � 1, effective June 29. L. 2021: (9)(e) repealed, (SB 21-266), ch. 423, p. 2794, � 2, effective July 2. L. 2023: IP(3), (3)(f)(II), (9)(a)(III), and (9)(a)(IV) amended and (3.7) and (9)(a)(V) added, (SB 23-280), ch. 404, p. 2416, � 1, effective August 7. L. 2025: (9)(f) added, (SB 25-264), ch. 129, p. 499, � 4, effective April 25; (7.5) repealed, (SB 25-300), ch. 428, p. 2536, � 3, effective August 6.

Editor's note: (1)  This section is similar to former � 25-18-109 as it existed

prior to 1995.

(2)  Subsection (9)(c)(II) provided for the repeal of subsection (9)(c), effective

July 1, 2014. (See L. 2013, p. 1196.)

8-20.5-104.  Rules - petroleum storage tank committee. (1) (a)  There is

created the petroleum storage tank committee, which consists of seven members who have technical expertise and knowledge in fields related to corrective actions taken to mitigate underground and aboveground storage tank releases.

(b)  The committee consists of:


(I)  The following permanent members:


(A)  The director of the division of oil and public safety or the director's

designee;

(B)  The executive director of the department or the executive director's

designee; and

(C)  An owner or operator; and


(II)  Four members appointed by the governor who shall be chosen from

among the following groups, with no more than one member representing each group:

(A)  Fire protection districts;


(B)  Elected local governmental officials;


(C)  Companies that refine and retail motor fuels in Colorado;


(D)  Companies that wholesale motor fuels in Colorado;


(E)  Owners and operators of independent retail outlets;


(F)  Companies that conduct corrective actions or install and repair

underground and aboveground storage tanks; and

(G)  Private citizens or interest groups.


(c)  The department shall provide staff to support the activities of the

committee.

(2)  Members of the committee shall serve three-year terms. All vacancies

shall be filled by the governor to serve the remainder of the unexpired term.

(3)  Members of the committee shall receive no additional salary or per diem

reimbursement for their services as members of the committee, but shall be allowed travel and parking costs and maintenance expenses while on official committee business conducted more than one hundred miles from their respective residences.

(4)  The committee shall be required to meet no more than twice in any

month. The committee shall recommend all regulatory actions proposed by the committee to the director of the division of oil and public safety for adoption or ratification. The committee shall conduct the following activities in accordance with section 24-4-105, C.R.S., as its routine business:

(a)  Establish procedures, practices, and policies governing the committee's

activities;

(b)  Review standards and regulations governing underground and

aboveground storage tanks;

(c)  Establish procedures, practices, and policies governing the form and

procedures for applications to the petroleum storage tank fund for reimbursement compensation;

(d) (I)  Establish procedures, practices, and policies governing any and all

aspects of processing, adjusting, defending, or paying claims against the fund. To encourage tank owners and operators to report and remediate contamination and achieve compliance with rules promulgated by the director of the division of oil and public safety, the committee may approve claims involving tanks not operated in substantial compliance, but may also determine the amount, if any, by which such claims may be reduced for noncompliance. Before imposing any reduction for noncompliance the committee shall determine whether the rules issued by the director of the division of oil and public safety are both substantially and procedurally no more stringent than United States environmental protection agency regulations under 42 U.S.C. sec. 6991 and whether the areas of noncompliance were brought into compliance prior to application to the fund, where possible. The committee shall use the following guidelines when imposing a reduction for noncompliance:

(A)  Up to a ten percent reduction for failure to register a tank;


(B)  Up to a twenty-five percent reduction for improper release detection;


(C)  Up to a ten percent reduction for improper release reporting;


(D)  Up to a twenty percent reduction for improper out-of-service and closure.


(II)  Nothing in this article shall be construed to require the committee to

approve a claim involving substantial noncompliance. The committee shall establish specific criteria to define when denial for substantial noncompliance may be imposed.

(e)  Establish priorities governing the types of corrective actions which shall

be reimbursed from the fund;

(f)  Review corrective action plans submitted pursuant to section 8-20.5-209,

for which no agreement has been reached through informal conferences between the department and the owner or operator, and make a recommendation to the department, upon request from the department or the owner or the operator, as to the corrective action that is acceptable;

(g)  Issue public notices and hold public hearings to obtain comment on the

activities described in this subsection (4);

(h) (I) (A)  Pay interest to all persons who file a properly and fully completed

claim for reimbursement and are not reimbursed in a timely manner. For purposes of this paragraph (h), interest shall accrue on the amount approved for payment by the committee at the rate determined pursuant to section 39-21-110.5, C.R.S., for each day a properly and fully completed application is not processed in a timely manner.

(B)  Notwithstanding this paragraph (h), if a claimant cannot be reimbursed in

a timely manner because insufficient moneys in the petroleum storage tank fund prevent the issuance of a reimbursement check within thirty days after approval of the disbursement, interest shall not begin to accrue on the claim until thirty-one days after sufficient moneys are available in said fund.

(II)  For purposes of this paragraph (h), timely manner means:


(A)  That an application filed with the petroleum storage tank fund on or after

January 1, 1996, shall be submitted for review by the committee within ninety working days of receipt;

(B)  That an application filed with the petroleum storage tank fund on or after

July 1, 1995, but before January 1, 1996, shall be submitted for review by the committee within one hundred twenty working days of receipt;

(C)  That an application filed with the petroleum storage tank fund before

July 1, 1995, shall be submitted for review by the committee no later than December 31, 1995;

(D)  That reimbursement checks shall be issued within thirty days after

disbursement is approved by the committee.

(5)  The committee may, in order to perform any or all of its responsibilities

and functions under subsection (4) of this section, contract for the use of outside experts, consultants, or services.

(6)  Reductions determined by the committee because of noncompliance

shall be cumulative and shall apply to all eligible costs approved by the committee in the initial and all supplemental claims for the occurrence as defined in section 8-20.5-206 (2); except that in no instance shall cumulative reductions for noncompliance apply to claims submitted in accordance with section 8-20.5-206 (3) or 8-20.5-303 (3).

(7)  The reductions described in subsections (4)(d) and (6) of this section

pertain to this section only and shall not be construed to have any impact on cost-recovery actions taken in accordance with section 8-20.5-209 or any civil or criminal penalties imposed as part of an enforcement proceeding.

(8)  At its first meeting of each fiscal year, on or about July 1, the committee

shall establish and set aside for reimbursements to those individuals who are eligible to make application to the fund in accordance with section 8-20.5-206 (3) or 8-20.5-303 (3), an amount equal to twenty percent of the total budget of the department from the petroleum storage tank fund, which amount shall be used for the purpose of conducting remediation activities in accordance with sections 8-20.5-206 (3), 8-20.5-209, and 8-20.5-303 (3) and shall protect the integrity of the fund as a financial assurance mechanism for tank owners and operators. The committee shall reexamine on a quarterly basis the unencumbered balance of this allocation and may set aside lesser or additional amounts for reimbursements to such applicants based on the relative number of requested reimbursements from the owners and operators of active sites, with preference given to the remediation of recently contaminated locations and to active tank sites based on their higher potential for environmental impact.

(9)  The petroleum storage tank committee is a type 1 entity as defined in

section 24-1-105, and exercises its powers and performs its duties and functions specified by this section under the department of labor and employment and the executive director.

Source: L. 95: Entire article added, p. 394, � 1, effective July 1. L. 96: (4)(h)(I)

amended, p. 711, � 4, effective May 15. L. 2001: (1), IP(4), and IP(4)(d)(I) amended, p. 1126, � 44, effective June 5. L. 2007: (8) amended, p. 387, � 4, effective April 3. L. 2022: (1) amended, (SB 22-013), ch. 2, p. 5, � 4, effective February 25; (9) amended, (SB 22-162), ch. 469, p. 3384, � 89, effective August 10.

Editor's note: This section is similar to former � 25-18-105 as it existed prior

to 1995.

Cross references: For the short title (the Debbie Haskins 'Administrative

Organization Act of 1968' Modernization Act) in SB 22-162, see section 1 of chapter 469, Session Laws of Colorado 2022.

8-20.5-105.  Confidentiality.  (1)  Any records, reports, and information

obtained from any person under the provisions of this article shall be available to the public; except that any records granted confidentiality by the director of the division of oil and public safety or a designee, or granted confidentiality under existing Colorado statutes or rules, shall remain confidential.

(2)  Any person making such confidential records available to any person or

organization without authorization from the affected operator or owner commits a petty offense and shall be punished pursuant to section 18-1.3-503.

(3)  Confidential records may be disclosed to officers, employees, or

authorized representatives of the state or of the United States who have been charged with administering this article or subtitle I of the federal Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976, as amended. Such disclosure shall not constitute a waiver of confidentiality.

Source: L. 95: Entire article added, p. 397, � 1, effective July 1. L. 2001: (1)

amended, p. 1126, � 45, effective June 5. L. 2002: (2) amended, p. 1467, � 19, effective October 1. L. 2021: (2) amended, (SB 21-271), ch. 462, p. 3142, � 93, effective March 1, 2022. L. 2022: (2) amended, (HB 22-1229), ch. 68, p. 349, � 40, effective March 1; (2) amended, (SB 22-212), ch. 421, p. 2966, � 17, effective August 10.

Editor's note: (1)  This section is similar to former � 25-18-106 as it existed

prior to 1995.

(2)  Amendments to subsection (2) by SB 22-212 and HB 22-1229 were

harmonized.

(3)  Section 47 of chapter 68 (HB 22-1229), Session Laws of Colorado 2022,

provides that the act changing this section applies to offenses committed on or after March 1, 2022; however, the Governor signed the act April 7, 2022.

Cross references: (1)  For the legislative declaration contained in the 2002

act amending subsection (2), see section 1 of chapter 318, Session Laws of Colorado 2002.

(2)  For the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976, as amended,

see Pub.L. 94-580, codified at 42 U.S.C. � 6901 et seq.

8-20.5-106.  Injunctions. In addition to the remedies provided in this article,

the director of the division of oil and public safety is authorized to apply to the district court, in the judicial district where the violation has occurred, for a temporary or permanent injunction restraining any person from violating any provision of this article, regardless of whether there is an adequate remedy at law.

Source: L. 95: Entire article added, p. 398, � 1, effective July 1. L. 2001: Entire

section amended, p. 1127, � 46, effective June 5.

Editor's note: This section is similar to former � 8-20-513 as it existed prior to

1995.

8-20.5-107.  Enforcement orders - civil penalties. (1)  A notice of violation

may be issued by the director of the division of oil and public safety to any person who is believed to have violated any provision of this article, any rule promulgated pursuant thereto, or any warrant issued pursuant to section 8-20.5-208. The notice of violation shall be served personally or by certified mail, return receipt requested, upon the alleged violator.

(2)  The notice of violation shall set forth the facts which allegedly constitute

the violation and the provisions which have allegedly been violated of either this article or any regulation promulgated pursuant thereto. The notice of violation may require the alleged violator to take any actions necessary to correct the alleged violation.

(3)  Within ten working days after service of the notice of violation, the

alleged violator may file a written request with the director of the division of oil and public safety for an informal conference regarding the notice of violation. If the alleged violator fails to timely request an informal conference, all provisions of the notice of violation shall become final and not subject to further administrative review. The director of the division of oil and public safety may then seek judicial enforcement of the notice of violation.

(4)  Upon receipt of the written request, the director of the division of oil and

public safety shall provide the alleged violator with a written notice of the date, time, and place of the informal conference. The director of the division of oil and public safety or a designee shall preside at the informal conference, during which the alleged violator and the entity that issued the notice of violation may present information and arguments regarding the allegations and requirements of the notice of violation.

(5)  Within twenty working days after the informal conference, the director of

the division of oil and public safety shall uphold, modify, or strike the allegations of the notice of violation and may issue an enforcement order. The decision shall be served upon the alleged violator personally or by certified mail, return receipt requested. Such notice of violation or enforcement order may be appealed within twenty working days to the executive director of the department. The executive director may either conduct the hearing personally or appoint an administrative law judge from the office of administrative courts in the department of personnel to conduct the hearing. The executive director may review such decision in accordance with the provisions of section 24-4-105, C.R.S., and final agency action shall be determined in accordance with the provisions of said section. Such final agency action shall be subject to judicial review in accordance with section 24-4-106, C.R.S.

(6)  The enforcement order may require the alleged violator to pay a civil

penalty not to exceed five thousand dollars per tank for each day of violation.

(7)  The director of the division of oil and public safety may file suit in the

district court for the judicial district in which violations have occurred to obtain judicial enforcement of the provisions of any enforcement order. The petroleum storage tank fund may be subrogated to the rights of an owner or operator with respect to a claimed amount at the time a claim is filed with the fund.

Source: L. 95: Entire article added, p. 398, � 1, effective July 1; (5) amended,

p. 634, � 12, effective July 1. L. 2001: (1), (3), (4), (5), and (7) amended, p. 1127, � 47, effective June 5. L. 2005: (5) amended, p. 853, � 8, effective June 1.

Editor's note: This section is similar to former � 8-20-512 as it existed prior to

1995.

8-20.5-108.  Petroleum storage tank administration - transfer to

department of labor and employment - legislative declaration. (1) (a) The general assembly hereby finds, determines, and declares that there is a significant backlog in the processing of claims being made against the petroleum storage tank fund. Claims for reimbursement for cleaning up petroleum contamination are not acted upon in a timely manner, which places the storage tank owner in financial jeopardy. Lenders are reluctant to write loans on contaminated property, causing the next phase of remediation to be delayed and allowing contamination to spread, threatening the environment and unnecessarily escalating future cleanup expenses.

(b)  The general assembly further finds, determines, and declares that it is in

the best interest of this state to transfer petroleum storage tank administrative functions performed by the department of public health and environment to the department of labor and employment, and thereby consolidate the administration and regulation of petroleum storage tanks in this state under one department, which will minimize the cost of such functions and centralize management.

(2) (a)  The administrative functions of the petroleum storage tank fund,

including claims processing, corrective action plan review and approval, and any other responsibilities for petroleum storage tank programs performed by the department of public health and environment prior to July 1, 1995, are transferred to the department of labor and employment. All employees of the department of public health and environment, excluding any contract labor, who perform the functions transferred pursuant to this subsection (2) and whose employment in the department of labor and employment is deemed necessary by the executive director of the said department are transferred to the department of labor and employment and shall become employees thereof.

(b)  Such employees shall retain all rights to the state personnel system and

retirement benefits under the laws of this state, and their services shall be deemed to have been continuous. All transfers and any abolishment of positions in the state personnel system shall be made and processed in accordance with state personnel system laws and rules.

(c)  On July 1, 1995, all items of property, real and personal, including office

furniture and fixtures, books, documents, and records of the department of public health and environment pertaining to the duties and functions transferred to the department of labor and employment pursuant to this subsection (2) are transferred to the department of labor and employment and shall become the property of such department.

(3)  Repealed.


Source: L. 95: Entire article added, p. 399, � 1, effective July 1.


Editor's note: Subsection (3)(c) provided for the repeal of subsection (3),

effective December 31, 1996. (See L. 95, p. 399.)

PART 2

UNDERGROUND STORAGE TANKS

Law reviews: For article, Colorado New Underground Storage Tank Law,

see 19 Colo. Law. 233 (1990); for article, Availability of the Colorado UST Fund to Property Owners and Mortgagees, see 23 Colo. Law. 873 (1994).

8-20.5-201.  Legislative declaration. The general assembly hereby finds and

declares that the leakage of regulated substances from underground storage tanks constitutes a potential threat to the waters and the environment of the state of Colorado and presents a potential menace to the public health, safety, and welfare of the people of the state of Colorado and that, to that end, it is the purpose of this part 2 to establish a program for the protection of the environment and of the public health and safety by preventing and mitigating the contamination of the subsurface soil, groundwater, and surface water which may result from leaking underground storage tanks.

Source: L. 95: Entire article added, p. 400, � 1, effective July 1.


Editor's note: This section is similar to former � 8-20-501 as it existed prior to

1995.

8-20.5-202.  Duties of director of division of oil and public safety - rules. (1)

The director of the division of oil and public safety shall promulgate and enforce rules that are no more stringent than the requirements contained in 42 U.S.C. sec. 6991 et seq., and the regulations promulgated thereunder, except as allowed by federal law, including the federal Energy Policy Act of 2005, Pub.L. 109-58, as amended, for:

(a)  Notification requirements for owners and operators of underground

storage tanks;

(b)  Design, performance, construction, and installation standards for new

underground storage tanks;

(c)  Design, performance, construction, and installation standards for the

upgrading of existing underground storage tanks;

(d)  General operating requirements;


(e)  Release detection;


(f)  Release reporting, investigation, and confirmation; and


(g)  (Deleted by amendment, L. 2007, p. 980, � 2, effective July 1, 2007.)


(h)  Financial responsibility for underground storage tank systems containing

regulated substances.

(1.5)  The director of the division of oil and public safety shall promulgate and

enforce rules for out-of-service underground storage tank systems and closure of such tanks.

(1.7)  Within one hundred twenty days after January 1, 2008, the director of

the division of oil and public safety shall promulgate, and the division shall enforce, rules concerning the placement of underground storage tanks that contain renewable fuels. Such rules shall be promulgated with the purpose of developing a uniform statewide standard of issuing permits for underground storage tanks to promote the use of renewable fuels so that the process of obtaining a permit for an underground storage tank that contains renewable fuels may be more efficient and affordable.

(2)  The director of the division of oil and public safety shall ensure that:


(a)  All releases from underground storage tank systems are promptly

assessed and that further releases are stopped;

(b)  Actions are taken to identify, contain, and mitigate any immediate fire

and safety hazards that are posed by a release;

(c)  All releases from underground storage tank systems are investigated to

determine if there are impacts of reportable quantities on subsurface soil, groundwater, and any nearby surface water;

(d)  All releases above reportable quantities are reported to the director of

the division of oil and public safety.

(3)  The director of the division of oil and public safety shall, if necessary,

negotiate and enter into memoranda of agreement with and apply for and receive grants from the United States environmental protection agency pursuant to the provisions of this article.

(4)  The director of the division of oil and public safety shall establish criteria

pursuant to subsection (1) of this section for delegation of authority to local agencies.

(5)  Repealed.


Source: L. 95: Entire article added, p. 401, � 1, effective July 1. L. 97: (5)

repealed, p. 1474, � 8, effective June 3. L. 2001: IP(1), IP(2), (2)(d), (3), and (4) amended, p. 1128, � 48, effective June 5. L. 2007: IP(1) amended, p. 387, � 5, effective April 3; (1.7) added, p. 1760, � 5, effective June 1; IP(1) and (1)(g) amended and (1.5) added, p. 980, � 2, effective July 1.

Editor's note: (1)  This section is similar to former � 8-20-503 as it existed

prior to 1995.

(2)  Amendments to the introductory portion to subsection (1) by Senate Bill

07-031 and Senate Bill 07-247 were harmonized.

8-20.5-203.  Performance of duties by owner or operator. Duties imposed

by this part 2 on the owner or the operator may be performed by either the owner or the operator. If neither the owner nor the operator performs the duties imposed by this part 2, both shall be considered in violation of this part 2.

Source: L. 95: Entire article added, p. 402, � 1, effective July 1.


Editor's note: This section is similar to former � 8-20-504 as it existed prior

to 1995.

8-20.5-204.  Installation and upgrading of underground storage tanks. (1)

Plans for any installation of a new underground storage tank and plans for the complete upgrading of an existing underground storage tank shall be submitted by the owner or operator of the proposed or existing underground storage tank to the director of the division of oil and public safety for approval prior to such installation or upgrading.

(2)  Plans for the installation of a new underground storage tank or for the

complete upgrading of an existing underground storage tank shall be in compliance with the rules promulgated pursuant to section 8-20.5-202 (1). The director of the division of oil and public safety or a designee shall approve or reject proposed plans and amendments thereto within twenty working days after submittal of the plan. If no action is taken by the director of the division of oil and public safety or a designee withi


C.R.S. § 8-20-201

8-20-201. Definitions. As used in this part 2, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1)  Alternative fuel means a motor fuel that combines petroleum-based

fuel products with renewable fuels.

(1.1)  Antiknock index or AKI means the arithmetic average of the research

octane number (RON) and motor octane number (MON): AKI = (RON+MON)/2. This value is called by a variety of names in addition to antiknock index including: Octane rating, posted octane, and (R+M)/2 octane.

(1.2)  ASTM means ASTM international, formerly known as the American

society for testing and materials.

(1.3)  British thermal unit or BTU means a scientific unit of measurement

equal to the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of one pound of water one degree Fahrenheit at approximately sixty degrees Fahrenheit.

(1.5)  Department means the department of labor and employment, division

of oil and public safety.

(1.7)  DOT means the United States department of transportation.


(2)  Fuel products means all gasoline; aviation gasoline; aviation turbine

fuel; diesel; jet fuel; fuel oil; biodiesel; biodiesel blends; kerosene; all alcohol blended fuels; liquefied petroleum gas; gas or gaseous compounds, including hydrogen; natural gas, including compressed natural gas and liquefied natural gas; and all other volatile, flammable, or combustible liquids, that are produced, compounded, and offered for sale or used for the purpose of generating heat, light, or power in internal combustion engines or fuel cells, for cleaning, or for any other similar usage.

(2.3) (a)  Gallon equivalent means either a gallon diesel equivalent or a

gallon gasoline equivalent.

(b)  (Deleted by amendment, L. 97, p. 137, � 1, effective March 28, 1997.)


(2.5) (a)  Gallon diesel equivalent means an amount of a motor fuel that

contains an average lower heating value of one hundred twenty-eight thousand BTUs (British thermal units), but in no case contains a lower heating value of less than one hundred twenty-four thousand BTUs.

(b)  (Deleted by amendment, L. 97, p. 137, � 1, effective March 28, 1997.)


(2.7) (a)  Gallon gasoline equivalent means an amount of a motor fuel that

contains an average lower heating value of one hundred fourteen thousand BTUs (British thermal units), but in no case contains a lower heating value of less than one hundred ten thousand BTUs.

(b)  (Deleted by amendment, L. 97, p. 137, � 1, effective March 28, 1997.)


(3)  Gross gallons as applied to fuel and petroleum products means units of

two hundred thirty-one cubic inches measured at storage or metered temperature.

(3.5)  Hg means the element mercury.


(4)  Lubricants means petroleum products used for the purpose of reducing

friction between moving surfaces.

(4.5) (a)  Motor fuel means any liquid or gas used as fuel to generate power

in engines or motors.

(b)  (Deleted by amendment, L. 97, p. 137, � 1, effective March 28, 1997.)


(5)  Net gallons as applied to fuel and petroleum products means units of

two hundred thirty-one cubic inches measured at standard temperature.

(5.3)  NFPA means the national fire protection association.


(5.5)  NIST means the national institute of standards and technology.


(6)  Person means an individual, trust or estate, partnership, association,

joint stock company or corporation, and any receiver appointed by law.

(7)  Proved as applied to measuring devices means the act of having

verified the accuracy of meters used to measure fuel and petroleum products.

(8)  Prover as applied to determination of meter accuracy means a

calibrated volumetric receiver or a mechanical positive displacement device.

(8.5)  Renewable fuel means a motor vehicle fuel that is produced from

plant or animal products or wastes, as opposed to fossil fuel sources.

(9)  Standard temperature as applied to fuel and petroleum products

means sixty degrees Fahrenheit.

(10)  Temperature compensation as applied to liquid measure of fuel and

petroleum products means adjustment of gallons measured at storage or metered temperature to the standard temperature.

Source: L. 31: p. 589, �� 1, 2. CSA: C. 118, � 1. L. 41: p. 581, � 1. CRS 53: � 100-2-1. C.R.S. 1963: � 100-2-1. L. 73: p. 1066, � 2. L. 93: (1) amended and (1.5), (2.3), (2.5),

(2.7), and (4.5) added, p. 269, � 2, effective July 1. L. 97: (1), (2.3), (2.5), (2.7), and (4.5) amended, p. 137, � 1, effective March 28. L. 2001: (1.5) amended, p. 1115, � 5, effective June 5. L. 2005: (1), (1.5), and (2) amended and (1.1), (1.2), (1.7), (3.5), (5.3), and (5.5) added, p. 1341, � 1, effective August 8. L. 2007: (1), (1.1), and (1.2) amended and (1.3) and (8.5) added, p. 1759, � 2, effective June 1. L. 2013: (2) amended, (HB 13-1110), ch. 225, p. 1055, � 3, effective January 1, 2014. L. 2016: (2) amended, (HB 16-1053), ch. 4, p. 8, � 2, effective March 9.

Editor's note: The amendment made to subsection (1) by House Bill 93-1114

resulted in adding new language to subsection (1) and numbering what was subsection (1) as subsection (1.5).

Cross references: For the legislative declaration contained in the 1993 act

amending subsection (1) and enacting subsections (1.5), (2.3), (2.5), (2.7), and (4.5), see section 1 of chapter 79, Session Laws of Colorado 1993. For the legislative declaration in the 2013 act amending subsection (2), see section 1 of chapter 225, Session Laws of Colorado 2013.


C.R.S. § 8-20-222

8-20-222. Improvers of products. All materials, fluids, or substances offered for sale or exposed for sale, purporting to be substances for, or improvers of, fuel products to be used for power, heating, lubricating, or illuminating purposes, before being sold, exposed, or offered for sale, shall be submitted to the director of the division of oil and public safety for examination and inspection, and shall only be sold or offered for sale when properly labeled with a label, the form and contents of which label has been approved by the director in writing.

Source: L. 31: p. 600, � 23. CSA: C. 118, � 20. L. 41: p. 587, � 20. CRS 53: �

100-2-22. C.R.S. 1963: � 100-2-22. L. 73: p. 1067, � 3. L. 2001: Entire section amended, p. 1117, � 14, effective June 5. L. 2005: Entire section amended, p. 1346, � 15, effective August 8.


C.R.S. § 8-20-232.5

8-20-232.5. Method of sales of motor fuels - gallon equivalents - conversion factors. (1) In addition to any other allowed unit of measurement, motor fuels may be sold by gallon equivalents pursuant to the requirements of this section.

(2) (a)  Any dispenser used for the sale of motor fuel in gallon equivalents

shall display gallon equivalents as the primary display information provided. Such dispenser shall indicate the number of gallon equivalents and fractions of gallon equivalents sold, the total sales price of the motor fuel dispensed, and the sales price per gallon equivalent of motor fuel sold. Information concerning the sale of motor fuels by gallon equivalents may be provided at the point of sale in literature, signs, or other advertisements. Street sign advertisements regarding the sale of motor fuels by gallon equivalents may abbreviate the term gallon gasoline equivalent as gallon G.E. and the term gallon diesel equivalent as gallon D.E..

(b)  In addition to the information required by paragraph (a) of this subsection

(2), the face of a dispenser that is used for the sale of motor fuel in gallon equivalents shall prominently display the conversion factor that is being used by the seller to determine the number of gallon equivalents sold based upon the type and amount of actual measured units of motor fuel that is dispensed. The information displayed on such a dispenser shall include, but is not limited to, the following statements concerning the conversion factor:

(I)  One gallon diesel equivalent of (type of motor fuel) is equivalent to

(amount of actual units of measurement) of (type of motor fuel).

(II)  One gallon diesel equivalent of (type of motor fuel) contains an average

lower heating value of 128,000 BTUs of energy, but in no case contains a lower heating value of less than 124,000 BTUs of energy.

(III)  One gallon gasoline equivalent of (type of motor fuel) is equivalent to

(amount of actual units of measurement) of (type of motor fuel).

(IV)  One gallon gasoline equivalent of (type of motor fuel) contains an

average lower heating value of 114,000 BTUs of energy, but in no case contains a lower heating value of less than 110,000 BTUs of energy.

(3)  Any seller using gallon equivalents for motor fuel sales shall calculate

the conversion factor used by the seller to convert the actual units by which a motor fuel is measured at the dispenser to gallon equivalent units based on the inferred energy content of such motor fuel as measured by one of the following methods:

(a)  For conversions to gallon diesel equivalents:


(I)  If the motor fuel is actually measured at the dispenser as a volume, the

gallon diesel equivalent measurement shall be calculated by determining the number of measured volumetric units required to provide an average lower heating value of one hundred twenty-eight thousand BTUs (British thermal units), but in no case a lower heating value of less than one hundred twenty-four thousand BTUs.

(II)  If the motor fuel is actually measured at the dispenser as a mass, the

gallon diesel equivalent measurement shall be calculated by determining the number of measured mass units required to provide an average lower heating value of one hundred twenty-eight thousand BTUs (British thermal units), but in no case a lower heating value of less than one hundred twenty-four thousand BTUs.

(b)  For conversions to gallon gasoline equivalents:


(I)  If the motor fuel is actually measured at the dispenser as a volume, the

gallon gasoline equivalent measurement shall be calculated by determining the number of measured volumetric units required to provide an average lower heating value of one hundred fourteen thousand BTUs (British thermal units), but in no case a lower heating value of less than one hundred ten thousand BTUs.

(II)  If the motor fuel is actually measured at the dispenser as a mass, the

gallon gasoline equivalent measurement shall be calculated by determining the number of measured mass units required to provide an average lower heating value of one hundred fourteen thousand BTUs (British thermal units), but in no case a lower heating value of less than one hundred ten thousand BTUs.

(4)  The actual unit of measurement for a motor fuel sold in terms of gallon

equivalents shall be calibrated by the seller with appropriate precision to ensure conformance with any required dispensing accuracies.

(5)  Repealed.


Source: L. 93: Entire section added, p. 270, � 3, effective July 1. L. 97: (5)

repealed, p. 138, � 3, effective March 28.

Cross references: For the legislative declaration contained in the 1993 act

enacting this section, see section 1 of chapter 79, Session Laws of Colorado 1993.


C.R.S. § 8-20-301

8-20-301. Unlawful use of container. No person, firm, or corporation, except the owner thereof or persons authorized in writing by the owner, shall sell or offer for sale, or deliver any gas or gaseous compound used for heating or cooking, which is shipped, consigned, or delivered in steel containers, or containers made of other metal, plastic, or other substance, if such container bears upon the surface thereof, in plainly legible characters the name, initials, or trademark of the owner. The term gas or gaseous compound as used in this part 3 includes any material which is composed predominantly of any of the following hydrocarbons, or mixtures of the same: Propane, propylene, butanes, normal butane and isobutane, and butylenes.

Source: L. 43: p. 598, � 1. CSA: C. 165, � 25. CRS 53: � 100-4-1. C.R.S. 1963: �

100-4-1.


C.R.S. § 8-20-302

8-20-302. Refill container unlawful. No person, firm, or corporation, other than the owner or person authorized by the owner shall refill or use in any manner a container or receptacle which has imprinted thereon the name, initials, or trademark of the owner, for any gas or gaseous compound used for cooking or heating.

Source: L. 43: p. 598, � 2. CSA: C. 165, � 26. CRS 53: � 100-4-2. C.R.S. 1963:

� 100-4-2.


C.R.S. § 9-4-101

9-4-101. Definitions. As used in this article, unless the context otherwise requires:

(1)  A.S.M.E. boiler and pressure vessel code means the boiler and pressure

vessel code developed by the boiler and pressure vessel committee of the American society of mechanical engineers with amendments, addenda, and interpretations thereto, made and approved by the council of said society, 1968 edition, a copy of which code is on file in the office of the boiler inspection section of the division of oil and public safety.

(1.5)  A.S.M.E. review and survey means the review and survey of the

manufacturers quality control system for the certification of authorization for the use of the A.S.M.E. applicable code symbol stamp.

(2)  Boiler means a closed pressure vessel in which a fluid is heated for use

external to itself by the direct application of heat resulting from the combustion of fuel, solid, liquid, or gaseous, or by the use of electricity or nuclear energy.

(2.5)  Chief boiler inspector means the person appointed by the director to

oversee the boiler inspection section created in section 9-4-102.

(3)  Colorado boiler and pressure vessel code is used to designate the

accepted reference for construction, installation, operation, and inspection of boilers and pressure vessels and will be referred to as the Colorado boiler and pressure vessel code, which includes the A.S.M.E. boiler and pressure vessel codes and the national board inspection code.

(4)  Condemned boiler means a boiler which has been inspected and

declared unsafe or disqualified as to legal requirements by an inspector qualified to take such action and to which has been applied a stamping or marking designating its rejection.

(5)  Director means the director of the division of oil and public safety or his

or her designee.

(6)  External inspection means an inspection made when a boiler is in

operation.

(7)  Hot-water heating boiler means a boiler operated at pressure not

exceeding one hundred sixty PSIG and temperature not exceeding two hundred fifty degrees Fahrenheit for water.

(8)  Hot-water supply boiler means a boiler used to supply hot water

operated at pressure not exceeding one hundred sixty PSIG and temperatures not exceeding two hundred fifty degrees Fahrenheit at or near the boiler outlet.

(9)  Internal inspection means an inspection made when a boiler is shut

down with all handholes or manholes opened for inspection of its interior.

(10)  Locomotive boiler means a boiler mounted on a self-propelled track

carrier and which is used to furnish motivating power for traveling on rails.

(11)  Miniature boiler means any boiler which does not exceed any of the

following limits:

(a)  Sixteen inches inside diameter of shell;


(b)  Five cubic feet gross volume exclusive of casing and insulation;


(c)  One hundred pounds PSIG maximum working pressure.


(12)  National board inspection code means the manual for boiler and

pressure vessel inspections published in 1970 by the national board of boiler and pressure vessel inspectors, 10th edition, and subsequent revisions.

(13)  Nonstandard boiler means any boiler which does not qualify as a

standard boiler.

(14)  Owner or user means any person, firm, corporation, or business entity

of whatever nature owning or operating any boiler within this state.

(14.3)  Owner-user inspection organization means an owner or user of

pressure-retaining items who maintains a regularly established inspection department, and whose organization and inspection procedures meet the requirements of the national board of boiler and pressure vessel inspectors rules or the American petroleum institute's API 510 program and are acceptable to the director.

(14.5)  Owner-user inspector means an inspector who holds a valid national

board of boiler and pressure vessel inspectors owner-user inspector commission and who has passed the examination prescribed by the national board or is an American petroleum institute certified inspector under a jurisdictionally approved owner-user inspection organization.

(15)  Portable boiler means an internally fired boiler which is primarily

intended for temporary locational use, the construction and usage of which is obviously portable for use in multiple locations.

(16)  Power boiler means any boiler exceeding the miniature boiler size

which generates steam or vapor at a pressure of more than fifteen pounds per square inch gauge (PSIG).

(16.5)  Pressure vessel means a pressure vessel or a container for the

containment of pressure, either internal or external. Except as exempted in section 1910.172 of the Colorado occupational safety and health general standards, such pressure may be obtained from an external source or by the application of heat from a direct or indirect source or by any combination of such methods. The scope in relation to the geometry of pressure-containing parts shall terminate at the following: The first circumferential joint for welding end connections, or the face of the first flange in bolted flanged connections, or the first threaded joint in that type of connection.

(17)  Reinstalled boiler means a boiler removed from its original setting and

reerected at the same location or erected at a new location without change of ownership.

(18)  Relief valve means an automatic pressure-relieving device actuated by

static pressure upstream of the valve which opens farther with an increase in pressure over the opening pressure. It is used primarily for liquid service.

(19)  Safety relief valve means an automatic pressure-actuated relieving

device suitable for use either as a safety valve or relief valve, depending on application.

(20)  Safety valve means an automatic pressure-relieving device activated

by static pressure upstream of the valve and characterized by full-opening pop action. It is used for steam, gas, or vapor service.

(21)  Secondhand boiler means a boiler in which both location and

ownership have been changed after primary use.

(22)  Section means the boiler inspection section of the division of oil and

public safety.

(23)  Service and domestic-type water heater means a water heater of

either instantaneous or storage type used for heating or combined heating and storage of hot water for domestic or sanitary purposes or for space heating in which none of the following limitations is exceeded:

(a)  Heat input of two hundred thousand BTUs per hour;


(b)  Fluid temperature of two hundred ten degrees Fahrenheit;


(c)  Normal internal fluid capacity of one hundred twenty gallons.


(24)  Shop inspection means inspection of new construction of boilers or

pressure vessels, and shall include review of the specifications, determination that such construction is in accordance with the applicable codes, and certification to the national board and to the A.S.M.E. that such completed new construction is eligible to be stamped with the appropriate A.S.M.E. symbol.

(25)  Special boiler inspector means an inspector who has received and

maintained in force a commission as inspector issued by the national board of boiler and pressure vessel inspectors and authorized by the boiler inspection section to inspect or insure boilers in the state of Colorado.

(26)  Standard boiler means a boiler which bears the stamp of the state of

Colorado or another state which has adopted a standard boiler construction equivalent to that required by the Colorado boiler and pressure vessel code or a boiler which bears the A.S.M.E. stamp.

(27)  State boiler inspector means any boiler inspector employed by the

division of oil and public safety.

(28)  Steam-heating boiler means a boiler operated at pressure not

exceeding fifteen PSIG for steam.

Source: L. 71: R&RE, p. 267, � 1. C.R.S. 1963: � 17-3-1. L. 76: (28) amended

and (1.5) and (16.5) added, p. 362, � 1, effective July 1. L. 2001: (1), (22), and (27) amended, p. 1134, � 56, effective June 5. L. 2009: (23)(b) amended, (HB 09-1309), ch. 234, p. 1071, � 1, effective May 4. L. 2011: (2.5) added and (5) amended, (HB 11-1050), ch. 8, p. 16, � 1, effective August 10. L. 2012: (14.3) and (14.5) added, (HB 12-1217), ch. 51, p. 184, � 1, effective August 8.


C.R.S. § 9-4-103

9-4-103. Duties - rules. (1) The director shall keep in his or her office a complete and accurate record of the names of owners or users of boilers inspected, giving a full description of the boiler, the pressure allowed, the date when last inspected, and by whom. The director or chief boiler inspector shall investigate and report to the division of oil and public safety the cause of any boiler explosion that occurs within the state. Definitions and rules for the safe construction, installation, inspection, operation, maintenance, and repair of boilers and pressure vessels in the state of Colorado, in addition or supplemental to the existing rules, shall be formulated by the section under the direction of the chief boiler inspector and shall become effective upon approval by the director.

(2)  The definitions and rules so formulated for new construction shall be

based upon and at all times follow the generally accepted nationwide engineering standards, formulas, and practices established and pertaining to boiler and pressure vessel construction and safety, and the section, with the approval of the director of the division of oil and public safety, may adopt an existing codification thereof known as the boiler and pressure vessel code of the American society of mechanical engineers, and when so adopted and incorporated by reference pursuant to section 24-4-103 (12.5), C.R.S., shall constitute a part of the whole of the definitions and rules of the section.

(3)  The section, under the direction of the director, shall formulate rules

establishing a schedule for the inspection of boilers and pressure vessels and may formulate other rules governing the inspection, operation, maintenance, and repair of boilers and pressure vessels in addition and supplemental to those rules that are part of the Colorado boiler construction code as originally enacted and amended. The rules so formulated shall be based upon and at all times follow the generally accepted nationwide engineering standards and may be based upon those portions of an existing published codification of such rules known as the inspection code of the national board of boiler and pressure vessel inspectors as are considered by the section to be properly applicable. Rules formulated by the section and identification of those portions of the national board inspection code which are declared to be applicable shall be made available to all persons directly affected by a publication which will be prepared and issued, upon request, to such persons by the section.

(4)  Inspectors shall carefully inspect every boiler used or proposed to be

used in this state for steaming, hot-water heating purposes, or hot-water supply, including all attachments and connections, in accordance with the inspection schedule established pursuant to subsection (3) of this section.

Source: L. 71: R&RE, p. 270, � 1. C.R.S. 1963: � 17-3-3. L. 2000: (3) and (4)

amended, p. 163, � 1, effective March 17. L. 2001: (1) and (2) amended, p. 1135, � 58, effective June 5. L. 2011: (1) amended, (HB 11-1050), ch. 8, p. 17, � 3, effective August 10.


C.R.S. § 9-4-106

9-4-106. Owner to report boilers - wrongful use - inspection of new installations. (1) It is the duty of the owner or user of boilers, except those boilers exempt from the provisions of this article under section 9-4-104, used or which are to be used in this state, to report to the section the location of newly installed or relocated boilers.

(2)  Before the installers of any boiler have boilers placed in service, they

shall notify the section, which, within ten days or as soon thereafter as possible from the date of receiving such notification, shall send an inspector to examine said boilers to determine that the construction, material, bracing, fuel and fluid supply systems, control apparatus, combustion air and ventilating air, electric wiring, piping, and all other parts of such boilers are such as to assure the safety of the boilers.

(3)  Upon completion of installation, all boilers shall be inspected by a state

boiler inspector. At the time of inspection, each boiler shall be assigned a serial number by the inspector, which serial number shall be stamped on or affixed to the boiler.

(4)  The serial number and letters, whether stamped on or affixed to the

boiler, shall not be less than five-sixteenths of an inch in height, and the serial number shall be preceded by the letters Colo. The stamping shall not be concealed by lagging or paint and shall be exposed at all times. Metal tags shall be furnished by the section on which the assigned number may be stamped. The tag shall be securely affixed to the boiler in the area of the manufacturer's identification and must be used when the metal of which the boiler is made may be damaged by direct stamping.

(5)  The owners or users of boilers, or engineers in charge of same, shall not

allow a greater pressure in any boiler than is stated on the certificate of inspection issued by the section. No person or business entity shall use any boiler that has been condemned as unsafe by a state boiler inspector. No person or business entity shall operate a boiler without a valid certificate of inspection.

Source: L. 71: R&RE, p. 271, � 1. C.R.S. 1963: � 17-3-6.

C.R.S. § 9-4-108

9-4-108. Violation by owner or user - penalty - enforcement. (1) If the owner of any boiler fails to report the location of such boiler to the section, the owner is guilty of a misdemeanor, and, if the owner or his agent fails to have said boiler ready for internal inspection as provided in this article, said owner shall be liable to pay fees and expenses of the inspector incurred in the inspection of any such boiler.

(2)  Any owner who fails or refuses to comply with all requirements or

directions of this article pertaining to notification of boiler placement, replacement, or operation; condones operation of condemned boilers; refuses a reasonable request to inspect any boiler used for heating or water supply service or any similar use; refuses to pay inspection and expenses or penalties or license fees; operates any boiler or similar device in defiance of a division of oil and public safety order or an order of the director shall, upon notice, cease to use or operate or allow the use or operation of any approved or nonapproved boiler or water-heating equipment owned by him or her until permission to resume use of such equipment is granted by the director.

(3)  Actions shall be instituted by the attorney general or the district

attorney, or may be instituted by the city attorney of any city, to prosecute such acts in violation of this article within his jurisdiction as may come to his knowledge or to enforce the provisions of this article independently and without specific direction of the director. Each such violation shall be a separate offense.

(4)  Any person convicted of a violation of this article 4 commits a petty

offense.

Source: L. 71: R&RE, p. 272, � 1. C.R.S. 1963: � 17-3-8. L. 76: (3) amended, p.

363, � 2, effective July 1. L. 2001: (2) amended, p. 1136, � 61, effective June 5. L. 2021: (4) amended, (SB 21-271), ch. 462, p. 3145, � 102, effective March 1, 2022.


C.R.S. § 9-4-108.5

9-4-108.5. Variances. Any owner or user may apply to the director for a rule or order for a variance from the standards, rules, regulations, or requirements of this article, upon providing such information as prescribed by the director. The director shall issue such rule or order if he determines that the proponent of the variance has demonstrated that the construction, installation, and operation of the boiler or pressure vessel will be as safe as if the standards, rules, regulations, or requirements were complied with. The rule or order so issued shall prescribe the construction, installation, operation, maintenance, and repair conditions that the owner or user must maintain. Such a rule or order may be modified or revoked upon application by an owner or user or by the director on his own motion at any time after six months from its issuance.

Source: L. 76: Entire section added, p. 363, � 3, effective July 1.

C.R.S. § 9-4-112

9-4-112. Regulations common to all types and services of boilers. (1) Each boiler shall be supported by masonry or structural supports of sufficient strength and rigidity to safely support the boiler. There shall be no excessive vibration in either the boiler or its connecting piping.

(2)  All boilers shall be so located that adequate space on each side will be

provided for proper operation of the boiler and its appurtenances, for the inspection of all surfaces, tubes, water walls, piping, valves, and other equipment, and for their necessary maintenance and repair.

(3)  Inflammable or volatile materials shall not be stored in boiler rooms. Gas

meters shall not be installed in boiler rooms.

(4)  There shall be provided to all boiler installations sufficient air to assure

adequate combustion of fuel. There shall be ventilating air provided to prevent undue overheating in the boiler room. Nationally accepted standards such as the publications of the national fire protection association shall be followed in determining the adequacy of combustion and ventilating air.

(5)  Safety or safety relief valves, or both, shall be of adequate capacity to

prevent accumulation of excess pressure with fixed settings not in excess of the maximum allowable working pressure of the boiler to which they are attached. All new safety relief valves shall bear stamping which indicates that they have been capacity-rated according to national board standards and that they have been constructed according to A.S.M.E. standards.

(6)  The use of weighted-lever safety valves shall be prohibited, and these

valves shall be replaced by direct spring-loaded safety or safety relief valves that conform to the requirements of the A.S.M.E. boiler and pressure vessel code.

(7)  Safety valves having either a seat or disc of cast-iron construction are

prohibited.

(8)  The safety or safety relief valve shall be connected directly to the hottest

part of the boiler, independent of any other connection, without a shutoff valve of any description between the safety or safety relief valve and the boiler.

(9)  Each automatically fired boiler shall be equipped with a flame failure

safeguard device which will positively discontinue flow of fuel to the firing chamber in event of absence of flame. Discontinuation must occur in time to prevent an explosive accumulation of fuel in the firing chamber and connecting passages.

(10)  Every safety or safety relief valve shall be connected to the boiler in an

upright position with spindle vertical and shall be equipped with a try lever to test opening of the valve.

(11)  When a discharge pipe is attached to a safety or safety relief valve, it

shall not be reduced less than the valve outlet and shall be as short and straight as possible and arranged to avoid undue stresses on the valve. There shall be no shutoff valve in such discharge pipe.

(12)  The discharge opening of safety or safety relief valves shall be so

located that the released fluids and vapors cannot come into harmful contact with attendants or other persons. All safety or safety relief valve discharges shall be located or piped to clear running boards or platforms. Ample provision for gravity drain shall be made in the discharge pipe at or near each safety valve and where condensation may collect. Any discharge pipe extending above the safety or safety relief valve shall be equipped with a drain hole which will prevent accumulation of fluid above the valve disc.

(13)  All electric wiring to boilers and to electrically operated automatic

devices and control mechanisms shall be of a high temperature resistant insulation, and wiring shall be in conduit or other approved covering.

(14)  All fuel and fluid piping valves and appliances shall be of materials

listed in nationally approved standards, installed in a workmanlike manner, with such support as is necessary to prevent vibration. They shall be maintained so as to be free of leakage.

(15)  Repairs shall be made in accordance with the regulations set forth in the

national board inspection code. Major repairs shall be reported to the section before being performed. The major repair procedure and the shop performing the repair must be approved by the section or the authorized insurer and an inspection made by a state or special boiler inspector before the boiler is used.

(16)  All boilers, unless exempt by this article, are subject to regular

inspections as provided for in section 9-4-103 (4). Each boiler shall be prepared by the owner or user for inspections or hydrostatic test whenever necessary when notified by the inspector or the section. The owner or user shall prepare each boiler for internal inspection, when so requested by a state boiler inspector, in the manner prescribed in the national board inspection code.

(17)  If the boiler is jacketed so that longitudinal seams of shells, drums, or

domes cannot be seen, enough of the jacketing, setting, wall, or other form of casing or housing shall be removed to permit the inspection of the size of the rivets, pitch of the rivets, and other data necessary to determine the safety of the boiler if such information cannot be determined by other means.

(18)  No person shall remove or tamper with any safety appliances prescribed

by this article except for the purpose of making repairs.

(19)  All insurance companies insuring boilers operated in this state shall

notify the section within thirty days after any insurance policy insuring a boiler has been written, canceled, not renewed, or suspended because of unsafe conditions.

(20)  If upon an external inspection there is evidence of a leak or crack,

enough of the covering of the boiler shall be removed to permit a boiler inspector to determine the safety of the boiler; or, if the covering cannot be removed immediately, he may order the operation of the boiler stopped until such time as the covering can be removed and proper examination made.

Source: L. 71: R&RE, p. 276, � 1. C.R.S. 1963: � 17-3-12. L. 76: (8) amended, p.

364, � 5, effective July 1.


C.R.S. § 9-4-114

9-4-114. Existing power boiler installations. (1) The maximum allowable working pressure of standard boilers shall be determined by the applicable sections of the codes under which they were constructed and stamped. The maximum allowable working pressure on the shell of a nonstandard boiler or drum shell shall be determined by the strength of the weakest section of the structure computed in accordance with formulas provided by the national board of boiler and pressure vessel inspectors or any other nationally recognized engineering authority.

(2)  Each power boiler having not more than five hundred square feet of

water-heating surface shall have at least one approved safety valve. Each boiler having more than five hundred square feet of water-heating surface shall have two or more approved safety valves.

(3)  The safety valve capacity of each power boiler shall be that which will

discharge all the steam that can be generated by the boiler without allowing the pressure to rise more than six percent above the highest pressure any valve is set, and in no case to more than six percent above the maximum allowable working pressure.

(4)  Power boilers equipped with one safety valve shall have the safety valve

set at or below the maximum allowable working pressure. If additional valves are used, the highest pressure setting on additional valves shall not exceed the maximum allowable working pressure by more than three percent.

(5)  When two or more power boilers operating at different pressures and

safety valve settings are interconnected, the lower pressure boilers or interconnected piping shall be equipped with safety valves of sufficient capacity to prevent overpressure, considering the generating capacity of the boiler with the lowest allowable pressure.

(6)  All power boilers shall have a water-feed supply which will permit the

boilers being fed at any time while under pressure.

(7)  Power boilers that are fired with solid fuel not in suspension and having

more than five hundred square feet of water-heating surface shall have at least two means of feeding water. Each source of feeding shall be capable of supplying water to the boiler at a pressure of six percent higher than the highest setting of any safety valve on the boiler, and one such source of feeding shall be steam-operated.

(8)  Power boilers fired by gaseous, liquid, or solid fuel in suspension and

having less than five hundred square feet of water-heating surface may be equipped with a single source of feeding water if:

(a)  Means are provided for immediate shutoff of heat release;


(b)  The boiler furnace and fuel system do not retain sufficient stored heat to

cause damage to the boiler if the water-feed supply is interrupted.

(9)  Power boilers that have a water-heating surface of not more than one

hundred square feet shall not have water-feed piping and connection to the boiler smaller than one-half inch pipe size. For boilers having a water-heating surface of more than one hundred square feet, the water-feed piping and connection to the boiler shall not be less than three-fourths inch pipe size. The feed water shall be introduced into a boiler in such a manner that the water will not be discharged directly against surface-exposed gases of high temperature or to direct radiation from the fire or near any riveted joints of the furnace sheets or shell. The water-feed pipe shall be provided with a check valve near the boiler and a valve or cock between the check valve and the boiler. When two or more boilers are fed from a common source, there shall be a regulating valve on the branch to each boiler between the check valve and the source of supply. In all cases where returns are fed back to the boiler by gravity, a check valve and stop valve shall be on each return line, the stop valve placed between the boiler and the check valve, and both shall be located as close to the boiler as practicable.

(10)  Fire-actuated plugs, if used, shall conform to the requirements of the

A.S.M.E. boiler and pressure vessel code for power boilers.

(11)  No outlet connections, except for damper regulator, feed-water

regulator, low-water fuel cutout, drains, or steam gauges, shall be placed on the piping that connects the water column or gauge glass to the boiler. The water column shall be provided with a drain valve of at least three-fourths of an inch pipe size.

(12)  Each power boiler, except forced flow steam generators designed to

operate without a fixed water level, shall have at least one water-gauge glass; except that boilers operated at pressures over four hundred PSI shall be provided with two water-gauge glasses which may be connected to a single water column or connected directly to the drum, in which case they shall conform to A.S.M.E. requirements. The gauge-glass connections and pipe connections shall not be less than one-half inch pipe size. Each water-gauge glass will be fitted with a drain cock or valve. When the boiler operating pressure exceeds one hundred PSI, the glass will be fitted with a globe or gate-valved drain.

(13)  The lowest visible part of the water-gauge glass shall be at least two

inches above the lowest permissible water level, which level shall be that at which there will be no danger of overheating any part of the boiler when in operation at that level. This subsection (13) does not apply to forced flow steam generators which are designed to operate without a fixed water level.

(14)  Each power boiler shall have a steam gauge, with dial range not less

than one and one-half times the maximum allowable working pressure, connected to the steam space or to the steam connection to the water column. The steam gauge shall be connected to a siphon or equivalent device of sufficient capacity to keep the gauge tube filled with water and so arranged that the gauge cannot be shut off from the boiler except by a cock placed near the gauge and provided with a tee or lever handle arranged to be parallel to the pipe in which it is located when the cock is open.

(15)  Each power boiler shall be provided with a one-fourth inch nipple and

globe valve connected to a steam space for the exclusive purpose of attaching a test gauge when the boiler is in service so the accuracy of the gauge may be ascertained.

(16)  Steam-gauge connections shall be suitable for the maximum allowable

working pressure and steam temperature; if the temperature exceeds four hundred degrees Fahrenheit, brass or copper pipe or tubing shall not be used.

(17)  When a steam-gauge connection longer than eight feet becomes

necessary, a shutoff valve may be used near the boiler if the valve is of the outside-screw-and-yoke type and is locked open when the boiler is in operation. The line shall be of ample size with provisions for free blowing.

(18)  Each steam-discharge outlet, except a safety valve, shall be fitted with a

stop valve located as close as practicable to the boiler. When such outlets are over two-inch pipe size, the valve used on the connection shall be the outside-screw-and-yoke rising spindle type to indicate, at a distance, the position of its spindle, whether it is closed or open. The wheel may be carried either on the yoke or attached to the spindle.

(19)  When power boilers provided with manholes are connected to a common

steam main, the steam connection from each boiler shall be fitted with two stop valves having ample free-blow drain between them. The discharge of this drain shall be visible to the operator while manipulating the valves and shall be piped clear of the boiler setting. The stop valve shall consist preferably of one automatic nonreturn valve set next to the boiler and a second valve of the outside-screw-and-yoke type; or two valves of the outside-screw-and-yoke type may be used.

(20)  Each power boiler shall have a blow-off pipe fitted with a valve or cock.

All fittings and pipe shall conform to the applicable section of the A.S.M.E. boiler and pressure vessel code.

(21)  Provisions shall be made for the expansion and contraction of steam

mains connected to power boilers by providing substantial anchorage at suitable points so undue strain shall not be transmitted to the boiler. Steam reservoirs shall be used on steam mains when heavy pulsations of the steam currents cause vibration of the boiler shell plates.

(22)  All power boilers heated with gas, oil, or mechanical firing, except

stoker- or hand-fired coal-burning units which are constantly attended, shall be provided with an automatic low-water fuel cutout and with an automatic fuel-regulating control, controlled by boiler pressure.

(23)  All cases not specifically covered by this article shall be treated as new

installations or may be referred to the director for instructions concerning the requirements.

Source: L. 71: R&RE, p. 278, � 1. C.R.S. 1963: � 17-3-14.

C.R.S. § 9-4-116

9-4-116. Existing miniature boiler installations. (1) Miniature boilers shall be installed in accordance with the provisions in section 9-4-113 unless a special exemption is stated in this article or otherwise provided by the director.

(2)  The maximum allowable working pressure on the shell or drum of a

miniature boiler shall be determined by the provisions of section 9-4-114 (1).

(3)  The factor of safety and the construction of miniature boilers, except

where otherwise specified, shall conform to that required for power boilers.

(4)  Each miniature boiler shall be equipped with a spring-load, pop-type

safety valve not less than one-half inch pipe size connected directly to the boiler.

(5)  The safety valve shall have sufficient capacity to discharge all the steam

that can be generated by the boiler without allowing the pressure to rise more than six percent above the maximum allowable working pressure.

(6)  In cases where the miniature boiler is supplied with feed water directly

from a pressure main or system without the use of a mechanical feeding device, the safety valve shall be set to release at a pressure not in excess of ninety-four percent of the lowest pressure obtained in the supply main or system feeding the boiler. Return traps shall not be considered mechanical feeding devices.

(7)  Each miniature boiler designed for operation with a definite water level

shall be equipped with a glass water-gauge for determining the water level.

(8)  Miniature boilers operated in a closed system where there is insufficient

space for the usual glass water-gauge may use water-level indicators of the glass bull's-eye type.

(9)  Every miniature boiler shall be provided with at least one water-feed

pump or other water-feeding device, except where it is connected to a water main carrying sufficient pressure to feed the boiler or where it is operated with no extraction of steam, such system being commonly known as a closed system.

(10)  The water-feed pipe shall be provided with a check valve and a stop

valve no less in size than that of the pipe.

(11)  Feed water shall not be introduced through the water column or gauge-glass connection while the boiler is under pressure.


(12)  Pressure of a feed water system greater than the maximum allowable

working pressure of the boiler shall be fitted with a pressure-reducing valve before feed water is introduced into the boiler.

(13)  Each miniature boiler shall be provided with a blow-off connection, not

less than one-half inch iron pipe size, connected directly to the lowest water space.

(14)  Blow-off piping shall not be galvanized and shall be provided with a

valve or cock.

(15)  Each miniature boiler shall be equipped with a steam-gauge having its

dial graduated to not less than one and one-half times the maximum allowable working pressure. The gauge shall be connected to the steam space or to a steam connection to the water column. The gauge or connection shall contain a siphon or equivalent device which will develop and maintain a water seal that will prevent steam from entering the gauge tube. The minimum size of a siphon, if used, shall be one-fourth inch inside diameter.

(16)  The steam piping from a miniature boiler shall be provided with a stop

valve located as close to the boiler shell or drum as is practicable, except where the boiler and steam receiver are operated as a closed system.

(17)  For miniature boiler installations which are gas-fired, the burners shall

conform to the requirements of the American gas association and the A.S.M.E. boiler and pressure vessel code.

(18)  The heating element for electrically heated steam boilers, closed

system, shall be so constructed that the temperature will not exceed one thousand two hundred degrees Fahrenheit.

(19)  All miniature boilers heated with gas, oil, or electrical energy shall be

provided with an automatic low-water fuel cutout and with an automatic fuel-regulating control, controlled by boiler pressure.

(20)  All cases not specifically covered by this article shall be treated as new

installations or may be referred to the director for instructions concerning the requirement.

Source: L. 71: R&RE, p. 281, � 1. C.R.S. 1963: � 17-3-16.

C.R.S. § 9-4-117

9-4-117. New heating boilers and hot-water supply boilers installations. No heating boiler or hot-water supply boiler, except those exempt by this article, shall be installed in this state unless it has been constructed, inspected, and stamped in conformity with the rules for construction of low-pressure heating boilers of the A.S.M.E. boiler and pressure vessel code and is approved, registered, and inspected in accordance with the requirements of this article.

Source: L. 71: R&RE, p. 282, � 1. C.R.S. 1963: � 17-3-17.

C.R.S. § 9-4-118

9-4-118. Existing heating boilers and hot-water supply boilers installations. (1) The maximum allowable working pressure of a boiler built in accordance with the A.S.M.E. boiler and pressure vessel code shall in no case exceed the pressure indicated by the manufacturer's identification stamped or cast on the boiler or a plate secured to it.

(2)  The maximum allowable working pressure on the shell of a nonstandard,

riveted heating boiler shall be determined in accordance with section 9-4-114 (1) covering existing power boiler installations. In no case shall the maximum allowable working pressure of a steam-heating boiler exceed fifteen pounds per square inch gauge, or a hot-water boiler exceed one hundred sixty pounds per square inch gauge, at a temperature not exceeding two hundred fifty degrees Fahrenheit.

(3)  The maximum allowable working pressure of a nonstandard steel or

wrought-iron heating boiler of welded construction shall not exceed fifteen pounds per square inch gauge. For other than steam service, the maximum allowable working pressure shall be calculated in accordance with the rules for construction of low-pressure heating boilers of the A.S.M.E. boiler and pressure vessel code.

(4)  The maximum allowable working pressure of a nonstandard boiler

composed principally of cast iron shall not exceed fifteen pounds per square inch gauge for steam service or thirty pounds per square inch gauge for hot-water service.

(5)  The maximum allowable working pressure of a nonstandard boiler having

cast-iron shell or heads and steel wrought-iron tubes shall not exceed fifteen pounds per square inch gauge for steam service or thirty pounds per square inch gauge for water service.

(6)  A radiator in which steam pressure is generated at a pressure of fifteen

pounds per square inch gauge or less is a low-pressure boiler.

(7)  Each steam-heating boiler shall have one or more officially rated valves

of the spring pop-type adjusted to discharge at a pressure not to exceed fifteen PSI. The safety valves shall be arranged so that they cannot be reset to relieve at a higher pressure than the maximum allowable working pressure of the boiler.

(8)  No safety valve for a steam-heating boiler shall be smaller than three-fourths of an inch except in case the boiler and radiating surfaces are a self-contained unit.


(9)  The safety valve capacity for each steam-heating boiler shall be such

that with the fuel-burning equipment installed the pressure cannot rise more than five pounds above the maximum allowable working pressure.

(10)  Each hot-water boiler shall have not less than one officially rated

pressure relief valve set to relieve at or below the maximum allowable working pressure of the boiler. Each hot-water supply boiler shall have not less than one officially rated relief valve or not less than one officially rated pressure-temperature relief valve of the automatic-reseating type set to relieve at or below the maximum allowable working pressure of the boiler. Relief valves shall be so constructed that they cannot be reset to relieve at a higher pressure than the maximum permitted pressure.

(11)  Seats and discs of safety relief valves shall be of material suitable to

resist corrosion. No materials subject to deterioration or vulcanization when subjected to saturated steam temperature corresponding to capacity test pressure shall be used in any safety relief valve.

(12)  No safety relief valve shall be smaller than three-fourths of an inch nor

larger than four and one-half inches pipe size.

(13)  When the size of the boiler requires a safety relief valve larger than four

and one-half inches in diameter, two or more valves having the required combined capacity shall be used.

(14)  Each steam-heating boiler shall have a steam gauge connected to its

steam space, or to its water column, or to its steam connection. The gauge or connection shall have a siphon or equivalent device which will develop and maintain a water seal that will prevent steam from entering the gauge tube. The connection shall be so arranged that the gauge cannot be shut off from the boiler except by a cock placed in the pipe at the gauge and provided with a tee or lever handle arranged to be parallel to the pipe in which it is located when the cock is open.

(15)  Each hot-water heating boiler or hot-water supply boiler shall have a

pressure or altitude gauge connected to it or to its flow connection in such a manner that it cannot be shut off from the boiler except by a cock with tee or lever handle placed on the pipe near the gauge. The handle of the cock, when the cock is open, shall be parallel to the pipe in which it is located.

(16)  The scale on the dial of the pressure or altitude gauge for a hot-water

heating boiler shall be graduated to not less than one and one-half nor more than three times the maximum allowable working pressure.

(17)  The scale on the dial of a steam-heating boiler gauge shall be graduated

to not less than thirty PSIG nor more than sixty PSIG, and travel of the pointer from zero to thirty PSIG pressure shall be at least three inches.

(18)  In addition to the mandatory requirements for a pressure relief device,

each hot-water heating or hot-water supply boiler shall be fitted with a temperature-actuated control, which will control the rate of combustion to prevent the temperature of the water from rising above two hundred fifty degrees Fahrenheit at or near the boiler outlet. The control shall be constructed so that it cannot be set or reset to permit operation of the firing equipment when the temperature of the water is higher than two hundred degrees Fahrenheit.

(19)  When a pressure-actuated control is used on a steam-heating boiler, it

shall operate to prevent the steam pressure from rising above fifteen PSIG.

(20)  Each automatically fired steam or vapor-system heating boiler shall be

equipped with an automatic low-water fuel cutoff, so located as to automatically cut off fuel supply when the surface of the water falls to the lowest safe water line.

(21)  Each steam-heating boiler shall have one or more water-gauge glasses

attached to the water column or boiler by means of valved fittings with the lower fitting provided with a drain valve of the straightway type with opening not less than one-fourth inch diameter to facilitate cleaning. Gauge-glass replacement shall be possible under pressure.

(22)  If, in the judgment of an inspector, a steam-heating or hot-water supply

boiler is unsafe for operation at the pressure previously approved, the pressure shall be reduced, proper repair made, or the boiler retired from service.

Source: L. 71: R&RE, p. 283, � 1. C.R.S. 1963: � 17-3-18.

ARTICLE 5

Standards for Accessible Housing

Editor's note: This article was amended with relocations in 2003, resulting in

the addition, relocation, and elimination of sections as well as subject matter. For amendments to this article prior to 2003, consult the Colorado statutory research explanatory note and the table itemizing the replacement volumes and supplements to the original volume of C.R.S. 1973 beginning on page vii in the front of this volume. Former C.R.S. section numbers are shown in editor's notes following those sections that were relocated.


C.R.S. § 9-5-106

9-5-106. Implementation plan. The builder of any project regulated by this article shall create an implementation plan that guarantees the timely and evenly phased delivery of the required number of accessible units. Such plan shall clearly specify the number and type of units required and the order in which they are to be completed. Such implementation plan shall be subject to approval by the entity with enforcement authority in such project's jurisdiction. The implementation plan shall not be approved if more than thirty percent of the project is intended to be completed without providing a portion of accessible units required by section 9-5-105; except that, if an undue hardship can be demonstrated, or other guarantees provided are deemed sufficient, the jurisdiction having responsibility for enforcement may grant exceptions to this requirement. The implementation plan shall be approved by the governmental unit responsible for enforcement before a building permit is issued.

Source: L. 2003: Entire article amended with relocations, p. 1421, � 1,

effective April 29.

ARTICLE 5.5

Elevator and Escalator

Certification

9-5.5-101.  Short title. This article shall be known and may be cited as the

Elevator and Escalator Certification Act.

Source: L. 2007: Entire article added, p. 1412, � 1, effective January 1, 2008.


9-5.5-102.  Legislative declaration. The general assembly hereby declares

that in order to ensure minimum safety standards throughout Colorado, the regulation of conveyances is a matter of statewide concern. Nothing in this article shall be construed to prevent a local jurisdiction from regulating conveyances.

Source: L. 2007: Entire article added, p. 1412, � 1, effective January 1, 2008.


9-5.5-103.  Definitions. As used in this article 5.5, unless the context

otherwise requires:

(1)  Accredited national conveyance association means a conveyance

association that is accredited to certify conveyance inspectors by a nationally recognized standards association, including, without limitation, ASME or ASCE.

(2)  Administrator means the director of the division of oil and public safety

within the department of labor and employment or the director's designee.

(3)  Approved local jurisdiction means a local jurisdiction that has been

approved by the administrator pursuant to section 9-5.5-112.

(4)  ASCE means the American society of civil engineers or its successor.


(5)  ASCE 21 means the American society of civil engineers automated

people mover standards published as ASCE standard number ASCE 21-96 as amended by ASCE.

(6)  ASME means the American society of mechanical engineers or its

successor.

(7)  ASME A17.1 means the safety code for elevators and escalators

published as A17.1 - 2000 Safety Code for Elevators and Escalators as amended by ASME international.

(8)  ASME A17.3 means the safety code for elevators and escalators

published as A17.3 - 2002 Safety Code for Existing Elevators and Escalators as amended by ASME international.

(9)  ASME A18.1 means the safety code for elevators and escalators

published as A18.1 - 2003 Safety Standard for Platform Lifts and Stairway Chairlifts as amended by ASME international.

(10)  Certificate of operation means a document issued by the administrator

or an approved local jurisdiction for a conveyance indicating that the conveyance has been inspected by the administrator, an approved local jurisdiction, or a licensed third-party conveyance inspector and approved under this article.

(11)  Conveyance means a mechanical device to which this article applies

pursuant to section 9-5.5-104.

(12)  Conveyance contractor means a person who engages in the business

of erecting, constructing, installing, altering, servicing, repairing, or maintaining conveyances.

(13)  Conveyance helper or apprentice means a person who works under the

general direction of a certified conveyance mechanic.

(14)  Conveyance mechanic means a person who erects, constructs, installs,

alters, services, repairs, or maintains conveyances.

(15)  Dormant conveyance means a conveyance that has been temporarily

placed out of service.

(15.5)  Fund means the conveyance safety fund created in section 9-5.5-111

(2)(b).

(16)  Licensee means a person who is licensed as a conveyance contractor,

conveyance mechanic, or conveyance inspector pursuant to this article.

(17)  Local jurisdiction means a city, county, or city and county or any agent

thereof.

(18)  Private residence means a separate dwelling, or a separate apartment

in a multiple-apartment dwelling, that is occupied by members of a single-family unit.

(18.5)  Private residence conveyance means a powered passenger

conveyance that is limited in size, capacity, rise, and speed and is designed to be installed in a private residence or in a multiple-family dwelling as a means of access to a private residence.

(19)  Single-family residence means a private residence that is a separate

building or an individual residence that is part of a row of residences joined by common sidewalls.

(20)  Third-party conveyance inspector means a disinterested conveyance

inspector who is retained to inspect a conveyance but is not employed by or affiliated with the owner of the conveyance nor the conveyance mechanic whose repair, alteration, or installation is being inspected.

Source: L. 2007: Entire article added, p. 1412, � 1, effective January 1, 2008. L.

2010: (10) amended and (18.5) added, (HB 10-1231), ch. 75, p. 254, � 1, effective August 11. L. 2025: IP amended and (15.5) added, (SB 25-275), ch. 377, p. 2035, � 34, effective August 6.

9-5.5-104.  Scope. (1)  Except as provided in subsection (2) of this section,

this article applies to the design, construction, operation, inspection, testing, maintenance, alteration, and repair of the following equipment:

(a)  Hoisting and lowering mechanisms equipped with a car or platform that

moves between two or more landings. Such equipment includes elevators and platform lifts, personnel hoists, and dumbwaiters.

(b)  Power-driven stairways and walkways for carrying persons between

landings. Such equipment includes, but is not limited to, escalators and moving walks.

(c)  Automated people movers as defined in ASCE 21.


(2)  This article 5.5 does not apply to the following:


(a)  Material hoists;


(b)  Manlifts;


(c)  Mobile scaffolds, towers, and platforms;


(d)  Powered platforms and equipment for exterior and interior maintenance;


(e)  Conveyors and related equipment;


(f)  Cranes, derricks, hoists, hooks, jacks, and slings;


(g)  Industrial trucks within the scope of ASME publication B56;


(h)  Items of portable equipment that are not portable escalators;


(i)  Tiering or piling machines used to move materials between storage

locations that operate entirely within one story;

(j)  Equipment for feeding or positioning materials at machine tools, printing

presses, and other similar equipment;

(k)  Skip or furnace hoists;


(l)  Wharf ramps;


(m)  Railroad car lifts or dumpers;


(n)  Line jacks, false cars, shafters, moving platforms, and similar equipment

used by a certified conveyance contractor for installing a conveyance;

(o)  Conveyances at facilities regulated by the mine safety and health

administration in the United States department of labor, or its successor, pursuant to the Federal Mine Safety and Health Act of 1977, Pub.L. 91-173, codified at 30 U.S.C. sec. 801 et seq., as amended;

(p)  Elevators within the facilities of gas or electric utilities that are not

accessible to the public;

(q)  A passenger tramway as defined in section 12-150-103 (5);


(r)  Conveyances in a single-family residence; or


(s)  Stairway chair lifts as defined in ASME A18.1 - 2005.


(3)  This article shall not be construed to prohibit a local jurisdiction from

regulating conveyances if the local jurisdiction has standards that meet or exceed the standards established by this article.

Source: L. 2007: Entire article added, p. 1414, � 1, effective January 1, 2008. L.

2010: IP(1), (1)(a), IP(2), (2)(q), and (2)(r) amended and (2)(s) added, (HB 10-1231), ch. 75, pp. 254, 255, �� 2, 3, effective August 11. L. 2019: IP(2) and (2)(q) amended, (HB 19-1172), ch. 136, p. 1650, � 28, effective October 1.

9-5.5-105.  Similar or higher standards authorized. This article shall not be

construed to prevent the use of systems, methods, or devices of equivalent or superior quality, strength, fire resistance, code effectiveness, durability, and safety to those required by this article if technical documentation demonstrates such equivalency or superiority.

Source: L. 2007: Entire article added, p. 1415, � 1, effective January 1, 2008.


9-5.5-106.  License required. (1) (a)  A person shall not erect, construct, alter,

replace, maintain, remove, or dismantle a conveyance within a building or structure unless the person is licensed as a conveyance mechanic and is working under the supervision of a certified conveyance contractor. A person shall not wire a conveyance unless the person is licensed as a conveyance mechanic and is working under the supervision of a certified conveyance contractor. No other license shall be required for work described in this paragraph (a).

(b)  A person shall not be required to be a certified conveyance contractor or

licensed conveyance mechanic to remove or dismantle conveyances that are destroyed as a result of a complete demolition of a secured building or structure or where the hoistway or wellway is demolished back to the basic support structure and no access that endangers the safety of a person is permitted.

(c)  A conveyance helper or apprentice shall not be required to be licensed

when working under the supervision of a licensed conveyance mechanic.

(2)  A person shall not inspect a conveyance within a building or structure,

including but not limited to a private residence, for purposes of the issuance of a certificate of operation unless licensed as a conveyance inspector.

Source: L. 2007: Entire article added, p. 1415, � 1, effective January 1, 2008.


9-5.5-107.  License qualifications - contractor - mechanic - inspector. (1) (a)

To be licensed, a person shall apply solely with the administrator. An applicant shall not be licensed as a conveyance mechanic unless the applicant possesses a certificate of completion of a conveyance mechanic program as approved by the administrator.

(b)  In lieu of qualifying pursuant to paragraph (a) of this subsection (1), an

applicant shall qualify if the applicant holds a valid license from another state having standards that, at a minimum, are substantially similar to those imposed by this article as determined by the administrator.

(c)  In lieu of qualifying pursuant to paragraph (a) of this subsection (1), an

applicant shall qualify if the applicant:

(I)  Has passed an examination, as determined by the administrator, on the

codes and standards that apply to conveyances; and

(II)  Furnishes to the administrator acceptable evidence that the applicant

worked as a conveyance mechanic for at least three years without direct supervision.

(d)  Repealed.


(2) (a)  An applicant shall not be licensed as a conveyance inspector unless

the applicant is certified to inspect conveyances by a nationally recognized conveyance association.

(b)  Repealed.


(c)  In lieu of qualifying pursuant to paragraph (a) of this subsection (2), an

applicant appointed or designated as a conveyance inspector shall qualify if the applicant is eligible to, and intends to, become nationally certified within one year. A license issued pursuant to this section shall expire upon the termination of employment with the local jurisdiction or after one year from the date of licensure, whichever occurs first. A license issued pursuant to this paragraph (c) shall not be eligible for renewal unless the applicant has obtained national certification.

(3) (a)  A person who is not qualified to be a conveyance contractor shall not

be certified as a conveyance contractor.

(b)  To qualify to be a certified conveyance contractor, an applicant shall

demonstrate the following qualifications:

(I)  The applicant shall employ at least one licensed conveyance mechanic;

and

(II)  The applicant shall comply with the insurance requirements in section 9-5.5-115.


(c)  Repealed.


Source: L. 2007: Entire article added, p. 1416, � 1, effective January 1, 2008. L.

2008: (2)(c) added, p. 1996, � 1, effective July 1. L. 2010: (3)(c) repealed, (HB 10-1231), ch. 75, p. 255, � 4, effective August 11.

Editor's note: (1)  Subsection (1)(d)(II) provided for the repeal of subsection

(1)(d), effective July 1, 2008. (See L. 2007, p. 1416.)

(2)  Subsection (2)(b)(II) provided for the repeal of subsection (2)(b), effective

July 1, 2011. (See L. 2007, p. 1416.)

9-5.5-108.  License - rules - issuance - renewal - fee. (1) (a)  Upon the

administrator's approval of an application, the administrator shall license the conveyance contractor, conveyance mechanic, or conveyance inspector.

(b)  The administrator shall promulgate rules requiring a conveyance

mechanic to obtain at least eight hours of continuing education every two years.

(2) (a)  When an emergency exists in this state due to a disaster, act of God,

or work stoppage and the number of certified conveyance mechanics in the state is insufficient to deal with the emergency, a certified conveyance contractor may respond as necessary to assure the safety of the public. A person who, in the judgment of a certified conveyance contractor, has an acceptable combination of documented experience and education to perform conveyance work without direct supervision shall seek an emergency conveyance mechanic certification from the administrator within five business days after commencing work for which certification as a conveyance mechanic is required.

(b)  The administrator shall issue emergency conveyance mechanic

certifications pursuant to paragraph (a) of this subsection (2). The certified conveyance contractor recommending a person for an emergency conveyance mechanic certification shall furnish such proof of the person's competency as the administrator may require.

(c)  Each emergency conveyance mechanic certification shall be, and shall

state that it is, valid for sixty days after the date of issuance and for such particular conveyances or geographical areas as the administrator may designate. Such certification shall entitle the holder to the rights of a certified conveyance mechanic. The administrator shall renew an emergency conveyance mechanic certification during the existence of an emergency. No fee shall be charged for the issuance or renewal of an emergency conveyance mechanic certification.

(3) (a)  A certified conveyance contractor shall notify the administrator when

there are no certified conveyance mechanics available to perform conveyance work. The certified conveyance contractor may request that the administrator issue a temporary conveyance mechanic certification to a person who, in the judgment of the certified conveyance contractor, has an acceptable combination of documented experience and education to perform conveyance work without direct supervision. Any such person shall immediately seek a temporary conveyance mechanic certification from the administrator and shall pay such fee as the administrator shall determine.

(b)  Each such certification shall be, and shall state that it is, valid for thirty

days after the date of issuance and while employed by the certified conveyance contractor who certified the individual as qualified. The certification shall be renewable as long as there is a shortage of licensed conveyance mechanics.

(4)  Except for certified inspectors who qualified during the immediately

preceding twelve months, the administrator shall not renew a certification issued under this section unless the person meets the qualifications for certification under section 9-5.5-107.

(5)  The administrator shall establish and collect annual fees for licenses

issued pursuant to this section. The fees shall be in an amount to offset the direct and indirect costs of administering this article.

Source: L. 2007: Entire article added, p. 1417, � 1, effective January 1, 2008.


9-5.5-109.  License discipline. (1)  A certification issued pursuant to this

article may be suspended or revoked upon a finding by the administrator of any of the following:

(a)  A false statement in the application concerning a material matter;


(b)  Fraud, misrepresentation, or bribery in applying for certification;


(c)  Failure to notify the owner or lessee of a conveyance and the

administrator or approved local jurisdiction, if any, of a condition not in compliance with this article; or

(d)  A violation of any provision of this article or of any rule adopted pursuant

to this article.

(2)  The suspension or revocation of a license shall be made as a result of a

notice of violation in accordance with section 8-20-104, C.R.S.

(3)  The administrator shall not issue a license to a person whose license has

been revoked within the last two years.

Source: L. 2007: Entire article added, p. 1418, � 1, effective January 1, 2008. L.

2010: (1)(c) amended, (HB 10-1231), ch. 75, p. 255, � 5, effective August 11.

9-5.5-110.  Accident reports. The owner shall report to the administrator or

an approved local jurisdiction, within twenty-four hours, any accident that results in serious injury to an individual.

Source: L. 2007: Entire article added, p. 1419, � 1, effective January 1, 2008.


9-5.5-111.  Registration of existing conveyances - conveyance safety fund -

created. (1) On or before August 1, 2008, the owner or lessee of every existing conveyance shall register the conveyance with the administrator. The registration shall include the type, rated load and speed, name of manufacturer, location, intended purpose for use, and such additional information as the administrator may require. Conveyances constructed or completed after July 1, 2008, shall be registered before they are placed in service.

(2) (a)  The administrator shall set annual fees on conveyances for which the

administrator has issued the current certificate of operation in an amount necessary to offset the costs of registration and of the administration of this article in accordance with section 24-4-104, C.R.S.

(b)  Fees collected pursuant to this article 5.5 shall be transmitted to the

state treasurer, who shall credit the same to the conveyance safety fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury. Moneys in the fund shall be subject to annual appropriation by the general assembly and shall be used to implement this article 5.5. The moneys in the fund and interest earned on the moneys in the fund shall not revert to the general fund or be transferred to any other fund.

(3)  Repealed.


Source: L. 2007: Entire article added, p. 1419, � 1, effective January 1, 2008. L.

2015: (2)(b) amended, (HB 15-1261), ch. 322, p. 1313, � 4, effective June 5. L. 2020: (3) added, (HB 20-1406), ch. 178, p. 811, � 4, effective June 29. L. 2021: (3) repealed, (SB 21-266), ch. 423, p. 2795, � 6, effective July 2. L. 2025: (2)(b) amended, (SB 25-275), ch. 377, p. 2035, � 35, effective August 6.

9-5.5-112.  Compliance - rules. (1)  The administrator shall promulgate rules

for the construction, alteration, repair, service, and maintenance of conveyances. Except as provided in subsection (3) of this section, such rules shall conform to the following standards:

(a)  ASCE 21;


(b)  ASME A17.1;


(c)  ASME A17.3; and


(d)  ASME A18.1.


(2) (a)  The administrator shall determine whether a local jurisdiction's

standards are equal to or greater than those of this article. If so, then the administrator shall enter into a memorandum of agreement with the local jurisdiction that approves the jurisdiction's authority to regulate conveyances.

(b)  The administrator may establish a schedule for a local jurisdiction to

adopt updated standards, equaling or exceeding the standards imposed under subsection (1) of this section, which shall be adopted within a reasonable amount of time as needed for a local jurisdiction to update its standards.

(3) (a) (I)  Except as provided in subparagraph (II) of this paragraph (a), the

administrator shall promulgate rules exempting a conveyance installed before July 1, 2008, from compliance with ASME A17.3 until approval is required by section 9-5.5-113 for substantial alteration or remodeling of the conveyance.

(II)  The administrator shall, in cooperation with local jurisdictions,

promulgate rules that authorize the administrator or a local jurisdiction to require an elevator to comply with any portion of ASME A17.3 necessary to protect against a material risk to the public safety.

(b)  In promulgating the rules required by subsection (1) of this section, the

administrator may adopt changes to the standards listed in subsection (1) of this section that the administrator deems to be in the public interest, including, without limitation, adopting modifications to, changing the applicability of, exempting conveyances from, changing inspector witnessing requirements of, and defining events that trigger the applicability of all or a portion of the standards.

Source: L. 2007: Entire article added, p. 1419, � 1, effective January 1, 2008. L.

2008: Entire section amended, p. 1996, � 2, effective July 1.

9-5.5-113.  Conveyance - installation and repair - notice of construction and

initial inspection. (1) The owner or lessee of a conveyance shall not erect, construct, install, or alter a conveyance within a building or structure unless it conforms to the rules adopted by the administrator under this article and the work is performed by a certified conveyance contractor.

(2)  The owner or lessee of a conveyance shall not erect, construct, or install

a conveyance within a building or structure unless a notice, including the construction plans, has been sent to the administrator or approved local jurisdiction at least thirty days prior to construction and the administrator or approved local jurisdiction has approved the construction.

(3)  The owner or lessee of the property where a new or altered conveyance is

located shall not operate or permit it to be operated unless:

(a)  The conveyance has passed an initial inspection conducted by the

administrator, approved local jurisdiction, or third-party inspector;

(b)  The person conducting the inspection determines that the conveyance is

safe and complies with the rules adopted by the administrator or approved local jurisdiction; and

(c)  The administrator or approved local jurisdiction has issued a certificate of

operation for the conveyance.

Source: L. 2007: Entire article added, p. 1419, � 1, effective January 1, 2008. L.

2010: Entire section amended, (HB 10-1231), ch. 75, p. 255, � 6, effective August 11.

9-5.5-114.  Periodic inspections and registrations - rules. (1) (a)  The

administrator shall promulgate rules requiring the owner or lessee of a conveyance to periodically certify that the administrator, an approved local jurisdiction, or a licensed third-party conveyance inspector has determined that the conveyance is safe and complies with the rules adopted by the administrator or approved local jurisdiction. Upon such certification, the administrator or approved local jurisdiction shall issue a certificate of operation for the conveyance.

(b) and (c)  (Deleted by amendment, L. 2010, (HB 10-1231), ch. 75, p. 256, � 7,

effective August 11, 2010.)

(2)  Upon request, the administrator shall provide notice to the owner of a

private residence where a conveyance is located with relevant information about conveyance safety requirements. The penalty provisions of this article shall not apply to private residence owners.

(3)  The administrator shall promulgate rules requiring the owner of the

conveyance to have it periodically inspected by a third-party conveyance inspector and the periodic expiration of certificates of operation.

(4)  The administrator shall promulgate rules allowing the continued

operation of a private residence conveyance that was installed prior to January 1, 2008, in a building that is not a single-family residence.

(5)  The owner or lessee of a conveyance shall not permit the conveyance to

be operated unless the owner or lessee obtains a certificate of operation from the administrator or approved local jurisdiction.

(6)  The owner or lessee shall pay a fee in an amount determined by the

administrator for a certificate of operation issued by the administrator. The administrator shall set the fee in accordance with section 24-4-103, C.R.S., to approximate the actual cost of issuing a certificate of operation.

Source: L. 2007: Entire article added, p. 1420, � 1, effective January 1, 2008.

L. 2010: (1) amended and (4), (5), and (6) added, (HB 10-1231), ch. 75, p. 256, � 7, effective August 11. L. 2013: (6) amended, (HB 13-1300), ch. 316, p. 1664, � 11, effective August 7.

9-5.5-115.  Insurance. (1)  Each conveyance contractor shall submit to the

administrator an insurance policy, certificate of insurance, or certified copy of either issued by an insurance company authorized to do business in Colorado. Such policy shall provide general liability coverage of at least one million dollars for injury or death in each occurrence and coverage for at least five hundred thousand dollars for property damage in each occurrence. In addition, a conveyance contractor shall submit evidence of the insurance coverage mandated by the Workers' Compensation Act of Colorado, articles 40 to 47 of title 8, C.R.S.

(2)  Certified conveyance inspectors shall submit to the administrator an

insurance policy, certificate of insurance, or certified copy of either issued by an insurance company authorized to do business in Colorado. Such policy shall provide general liability coverage of at least one million dollars for injury or death in each occurrence and coverage for at least five hundred thousand dollars for property damage in each occurrence.

(3)  The administrator shall not certify a conveyance contractor or

conveyance inspector unless the applicant has delivered the policy, certified copy, or certificate of insurance required by this section in a form approved by the administrator. A certified conveyance contractor or conveyance inspector shall notify the administrator at least ten days before a material alteration, amendment, or cancellation of a policy is made.

(4)  This section shall not apply to a local jurisdiction or the employee of a

local jurisdiction in the performance of the employee's official duties.

Source: L. 2007: Entire article added, p. 1420, � 1, effective January 1, 2008.

L. 2008: (1) and (2) amended and (4) added, p. 1997, � 3, effective July 1.

9-5.5-116.  Enforcement - rules. (1)  The administrator may adopt rules to

administer and enforce this article. The administrator may use certified conveyance inspectors for any investigation of an alleged violation of the rules or this article. The administrator may appoint an advisory board to assist in the formulation of rules authorized by this section.

(2)  A person may request an investigation into an alleged violation of the

rules or this article, or of a danger posed by any conveyance, by giving notice to the administrator of such violation or danger. Such notice shall be in writing, shall set forth with reasonable particularity the grounds for the notice, and shall be signed by the person making the request. Upon the request of a person signing the notice, such person's name shall not appear on any copy of such notice or any record published, released, or made available.

(3)  Upon receipt of such notification, if the administrator determines that

there are reasonable grounds to believe that such violation or danger exists, the administrator shall investigate in accordance with this article to determine if such violation or danger exists. If the administrator determines that there are no reasonable grounds to believe that a violation or danger exists, the administrator shall notify the party in writing of such determination.

Source: L. 2007: Entire article added, p. 1421, � 1, effective January 1, 2008.


9-5.5-117.  Liability. This article shall not be construed to relieve or lessen

the responsibility or liability of a person owning, operating, controlling, maintaining, erecting, constructing, installing, altering, inspecting, testing, or repairing a conveyance for damages to person or property caused by a defect, nor does the state of Colorado assume any such liability or responsibility by the adoption or enforcement of this article.

Source: L. 2007: Entire article added, p. 1421, � 1, effective January 1, 2008.


9-5.5-118.  Criminal penalties. A person who violates section 9-5.5-106 or 9-5.5-111 commits a petty offense and, upon conviction, shall be punished as provided

in section 18-1.3-503.

Source: L. 2007: Entire article added, p. 1421, � 1, effective January 1, 2008. L.

2021: Entire section amended, (SB 21-271), ch. 462, p. 3145, � 104, effective March 1, 2022.

9-5.5-119.  Dangerous conveyance - administrative orders. (1) (a)  If, upon

the inspection of a conveyance, the conveyance is found to be in a dangerous condition, an immediate hazard to those riding or using it, or designed or operated in an inherently dangerous manner, the certified conveyance inspector shall notify:

(I)  The owner;


(II)  The approved local jurisdiction; and


(III)  If the conveyance is not within an approved local jurisdiction, the

administrator.

(b)  Upon being notified pursuant to paragraph (a) of this subsection (1), the

administrator or approved local jurisdiction shall order such alterations or additions as may be deemed necessary to eliminate the danger.

(2) (a)  In lieu of repairing or altering a dangerous conveyance pursuant to

subsection (1) of this section, an owner or a lessee may have the conveyance made dormant. A dormant conveyance shall not be used until it is made safe in compliance with this article. In order to qualify under this subsection (2), the owner or lessee of a dormant conveyance shall:

(I)  Remove the fuses and lock the mainline disconnect switch in the off

position;

(II)  Park the car and close and latch the hoistway doors;


(III)  Have a certified conveyance inspector place a wire seal on the mainline

disconnect switch; and

(IV)  Prevent the conveyance from being used.


(b)  A conveyance shall not be made dormant for more than five years. Upon

making a conveyance dormant, a certified conveyance inspector shall report the fact to the administrator.

Source: L. 2007: Entire article added, p. 1422, � 1, effective January 1, 2008.


9-5.5-120.  Repeal of article. This article 5.5 is repealed, effective

September 1, 2031. Before the repeal, the functions of the administrator are scheduled for review in accordance with section 24-34-104.

Source: L. 2007: Entire article added, p. 1422, � 1, effective January 1, 2008.

L. 2015: Entire section amended, (HB 15-1353), ch. 318, p. 1298, � 1, effective August 5. L. 2022: Entire section amended, (HB 22-1212), ch. 253, p. 1846, � 2, effective May 26.

ARTICLE 5.7

Amenities for All Genders in Public Buildings

9-5.7-101.  Legislative declaration. (1)  The general assembly finds and

declares that:

(a)  It is a matter of statewide concern to promote the public welfare by

providing access to non-gendered restroom facilities that are convenient for people of all genders, including those outside the gender binary;

(b)  The lack of adequate restroom facilities leads to unsafe and inequitable

conditions for Colorado children, families, and communities. Experts from health providers to faith leaders, including the occupational safety and health administration, stress the need for single occupancy non-gendered restrooms and multiple-occupant or multiple-stalled non-gendered restrooms to be accessible for all employees and individuals. The lack of accessibility to restroom facilities that are consistent with an individual's gender identity singles out those individuals and can result in experiences of harassment and cause those individuals to avoid restrooms entirely, which can lead to potentially serious physical injury or illness. Access to non-gendered restrooms has far-reaching benefits for parents caring for a child, including parents with young children who need to access a baby diaper changing station and individuals with disabilities who have a caretaker of a different gender to assist them.

(c)  Men's restrooms and single-stall restrooms typically do not provide baby

diaper changing stations. This creates accessibility inequity for parents and care providers who do not identify as women or who may not be comfortable using women's restrooms and creates potential health and safety problems for babies. Without clean and safe baby diaper changing stations, these care providers may be forced to resort to unsafe and unsanitary locations, such as restroom floors, to change babies' diapers. Requiring equitable access to amenities in public restrooms would make it easier for parents and care providers of all genders to find a safe and suitable place to change babies' diapers. Providing safe, reliable, and clean baby diaper changing stations in all restroom facilities enables better caretaking for infants by all parents and care providers and safer conditions for infants.

(d)  Requiring all single-stall restrooms to be designated for use by any

gender reduces wait times and increases comfort and accessibility for care providers and people receiving care, individuals with diverse gender expressions, and LGBT individuals. For LGBT individuals or individuals with diverse gender expressions, using gendered facilities can pose health and safety issues stemming from experiences of harassment and physical threats in gendered facilities regardless of which gendered facility they use or their physical presentation. Due to these experiences and associated stigma, some people avoid using public restrooms whenever possible and may refrain from eating, drinking, or relieving themselves for extended periods of time in order to avoid gendered facilities. Delaying or avoiding using the restroom can have physical health implications.

(e)  The I.P.C. includes two amendments regarding non-gendered restrooms.

One amendment requires signage on single-stall restrooms to indicate that they are open to any user regardless of gender. The other amendment allows the creation of non-gendered multi-stall designs with shared sinks and each toilet in a private compartment.

(f)  The I.P.C. also requires that single-stall restrooms be identified for use by

all individuals regardless of sex and allows for multi-user facilities to serve all genders. The Colorado state architect adopts codes for construction at all state-owned buildings and facilities and has adopted the 2021 edition of the international building code.

Source: L. 2023: Entire article added, (HB 23-1057), ch. 254, p. 1438, � 1,

effective August 7. L. 2025: (1)(e) amended, (SB 25-275), ch. 377, p. 2036, � 36, effective August 6.

9-5.7-102.  Definitions. As used in this article 5.7, unless the context

otherwise requires:

(1)  Accessible to the public means any indoor or outdoor space or area that

is open to the public. This does not include private offices or workspaces that are generally not open to customers or public visitors.

(2)  Certified historic structure means a property located in Colorado that

has been certified by the state historical society or an entity other than the owner of the property that is authorized, pursuant to section 24-80.1-105 (1), to nominate properties to the state register of historic properties as a historic structure because it has been:

(a)  Listed individually on, or as a contributing property in a district included

within, the national register of historic places;

(b)  Listed individually on, or as a contributing property in a district that is

included within, the state register of historic properties pursuant to article 80.1 of title 24; or

(c)  Listed individually by, or as a contributing property within a designated

historic district of, a certified local government.

(3)  Gender-specific restroom means a restroom that is designated for use

by only one gender.

(3.4)  I.P.C. means the International Plumbing Code, 2021 edition.


(4)  LGBT individual means an individual who is a member of the lesbian,

gay, bisexual, transgender, and nonbinary community.

(5)  Non-gendered multi-stall restroom means a restroom with multiple

toilets that is available for use by people of any gender, including a restroom with shared sinks but each toilet is in a private compartment.

(6)  Non-gendered single-stall restroom means a restroom that is available

for use by people of any gender that is a fully enclosed room with a locking mechanism controlled by the user and contains a sink, toilet, and no more than one urinal.

(7)  Public entity means a state department or state agency, a state

institution of higher education, as defined in section 23-18-102 (10), a county, a city and county, or a municipality. For purposes of this article 5.7, a state agency does not include any building owned and operated as an education facility by the department of education or a school district, charter school, or institute charter school.

(8) (a)  Renovation of a restroom means construction to a restroom:


(I)  For which a permit is required other than for a repair; and


(II)  That includes changing the structure by:


(A)  Increasing the square footage;


(B)  Installing or modifying a plumbing or electric system;


(C)  Adding, gutting, or removing exterior restroom walls; or


(D)  Installing a heating, ventilation, or air conditioning system.


(b)  For purposes of this section, renovation does not include repairs to or

replacement of fixtures or features of the restroom in order to restore something that is damaged, deteriorated, or broken in a restroom to its original function that does not meet the criteria described in subsection (8)(a) of this section.

Source: L. 2023: Entire article added, (HB 23-1057), ch. 254, p. 1440, � 1,

effective August 7. L. 2024: (7) and (8) R&RE, (HB 24-1450), ch. 490, p. 3406, � 16, effective August 7. L. 2025: (3.4) added, (SB 25-275), ch. 377, p. 2036, � 37, effective August 6.

9-5.7-103.  Restrooms - baby diaper changing stations - applicability -

signage - enforcement. (1) On and after January 1, 2024, a building that is wholly or partially owned by a public entity that is:

(a)  Scheduled for renovation of a restroom must:


(I)  Provide a non-gendered single-stall restroom or a non-gendered multi-stall restroom where a restroom is accessible to the public;


(II)  Ensure that any single-stall restroom is not a gender-specific restroom;


(III)  Allow for the use of a multi-stall restroom by any gender if certain

facility features are met pursuant to the I.P.C. or any subsequent international plumbing code adopted as part of the Colorado plumbing code and the Colorado fuel gas code adopted by the state plumbing board pursuant to section 12-155-106;

(IV)  Provide any caregiver on the gender binary that is caring for an infant

access to at least one safe, sanitary, and convenient baby diaper changing station where a restroom is accessible to the public as follows:

(A)  If only gender-specific restrooms are available, at least one changing

table in each restroom;

(B)  If a non-gendered single-stall restroom is available, at least one

changing table in that restroom, and public entities are encouraged to also provide changing tables in each of the single-stall gender-specific restrooms;

(C)  If a non-gendered multi-stall restroom is available, at least one changing

table in that restroom, and public entities are encouraged to also provide changing tables in each of the gender-specific restrooms; or

(D)  An easily accessible location with equivalent privacy and amenities as a

restroom; and

(V)  Ensure that each baby diaper changing station is maintained, repaired,

and replaced as necessary to ensure safety and ease of use and cleaned with the same frequency as the restroom in which it is located or restrooms on the same floor or in the same space if the changing table is located in a restroom;

(b)  A newly constructed building on each floor must:


(I)  Provide a non-gendered single-stall restroom or a non-gendered multi-stall restroom on each floor where a restroom is accessible to the public;


(II)  Ensure that any single-stall restroom is not a gender-specific restroom;


(III)  Allow for the use of a multi-stall restroom by any gender if certain

facility features are met pursuant to the I.P.C. or any subsequent international plumbing code adopted as part of the Colorado plumbing code and the Colorado fuel gas code adopted by the state plumbing board pursuant to section 12-155-106;

(IV)  Provide any caregiver on the gender binary that is caring for an infant

access to at least one safe, sanitary, and convenient baby diaper changing station that is accessible to the public on each floor where there is a restroom accessible to the public and that includes:

(A)  If only gender-specific restrooms are available, at least one changing

table in each restroom;

(B)  If a non-gendered single-stall restroom is available, at least one

changing table in that restroom, and public entities are encouraged to also provide changing tables in each of the single-stall gender-specific restrooms;

(C)  If a non-gendered multi-stall restroom is available, at least one changing

table in that restroom, and public entities are encouraged to also provide changing tables in each of the gender-specific restrooms; or

(D)  An easily accessible location with equivalent privacy and amenities as a

restroom; and

(V)  Ensure that each baby diaper changing station is maintained, repaired,

and replaced as necessary to ensure safety and ease of use and cleaned with the same frequency as the restroom in which it is located or restrooms on the same floor or in the same space if the changing table is not located in a restroom.

(2)  On and after July 1, 2025, a building that is wholly or partially owned by a

public entity that:

(a)  Is accessible to employees or enrolled students and that is scheduled for

renovation of a restroom must:

(I)  Provide a non-gendered single-stall restroom or a non-gendered multi-stall restroom;


(II)  Ensure that any single-stall restroom is not a gender-specific restroom;

and

(III)  Allow for the use of a multi-stall restroom by any gender if certain

facility features are met pursuant to the I.P.C. or any subsequent international plumbing code adopted as part of the Colorado plumbing code and the Colorado fuel gas code adopted by the state plumbing board pursuant to section 12-155-106;

(b)  Is a newly constructed building on each floor must:


(I)  Provide a non-gendered single-stall restroom or a non-gendered multi-stall restroom;


(II)  Ensure that any single-stall restroom is not a gender-specific restroom;

and

(III)  Allow for the use of a multi-stall restroom by any gender if certain

facility features are met pursuant to the I.P.C. or any subsequent international plumbing code adopted as part of the Colorado plumbing code and the Colorado fuel gas code adopted by the state plumbing board pursuant to section 12-155-106.

(3)  Beginning July 1, 2024, but no later than July 1, 2026, subject to available

appropriations for public entities that are a state agency, a building that is wholly or partially owned or leased by a public entity must ensure that signage for the building or the portion of the building leased or owned complies with the following signage requirements:

(a)  Any restroom with a baby diaper changing station must have signage with

a pictogram void of gender that indicates the presence of the baby diaper changing station;

(b)  Any non-gendered multi-stall restroom or single-gendered or non-gendered single-stall restroom must have signage with a pictogram void of gender;


(c)  Each building that is accessible to the public must include signage at or

near the entrance to the building indicating the location of restrooms and baby diaper changing stations. If there is a central directory accessible to the public identifying the location of offices, restrooms, and other facilities in the buildings, that central directory must indicate with a pictogram void of gender the location of any baby diaper changing station and the location of any non-gendered multi-stall restroom or single-stall restroom.

(d)  All buildings accessible to the public with non-gendered multi-stall

restrooms or non-gendered single-stall restrooms must update signage, if necessary, to include a pictogram void of gender.

(4)  All restrooms subject to subsections (1) and (2) of this section shall

comply with the current ADA standards for accessible design set forth in 28 CFR 35, applicable to public entities and promulgated in accordance with the federal Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, 42 U.S.C. sec. 12101 et seq., as amended.

(5)  Subsections (1) and (2) of this section do not apply to the renovation of a

restroom or a newly constructed building project if:

(a)  A local building permitting entity or building inspector determines that

the installation of a baby diaper changing station in accordance with subsection (1)(d) of this section would result in a failure to comply with applicable building standards governing the right of access for individuals with disabilities. The permitting entity or building inspector may grant an exemption from the requirements of this section under those circumstances, if there is documentation demonstrating that no alternative design is possible that complies with the right of access for individuals with disabilities and a good faith attempt has been made to design a restroom in a manner that would accommodate individuals with disabilities and the installation of a baby diaper changing station in accordance with subsection (1)(d) of this section.

(b)  The project has already progressed through the design review process,

budgeting, and final approval by the governing body that has final approval over capital construction project expenditures as of August 7, 2023; or

(c)  The building is designated as a certified historic structure.


(6)  Any employee with a designated workplace that is in a building wholly or

partially owned by a public entity who claims to be aggrieved by a discriminatory or an unfair practice as defined by part 4 of article 34 of title 24, including failure to comply with this article 5.7, may individually or through their attorney-at-law make, sign, and file with the Colorado civil rights division, created in section 24-34-302, a verified written charge stating the name and address of the respondent alleged to have committed the discriminatory or unfair practice. The charge must set forth the particulars of the alleged discriminatory or unfair practice and contain any other information required by the Colorado civil rights division.

Source: L. 2023: Entire article added, (HB 23-1057), ch. 254, p. 1441, � 1,

effective August 7. L. 2025: (5)(b) amended, (SB 25-300), ch. 428, p. 2439, � 6, effective August 6.

9-5.7-104.  Restroom survey of state-owned buildings - priority of

modifications. (1) (a) The department of personnel shall complete a survey and provide it to the general assembly and the capital development committee determining the number and locations of signs that need to be replaced or modified pursuant to section 9-5.7-103 (3) for existing restrooms across all buildings wholly or partially owned by the state.

(b)  For a building that is wholly or partially owned or leased by the state or a

state agency, if signage is needed at either the restroom location or the directory, a public entity that is a state agency or a state institution of higher education shall provide information on the number and locations of signs that need to be modified and may request state funding subject to available appropriations in order to comply with section 9-5.7-103 (3) to the state architect.

(2)  The department of personnel shall provide an interim report to the

general assembly and the capital development committee by January 1, 2024, and a final report by July 1, 2024.

(3)  For purposes of complying with section 9-5.7-103 (3), the department of

personnel


C.R.S. § 9-7-113

9-7-113. Use of flammable gases in home marijuana cultivation - prohibited. A local government may ban the use of a compressed, flammable gas as a solvent in the extraction of THC or other cannabinoids in a residential setting.

Source: L. 2013: Entire section added, (SB 13-283), ch. 332, p. 1889, � 1,

effective May 28.

SPECIAL SAFETY PROVISIONS

ARTICLE 10

Ventilation of Garages and Shops

9-10-101 to 9-10-105. (Repealed)


Source: L. 96: Entire article repealed, p. 554, � 3, effective April 24.


Editor's note: This article was numbered as article 17 of chapter 13, C.R.S.
  1. For amendments to this article prior to its repeal in 1996, consult the Colorado statutory research explanatory note and the table itemizing the replacement volumes and supplements to the original volume of C.R.S. 1973 beginning on page vii in the front of this volume.

The law belongs to the people. Georgia v. Public.Resource.Org, 590 U.S. (2020)